#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 169 of 1
ah and then statement 4, is kindof what we wanted for 'simplifying the relations'
math is cool 
<A u B> = <A><B>
damn, think itd be nice to write out all the iso thms for free groups
Can someone explain me how to work out $\mathbb{Z}*_\mathbb{Z} \mathbb{Z}$
Tardis
I need the presentation
Amalgamated free product
I never understood Amalgamated free products
alg top and van kampen
probably best context to understand them
im like struggling to reget what this means purely within gt 
Lol I needed to work out the presentation of fundamental group of two mobius bands glued at their boundary, and van kampen says this is the fundamental group
I have no clue how to work out a presentation for this
u might have better luck in #point-set-topology
but someone in here should know anyways
grothendieckfan1 (Ryx)
This is the pushout diagram I got using van kampen
i mean in terms of the presentation
this thing will be
(G * H)/N
and u just gotta figure out what N is right
N will be your relations
And G * H is...
the disjoint union of the generating sets right
with the disjoint union of the relations
Won't the presentation of Z have only trivial relation?
Im stating all of the above without having clocked what N is here, yet 
But <S1 | R1> * <S2 | R2> = <S1 u S2 | R1 u R2> (those unions being disjoint)
right
So what you do, is you take the free product Z * Z, let's say <a,b> and quotient your relations ab^{-1} I think?
Since you want to identify the image of each z in Z (the top left one) under both identity maps
I guess that is the free product when they are disjoint, yes
then you figure out what the amalgamation is and stick those in your relations also
Why do I quotient out the relations by ab^{-1}
Wait
I think I agree
maybe its a bit clearer if we label the different Z's involved nvm
I recall this being a good read for myself to understand this https://unapologetic.wordpress.com/2007/03/03/amalgamated-free-products/
Yeah it's clearer when everything doesn't look the same
well as long as ur aware the top left is subgroup of the things its pointing to in most contexts
But essentially, to take the pushout of $g: A \to G$ and $h: A \to H$, you take first the free product $G * H$, and then you quotient by identifying $g(a) = h(a)$ for all $a \in A$. So your relations will be ${g(a) *h(a)^{-1} : a \in A}$.\
Now here, since $\mathbb{Z}$ is the free group on a single generator, $\mathbb{Z} * \mathbb{Z}$ is the free group on two generators $\langle a,b\rangle$. And when we consider maps from $\mathbb{Z}$, they are uniquely determined by what $1$ is sent to, so we only need to quotient by $g(1) *h(1)^{-1}$. Here, the top map is $h = id$, so $h(1) = a$ [one of the generators], and the left map is $g = id$, so $g(1) = b$ [the other generator]. Hence why we quotient by $ab^{-1}$.
hopefully I did not miss anything
what do your square brackets mean
[[]]
i find the latter better
. Anyways, I follow.
But maybe not 
grothendieckfan1 (Ryx)
In the diagram, we will consider inclusion from G to G*H, and same from H, right?
I think G*H is one of the things that can be pushed out?
For the bottom and right maps? Yes, it's g |--> g and h |--> h, regarded as single length words
or like whatever equivalence class they're in I guess
That doesn't commute unless you quotient by ab^{-1}
Left then bottom sends 1 to b, top then right sends 1 to a
Yeah, for the diagram to commute, I need a and b to be sent to same places
So this?
Well that's the pushout, but it doesn't only commute for the pushout (for example, it clearly commutes taking the bottom right group to be {0}). Just that this is the universal square for which it commutes
How do I show that this is universal?
Like how do I know the square won't commute for any other group H and any two other homomorphism j_1 and j_2 from Z to H at the bottom right when H is not isomorphic to <a,b|ab^-1>
Can I say that if it does, then I have the square commuting with two different groups at bottom left which are not isomorphic, so since the actual pushout must be unique upto isomorphims, it cannot be isomorphic to both H and this group, hence violating the universal property of pushouts?
Also, does the existence of one group (and associated homomorphism) with which the square commutes show the existence of a pushout?
Okay, I think here I can say this as Van Kampen theorem proves that the diagram we got is a pushout diagram, so if we got the diagram to commute with another group, that must be isomorphic to the fundamental group required.
Am I right?
I think you're a bit confused on what a pushout is. It's not the pair j_1, j_2 homomorphsims to H at bottom right for which the square commutes, it's a pair j_1,j_2 which satisfies that universal property.
Also, you can have a pair j_1, j_2 which "fills out" a square with prescribed top/left maps, even if there is no pushout of that diagram. This cannot happen in categories like Grp, since Grp has all (small) colimits, but it can happen in other categories
Commuting of the square is fine ig. But how do I know that the universal property will hold if the square commutes for some H at the bottom right? Like if the square commutes for some other H' with associated homomorphisms j_1, j_2, how do I know that there is a homomorphism from H to H' (and when do I have one)?
Like I say a diagram is a pushout diagram when it commutes and the universal property holds, right?
Show that there is always a unique one that fits in the diagram
The pushout of a morphism along the identity is itself, so the pushout here is Z. But I think you may have set of the up the wrong maps.
that is a very good point that I forgor about
The inclusion of the boundary into a Mobius strip is multiplication by 2 on fundamental groups
What I did was I took M_1 and M_2 to be the mobius bands and intersection to be S_1. All the fundamental groups are Z. But yes! The induced homomorphism is not identity, right?
Yeah, it should be multiplication by 2 I think
So it's a going to a^2 and b going to b^2, hence we need to quotient by a^2=b^2, right?
Yeah
Okay, now I need to see why this is true. Gimme a minute
Anyways, to finish this, if you want to show that this process generally describes the pushout, then for any other commutative square with B <-- A --> C on the top left (let's say the bottom right is D),
- You need to construct a map from the bottom right B *_A C --> D. The fact that you have a commutative square should imply that there is a canonical choice for what you map an equivalence class to (or in other words, commutativity means it interacts well with your relations)
- You need to show that it is the only square which fits in the diagram. This should just be that imB U imC generates B *_A C I guess
grothendieckfan1 (Ryx)
This being the diagram
Hmm, I understand a bit now
Would I have needed some nice exposure to commutative algebra before venturing on to algebraic Topology?
No
As you can see, not good at algebra, hence I am understandably struggling with alg topo.
What do you think the adequate course for an undergrad course in alg topo should be?
You may want to ask in #point-set-topology , but something like homotopy groups, singular homology, CW complexes would make sense
Ah, right
Anyways, thanks everyone for helping a lot and sticking with me for a long time!
I don't think you'll see much commutative algebra in AT, it's mostly homological algebra
I am always happy to procrastinate doing my own work
how can i argue by orders that S4 / H is isomorphic to S3, where H is the normal subgroup containing the disjoint two cycles
hey guys
I was watching those harvard lectures and it introduced smth called an automorphism
which the prof said is the same as bijection
I am kind of confused
Automorphism = isomorphism from a group to itself. So for example, the map n |--> -n is an automorphism of (Z, +)
okay let's re-trace our steps a bit
what is informally a "insert prefix"morphism
I am at the point where I have seen examples of groups, subgroups (of S_n and GL_n(R)) and things like that
and I know what an order of an element of the group is
[prefix] is usually an adjective describing the type of morphism it is
Automorphism is an isomorphism from an object to itself
do you know what a homomorphism is...
“Auto-“ meaning self
uwu
um vaguely
we haven't gotten to that point yet
🤨
just 2 lectures in
Ok then automorphism is irrelevant to you for now
well, theres no point considering anything else before knowing what a homomorphism is
gg
and no, its not something hard, but you need to know the formal definition
one of the pins here explains the idea... interestingly
Do you agree that S3 is the only nonabelian group of order 6?
i know i should argue that there are no events of order 6 so it must be isomorphic to S3
yeah the other one is cyclic
ryx, can i ask you a question, it's not related to this really
Uhh sure
what are the exact prereq's for hartshorne
lmao
say artin alg/munkres top/atiyah macdonald?
willingness to suffer
i have not started reading it But what I will say is that I took a look at it this summer and thought "damn I don't know enough comm alg"
i have that in spades
a lot of comm alg
But from what I hear, Atiyah-Macdonald should be enough? And then just review stuff you don't know as it comes up?
Exactly. So you want to show 1) that S4 / H has order 6, and 2) that it's not cyclic, or it's not abelian. So for 1), that just amounts to showing that H has order 4, and for 2) uhh trial and error?
i’m looking to get into algebraic geometry, and i haven’t found the explicit prerequisites, i read somewhere that differential geometry was required but i’m not sure ab that
and i saw you talking about it yesterday
i have two of the cosets, is it enough to just take two elements out of each and show those don’t give anything in either one of the cosets
Yeah that's next on my reading list; some combination of AG books but I think I'll try Hartshorne first
Well you'd want to pick two elements from distinct cosets, say a and b, and check that ab and ba belong to different cosets
Since that would mean multiplication S4/H is not commutative
that’s kinda what i was thinking. i’ve shown that like (124)(24 = (14) and (24)(124) = (12) and (14) and (12) are not in either of the two cosets i have computed
so that would be sufficient? or would i need to do all the other pair wise stuff
Differential geometry motivates a lot of stuff in algebraic geometry, but I don't think you really need anything from it.
AG uses a lot of commutative algebra and homological algebra, but I'm not sure you really need to know it before hand, as you can pick up stuff as you go. You probably want to know the basics of rings and modules though.
Could also ask in #algebraic-geometry
If those are in distinct cosets, that says S4/H is noncommutative
That’s a big problem with being cyclic
oh hartshorne
I only know him for his axiomatic geometry 

isn’t this sufficient
since the two groups of order 6 are either abelian or not abelian
If you already know there’s only 2 order 6 groups yep
gotcha thanks
It might not feel like enough but it is
More generally, you only really need that S_3 is the only nonabelian group of order 6
yeah i figured i’d need to do the whole cosets multiplication
yeah we know there are only two groups of order 6
and that one is Z/6Z and the other is S3
So gg
What is the coolest proof that that is the case lol
I remember trying to learn funne proofs for smol groups
Well fundamental theorem of finitely generate abelian groups gives you that Z/6 is the only abelian group of that order (but is like taking a sledgehammer to the problem)
Uhh something something playing around with order of generators? Not very cool tho
he recommended an order argument for this but i thought it would be easier to show abelian vs no abelian
You need the order argument to also know that the quotient has order 6.
well we have been given an H
Not a very cool proof, but: if G has order 6, then by sylow theory it has Z/3 as a normal subgroup and Z/2 as a subgroup. Since Z/2 can't intersect Z/3, G is a semidirect product of Z/3 and Z/2.
So the number of such groups is the number of homomorphisms Z/2 -> Aut(Z/3)
Cool
Hm, I was wondering - let V be a module over a commutative ring R, S an R-algebra and q: V -> R a quadratic form. Does q always extend to a quadratic form on M (x)_R S sensibly? If, say, R and S are fields of characteristic not 2, then this follows easily by working with the associated bilinear form instead
One would have to define it by like s (x) v |-> s^2 q(v) but you can't extend by linearity because it isn't linear lol
could anyone explain what this question means?
@chilly ocean it says if you have {v1,…,vk} linearly independent you can find w_j so that {v_1,…,v_k,w_k+1,…,w_n} is linearly independent
Yes
how should I start this problem? I feel like I still don't fully understand what I'm supposed to do
I guess more specificall
I don't understand how these proceeding questions are in the same context
Hints:
- omitted
- consider S^-1 preserves direct sum
- S^-1R otimes M is isomorphic to S^-1M
Can’t see 4
this one
S^-1R is a field where S=R-{0}
So M is this module generated by k linear independent elements, consider S^-1M ( a vector space of dimension k)
S^-1M contained in S^-1N thing
What is N?
That’s what you need to find out
S^-1N=F^n where F=S^-1R
Hint:
S^-1M is isomorphic to F^k= direct sum of Fei for 1<=i<=k, which is contained in F^n=direct sum of Fei for 1<=i<=n (for some e_j: k+1<=j<=n)
||there exists xi from M si from S such that xi/si=ei||
Take ||N=ΣRxi|| and prove those ||xi|| are linear independent
sorry some of those notation is confusing me
My bad, just R^n
What is the direct sum of Fei
Look M is a submodule of N=R^n right
yea
So S^-1M is a dimension k subspace of S^-1N=F^n
can you explain why?
So a basis { e_1 , … , e_k } of S^-1M can be expanded to a basis { e_1 , … e_n } of S^-1N
can you explain why this statement is true?
? M->N injective
Taking S^-1 is exact, (or in other words, S^-1R is flat)
S^-1M -> S^-1N is still injective
This property you can leave to someday in the future. Which is
Short exact sequence of modules 0->M’->M->M”->0 over a commutative ring R, S is a multiplication closed subset of R, then 0->S^-1M’->S^-1M->S^-1M”->0 is still exact
This property must be contained in your textbook, you can skip this step and find proof of it in your textbook later
ah I think that's on our next weeks homework actually
Okay so for now it’s just S^-1M -> S^-1N being injective we need here
So this
right
wait this is still just confusing me, what does S^N mean?
Sorry typo, S^-1N
oooh
ok that makes more sense haha
ok so you want to show that the basis can be expanded to the bigger basis
Yes.
M=Σ R x_i for linear independent elements x_i
e_i = x_i /1 form a basis of S^-1M, which can be extended to a basis { e_1 , … , e_n } of S^-1N
||You can find some x_j / s = e_j for x_j in N, s in S, k+1<=j<=n||
I think you can see now
how x_i 1<=i<=k is extended to R-linear independent elements ||x_i 1<=i<=n||
Jagr is the best person here constructing counterexamples. If you ask him he will provide you a counterexample for when R is not integral faster
ugh, I'm still kinda confused about this construction
I've been trying to wrap my head around it
so
M and N are both submodules right of R right?
No M is a submodule of N, and N is R^n as a R module
ah ok
so M can be formed by a basis of (e_1,..., e_k) and you can use that to form a basis of S^{-1}M
No
R-linear independent elements x_i
M=ΣR x_i then
e_i = x_i /1 in S^-1M for a basis of S^-1M
ok bare with me if I'm just saying stupid stuff, I'm still working through the definitions. Would M be considered the span of these x_i then? what is the R used for here
Span…
I deleted the counterexample part when R is not integral, I need to think more about it
e_i form a basis of S^-1M
how do I get better at algebra, I feel like none of it makes sense to me
Which can be extended to a basis e_1 … e_n of S^-1N
somehow managed to get an A in algebra 1 but now I'm dying in algebra 2
For some e_j k+1<=j<=n in S^-1N
i personally did commutative algebra with algebraic geometry visualizations and intuition
did that help in understanding it?
I feel like I just don't have a good grasp on algebra in general rn
I don’t think anyone can walk in that higher path
like algebra 1 I was able to just fraud myself through by memorizing definitions, but now I feel like I need to apply a lot of those definitions and I just can't
it is not easy if you don't know any AG
maybe it was just a bad algebra 1 professor
Always focus on yourself
yea
Improve oneself , find no excuse
that's true
ok so
You can find some x_j / s = e_j for x_j in N, s in S, k+1<=j<=n
lemme think about this
sorry, I don't see why this matters? Isn't e_j already just being used as basis elements for S^-1N? What does x_j/s have to do with this?
by definition e_j = x_j / s_j since e_j are elements of S^-1N
I took common s
So there exist some new x_j in N such that x_j /s= e_j
ah
I see
ok, can you kinda sketch out the proof outline? I feel like I understand these smaller steps but now I don't really understand how they apply to the bigger picture
like just a big picture kinda thing I guess
like I don't get how this extensino so S^-1M and S^-1N apply to what we're doing directly
That is not a math question I think
Like how and why we do or don’t do something
A proof is valid if it’s logically true, irrelevant with what we think or feel
no I get that
I don't get how what you're trying to do proves what the question is asking for
is what I'm tryign to say
I see
Prove x_i for 1<=i<=n is linear independent
Original x_i 1<=i<=k along with new x_j in N for k+1<=j<=n
(Remember e_i = x_i /1 , e_j = x_j /s form a basis of F^n)
ahhhh, none of it is connecting haha
?
so x_i \in M?
Yes
e_i is a basis for S^-1M?
Yes 1<=i<=k
It’s not rigorous to say that, but okay if you like
kinda just tyring to intuitively understand the idea of the proof
so N = R^n, and it has a basis of e_i from 1 to n
I use i for index between 1 and k
j for index between k+1 and n
and S^-1N has basis of x_j/s
where s is the commond denominator? So why can't we again say that e_j = x_j/1?
we don’t know that
but how do we know that for S^-1M?
Let us go through it again:
ok
Along with this agreement
right
linear independent elements x_i in R^n
Let M=ΣR x_i, which is a submodule of N=R^n
Let e_i = x_i /1 in S^-1M
They form a basis of S^-1M
S^-1M is a subspace of S^-1N=F^n where F=S^-1R
So there exist … e_j … such that e_i extend to a basis
… e_i … … e_j … of S^-1N
e_j = x_j /s for some x_j in N, s in S
Now … e_i = x_i /1 … … e_j = x_j /s form a basis of S^-1N=F^n
Prove … x_i … … x_j … are R-linear independent
(Σ r_i x_i + Σ r_j x_j =0 in N
Σ r_i /s x_i /1 + Σ r_j /1 x_j /s =0 in S^-1N
r_i /s =0/1= r_j /1 in S^-1R, use the fact that R is integral and s is non-zero)
Pancaker
Yes
Why are we trying to show this?
Σ r_i x_i + Σ r_j x_j =0 in N
I thought we were trying to show linear independence?
or is this for contradiction?
or are we showing that this is only true trivially?
when r_i and r_j = 0?
Yes
This gives you r_i =0 , r_j =0
Σ r_i x_i + Σ r_j x_j =0 in N
Shoudl these be e_i and e_j? I don't get how you turn \sum r_ix_i into \sum r_i/s x_i/1
ah fair
Given groups G and H it is not always true that the sequence 0->G->X->H->0 always splits. I'm interested in how bad can this be, ie, how many groups X could satisfy 0->G->X->H->0 ?
Well this is fairly hard to work out in general, but there is a very very nice characterisation of these things in the case of Abelian groups (and modules more generally). The answer is: pretty much as many as you like, but you have to think carefully about when two extensions are isomorphic as mere groups, not extensions
The way to measure the number of extensions is the Ext functor.
I don't believe the group extension problem has really been characterised in any nice way in the case of general groups.
Like Boytjie says, if G, X and H are all abelian then such extensions are classified by the Ext functor. But keep in mind that two extensions can be non-isomorphic even if the middle terms are isomorphic.
For example the extensions
3Z/9 -> Z/9 -> Z/3
And
3Z/9 -> Z/9 -2-> Z/3
Are different extensions, so if you're only interested in the middle term then the Ext functor will overcount a bit.
Other types of extensions that have a classification would be the semidirect products are classified by homomorphism H -> Aut(G) (up to isomorphisms)
And when G is abelian, central extensions are classified by group cohomology H^2(H; G).
In general finding group extensions is quite complicated.
thanks

Uhhhh show it’s divisible by 2 
Then apply one of the many results of a certain French analyst I think
That one theorem of Cauchy that says something like
p | |G| means you have an element of order p?
yeah
sharp what the fuck are you doing
OH
i see what we're trying to do
if 2 | |G| then we have an element of order 2
and the only way possible is if g^2=e
chat please chat
why would you do that
EULEREULEREULEREULER
but
bruh you dont need Cauchy's theorem, its overkill imo
or well, now you would have to prove Cauchy
we proved cauchy in class i think
:thecosmoshumswithatunemostsour:
hint: (n-1)^2 = n^2 - 2n + 1
ok but I was thinking of using CRT, so that it is enough to prove it for n a prime power, and now consider x^((p-1)/2)
hint: MINUS 1
ah yea indeed
The flames of Babylon
This has been an elite level troll
trolled
But also yeah please don’t go this route
oh hello again wew
Literally what’s (n-1)^2
I don't understand how this question single handedly assasinated the hippocampus of every chatter under the sun
oh i guess that says sour, not sweet
yeah it's the converse
Someone should give wew nitro just for the ascended emotes
Im not the dragonslayer for nothing fr
yeah, read the chat lol
anyway it exists because Z_{2^n}^\times \cong C_2 x C_{2^{n-2}} and Z_{p} \cong C_{p-1} for p odd so apply chinese remainder theorem nerds
because I find it amusing
:thesixthcircleofhellunleashed:
:theeyeofthestormbeckonstheawoken:
Is that one real
not yet
Welcome back, sorry this is the first thing u had to see
it's ok - it's like the one in a billion occasion where it's not ME making the catastrophic blunder
Here wew as a treat I have a representation question
:O
father in heaven. Hallowed be thy name. Thy kingdom come, thy shall be done on earth as you art in heaven.
Are u talking to Brauer or sth
he's not ur dad
probably
Smh “Thy will”
Hi @delicate orchid. How's health?
Hurry up Sharp I want to see some reps!!!!!!!!!
ok so, I’m tryna look at unitary dual of a locally compact group
tf is containment supposed to look like on the representation side
nvm bye
locally compact group
🚪 🚶♂️
SAME BABES
Because I only saw it as “1_G \subset pi” as like
ngl pretty fuckin shit but I'm not anemic and I ate 6 apples today
|pi(x) xi - xi| = 0 
Good!
It's likely to be that there is a rep isomorphic to 1_G in pi
If those are reps
not sure tbh. Usually people write chi_1 | chi_2 for chi_1 being a constituent of chi_2.
there's a thing with characters where the trivial is always a constituent of \phi\overline{\phi}
I hope you get well soon
I imagine the proof is exactly the same but just with integrals
Idk this was all done in terms of like, functions of positive type
I have no idea what this should look like in terms of those
ty. I put details in a spoiler in you know where about what actually happened if you care
what the fuck is a positive type
like we talking root systems here?
Uhhh
lemme check this - the proof might work for every class function?
I know it works for brauer characters too so
$x\mapsto\langle \pi(x) \xi,\xi\rangle$
Dragonslayer Sharp

no
anything of this form is of positive type
daybroken I'm passing the relay baton to u
But it’s not always positive no
what was the question
None of this was described in terms of modules
.
unitary dual?
Yeah, unitary irreps of your LC group
so the dual group
$1_G \subset \pi$ meaning something like, $\Vert \pi(x)\xi -\xi\Vert=0$ for all x, some xi
Dragonslayer Sharp
so pi(x)\xi=\xi
spell failed to cast
it's alright homeslice just chat yo shit irregardless of these nerds
Yes
as in pi contains the trivial representation
I have no idea how containment should look in this sense ye
Because everything here is done in terms of these things
Do I just want that sum on all of G to be 0 or like
But that’s for every xi, whereas 1 \subset pi seems a bit different?
so you want something that looks similar to this but gives actual honest containment?
Yep
sure
ok well
if pi is contained in rho
then every function positive type associated to pi is also a function of positive type associated to rho
I see
Yeah ok that’s not too bad
Dats it for my peabrain intrusion, wew can get back to witnessing the flames upon Babylon and the spheres
was Z^N={ functions from the naturals to the integers } free as a Z-module?
No
I asked this almost a year ago
It's relatively hard to show this, btw
but Im still intrigued by these questions
sigh.... time to go back to Rotman
pretty nifty that it's not free
Theorem 4.17 in Rotman's Homological Algebra
dayum its a theorem
lemme think
The reason it’s true is surprisingly tricky I guess
So look at the compactly supported functions inside of the regular functions
Footnote
idk why I vaguely remembered someone saying something about counting, but that must have been another thing
spoiler 😭
#feet-note
Ikr, it's sick
also is Nielsen-Screier a fuckin corollary
hurried googling ensues
Cor 4.15
Oh, ig so but that's the Corollary 4.15 that Rotman cites
Yea
But it's abeeeeeeeeeeeeelian
Corollary 11.4: The classification of finite simple groups
It's a consequence of some hereditary ring stuff
apparently
I don't remember this
So if it were free you could take a surjection \phi: Z^{\oplus S} \to Z^N and there is some smallest subset K in S such that Z^K maps onto the direct sum inside of your direct product. You can see that K will have to be countable. Then this means that the quotient Z^N/Z^{\oplus N} is the direct sum of a free group Z^{S - K} and a countable group. But now you can show that there is an uncountable amount of divisible elements in the quotient by constructing it explicitly
I think it's free because you have vectors (1,0,...),(0,1,....) so it is free 👍
Dear liberals: if Q^N is free, how come Z^N isn't? Curious.
upon the witnessing
ohhh wait a minute does this generalise nicely
replace "p" with a prime ideal perhaps ;3
this directly contradicts my religious views and as such I will ignore it
@coral spindle trolled by discord API
I'll call that a success
mmh I think if you refresh it fixes it
... browser user detected?
yeah
I mainly want to know if my idea works out or not
I have google opened almost all the time, so its a window less
but it's a tab more
window sucks more than tab
Let us all come together to mock the browser user for no good reason
like what is a nonfield ring R such that R^N is free
zero ring
browser user
interesting question
is there such a ring
I would like to try doing a similar argument to the one Rotman gave but it's too specific
Ig it works for PIDs
and presumably UFDs as well
hmm
Anyway my guess is that there exists such a ring, because the argument showing that they're always non-free seems hard 
Oh well actually now that I mention it, isn't R = Z^N an example?
Unital ring too

well if the ring is less nice then R^N must be less nice. This is rigorous it's called "model theory"
Z^K for infinite K contains Z^N which is nonfree, therefore its nonfree
no?
No
mmh how did that work
Z^N is free over Z^N!
And in general, as long as I haven't cocked up, if you choose any cardinal a then R = Z^a should be an example
Now is there a non-field for which R^a is free for any cardinal? Non skew field too ofc.
upon the witnessing
Ofc there are still details to consider
I dont see why R=Z^N works honestly
I'm suddenly not convinced yeah
wait so are we saying that Z^N^N works?
The module structure is fucky
Aaaaaaaaagh does IBN get us?
like I think your (heuristic) reasoning was (Z^N)^N=Z^N as sets, no? but as modules, (Z^N)^N over Z^N is infinite dimensional lmao
ah wait, Z^N-modules
Dimension? Wym dimension
maximal independent set
it has dimension because it is free :)
yeah I goofied with the term, but you get it
it's easy over domains, but this isn't a domain
I think in any case, invariant basis number fucks us over
That generalises to cardinals right?
So I would expect that no commutative ring would work.
called it
Z is inital... I won?
no
Might be a good question for mathoverflow, idk
Had a question. I proved in a hw problem that if $K$ is a group and $k^2=e$ for al $k\in K$, then $K$ is abelian. Wondering if anyone agrees with my logic on why I think I can invoke it on the problem: Let $G$ be a group and define $H={g\in G:g^2=e}\cup{e}\subseteq G$. Show $H$ is a subgroup of $G$. I know $H$ contains the identity and that every element of $H$ is it's on inverse. For closure, if $a,b\in H$, I think I can invoke that hw problem statement and say that $ab=ba$. That problem was for groups $K$. But I think we can use it here since $H$ has the identity, has inverses, and since it is a subset of $G$ the law of composition is associative. So $H$ is a group.
logician
No, you cannot use the homework problem, as part of the assumptions there state that K must be a group, but that is exactly what you need to prove.
@coral spindle Have you heard about slender groups?
Instead, you should use the same argument as you used in the proof of the problem. It will work
I've not heard of slender groups, no – what are they?
idk
slenderman group

what is this dog water
I'm saying H is a group itself I just need to show it's closed.
This definition is fucked up
Its late now, so Im not reading new definitions
I proved it has the identity and inverses and I'm given that the law of composition is associativ soo it seems like I can invoke the theorem as H=K
ah so that's why we care
Yes, and you cannot assume it is closed in order to show it's closed. That is circular logic.
like this doesn't seem at all right. Here Z_i=Z
hmm
The homework result as stated requires closure to be invoked, so it is not valid to use here. I am repeating myself.
I see what you mean. I forgot the implicit assumption about groups being closed in the first place.
Thanks
I'm stumbling on this but yeah, Hom does funny things with products
damn they're the wrong way around
Yeah they are the wrong way around
I don't know if there's a nice description of Hom(Prod_i X_i, Y)
But this is the right set of isomorphisms
It's nice, imo it makes sense like
is it a preserves limits/colimits thing (or sends colimits to limits)
hmmm
yeah this does make sense
is this from your notes? 👀
couldnt all zeros of p(x) map to it? (so how is it a isomorphism or are we assumign p(x) has just one zero?) i think i got it nvm since we only include the zero a in F(a)?
The author really wanted you to notice the text so they put it in bold and also they put it in italics and also they put it in a blue box
This is from my master's thesis

It was mostly a lit review
can i red it

I don't want to dox myself here yet
plus it's not really worth reading. Just read rotman tbh. My only major improvement was a handful of better proofs from elsewhere and nicer typesetting lol
u mfs will pull my masters thesis from my cold dead hands
what's the full name of this so called "r"otman
Muhammad Rotman
^ statistically correct
Ye
It's a pretty good book. There are some annoying typos early on.
I spotted another one today
we just need to get wew drunk again, then convince him that we just want a peek of his master's thesis
/j
and it's garbage!
Lol yeah that is an annoying feature, but most of those exercises are quite reasonable I assure you
I'm starting to think that this statement isn't true: If $G$ is a group and $H={g\in G:g^2=e}\cup{e}$, then $H$ is a subgroup of $G$. What I have so far for my proof is: Since $e\in H$, we must check closure and existence of inverses. Given $h\in H$, $hh=e$, so $h^{-1}=h\in H$. Now let $a,b\in H$. We must show $(ab)(ab)=e$. I can't figure out how to do that....
It's not a reference, it's an intro!
logician
are you even able to comprehend how incompetent i am
Wew you're awesome
my prof technically wrote this statement in words for H he wrote that H is the subset containing elements of G with order 2...yea my set notation is redundant
Then I suppose you should try working on a counterexample!
working on it lolll
I thought of one!!! pick me!!!
Hmmm can someone ELSE answer a question? You at the back?
simmer down in the back
I realize all I need to come up with is a set that isn't closed but is a subset of a group and contains inverses and the identity
and that set must contain elements with order 2 and e
hmmmm
@coral spindle we need words
It's an introoooooooooooo
this is an algebra book. do NOT give me a line integral on page 1 I WILL skip the entire chapter
He doesn't do any actual analytic stuff, it's just to exposit homology
Ugh just noticed a typo in my thesis
my thesis is nothing but typos
my entire field of study is held up by the fact I wrote \chi' instead of \chi 13 months ago
isnt sheafs and sheaf cohomology very close to anal?
he does talk about sheafs frequently and states the Riemann-Roch theorem, idk if he proves it
Idk man I don't know shit about sheaves
maybe in a few years I'll do character sheaves and Deligne–Lusztig stuff idk
I will probably read the sheaf parts, once I get the algebra part down, specially because of Riemann-Roch
I got it I'm thinking of D_3. And then the set of all elements of D_3 that has order 2 along with the identity isn't closed.
LMFAO
this made me laugh so hard thank u for that ahahahaha
Lol I am glad
because there was a high probability somebody would just say I should allow for other conventions and get annoyed at me
There's a joke paper in here somewhere I think
Yes, by me, to appear in AMS next month.
lol lemme add it to my cart real quick
this is TOTALLY unreasonable... I may cry...
No
Literally impossible
his exercis
Why are the integers not a complete ordered field.
This should be obvious but I was just thinking it’s complete and ordered
well, uh, they're not a field
They are complete though I suppose lol
Ordered too ig
complete ordered ring
Had a random conjecture....I know that Lagranges theorem guarantees that if G is a group with order n and if H is a subgroup of G, then |H| divides |G|.... I was wondering if the set {|H|:H is a subgroup of G}={m : m divides |G|, m>0}.
I know {|H|:H is a subgroup of G} is a subset of {m : m divides |G|, m>0} from Lagranges theorem, but wondering if {m : m divides |G|, m>0} is a subset of {|H|:H is a subgroup of G}
if not true in the general case wondering which groups specifically satisfy this
No, indeed A4 has no subgroup of order 6
You can find stuff on the converse to Lagrange's theorem like https://bearworks.missouristate.edu/cgi/viewcontent.cgi?article=4484&context=theses#:~:text=The converse to Lagrange's theorem is that for a finite,≤ G of order d.
ah okay thanks. Oh yea I suppose I was asking about the converse
central limit theorem group
Any Artinian ring works.
In fact this is true iff R is left perfect and every finitely generated right ideal is finitely presented.
So in general modules over perfect rings satisfies flat iff projective, and the right ideal condition is just ensure that product of flat modules is flat.
Also I guess you asked about free not just projective, but for a perfect ring a projective is determined by its top, and R^N / J = (R/J)^N (at least if R is artinian (?)) so R^N is free.
if you want to send it over I'll try working out a sed or awk command to fix it for you
Where can I find a reference of this?
Thank you☺️
(its thereom 3.3)
Oh I see.
Wait is finitely related and finitely presented the same thing there?
Yeah, I guess it's just an oldtimy word
They define it on page 459
This is part of a book?
I see, thank you
Part of a journal issue, I think
I see
isn't finitely related "exists epimorphism R^I -> M with f.g. kernel"
and then finitely presented is finitely generated and related
Maybe it usually means that, but not in the linked article
oh i see, weird
I see, indeed. Finitely related there is definition of finitely presented on wiki
I've never seen the term finitely related used outside this article anyway, so wouldn't know what it "usually" means
But yeah here it means finitely presented
can someone help with 2 and 3? I think I did 1 already
I've been struck by a fit of stupidity: if G is a group, X is a subset, and g is an element of G s.t. gXg^{-1}\subset X, why does it follow that gXg^{-1}=X?
do both directly
2 is already given for you out
and for 3 define a map to the direct product M* x N
and by universla property u get a map out of the tensor product
construct an inverse and ur done
gXg^-1 is the set of all elements of the form gxg^-1 for x in X correct?
this being a subset of X would imply that all elements of this form are elements of X
Why would that imply this, that's the entire question
It means that for every x there is a y with gxg'=y, my point is how does the statement with reversed quantifiers follow (for every y there is an x with gxg'=y). You're confusing what I'm asking with the equivalent definitions for normal subgroups (the fact that gNg'<=N for all g iff gNg'=N for all g).
Nope.
if X is closed then this is a subgroup
and ur done
right?
yea idk either
so maybe both of us got struck by a fit of stupidity
what context did u get this
Maybe.
I was trying to recall the definition of a normaliser of a subset and I couldn't remember if you have to require that gXg'<=X or gXg'=X. I thought the two conditions must be equivalent, but I don't see how to show the normaliser is closed under inversion in the first case.
huh
It's not true
Yeah, I figured.
yeah its because the normalizer is just the stabilizer of the conjugacy action
of a certain set
True, but for whatever reason I had the recollection that these conditions are equivalent. Probably same false logic as you had.
yea
everythings clear now should be
so we are not the stupidest after all
(optional)
If X is finite it's true
Sure. That's another reason why I had this false recollection.
If I have a group with presentation <a,b|a^2=b^2>, how do I find a subgroup of this which is isomorphic to Z×Z?
One place to start is that if you want x and y to commute, then you have to involve this relation a^2 = b^2 somehow.
So x and y should be such that a^2 or b^2 apears in xy somehow.
What would be the easiest way to make that happen?
Last letter of x and first letter of y being same (x and y being words)?
Like x being something like x=a^m b^n a and y being something like y=a^pb^q?
Something like that yeah
Even the simplest possible choice should work here
(i.e. ||x = ab, y = ba||)
Okay, so I can say that a subgroup generated by ||<ab,ba>|| is a subgroup that commutes?
Just because generators commute?
Okay, so when I consider this subgroup, I define the map f from Z×Z to this subgroup as ||(m,n)->(ab)^m(ba)^n||. This is clearly injective (because I can write every element of subgroup as ||(ab)^m(ba)^n for some m,n, ince it is commutative)||, and it is also clearly surjective. Then ||(m_1,n_1)+(m_2,n_2)->(ab)^m_1(ba)^n_1(ab)^m_2(ba)^n_2=(ab)^m_1+m_2(ba)^n_1+n_2=f(m_1+m_2,n_1,n_2)||, hence it is a homomorphism, thus f is an isomorphism
Would this be correct?
But ||(ab)^m(ba)^n|| is not a reduced word. Do I need to consider only reduced words?
The word “clearly” is very dangerous
abbaba = ba so (1,2) and (0,1) map to the same element no?
I would just show that <x, y> satisfies the same realtors as the ones in the presentation for ZxZ
Never mind I misread the realtors in the original group!
I think your thing works now
Trivial.
literally my whole exam last wednesday is full of "clearly" "obvious"
"it is clear"
lmfao
bro thinks he is him
I think it should work yeah, but whether it "clearly" works is another question
I didn’t understand the answer. I thought <ab, ba> is simply <ab> which is Z, not Z times Z…
Nvm I misread the relators in G too…
the phantom "=1" claims another victim
Anyone know how to show that for a polynomial with degree d>0 there exists an irreducible polynomial of at most degree d/2 that divides the polynomial?
Feel like this should be super easy but im not seeing how to prove it lol
I mean the polynomial could be irreducible
i think you can assume its not
So say f = gh, what can you say about the degree of g and h
it likely wants the polynomial reducible and to not consider constant polynomials when dividing
but cant degree g be d-1 and degree h = 1 ?
Exactly and 1 is less than d/2
but what about d-1?
What about it?
that could be greater than d/2 right?
Indeed it can
so is this a false statement?
No, the statement just said it was divisible by an irreducible of degree less than d/2
that seems too easy... my freind told me he had this question on a quiz this morning and didnt know how to do it. Maybe he told me the wrong thing
but also maybe its just not supposed to be that bad
I was interpereting the question as "all irreducible factors are less that degree d/2" for some reason
Sound like a reasonable question, like if you want to check if a polynomial is irreducible by brute force, you just have to check its not divisible by any polynomial of degree < d/2
So the statement is at least a little bit useful
But yeah, not that hard
ohh yea i see now that is pretty useful
i was looking at the direct product isomorphism theorem for groups and was looking at a specific step where it is sufficient that every element from one subgroup commutes with every element from the other. many authors assume normality of both of these subgroups among the hypotheses. i tried to find an equivalence between these two properties of the pair of subgroups but couldnt prove the reverse direction. is this true?
Consider
x = mnm^-n^-
If N is normal, then mnm^- is in N, so x is in N. If M is normal then nm^-n^- is in M, so x is in M. Hence if both are normal x is e, and so mn = nm
that is the direction i was able to prove
im just looking for a counterexample or a proof to the converse
Okay, but the other direction is trivial. If m and n commute, then nmn^- = m
im trying to get at N is normal in G, not in M
besides, we dont know N is contained in M
So g = mn and h is in N, then
ghg^- = mn h n^- m^- = n h n^-
G is generated by M and N
oh my god
i kept thinking you needed normality for that
thank you
i was signed up for a course in abstract algebra some two years ago, but instead of trying to learn the material i obsessively generated images on my computer that i don't even remember what is supposed to represent

this one is quite simple
this one less so
i have them tagged as Zm36 and Zm2520, whatever that means
cayley tables for the groups of units of the rings Z/36Z and Z/2520Z

Zm36 means "Z mod 36" clearly
i think, making these i just wanted to see some nice colours
as opposed to the current blue in my nick

yeah
I'll bully the mods to fix it
couldn't really find this anywhere by looking it up: are there any other compact fields than than finite fields with the discrete topology (or any field with the trivial top)?
cofinite topology ?
not sure if that ever gets you a topological field if thats necessary
yeah im looking for topological fields here
here u go
some progress
thanks a bunch
oh yeah i guess compact Hausdorff fields are in particular locally compact so theyve gotta be finite dimensional, so it's easy to home in onto finite fields
So I'm getting the idea of a map where it's like f(phi, y) maps to \phi(m)y, but I don't really get how to apply the universal property, and why the fact that it's finitely generated matters
the universal property of the tensor product would give you a map from the tensor product to the Hom
yeah this is showingf that the tensor product is isommoprphic to the Hom
not that the Hom is the tensor product
ty tropo
find a g and then u will get a homomoprhism u
find an inverse to that homomorphism and ur don
done*
to the homomorphism that I had in mind?
does the homomorphism that I suggested work?
try it out queen
is it a homomoprhism to the Hom
if so then yes
if not then no
maybe this is where f.g matters
ok, I think I'm getting tripped up about how to in general show something is isomorphic to homomorphisms.
So I'm mapping an element of M*xN to I'm not really sure what, because if I'm taking f(phi,y) to be phi(m)y does that uniquely define a homomorphism?
yea
so this doesnt really make much sense right?
Why exactly does that matter?
those are basically vector spaces
right, but I don't see how it relates to finding a map between the direct product and homomorphisms
in general they might be infiinte dimensional
unless R is artinian
but since they are f.g then ig that implies finite dimensional
and R is artinan anyways
so meh
how do i prove a polynomial is irreducible over a field, for example i want to show x^2 + 1 is irreducible over Z_11, should i show it cannot be factorized to non-units explicitly, or should i prove (x^2+1) is a maximal ideal of Z_11[x], or should i show that Z_11[x]/(x^2+1) is a field?
.
try to make more sense of this map
like
g: M* x N --> Hom(M,N)
g( (f,y) ) = what
phi(m)y is an element of N, how does that uniquely define a homomorphism? Can't there be multiple that result in that?
ig it would be better to say that
x --> y*f(x)
where y is fixed in N
this is in Hom(M,N) right?
where f is fixed too
f is in M*
the assignment that is
not y*f(x)
sorry, you're going to need to be even more specific. I don't get why that's in Hom(M,N)
y*f(x) is an element in N
right
yes
so now by varying over the y and
f
u get ur map to the Hom from the direct product
that is sending the pair (f,y) --> to that assignment
So for lower degrees over a field it's easier. Any degree one poly over a field is irreducible and (exercise!) A poly in F[x] of degree 2 or 3 is irreducible iff it has no roots in F.
do u get it @panckaer
I'm getting a bit confused about this
okay
its my bad im not being clear
okay
we want to find a bilinear map from the direct product to the Hom
right
so we get our first homomoprhism from the tensor product by the universal property
and then we want to find an inverse
or show that its a bijection whatever
right right, I'm with you on that
so with these things the thing that comes to mind first almost always work lmfao
so
f: M* x N --> Hom(M,N)
we want to define this
right?
yes






