#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 128 of 1
About the bar resolution?
fundamental group of the klein bottle is the semidirect product of Z and Z
yeah how's it related to the classifying space of a group
Sounds like topology
it is a little bit but I hope that's ok
well that and grouop theory kinda blend together
its still an abstract aklgebra

I mean, if you have a discrete group then you can construct a simplicial complex whose simplices are given by tuples of elements and show that it's contractible
yeah that's the one
Then G acts freely and whatever other adjectives you need so that the quotient is a K(G, 1)
right which is trivial as it's contractible?
Yeah, so the simplicial chain groups and boundary maps are precisely the bar resolution, providing a free ZG-resolution for Z
there we go that's the connection 
Yeah, in practice this is how you might construct various resolutions for your group. Find a contractible space X which G acts freely and (properly discontinuously?) on. The quotient is a K(G, 1) by covering space theory and the simplicial/cellular chain complex of the universal cover becomes a free ZG-module resolution of Z
Uwu
umu
ok new project: learn topology properly
man do I love myself some resolutions 🚬
step 1: wtf is an open set...
topology is too preccise, look into homotopy theory
if it is cringe then why is bobby fusions part III about fusion systems in topology exactly
where the disk is equal to the point
can't answer that one now can you
And there are variations of this theme. Cyclic groups act on the circle, which isn't quite contractible. But one can stitch these chain complexes together to get a ZG resolution of Z of infinite length. This explicitly demonstrates the 2-periodicity of the cohomology of cyclic groups
yeah that's the one where you put the triangles in the ladder backways
A_n -> B_n-1 type beat
?
I'm memeing about a homotopy of a chain complex
Uwu
One day I'll be able to climb that ladder diagram to reach olympus 🚬
I could contract it 💪 I'm not sure I see the stitching though
homotopy theory kinda is a simpler version oif topology
I think we should teach 1st year UGs sheaves so all their algebra intuition revolves around them and see how they fare in the real world
also I'm still confused when someone says cohomology without refering to an explicit cohomological functor - you mean simplex cohomology I presume
it focuses on more of the actually intrest8ing properties of topology
I'm just talking about homology of the chain complex, but I'll be more explicit about it
right yeah ok
no descrete topologies as well
clearly you can intuit from the context 
Lol
sorry my homological algebra is dog water
How is it simpler
have you heard of snake oil spectral sequences
I am a homological algebraist and I haven't showered in 5 day AMA
I can see it now I think - in the case where it's contractable the chain complex would just be 0 right
Homotopy theory isn't even just topological spaces
Homotopic to 0, yes
same thing 
its a subfield of topology
No it isn't
🤔
it's a subfield of MODEL THEORY
an equivalent condition is that the chain complex is exact
there are non 0 exact chain complexes
ohh
no no
up to homotopy
yes yes yes
maybe
this is like a Weibel problem
Like in an abelian category TFAE
A chain complex is exact
H_n(C) = 0 for all n
The chain complex is homotopic to the 0 complex
irregardless of the hijinks above, when it's non-contractible we get some mess - the mysterious K(n, G)s perhaps?
Whitehead
Oh no
Oh nono no no
and then these are nice for the circle so we can do the ol Z_n/C_n garbage
that name brings bad luck
Uh, I think this is false. ... -> Z/4 -> Z/4 -> Z/4 -> ... where each map is multiplication by 2 is exact but not null-homotopic
Sadte
that's smart, thanks
oh wait
I think it's split exact
ok lol
How one adjective can ruin ur career
Yeah I was thinking of these
"google how to avoid feelings of incompetence"
Yeah this has reminded me that I planned to git better at hom alg this month lol
so much to read so little time
Ok nvm the details of this are a little annoying to write out super explicitly but if you want a reference this is I.6 of Brown's book on group cohomology
or will power
Me when depression
too many distractions
Did you have a planned reading list?
It's just because you have to run through some details of checking the group acts trivially on homology and stuff, but if I actually bothered writing out the diagrams, you'd be able to see pretty clearly how to glue the resolutions together
I love global/tor dimensions!!!!
Well I was gonna review / relearn weibel 1-4 mostly I think
Main goal rn is cohomology of dglas and stuff
Potato wanna learn K theory together
I did k theory a lot last year oop
Fucc
OK looks like I'm alone
me and my K-book
Like I'm starting with this exact sequence arising from the action of C_n on the circle, but then I can just replace the first Z with another 0 -> Z -> ZG -> ZG and repeat indefinitely to get a free resolution
Well, wrote my bachelor thesis (equivalent) last year on it and stuff actually
algebraic or topological?
Though had to rush through some stuff rippies
Oh I meant topological
Did you mean alg
ye
Noice
I am going to read the K-book as someone mentioned that after I finish Weibel
OK maybe I will learn a bit but also busy w other tings 
Like weak global dimension? Or what is tor dimension?
ignore thing you need to do
Embrace the nerd snipe
ye
Maybe more topology and homotopy theory will crush me this summer
Lol what
I will literally finish when I'm like 70
I see
better than having nothing to read
Eh
I wanna finish Eisenbud, Hartshorne, Weibel hom alg, Weibel K theory, Neukirch alg NT, Washington cyclotmoic fields, McCleary spectral sequences book, Some more stuff on infty cats and uhhh I think there's something else but I forgor
Nothing to read means can touch grass
I went hiking yesterday that was my outside time for the month
Nice
The really cool construction in this vein is to start with a lie group L, get a maximal compact subgroup K, and then L/K will be diffeomorphic to R^d (and in particular contractible). Then if G is a discrete torsion-free subgroup of L, the quotient G\L/K is a K(G, 1).
reminder to self add Hall's lie algebra book to reading pile
ahhhh that quotient looks like a double coset lol
Rip yeah I should've said X = L/K and then done X/G
I will investigate these spooky K thingimabobs further
K being maximal compact subgroup or being shorthand for K(G, n) lol
like I know what K(G, 1) is
it's some space with \pi_n = 0 for all n > 1
but like... who CARES?? this is what we must find out
you've given me some good motivation already
in some way this space captures the properties of the group homotopically
which, is kinda obvious from the definition? but still cool
Yeah I mean I care because cohomology of K(G, 1) is group cohomology
right yeah cause you make your funny chain complex
Actually this is a really good point and kind of historical. Hurewicz was the first to work with these "aspherical spaces" (which is what he called spaces with \pi_n = 0 for n > 1). In particular, he showed that any two aspherical spaces are homotopy equivalent iff they have isomorphic fundamental groups. So in particular, a K(G, 1) is quite literally a homotopy-theoretic version of G and (co)homology of this space can be thought of as (co)homology of the group itself since these are homotopy-invariant properties of a space.
:iwon: chat I did a thing
yeah I completely believe that result
how can the loops be looped onto the loops if they loop differently
Ofc the modern viewpoint via derived functors and such is probably a cleaner presentation, but the thing we were talking about regarding construction the free ZG-resolution from the K(G, 1) essentially shows the equivalence between the two definitions of group homology
yeah but I don't understand Ext so that presentation suckssss
Valid
can someone recommend me a good resource to learn about lie theory stuff? I just want an overview and not go too indepth
like maybe a short 20-30 page exposition would be nice
It's longer than that
But Naive Lie Theory by Stillwell is pretty light
Very cute little book
nvm did it myself
and generation of extraspecial groups
although that last one is in GAP so maybe there's a better way to do this using that
the domain of a monomorphism is a subgroup of the codomain?
the codomain of an epimorphism is a quotient of the domain?
Not necessarily
Wait which category are we working over
groups
is this just up to iso as well
yes
Okay then yes this is true
first one is definitely true then
Second is non-trivial it seems
non-trivial in that I can't immediately see it at 1:30am
im seeing problems where a monomorphism seems to imply an epimorphism, as inverses of each other.
obviously true for abelian groups
wich i guess is fine if you restrict it to normal subgroups
im thinking more in terms of constructive homotopy theory.
so it's like a section?
whats a section
a right inverse to an epimorphism
sneezed TWICE while typing that
forbidden knowledge
is there always an inverse monomorphism to an epimorphism, and vice versa
because in homotopy type theory, a monomorphism is defined as a homomorphism with a left inverse homomorphism/
can somebody help me verify that U(V) is a subgroup of GL(V)? namely how to show closure
i kinda forgot my lin alg lol
set w = v, then <w, w> = 0 if and only if w = 0
so it's a subset! woo hooo
so i guess in homotopy type theory, a monomorphism only maps a normal subgroup
inverses, obvs
associativity, obvs
guess that can be usefull in group theory
closure, uhhh <XYw, XYv> = <Yw, Yv> = <w, v>? does that work?
Works for me
oh right i could just treat Tv as a vector duh
thanks wew
good man
wait i'm slow how are the inverses of unitary operators unitary
Apply ^-1 to the equation defining unitary
oh I forgot U could do that
how is it that a complex number is unitary iff its conjugate is equal to its inverse? if it's something using the properties of operators then i'll just go review my lin alg lmfao since i seemingly forgot all this shit
do you know the identification of Gl1(C) with C*?
yup i don't remember anything about operators on inner product spaces lol
yea it's just a 1 x 1 matrix right
namely just scalar multiplication
yes, now do you know what unitary means
well i wrote <zv, zw> = <v, w>
trying to see how that implies that the conjugate of z equals the inverse of z
ok, what is this inner product in C^1
well you wrote <v,w>, the inner product of two things in say C^n right
what is the definition of this
and what is it specifically in C^1
well it's just the euclidean inner product
oh wait
<x, y> where x = (x1, x2, .., xn) y = (y1, y2, ..., yn) is equal to x1conjugate times y1 + x2 conjugate + y2 and so on right
or the yjs are conjugate my bad
ah i got it
thanks
well i'm a bit confused because this only pertains to the case where V = F^n right
since it uses the definition of the euclidean inner product which is only defined on F^n
could someone please help me with understanding this proof? L is a lattice, or rank 2 Z-module, additive subgroup of C with R-basis. the context is that p is a prime, L'' is a sublattice of L with index p^{n+1}. the problem is to count the number of sublattices L' of L that contain L'', such that [L':L''] = p^n and [L:L'] = p. this quantity is what they are calling 'a' in this excerpt. the argument says there can only be one such lattice, but i dont understand the last part when it says L' is completely determined by L''. why is this claim true, just because of the conclusion that the images of L' and L'' in L/pL are the same subgroup ? how can a condition about the image of a lattice in L/pL translate to a condition about the actual lattice ?
I'm still not sure I understand why the codomain is the codomain in $\psi: G \to GL_n(\mathbb{C})$; so I understand that since $\varphi: G \to GL(V)$, $V \simeq \mathbb{C}^n$ then $\varphi$ is essentially a representation $G \to GL_n(\mathbb{C})$ - but if $\psi_g(v) = T\varphi_gT^{-1}(v)$, how is it that $T\varphi_gT^{-1} \in GL_n(\mathbb{C})$? Do we just view the vector space isomorphism $T$ and $T^{-1}$ as a matrix?
okeyokay (analysis is MID)
But at the same time $T$ was defined to be from $V \to \mathbb{C}^n$...
okeyokay (analysis is MID)
I'm so fucking confused lmfao
that is why you pick a basis, no?
hence you can talk about T in matrix form
yea true but I’m confused about why that’s the case if T is explicitly defined to be from V to C^n
Do we just view it under isomorphism or smt
If that’s even a phrase
ohh i think i see
oh so that it's able to be interpreted in matrix form yea that makes sense
and T was defined from V to C^n just to give phi: G --> Gln(C)
so the composition is in GLn(C)
The codomain of a surjective homomorphism is a quotient. So the missing step is showing that epimorphisms are surjective. That is true, but nontrivial. Compare with for example the category of rings, where this is not the case.
Since L' contains pL, we have that L' is the primage of its image in L/pL. And it's image is determined by L''.
oh, yes, the preimage makes it clear.
thank you again, i am done with that proof now
is there a short proof of why
an element in Q cannot be written as a linear combination of Z
elements?
ig its obvious :d
As in, Z linear combination?
This is a vague question as is
Or do you mean showing that Q can't be a f.g. Z-module or smth
wait now i'm confused
you say yes when i asked for two options and then meniton projective Z-modules
😭
Z is a PID
so Q would be free
given its projective
so im asking
if it can be
if it can have a basis
But Q isn't a projective Z-module
Having a Z-basis is different from that but sure
yea maybe i worded incorrectly
Well having no Z-basis is easier actually like
as soon as you take two elements a/b and c/d they are Z-linearly dependent
by clearing denominators
and so any basis would have <= 1 elements
If you don't feel comfortable assuming that projective <=> free for Z-modules, there is such a thing as a projective basis whose presence is equivalent to projectivity. It's not too hard, iirc, to show that Q has no such thing.
I guess one way of showing that Q is not projective is to consider a projective precover Z^(Q) -> Q. If Q was projective this would split, so there would be an injective map Q -> Z^(Q). But all such maps are 0, hence not possible.
is are cosections equal to epimorphisms?
In topology.
Well honotopy theory
Up to homotopy.
Every cosection is an epimorphism, but not every epimorphism is a cosection.
I have no idea why you're asking this in #groups-rings-fields
The folks in #point-set-topology are certain to know considerably more.
In a triangulated category every epimorphism splits. So if "up to homotopy" means something like "in the stable homotopy category of spectra" or some other triangulated category, then yes.
So epimorphisms are cosections.
I'm looking into linear homotopy theory wich would imply they are diferent.
I'm currently reading a discrete math book. Can I start abstract algebra right after. And then possibly group theory?
I mean, group theory is part of abstract algebra and often where you'd start
You don't really need discrete math for abstract algebra
Though I guess previous knowledge of modular arithmetic can help
True but some discrete math courses also introduce proofs and set theory simultaneously. If you already know it you can just do group theory tbh
thank you for the other altenartives 😄
They're usually different, but in a triangulated category they are the same.
the dual morphism makes sense as you are exchanging weakening for coweakening of wich has the same order.
And contraction and cocontraction.
categorical product describes the additive product.
2 projections.
The dual object of a morphism I don't know how to understand.
it's something like a product in type theory tho.
I am once again asking why you're talking to yourself in #groups-rings-fields
Where should this be
In your own head???
But anyway, it sounds like you're talking about category theory, so perhaps #category-theory
No
Who’s deez
I am perplexed by your group theory takes lol
Can anyone point me to the nearest lake
Why?
Idk I just can't tell what you're actually doing lol
Anyway, today I will review root space decomposition and then try to work through sp_4(C)
I'll reach algebraic group eventually
Does the Lie algebra rep theory interact with the algebraic group rep theory in a nice way?
Honestly not in any way that I know
I mean, I care mainly about characterstic p so I couldn't really say
but I guess the adjoint action makes the structure of the lie algebra vaguely relevant
Yeah sorry I'm trying to think and I just don't know
I'm trying to remember chevalley's classification of reps but brain smol
Oh, that's interesting. Then I guess I have no idea what techniques are used for char p stuff. My very vague understanding is that rep theory of algebraic groups over C is relatively similar to the Lie group stuff
But I figure I ought to learn more alg geo and scheme theory stuff before doing algebraic groups anyway
"an integral domain is integrally closed if and only if it is the intersection of all valuation rings containing it"
why would one come to think this? what's the intuition?
@coral spindle nuts
Good to know
the isomorphism from Hom(Z_n,A) to A[m] = {a | am = 0 } is given by the usual one right? f --> f(identity)
having inverse a --> f_a =ax for x in Z_n
correct?
That's right, but I imagine you meant to write either Z/m or A[n] because otherwise n and m have nothing to do with each other ofc
yes
ur right
ty
now i wan to show that Hom(Z_n,Z_m) is Z_(n,m)
now i see that i can use what i just said above both
like with each side
is this correct
like i get some ring that is annihilated by n and also m
yup
so it just follows immedaitely thats what i wanted to make sure of
immediately*
well I mean you do need to argue why that ring is Z/(n,m)Z
Sorry, *Z-module rather
and I don't think that's really been done yet
it seems too obvious that idk how to do it
cant i just send a --> a mod (n,m)
and this just should work
?
"an integral domain is integrally closed if and only if it is the intersection of all valuation rings containing it"
why would one come to think this? what's the intuition?
I don't know if that statement makes sense, how do you take the intersection of different valuation rings?
like for instance let's take the integers Z, then I can believe there's an injective map into every valuation ring of p-adic integers, sure
then for every prime p=1 mod 4 you'll have two elements in each Z_p that are roots to x^2+1, so I would maybe dubiously try to say that some of these are the "same" or something...? I don't really see a way to directly compare elements here
At best we could compare the algebraic elements by identifying them in the algebraic closure
I assume that's what's going on
As is so often the case, context is being omitted.
yeah that sounds reasonable
Presumably it just means the valuation rings thar are subrings of the field of fractions. And I guess the intuition is that valuation rings are integrally closed and intersections of integrally closed rings is integrally closed, so it should at least contain the closure
It's a theorem from Atiyah-Macdonald, and I'm trying to get a feel for it because I understand the mechanics of the proof but not the big picture
jagr2808 right, this is AM's definition. Thanks for the suggestion, i'll think about it
so Burnside's Lemma gives a quick check as to if some groups are solvable
are there any similarly nice little checks that a group action is primitive?
hm any nice resources for looking at totally derived (or hyperderived?) functors? I mean stuff like \mathbb RHom where we induce functors between derived categories
I can't seem to find too much but probably looking at the wrong place lol
Methods in homie alg by Gelfand and Manin defines those but if you want the model categorical treatment then you can find it in any book that talks about model cats
Categorical homotopy theory by Riehl also has some conceptual explanation of where the definition comes from if you are goodly comfortable with cat theory in which case I recommend it
Okay cool thank you!
Yeah I realised G&M is probs a good idea lol i think when I first looked at it, it was a bit too homotopical for what I was doing but now it seems perfect xd
bump
what does type mean here
I don't thing "type" is supposed to be a technical term there.
yea i guess
but i just dont understand what he means
all elements of this form? or what
It would be more conventional to say "of the following forms".
can more than one element have the same form like this?
can i say " elements that CAN be expressed of like this for elements x1,x2..?
"
Yes.
More formally you could say you're looking for the union of
{ (x+x', y) - (x,y) - (x',y) | x, x' in M, y in N }
and
{ (x, y+y') - (x,y) - (x,y') | x in M, y, y' in N)
etc
Maybe not exactly what you're asking, but introduction to Lie algebras by Erdmann and Wildon gives a simple introduction to lie algebras including representation theory and classification through root systems.
yes thats so much better
and then now D would be the module of all sums r_i * d_i where r_i is in the ring and d_i is in one of those sets
is that correct>
Yes.
ty
im sorry but by image does he mean like the projection image?
like the actual coset?
Yes.
looks like a great book but it's a bit too long compared to what I'm looking for
cool
for a bit of context: I have an exam in two weeks on an overview of newton okounkov bodies. one of the applications is its correspondence with bases in the classification of finitely dimensional irreducible complex sl_n+1 reps. so I'm looking for some short expository text that gives me a broad overview of lie algebras, so that I know more than 0 about them in the exam
well if you want to understand, it will take time and effort either way. There was a guy on youtube that did a sort of course for physicist but it is in french so... well
my written french is ok, understanding... well not so
Premier volet d'une trilogie centrée principalement sur la théorie de Lie, mais au cours de laquelle on pourra voir tout un tas de choses en algèbre, en géométrie, en combinatoire et en physique. Le plan général pour cette trilogie est :
- Épisode I : Des racines et des poids ( https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=AZcQRDCJgxk )
- Épisode II : La sy...
There are a lot of resources that just cover rep theory of sl(2, C) and some adjacent stuff which could be helpful (e.g. https://math.uchicago.edu/~may/REU2012/REUPapers/Seitz-McLeese.pdf). I don't really know of brief resources that give an overview of Lie theory as a whole but if you happen to find any, I'd like to see it too
why is his mouse writing so nice
well its more a pen
but you can activate the subtitles
it gives a good overview, but you will need to understand the proofs after that
this looks nice
I haven't actually read it myself so idk if it is lol, but just googling "rep theory of sl(2, C)" should give similar things
If $G$ is a set and $\cdot$ is a binary operation such that:
\begin{itemize}
\item $\cdot$ is associative
\item $\exists 1 \in G$ (not necessarily unique) such that $\forall a \in G ~ 1 * a = a$
\item $\forall a \in G$ there exists a $b \in G$ (not necessarily unique) such that $a * b = b * a = 1$
\end{itemize}
Basically $G$ is a group less the existence of a two-sided identity (only on one side). Are inverses still unique here? The proof for groups I could produce requires a two-sided identity, but I am wondering if maybe there is another way to prove it without it.
mrean
Such an identity is necessarily two-sided since a * 1 = a * (b * a) = (a * b) * a = 1 * a = a
oh nice
so it's just a group
now if we said that the identity was two-sided but that only one-sided (suppose left) inverses are guaranteed to exist, could the same left inverse serve as a right inverse? (hence a group again)
I don't think so
I'm just trying to see how much you can fuck with the group axioms
because I've heard that in most texts they're redundant (like the one-sided inverse thing above) just so the presentation isn't annoying
yo i dont understand the construction of M_0? why didnt he just take the submodule generated by all x_is in the first coordinate and y_is in the second? then (x_i,y_i) would be in M_0 tensor N_0
is that what he did?
ops this is taken
what would N_0 be
do you mean like you could suppose M_0 is generated by the {x_i (x) y_j }?
N_0 would be generated by all the y_is
that are also in D
so it goes to 0 when tensoring
is that what he did?
i dont like the notation of tensor products at all i think the cosets one is much better :d
That doesn't quite make sense
Wait no it does
But you wouldn't be guaranteed that it vanishes in that submodule
yea cuz thats what i want
Because an element vanishing in the tensor product is witnessed by some other elements
Suppose a is a left inverse to b so a * b = 1 and b is a left inverse to c so b * c = 1. We want to show c * b = 1. But
c * b = (a * b) * (c * b) = a * (b * c) * b = a * b = 1
is the theorem statement not visible?
He's saying that if xi otimes yi = 0, then (xi,yi) must be in D, and therefore there is a finite combination of the, hmm, original D-elements, that yields (xi,yi).
its 2.13
that yields (xi,xi)? whats that
I'm saying that you need extra elements to guarantee they vanish in the tensor product
Sorry, I meant (xi,yi).
I can give you an example of what I mean i guess
yes please
examples is all i need rn
i am so lost in this
hardest math topic byfar
so if an element has a left and right inverse, then they are both equal
but in my proposed structure, where only left-inverses are guaranteed to exist, there very well could be no right-inverse for some element, right?
okay now whats M__0? all elements of the form sum(r_i,x_i) r_i is in the ring? like the submodule generated by x_I?
Doesn't my argument show that a left inverse also acts as a right inverse
or no, generated by x_is that appear in the first cordinate of the elements of D
Wait lmao
Exactly.
elements of D meaning elements of D after being like written in the form of the genertors
generators*
So is the question basically just like what is M_0 i guess sure
can u walk through me it plesae?
nah i got it now from tropo
but still examples of like ocmputing stuff
i would appreciate
like take R be Z and take 4 submodules
modules*
such that a tneos product is zero in one tensor product but nonzero in the other
No it's generated by the x_i and all the stuff appearing as first coords as stuff in D
don't you have to show the implication that "b is a left inverse for c implies that b is a right inverse for c" to do that? but your argument has the additional hypothesis that there exists a left-inverse for b, which you denote a
You had the hypothesis that every element has a left-inverse. Under that assumption, I showed that a left inverse b for c is also a right inverse for c
Oh I see idk why I thought that was something extra
Okay sorry yes kernel of A^{(M x N)} -> M (x) N yes lol
Anyway
Oh also that isn't the direct product, it's a direct sum but yeah
Well they aren't but yeah
like when dealing with diagrams
They have (potentially) different underlynig sets
which is pretty important
Anyway uh
So the point is like say I've got some like (m,n) which gives m (x) n = 0 in M (x) N
@south patrol here was the definition of D
Yeah sure thanks
okay
Oh okay now I see what you mean overall lol
what do i mean
hm
this section is going to hurt so bad
honestlly
why is 2 tensor x = 0 in Z tensor Z/2
given x is nonzero
over Z as the ring
So there are a couple of things like
One way to see this is that if M, N are R-modules then rm (x) n = m (x) rn for any r in R, m in M, n in N
That just comes from the definition
Using that, hopefully it's clear why 2 (x) x = 0 for any x
2 tensor x = 1 tensor 2x because (2,x)-(1,2x) is in D.
But let's look at this from the perspective of the universal property like
okay cool
yea this is ultimately what i want to be comfy with
cuz most of the isomorphisms come from it anyways
like quotient topologies
the point is that bi-linear maps on MxN become linear maps
on the tensor product
if we have any billinear map Z x Z/2 -> M (for any Z-module M)
Well this'll end up being the same but note that f(2,1) = 2f(1,1) = f(1,2) = f(1,0) = 0 f(1,0) = 0
Like we can just play around with scalars lol
Using linearity
Just cause we aren't necessarily working with fields we can end up with weird things like this
In a similar vein, try to think about what Z/nZ (x)_Z Q looks like
let me try some elements
do le general element
for example like (1,n)
That's a good place to start
would this be n(1,1) which is (nm1) which is (0,1) which is 0?
Identifying Z-modules with abelian groups lol
after (n,x/n)
Tensoring with Q kills all elements of finite order besides identity
(Torsion elements)
anything with torsion
ig yea
but u just opened my mind to something
that
i would be able to do every same thing
if i would look at M x N
and then f being a bnilinear map
like iw ould get the same properties same thing
and so if i can find a bilinear map from MxN to something
then the tensor product would be isomoprhic to that somehting aswell
rihgt?
Not necessarily no
isnt that the diagram ? 😦
Well im not entirely sure what you mran
like the diagram
consider the bilinear map f(x,y) = 0 
oh yea
ur so smart lol
M (x) N is determined by a universal property yes
fuck
But it is like
now can u help me prove that the tensor product constructed satifies it?
satisifes*
The key point is that bijection between bilinear maps out of M x N and linear maps out of the tensor product
obvious by the relators you're quotienting by :pack: rip bozo
yea but im just lost and fuzzy so its not that obvious to me 😦
yea which is cool
but can u show like
with an explciit example
i wanna understand this
Yeah sure so like
Firstly can you see that if I'm given f: M x N -> P there's at most one way to define the map M (x) N -> P
no 😐
Like we are forced to send m (x) n to f(m,n)
By the diagram
and since M is generated by those elements that determines the map uniquely
we already have the diagram?
I'm saying that if the map is well defined it must be given by this
i meant like T = C/D
To fit into the diagram
and i want to show that the diagram commutes with this T
are we using the diagram as the definition
or the construction
sorry im lost
Another way to look at the whole construction is that D consists of exactly those elements a1(x1,y1)+...+ak(xk,yk) of C where the rules of "bilinear map" force a1·f(x1,y1) + ... + ak·f(xk,yk) to be 0 for every bilinear f : M×N -> P.
A tensor product T of M and N is characterised by the fact that for any bilinear map f: M x N -> P there exists a unique map M (x) N -> P fitting into that diagram
okayy
I am showing that our construction satisfies that proprrty
by first saying that if it exists it is unique
And yeah now we gotta show it is well defined
So like
We define A^{(M x N)} -> P by (m,n) -> f(m,n)
And that is a linear map and perfectly well defined
whats f
We started with a bilinear map f: M x N -> P
Define the map as I did above
ie the diagram
And yes
what map
But like
okay
The one I did above lol
this olne
Yup
Now like
D is contained in the kernel
As you can hopefully see
Check on generators of D
Like (ax, y) - (x, ay) is sent to f(ax,y) - f(x,ay)
okay so the kernel of this is all (m,n) such that f(m,n) = 0 , now D is generated by say (x1+x2,y1)-(x1,y1)-(x2,y2)
Which is just zero by bilinearity
so now yea f(this stuff) would be 0
Yeah
okay so D is contained in the kernel
Yup
So it factors through the quotient by D
By a general fact
Like if f: X -> Y is a map of R modules and Z contained in kernel of f then we can factor through as X -> X/Z -> Y
Just like in the first iso theorem I mean
yea and this would have no problems cuz it would vanish on all of D anyways
ie it will be well defined
So this means we get a well defined map out of C/D
yea
If im remembering notation right
yea
And it is hopefully clear it fits into the diagram
yea cuz basically f annihilates all relations anyways
its like a map defined on C
ig?
😄
Well relations isn't relevant to moving to C
Just we have a function into P defined on M x N
So we can get a linear map out of A^(M x N) into P
In fact, as I think Troposphere mentioned earlier, that's motivation for how we construct T
yea it shows from how everything just follows immedaitely from the defintion
So like we know that a map M x N -> P of sets corresponds to a linear map A^(M xN) -> P
And so to change our focus from the maps of sets to bilinear naps
We have to quotient out accordingly and make A^(M xN) smaller
Since we need to reduce the number of maps we get lol since not all maps of sets are bilinear
okay so
from MxN to M tensor N the map is defined as (m,n) --> m tensor n
and then let f:MxN --> H be a bi linear map
then f induces a map f bar from C/D to H such that f bar of ( m tensor n ) is f
is that correct?
yeah the maps agree, cause of the triangle dude
yea
cool
tysm potato and tropo
first theorem for me
lol
let R be a ring with identity and A be an R-module
then R tensor A is isomorphic to A
to prove this can i define a map from R x A to A by sending (r,a) to ra
this is bilinear
so now the map from R tensor A to A sends r tensor a to ra aswell
but now this is only a homomorphism
how can i find an inverse
Well you can actually just show that A satisfies the same universal property as R (x)_A A
But yeah the inverse is actually nice here lol
it's pretty much the first thing you can think of
So you want to define an A-linear map A -> R (x)_A A
And you have to send 1 -> 1 (x) 1 to be an inverse
So uh
think about the properties of tensoring elements, like you being able to move around coefficients
No not dumb but np
you wouldn't wanna know how long it took me to get a grasp of tensor products and I still don't fully understand them
this ^
luckily I can just kinda black box them as "ohhh le multiplication" or "ohhh le functor"
ong
like if you asked me to compute what a tensor product was actually isomorphic to I'd shit the bed
I'm just saying "oh fuck this universal property I will understand it when I have to use it"
Lol
yea i think this is the hardest math for me
other than C_n \otimes C_m that's a cool one
i have ever seen
I've never related to wew this much
you've definitely done harder moamen
It will eventually be ok im sure
Lol extension of scalars
yea
I learnt this in my third year of undergrad
Those tricky tensors
and I've seen you chat stuff about things I've either learnt this year or never heard of 
We didn't even do it in our comm alg course
and it turns out this thing is a functor so i now i have to prove its properties when dealign with exact sequences
what the fuck did you do then
Bleak
weed?
Well it was still lots of content
they are like page 20 in AM
Like the most of our courses
like what
this shit is stupid hairy
who came up with this
Mr tensor
Mr tensor
??
it was in the 180s?
1890s*
Tensor calculus was developed around 1890 by Gregorio Ricci-Curbastro under the title absolute differential calculus, and originally presented by Ricci-Curbastro in 1892.
This is just a universal property and those take a while getting used to
wtf this is new af its like 2002
Tensor calculus is p different lol
yea okay wait
This textbook is much older than that lol
oh yeah tensor calc is like
I'm p sure
oh its 1938
fuck all to do with tensor products hahaha
Not that old a textbook
by some guy called whitney
That is harsh lol
yo look at this guy
-1
The tensor product is actually a very simple concept.
It goes back to Babylonian times when people realised that two edges describes an area. Intuitively they realised that geometric area was bilinear but all this wasn't formalised until the twentieth century.
Mathematicians, being mathematicians, generalised by allowing the edges to take values in any vector space, as well as the attendant geometric area.
That formalisation took so long shouldn't be such a surprise. After arithmetic was invented well before Babylonian times and yet was only formalised with Peano's axioms in the early 20th C. I'd also add that it has taken the subject so far away from its geometric roots that its difficult to see the geometry of a tensor.
Its worth adding that the tensors of general relativity, which made the subject famous, are actually fields of tensors, that is tensor fields. Moreover, the tensors they use are of a special kind, comprising of a tensor power of a vector space tensored with a tensor power of its dual space.
I only ever did it applied to fluids
from the depths of stackexchange
I mean grassman had like exterior product and stuff
There's also Kronecker product of matrices but idk if Kronecker invented that
it seems to me that all algebra is either noether or bourbaki
But ye lots of bourbaki
He had a lot of those
fun exercise, prove that the Kronecker product corresponds exactly to the image of a pair of matrices under the canonical map into the tensor product of two vector spaces
At least 90
Isn't that basically the whole point
(or free modules lol, same diff)
And I don't think the map is canonical lol
yo bourbaki is actually 10 people
After picking a basis this is
lol
Well
you know EXACTLY which map I mean
Which one
the canonical one
Say I give you vector spaces V and W over F of dimensions m and n which canonical isomorphism between V (x) W and F^(mn) are we using
you know EXACTLY which one
yo tensor product is associative tf
commutative too
and distrubutes like multiplication over direct sums
almost like... a monad is a monoid in the category of endofunctors...
does it have a similar property with direct sums like the Hom one?
Ye
Wdym
But yeah it's additive as wew said
Random question:
Does the discriminant of a biquadratic polynomial help determine its Galois group, or is this only the case for cubics?
Yes it does
Though biquadratic can have a couple of meanings
But yes in fact discriminant always gives info on Galois group regardless of degree
one of the coolest things in maths for me was realising you could make rings using the tensor product and direct sum
the first big leap in generality, the first peep down the rabbit hole
For example if we embed the Galois group of a separable irreducible polynomial of degree n with the set of permutations of the roots then it is contained in A_n iff the discriminant is a square in the base field
no you cant
ok they're semirings but just take the grothendieck completion you nerd
actual nerds
shut up nerd
Lol
that you know about
Wdym
like there is an exercise proving Z_n tensor Z_m is just Z_(n,m)
"just like Hom tf"
its all al ie man
a lie*
Lol
?xd
for example, the representation ring
Ye
So for example fix a field k
the rep ring is a semiring consisting of C[G]-modules with direct sum as addition and tensor product as multiplication
We consider the set of isomorphism classes of (finite dimensional) vector spaces V
yea
You can put addition and miltiplication by ike
[V] + [W] = [V (+) W]
And similarly with tensor product
That gives us a semiring
Like no additive or multiplicative inverses unfortunately
But everything else works nicely
Like associativity etc
And in fact this is basically just N
it's N if V is a vector space lol
this is inhuman mann
oh nvm u said fix a field
Ye
and it turns out this ring is isomorphic to a subring of class functions of G into C 
and that's how you get characters
But here one interesting direction you can go is like
Vector spaces parameterised in a suitable sense by topological spaces lol
And that gives you lots of info
And stuff
So like this idea wew and I mentioned is v useful
yeah and there's a nice way to get inverses too
for modules over semisimple rings you literally just add in negatives as formal classes
slightly more complicated for other rings but it amounts to the same thing
you want a thing X such that V+W+X = V
yoo , an element in (A tensor B) tensor C would look like sum(h tensor c_i where h is in A tensor B which which that gives us sum(sum(a_i tensor b_i) tensor c_i , now if we send the element t(sum(a_i tensor b_i),c_i) to sum(a_i tensor (b_i tensor c_i)) this would be a bi-linear map from (A tensor B) x C to A tensor ( B tensor C)
which gives a homomorphism
and doing it the other way around gives us the inverse?
proving the tensor is associative.
You can think about universal properties purely
Rather than worrying about a given construction
Show that the tensor product A tensor (B tensor C) is euivalently just the "triple" tensor product
Which is mentioned in AMD im p sure
very similar universal property thing shows it's commutative also
Ye
like the first proposition after the tensor product defn
Is what i said incorrect
it's common to define the degree of the 0 polynomial as -infty so as to preserve the identity deg(fg) = deg(f) + deg(g). we do a similar thing with the characteristic of rings. if in a ring R it is never the case that 1 + 1 ... + 1 = 0, we say that char(r) = 0. Though there probably isn't a connection between these two instances, why is it that defining edges cases "in the other direction" often plays nicely with the properties of a theory?
The characteristic of a ring is the generator of the kernel of the (unique) ring homomophism from Z. So characteristic 0 is not really a special case, as far as definitions go.
Ah these things aren't related then
What does "the other direction" mean here?
I meant like what the intuitive value of what a quantity should be vs the value we actually set it to be. so for those rings it's infinity vs 0, and for the degree of the 0 polynomial it's 0 vs negative infinity. Of course I'm just saying hogwash
Well, for polynomials the degree acts a bit like a logarithm, and log(0) = -inf, so I guess that's how you would expect.
Characteristics of rings are more "ordered" in terms of their divisors, and every number is a divisor of 0. So in that sense 0 is the "biggest" number.
there is a relationship between the order and degree of a polynomial, which sort of flips the direction like this
by polynomial I guess I should say, laurent polynomial
$ord(f(x^{-1})) = - deg(f(x))$
merosity
so you'd be doing some flipping here, although I'm not sure if this is entirely related to the kind of flipping you're thinking about or not
in addition to deg(fg)=deg(f)+deg(g) you also get deg(f+g) <= max(deg(f), deg(g)), with equality when deg(f) != deg(g). Point of saying some of that is to say you get exactly everything of that transferring over to analogous stuff about orders, so they're like two sides of the same coin there
Why, according to the Correspondence theorem of rings, does the size of the ideal seem to be linked to the completeness of the algebraic structure of the quotient ring, and algebraic structure link to order structure?
the completeness...?
Dunno what you mean exactly
The correspondence theorem is not as deep as you seem to be implying lmao, it's essentially saying something about divisibility. You could see it as relating the structure of divisibility in the quotient to the structure of divisibility in the original ring.
And idk that just seems like, obvious that these things would be linked
If the definition of the prime ideal can also remind me of 0 (ab=0 iff a=0 or b=0), I can vaguely feel the relationship with the definition of the integral domain, then for the maximum ideal, I really can't see anything related to the definition of the field. So I started thinking about the relationship between the maximal ideal definition and the field definition
When you quotient by an ideal, this can be thought of as forcing the ideal to be zero. With the correspondence theorem, this is saying that if we quotient by a maximal ideal, in the quotient the zero ideal will be maximal, i.e. we have a field.
Same thing with prime ideals, primary ideals, etc.
Exercise: prove all this carefully.
If you want to go way back you could consider a local ring - the unique maximal ideal in a local ring contains all non-units, so it makes sense that quotienting out by this gets you a field
A similar-ish thing holds in all other rings. But if you want an actual rigorous reason it’s what Mr. Terrible flat said
I can be whatever u want bby


Sir wew
I prefer male pronouns but as long as it’s clear who you’re referring to I don’t mind
id like to understand/prove this identity
could you guys suggest some approach to take or some identity that helps to get there?
( U is unitary btw)
What is U?
ah a unitary operator
also not really AA lol
our script just says that it should work for any unitary operator
This just boils down to the fact that the only place on the complex plane where the complex conjugate is the inverse is S^1 rigjt
Oh I thought this was a hilbert space thing
Am I getting it confused with a unitary element
I honestly don't know
oh what id give to still have any idea of what particular space we are currently working with in our lecture 😂
OK but you have an inner product space at least?
that seems to be all the example is giving
it has to be a hilbert space we are always working with them
it appears to be
wat is B
I still think this is true btw, there’s a connection between adjoints of operators and complex conjugation
But I can’t remember it as I am a group theorist 
id love to know that too, the notation just started to appear in our script
i think it just denotes some banach space? (assuming that makes sense)
ah no
its the uhhh
looks up the translation
dual space!
We know for unitary matrices that eigenvalues must have an absolute value of one
How do I make this infinite dimensional
algebraists try doing analysis (colorized)
Let x be an eigenvector of U
<Ux, Ux> = <ax,ax> = aa*<x, x>
But we know this is equal to <x,x>, so aa* = 1
Yeah
That’s how it goes for matrices anyway
Wait why is it equal to <x,x> sorry
Definition of unitary
Oh right unitary dudoy
@fair quartz there ya go
I was so close lmao
Always use all the information you're given lmao
Now all you need to do is prove a* = a^-1 <=> a \in S^1
Guessing nothing breaks when going to infinite dimensions then 
Yeah I reckon not
This isn't even really analysis
It’s a more sinister third option
It's like lin alg with slightly mysterious notation
It's........ elementary 😱
Elementary operators
i see, thanks!
maybe one more question
what do you mean by S^1?
ahh unit circle?
Yur
thx!
S^2 would be the b a l l
It’s not explicitly the embedding into C but I was being lazy
Let G be a finite group and let A be a G-module which is also injective as an abelian group. Is it still true the A is acyclic for the G-fixed points functor?
Oh no wait fields of characteristic 0 aren't acyclic under the Galois action
nvm
Is every finite extension of a local field also local? I know zilch about local fields.
R(sqrt2) doesn't seem to be listed among the possibilities at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Local_field
Sqrt(2) is already in R, or am I missing something
So sqrt(2) isn't in Q_5, right
If we looked at Q_5(sqrt(2)) would that then give us another p-adic
Yeah ok I just needed to read more carefully
A finite extension of a p-adic field is explicitly listed there
goooooooooood to know.
To err is human give poor tropo a break 
The characteristic 0 cases seem to be closed under finite extensions, but the characteristic p case only lists F((t)), so the question is what are the finite extensions of F((t))
This MSE suggests they should be closed under finite extensions
Plus I didn't mention that I only cared about the p-adics, so that was my bad
Yeah
Thanks all 
okay i think ive managed to prove that but im not sure how to use that for the spectrum of a unitary operator
So we've shown that any eigenvalue is in S^1
And the spectrum consists exactly of the eigenvalues
so.............................
how has my lecture completely failed to make me aware of this?!
this seems like the most important thing to know about the spectrum
I mean
Yes i'm wondering as well now
Because as far as I'm concerned if you were just working with something without knowing the definition, that's on you lmao
i know the one with lambda*identity matrix - operator must not be invertible
Right OK
so what is an eigenvalue to you
and i find that definition very unintuitive to work with
i did notice the resemblance with the eigenvalue equation
I am inclined to agree
but i never managed to draw the connection between finding eigenvalues and something being not invertible
it almost seemed to me as if it was the opposite, that youd find the eigenvalues in the set of resolvents (is that the name? xD)
OK. As it happens, a linear map is invertible iff it is surjective and injective
the definition of an eigenvalue involves something not being invertible
I am concerned about your course now lmfao
So we're looking only at the finite-dimensional case, I guess this doesn't really matter, but
A - lambda I being non-invertible means there is some nonzero vector v such that (A - lambda I)v = 0
I.e., Av - lambda*v = 0
I.e., Av = lambda*v
oh how so?
because the only definitions i know of are
A.) Solutions of the eigenvalue equation (for the general case)
B.) the factor by which eigenvectors get scaled (specific to linear algebra)
i guess i just never knew this equivalence
