#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 70 of 1
Hey! I'm taking a second class in group theory. This second class has a specific focus on permutation groups.
What are some surprising/cool results or applications from this area?
It looks like the class culminates with the O'Nan Scott thm
ok I think I got something but idk how sound it is
what does it mean for a set to be generated by an element of that set?
I thought the <X> notation was reserved for generating sets of a subgroup
i.e. X is supposed to represent a set, not an element $$x \in X$$ of the set
normalAtmosphericPa=101,325
well you could possibly also think about it as cosets, although that group is trivial
probably not what you want though
messyinterval
i think you mean $(n,k) \in \mathbb{Z} \times \mathbb{Z}$ :)
Tubular Cat
One application is the nonsolvability by radicals of polynomial equations of degree 5 or higher. Let $p\in k[X]$, $char(k)=0$, then $p(x)=0$ is solvable by radicals iff the Galois group of $p$ is solvable. A group $G$ is said to be \textit{solvable} if there exists a chain of subgroups $G=N_0\supset...\supset N_{k-1}\supset N_k={e}$ where $N_i$ is normal in $N_{i-1}$ and $N_{i-1}/N_i$ is abelian. For a general polynomial $p$ with $deg(p)=n$ ($n$ distinct zeros) we get that it's Galois group is $S_n$, which is not solvable for $n\geq 5$. As long as we don't work in finite characteristic, we can apply the theorem to prove that $p(x)=0$ is not solvable by radicals when $deg(p)\geq 5$.
Timwestlund
What does this have to do with permutation groups?
The nonsolvability of the group $S_n, n\geq5$ is involved
Timwestlund
One is generator for the subgroup and the other is generator of the group, I think in the books it is usually concentrated in subgroup and then in group, but it is the same tendency if "a" belongs to the group and it is generator then it means that it generates all to the group analogously for the subgroup, to identify that every element is generator of a group or subgroup we must take into account that gmd(k,n)=1 where k is the element "a" belongs to the group and n is the modulus of Z, that means that k and n must be coprime if they are then "a" is generator.
My head hurts
If K1/F and K2/F are both finite extensions and K1K2 is isomorphic to K1 \otimes_F K2 then why does that imply that a basis for K1 is also lin.ind. over K2? I've been reading about linearly disjoint extensions for so long and I'm so confused
I realize, re: yesterday
I have no damned clue what a vector space actually is
I understand R as a vector space
But what’s the Abelian group you’re making a module over? And what’s the field?
field theory isn't a strong trait of mine either
Does it lie outside your field of expertise?
yes
So if it’s F and R
F/R?
Like, F is the extension of R
yes that's what F/R means 
yes

What
you said R earlier
Also F/K rather than K/F is
lol
but i get what you mean
Do people use K/F
i've only seen bigger field / smaller field
L/M/F/E/K for me
Bruh
M, F and E in no particular order
So
important problems being discussed
Lol
yes
That's what it means to be an R-module
We can stick to vector spaces tho since everything is a field
Well I’d like to understand the “simpler” structure
"A vector space is a special case of a module
"
what structure
Modules
i mean
the problems you face when moving from Vector spaces to Modules don't exist here
so just sticking to a lin alg perspective is more helpful imo
I’ll think about this more later
Me neither
Modules are by no means simpler, vector spaces are definitely way nicer
Does anyone know anything about linearly disjoint extensions? I'm trying to figure out why K1K2 being isomorphic to K1 \otimes_F K2 is equivalent to a basis for K1 being lin. ind. over K2
I'm trying to compose two permutations: (1 2 3)(2 3 4). Just by writing it out by hand I get (1 3)(2 4). However, I'm trying to calculate it without writing out each step, but I keep getting the wrong answer:
Say a=(1 2 3) and b=(2 3 4)
b keeps 1, and a maps 1 to 2, so we get (1 2)
b maps 2 to 3, and a maps 3 to 1, so now we've finished a cycle
b maps 3 to 4, and a keeps 4, so now (1 2)(3 4)
b maps 4 to 2, and a maps 2 to 3, so the second cycle is complete and the answer is (1 2)(3 4)
This is obviously wrong, but I don't understand where I made a mistake
how are you writing it out by hand
(2 3 4) maps 1, 2, 3, 4 to 1, 4, 2, 3
(1 2 3) maps 1, 4, 2, 3 to 3, 4, 1, 2
you seem to be doing left-to-right multiplication but then right-to-left composition
^^^
those two permutations don't commute with one another so you'd get different results
ab = a o b
where o is composition
cause really permutations are functions
so you apply b, then a
if you are getting 1 -> 3
alright, could you give me an example of how to carry out the first step of computing where 1 maps to?
if you worked it out "by hand" right to left you'd get (12)(34) as you stated
this is right
what you have written as "obviously wrong" is actually right
ooh
a maps 1 to 2, b maps 2 to 3
a maps 3 to 1, b fixes 1
(13)
so on
wait am I doing it backwards
it's just convention which way round you do them
every (finite, at least) group is isomorphic to it's opposite group
is this left-to-right or right-to-left?
((1 2 3) o (2 3 4))(1) = (1 2 3)(1) = 2
is this not the way everyone does the symmetric group operation?
you apply the right most one first like composition
no I do it backwards to that

I also do function composition backwards to everyone else
I mean arguably you do it the correct way if looking at diagrams but no one does it that way
I'm 99% sure @remote nymph's teacher will want (1 2 3)(2 3 4) = (1 2)(3 4)
not (1 3)(2 4)
The incorrect way
never claimed it was correct
so (1 2)(3 4) is the result of multiplying right to left
I might start writing f(x) as xf if ur not careful
yus
I can respect that one
ye
because the group operation respects function composition
but this also feeels like its right to left, but i get the left to right result?
because im applying the right permutation first
what book is that 👀
Matsumura
(1 2 3) maps 1, 4, 2, 3 to 3, 4, 1, 2
ty!! I'll check it out
This is the entirety of the proof
petition for #groups-rings-fields and #adv-algebra plz
this tbqh
There seems to be a missing b->c bit
…
...

wait which matsumura is that
Commutative ring theory
This is an old hardcover copy
yes so this is kind of confusing me. if (2 3 4)(1,2,3,4) = 1, 4, 2, 3
and (1 2 3)(1, 4, 2, 3) = 3, 4, 1, 2
was that not basically the same as multiplying from right to left?
I bought on eBay
But I feel like my original paperback was not really that much worse
In print quality
okay i just rechecked
this notation is confusing me. By saying (2 3 4)(1,2,3,4) = 1, 4, 2, 3 are you saying that 1 gets mapped to 1, 2 gets mapped to 4, 3 gets mapped to 2, etc?
sorry the comma separated list of numbers is the list we're applying the permutation (2 3 4) to. So we map 2 to 3 in the list, 3 to 4, etc
you say you mapped 2 to 3 but the 2 turned into a 4
like
(1, 2, 3, 4)
(1, 4, 2, 3)
just looking at it vertically
this looks like 2 turned into 4
3 turned into 2, etc
i was thinking positionally, and not in terms of the actual values
thanks for your help
Didn't want to interrupt the conversation that was going on, so I posted a question in #help-26
i only saw cyclic groups defined with integers… so is there an extended version of it where cardinality can be more than Z?
all cyclic groups are countable
Okay, I am trying to solve this by finding some way to extract the minimal distance from the generator polynomial. I know that the generator polynomial is the smallest polynomial that generates the code so the number of coefficients of the polynomial that aren't 0 are the minimal distance. But how do I express that fact mathematically?
i see why they must be countable… but can’t you extend the definition somehow that’s what i’ve been wondering
well the question is how you would want to extend it. what properties do you want to keep and which ones do you want to give up
I’m just starting abstract algebra and got this problem
I suck at proofs and that kinda stuff and I don’t really know how to do this
Why must they be countable?
seems like you either have to giveup unique generator or powerlaws if you use R
How do you prove a biconditional statement?
I don’t know
Also you might be better in #foundations for this particular problem
Alright thanks
dont go into #foundations with that. try one of the early university channels
Oop ok
I have a question related to notion of abelianess in Universal Algebra and was recommended to look at it here. I was reading a paper by D. Stanovsky titled Commutator Theory for loops. At one point he mentions that it's easy to see that a loop is abelian if and only if the multiplication is commutative, I decided to try and . One direction is easy, but I am strugling to find a term that would give me the => direction.
Mistake
Oh
Sorry, discord isn't my cup of tea, I was referred by a friend who also couldn't think of an idea.
I hate the wacky magma, loop, semigroup, etc structure names,
what was a loop and what's the condition to be abelian?
Quasigroup is a set with an operation , for each element x and each element y there exist a and b such that xa = b*x= y, loop is a quasigroup with an identity element. .
In universal algebra notion of abelianess is a little messed up. Algebra A is abelian if whenever t(x,u) = t(x,v) then t(y,u) = t(y,v) here x,y,u,v can be tuples of elements of A
And t is a term in A, so basically a sequence of operations from A on elements of A
For example terms in rings are polynomials, in groups they're things of the form x1x2x3... where xi's are not necessarily distinct
So you need abelian->commutative, or commutative->abelian
For this problem it's important to note that we consider the loop L to be a universal algebra (L,*,1,/,) where * is multiplication, / and \ are "division" operations and 1 is the identity operation
abelian => commutative
Have you tried throwing the classic commutator at it
That would be t(x,y) = x'*y'xy?
yeah something like that
this is obviously not something I know the answer to offhand
Yes yes I don't expect you to hahah
I don't think it works but it might depending on what you plug in as x and y here
Give me a few to try some things with it because it might actually work
well if you can get t(x, e) = t(x, u) = e, then you'd get t(y, u) = e
but uhhh, that's not quite helpful yet hm
Yeah I am pretty sure that the term ought to involve some usage of the loop properties
I mean strictly speaking we'd need some bracketing because associativity
Yes, strictly speaking I meant (x'y')(xy) here
yes
It's not associative so it's hard to play the usual commutator game
x = (yx)y' might be more amenable?
if you manage that it's just as good
You just showed that one of those is a submodule of B strictlyncontaining C
With b not in it
You took C to be maximal for this property
Ah
So true
If M is torsion free then why are R/(a) forced to be 0 ?
I know that R/(a) are all torsion modules
for any a
except 0
Yeah
This is true more generally even if M isn’t finitely generated that free <==> torsion free over a PID
Although the proof is different
how u know im in a PID

Because you wrote the form of a finitely generated module over a PID
If it wasn’t over a PID this would be weird
Yeah it follows from some normal form
and the whole thing was only like half a page long
but i dont understand lol
so i need to look elsewhere
So the trick I’d think would be that we need t(x, e)=t(x, u)=e like with the commutator, and this implies t(y, e) = t(y, u) for any y?
Can we just plug t(e, e) = t(e, u) into the commutator (xy)(yx)’
I will say that t(x,y)=(e/xy)*xy will always work for this but I'm not sure if it's enough
Well idk exact premises for the substitution
but t(e, e)=e obviously
And t(e,u) = uu’ = e
So can we sub in y for e?
Yeah idk @glass vine, not my wheelhouse (i don’t even know the Abelian condition
) but they did say it was obvious
I know some universal algebra
okay so first I found this and it's a presentation, and he says that loop is abelian iff its an abelian group
Cayley-Hamilton thm for fields implies the thm for integral domains directly just by considering the matrix as a matrix with entries in the field of fractions ?
You have to have a tiny bit of care because you have to make sure your polynomial is defined over the integral domain and some other stuff, but this will work
https://scholar.google.cz/citations?view_op=view_citation&hl=cs&user=HLqQjH8AAAAJ&citation_for_view=HLqQjH8AAAAJ:MXK_kJrjxJIC It's a paper and you're right, I need more than just commutativity, I need associativity as well
D Stanovský, P Vojtěchovský, Journal of algebra, 2014 - 37 citací
isn't the characteristic polynomial is already defined over the entries of the matrix which will be inside the integral domain?
yes, but a priori couldn't your polynomial get smaller over the field? In the end it doesn't matter, but I'm just saying that a priori you are dealing with different polynomials
I mean for the characteristic polynomial it's actually insanely clear they're the same but
I guess this is more directed towards the minimal polynomial
Oh yeah I think that makes sense. Thanks.
might be a dumb question, but what does K[K'] mean
KK'
i intuitively know that $\forall a \in G, |a| = |\langle a \rangle|$, but how does one go about proving this?
blanket
should i be using division algorithm here?
its a given corollary in my book but i feel awkward when there's no proof
Taking polynomials in elements of K’ with coefficients in K gives you the smallest subring containing both
write out elements in <a>
right, but especially for finite groups, how do i go about showing that a seemingly infinite set $\langle a \rangle = {e, a, a^2, \ldots}$ is indeed finite?
blanket
e a, a^2
why
since its 3 distinct elements and 3 is the minimum positive integer
such that a^n is e

using result you want to prove
this is illegal
you're going to jail
I want a justification
yes

<a> = {e, a, a^2, ...} won't give you a group if a has infinite order
<a> = {a^m : m is integer} is really the group generated by a
oh so it's necessarily finite then
I mean that there's no equality between those sets if a has infinite order
ah
you need to write this
gotcha okay
and I guess you don't know a priori that you can write this either
what?
oh hm okay
got it, ty!
as in, we can say that <a> = {e, a, a^2, ...} is not a group if |a| is infinite
oh i see
how is <a> defined
its defined as the intersection of all groups containing a
subgroup*
then, proposition: we can describe <a> algebraically
how do we do it?
<a> = {a^m : m is an integer}
blanket
this is the representation that you want, not just natural powers
ah
well I don't like you used n because I wanted to use n as shorthand for |a|
but lets name k = |a|
k is by definition non-zero and natural
so when we have a^n, we can divide n by k
okay divide
n = kq + r, 0 =< r < k?
yes
oh
ohh
any element of <a> is also element of {e, a, ..., a^(k-1)}
right okay
so they're equal
done
that doesn't show |<a>| = |a| yet
the mapping r -> a^r from {0, ..., k-1} to {e, a, ..., a^(k-1)} is a bijection
now it shows it
why its a bijection? Fromd efinition of order of a
its a minimum
simple
representation 
If K_1/F, K_2/F are field extensions, when is K_1 \otimes_F K_2 not a field? Is it when 1 \otimes 1 = 0?
this may be of interest to you
Ngl I tried to read that earlier and could not
how this be done ?
i can get B = R/p^a + ... + R/p'^b
for primes p
but dunno where to go from there?
For some b, pb = 0 so take any x from ANN(B), xb = pb for that b
so xb is in (p)
so suppose b in (p)
that's what I'd say from there
definitely imo
the slight thing is you can only guarantee that p^ab = 0 for some b in B here, so you'll have to think about that
unless I'm mistaken
wait what do you mean
nevermind I'm being silly
i dont really know what to do after using the fundamental theorem
lol
so uh, taking x from ANN(B), we want to show that p divides x, as ring elements
i dont think it leads anywhere
maybe its as simple as saying that ANN(b) > (p)
since pb = 0
but (p) is maximal
so ANN(b) = (p)
and ANN(B) < ANN(b) = (p)
I think this works
but why require B be a torsion module ?
im having a little trouble seeing this bijection
this eventually arrives at the isomorphism between n x m matrices and Hom(R^n, R^m)
okay i see the first part a bit better
we can identify each basis element with the map in Hom(R^n, R^m) sending e_i -> x_i in some collection of n-many elements
this feels almost like shifting(?) the basis?
its the same as linear maps between vector spaces and how their correspond to matricies
im trying to read through this step by step
first it shows that given a collection of n elements in R^n, we can identify that whole collection with the map sending basis elements to corresponding elements of the collection
on the other hand, given a map in Hom(R^n, R^m), since these are free modules the map is determined by where each basis element is sent - but how does this identity a map with a collection of n eleements
oh it literally just does 
i just had to read it enough times ig
in particular, we're identifying the map with the collection of x_i's right
I’m trying to construct the quotient field of an integral domain R. Let Q be the set of pairs (a,b) for a, b in R. (a,b) ~ (c,d) iff ad=bc. I already proved this is an equivalence relation. We also defined addition of equivalence classes as [(a,b)] + [(c,d)] = [(ad+bc, bd)]. the additive identity is (0,1). I’m stuck trying to find its additive inverse; my best attempt is (a,b) + (-a,b) = (0,b^2), but this isnt the identity
Remember you're working with equivalence classes of pairs, not pairs themselves
oh
So you have [(a,b)] + [(-a,b)] = [(0, b^2)]. Now what is (0,b^2) equivalent to?
(0,1) ~ (0,b^2) because 0b^2 = 1*0
Yup
gotcha thanks
ok and in this matrix representation that we arrive at
we have an n x m matrix
a column corresponds to a basis of R^n...?
3b1b linear algebra videos gonna come in clutch for the third year in a row
ok maybe it's more accurate to say that the columns of an m x n matrix represent each basis element of R^n as a linear combination of m elements of R^M...?
probably a bit rusty but a quick reminder would make it click fast
i remember a 2x1 matrix is essentially a map from R^2 -> R^1
you choose a basis, get the matrix representing your linear map wrt. to that basis by taking the images of the basis vectors to be the columns
and given a matrix that obviously defines a linear map so you get a one to one correspondence
free modules are basically just vector spaces

Other way around
oh i didn't even spot that lmao
Depends on whether multiplication on the left or right is the ting 🤓
say you choose {(1,0), (0,1)} as basis of R^2 then ( phi((1,0)) phi((0,1)) ) is the matrix representing phi
Now it's my turn to be 🤓 and say you have to choose an ordering on the basis too
🧅
it's really just linear algebra
zwiebel homologische(r?) algebra
When I am working with these Sylow theorems, when can I do this simple counting argument (group of order 30) versus this more involved argument (group of order 96)? Also, is the argument for 96 sufficient?
is it because for a group like 30, the prime factorization is just some primes to the first power, and so the intersection of the potentially more than one sylow-p subgroup is always 1?
groups of order p_1p_2...p_n tend to be a lot easier to deal with sylow wise than ones with funny exponents
mainly cause of what you said yes
maximum power of p_i that divides |G| is just p_i => Syl_p_i(G) are just cyclic subgroups of order p_i => the intersection between them either has to be the whole sylow-subgroup or the trivial group as prime order cyclic groups have no proper subgroups
yes okay, makes sense. So I cant do the simple element counting contradiction for any group of order p^a * q^b * r^c ect? Im going through all groups of order 1-101, so im just trying to figure out which ones I have to consider the intersection of the Sylow-p subgroups on because its not at all obvious to me
I'm going through all groups of order 1-101
love how u stuck 101 on the end cause it's free
love my professor for that
right uhhh
I thought it was funny too
this looks like something I've seen before but I can't for the life of me remember
what does?
N_G(P_1 \cap P_2) specifically is triggering something in my brain
I know burnsides theorem would make this very easy but I obviously dont have the tools to prove and therefore use it.
I can't remember, but I think it applies whenever one of the prime divisors isn't just p, it's p^something
My professor told me to look specifically at Sylow-2 subgroups on groups of order 24, 48, 56, and 96 and then Sylow-3 subgroup for order 36.
I think I can do the longer argument for the groups of that order, but I just dont understand why the simple counting argument works on some of the other ones I havnt done yet which are also some primes to some power > 1.
I guess maybe I have to consider the intersections of multiple Sylow-p subgroups if |G| = p^n * q * r
trying to understand notation regarding some homology stuff.
i have a set {a,b} that spans some F vector space. is the notation F{a,b} the vector space itself?
im trying to write what the kernel of a boundary map is, e.g. finding Z_1(L; F) for some simplicial complex L. if Z_1 is spanned by {a,b} can i write ker(d_1) = F{a,b}?
if not, could someone let me know what im confusing the notation for?
does transitivity apply to isomorphisms?
That is, if $X, Y, Z$ are groups, then if $X \simeq Y$ and $Y \simeq Z$, is $X \simeq Z$?
okeyokay
Yes
Can you prove it @white oxide
Try this
isomorphism forms an equivalence relation
Yes it should be easy to prove
ok thanks guys!
it pops out super fast
let f be an isomorphism from X to Y
g be from Y to Z
all you gotta do is check gf is an isomorphism
ah shucks i was gonna do the proof later and try to figure that out on my own
but regardless ty
well nothing has been spoiled lol
that's just the template for transitivity which is kind of a given
this isnt a complete proof at all lmao
The group of order 1 is simple right, super basic question but just trying to make sure 😅
what are it's (normal) subgroups?
just itself

like it seems so basic since eG=Ge
algebra makes me lack confidence
its like how
oh didn't know this was the convention
1 isnt prime
a group is simple if it’s only normal subgroups normal subgroups are trivial is the definition i have been using
oh then that definition says it is
but maybe you mean something different
I guess the trivial group counts then
it's actually funny how often this convention shows up
i never understood why 1 wasn’t prime until my professor asked me to consider the fact that prime factorizations had to be unique
Up to isomorphism, there are two abelian groups of order p^2 where p is a prime, correct?
namely Zp^2 and Zp x Zp
nobody saw that
is it possible to find a formula of the number of abelian groups isomorphic to p^n where p is a prime?
good man that derp
note the meat of the proof isnt algebraic, its just checking that a composition of bijections is bijective
cool!
right
when is the radical of an ideal prime?
the radical of an ideal I is the intersection of the prime ideals that contain I
And intersection of prime ideals is radical
So you are asking when is the intersection of prime ideals prime
You can have prime ideals in a chain, and intersections of those ideals will be prime obviously
And I think that's the only case when an intersection of prime ideals can be prime. Because if $A$ and $B$ are prime ideals with $a\in A$, $a\not \in B$, $b\in B$, $b\not \in A$, then $ab\in A\cap B$ but neither $a$ or $b$ is in $A\cap B$
Croqueta
so you would want only one minimal prime above your ideal
and idk if there's a nice characterization for that or something, just reformulated the question lol
Yeah. Intersection of ideals not containing each other is not prime
The standard meaning of the tensor product of two representations of $G$ is a representation with action $g \cdot (u \otimes v) = (g \cdot u) \otimes (g \cdot v)$, how is this expressible, if at all, using $\bC[G]$-modules?
mniip
This is neither $\otimes_\bC$ nor $\otimes_{\bC[G]}$ it seems?
mniip
Oh this is tensoring over the field, so the former
It would certainly not be tensoring over the group ring, that would be very weird to do in this case
You can see this as akin to the diagonal action, in group actions
so if you have a G-set X, then X x X is a G-set with the diagonal action
This is really the same thing. In fact since k[X x Y] is isomorphic to k[X] \otimes k[Y], it is literally the same thing in the case of permutation representations
Diagonal in the sense of the diagonal functor?
I don't think I've encountered this term before
I'm trying to think about how it would be described in terms of modules yeah
This gives us a monoidal functor but I don't think taking the grothendieck ring of it (to get the rep ring) is much related to what the product is/was
Yeah I was wrong about that, sorry
It ought to have a universal property but I'm struggling to formulate what it is
Hm I remember asking about this and they said either tensor as C and then define rep separately or tensor C[G] mods
But the latter sounds like it would be a different set right
I do wonder if there is a more intrinsic way yeah
Hm I guess you can view this as being from the ljke map GL(V) tensor GL(W ) -> GL(V tensor W) right
Wonder if you can use that to get a nice interpetatiin
in order to use this definition do you have to express p(x) and q(x) in summation notation?
and if so how do you experss -5+x in summation notation?
yeah and trying to find it for p(x)=-5+x
I got that we're summing from 0 to 1
Well by definition each polynomial can be uniquely written as a sum a_i x^n with inky finitely many nonzero coeffs
So it is fine to do this
And it matches with just regular nultiplication you'd expect
If x were an element of your field/ring
Tensor as C[G] mods doesn't make sense for G noncommutative
the problem is 5x doesn't work
Why?
-5x
Or do you mean it would give you amth else
It does make sense to tensor over a noncomm ring after all
Tensoring over R turns an (S,R)-bimodule and an (R,T)-bimodule into an (S,T)-bimodule
For commutative R, R-modules are (R,R)-bimodules
Ye
G reps are (C[G], C) bimodules at best, no G action on the right
You can tensor over C here but the [G] part being diagonal seems like a tricky bit
Feels almost cartesian comonoidal, something tensoring doesn't do
I did appreciate induced reps as extension of scalars though, but that led to this question
Could anyone give a hint as to how to get started here. Been stuck for some time now
I've tried using results I know, e.g. since x must be in all maximal ideals M, it must be mapped to 0 in all the field quotients R/M, and then trying to find smth there since we're dealing with a field, but failed. Also tried to see if I could maybe show that x must be nilpotent since that would at least give one direction, but also failed.
Idk, I'm having a hard time finding where to begin
okay
suppose x is in J(R)
and suppose there exists r in R such that 1+rx is not a unit
start with this ^
Ok. Thanks
Thank you. Solved both ways. Don't know why I didn't think to try the straightforward approach...
when multiplying polynomials over Z_n you don't need to worry about the degree's correct you only need to reduce the coefficiants
wdym?
for example (1+x+x^2)(3x^2+_x^3) over z_6 is 3x^2+4x^3+2x^4+3x^5 not 3x^2+4x^3+2x^4+3
basically you don't need to take your exponent's mod n
The exponents are not affected by the ring, yes.
okay
Indeed perhaps I should mention that like
1,x,x^2,x^3,... are always all distinct in R[x] for any ring R
It being Z/nZ or whatever is irrelevant
Is this a counter-example?
transposition is defined by the cycle with length 2, but $\sigma_2$ is not a cycle, so it is not a transposition?
Witness
This and hence the evaluation maps need not be jointly injective as is the case over say C
can someone double check me: wanting to find (1+4x^2+3x^3+2x^4)(5+2x^2+x^3) over Z_6 and I got 5+4x^2+4x^3+4x^4+4x^5+3x^6+2x^7
this is literally just multiplying polynomials out
yes but after 7.5 hours of math jumping from linear algebra to abstract...my brain is starting to turn to mush so I'm not sure I did my mods right
99% sure I did though
in my case I want to know when the radical is not prime. we can use the dimension of the ring here, ye? because if the amount of prime ideals that countian our ideal is larger than the dimension of the ring then the prime ideals can't be ordered in a chain
So just the cyclic subgroup generated by (1234)? Yea that sounds good
yes
is my reasoning correct?
transposition is defined by the cycle with length 2, but $\sigma_2$ is not a cycle, so it is not a transposition?
Witness
I don't know what the "official" definition of transposition is, but I wouldn't call (13)(24) a transposition
transpositions are cycles of order 2 lol
In that case yes
Here is the definition from textbook, so according to this def, $\sigma_2=(1,3)(2,4)$ is not a cycle, so not a transposition
Witness
No...
Oh right yes I misread
I thought you were saying it is not a cycle therefore a transposition lmao
A transposition is a cycle of length 2, not a product of cycles of length 2.
sorry for the confusion, what I mean is: to be qualified as a transposition, it should be first be a cycle (next consider the length=2 or not), but here it is not even a cycle, so it is not a transposition (no need to consider the length since it is not a cycle)
Yes
thank you
what is the name of this fish?

if we want to find 2 generators of D_n, can we just find a permutation for a rotation and a permutation for a reflection that can be decomposed into relatively disjoint transpositions?
so for example:
D_4; choose (1,2,3,4) and (2,4) because
(1,2,3,4) = (1,2)(2,3)(3,4), which are all disjoint when compared to (2,4)
they are not disjoint
great
how appropriate
does the grouper like group theory?
Definition: grouper is someone who study group theory
you can reference to this prob @charred crescent
they aren't?
well i guess i meant to say irreducible or something
something that describes the fact that (1,2)(2,3)(3,4) sends 2 -> 3 and (2,4) sends 2 -> 4
and you don't get a situation like (a,b)(a,b)
(a,b)(a,b)=e
disjioint means the elements in different parenthesis are distinct
so (1,2)(2,3) are joint, since they have element 2 in common
actually it is a cycle (1,2,3)
Am I on the right track here? For the $\rightarrow$ direction, G is not cyclic so it is isomorphic to $\mathbb{Z}{(p_1)^{r_1}} \text{ x } \mathbb{Z}{(p_2)^{r_2}} \text{ x } \dots \mathbb{Z}_{(p_n)^{r_n}}$
okeyokay
Such that $gcd((p_j)^{r_j}, (p_i)^{r_i}) \neq 1$, for $i \neq j$
okeyokay
I'm having trouble seeing how $G$ can have a subgroup of $\mathbb{Z}_p \text{ x } \mathbb{Z}_p$ though, because if it did its elements would have $2$ components whereas $G$ itself has entries with $n$ components
okeyokay
Any hint would be appreciated
Oh, maybe I could use the fact that $G$ is of order $(p_1)^{r_1}(p_2)^{r_2}\dots(p_n)^{r_n}$
okeyokay
(hi boytjie
)
Are you aware of these theorems?
(1) Cauchy's theorem: if p | |G| then there is an element of order p in G
(2) The classification of finitely generated Abelian groups
(also hi det
)
no i don't know cauchy's theorem
but i'm aware of 2
i think i got somewhere though
so we know that G has a subgroup of order $p^2$
okeyokay
OK, you can use the classification of finite simple Abelian groups
Note that the subgroup is merelyisomorphic to Zp cross Zp.
because if all of the $r_i$ were equal to 1, then $G$ would be cyclic
I meant Abelian lmao
okeyokay
It would be an absolutely bonkers question if you needed the classification of finite simple groups
ohhh okay right
no non trivial normal subgroups
A simple group is one with no non-trivial normal subgroups
So an Abelian group is simple iff it is isomorphic to Z/pZ where p is a prime
An example of a non-Abelian simple group is the alternating group (provided it's big enough)
Can’t think of an example where H != {e} or G… anyone?
take any finite abelian group
...take G to be any finite group?
aahahahah
det beat me to it
An interesting example of an infinite group G for which H = G is the quotient group G = Q/Z.
I edited
No, it is wrong, as long as G is abelian and finite, it is always isomorphic to this direct product
C\{0} under multiplication is an example for your edited question
oh sorry i left out what i was going to say after
but yea ik that my fault
And in fact in this case, the group H is isomorphic to Q/Z 
it asks you to show there exists a subgroup of G ,not to prove G
Suppose $G$ is not cyclic. Since $G$ is a finite abelian group, $G \simeq \mathbb{Z}{(p_1)^{r_1}} \text{ x } \mathbb{Z}{(p_2)^{r_2}} \text{ x } \dots \mathbb{Z}_{(p_n)^{r_n}}$ Then $G$ has order $(p_1)^{r_1}(p_2)^{r_2}\dots(p_n)^{r_n}$. Observe that if all of the $r_i$s were equal to 1, then $gcd((p_i)^{r_i}, (p_j)^{r_j}) = 1$ for any $i \neq j$ and hence $G$ would be cyclic, a contradiction. Hence, at least one of the $r_i$s is greater than one; for such an $r_i$ corresponding to $(p_i)^{r_i}$, $(p_i)^2\mid(p_1)^{r_1}(p_2)^{r_2}\dots(p_n)^{r_n}$. Then, since $(p_i)^2$ divides the order of $G$ (which is a finite abelian group), there exists a subgroup $H$ of $G$ of order $(p_i)^2$
This is what I have so far
oops wait
edit used hence twice lmfao
i can't type holy shit
okeyokay
i'm trying to prove that H is isomorphic to Zp x Zp, but the problem is that gcd(p, p) is not equal to 1
i think it has to do something with H not being cyclic, so if i could show that maybe i could show it's decomposable?
well
that's assuming the first half of my proof is correct
Pretty sure there is but for the life of me I can't remember what it is...
If there were a nice name, I'd expect it to be referenced at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Root_of_unity#Group_of_all_roots_of_unity
And isomorphism is?
Q/Z --> C* given by q+Z --> exp(2 pi i q)
Witness
That doesn't look right. S_3 has order 2·3 but has |S|=4.
if a subgroup is finite and abelian but noncyclic, is it decomposable?
yep. structure theorem for finite abelian group says that every such is direct sum of cyclics
thank you!
so it satisfies, right?
No: n=3 is odd but |S| is not 2.
wow, thank you for confirming this idea 
I said |G|=2n, not n
And |G|=6=2·3=2n for n=3.
ah, right
I forget
For any group $G$, if $|G|=2n$, define the solution set $S={ x | x^2=e, x\in G }$ , then $|S|$ is even. If G is abelian and $n$ is odd, then $|S|=2$.
Witness
thank you!
to make it exactly equals 2, it needs Abelian...
but this is only sufficient I think
so given vector spaces U,V, the tensor product U (x) V is the space of all formal linear combinations of u_i (x) v_j, where {u_i}, {v_j} form a basis for U,V respectively
then, given u in U and v in V, u can take the tensor monomial u (x) v by expressing them as a linear combination of basis vectors
but what are some elements in U (x) V that aren't tensor monomials?
sum of two monomials :p
u1⊗v1 + u2⊗v2 for example
if either of U or V is one dimensional, then clearly the tensor product contains only monomials (of not necessarily basis vectors)
ah okay, its bc u can only combine two tensor monomials if they agree in one of their entries
also a basic question, but a representation U of a group G is defined as a homomorphism from G -> GL(U)
but to check that smth is indeed a representation, does it suffice to check that u have a map G -> End(V) such that identities get mapped to identities, and
that the group homomorphism axiom is satisfied?
because the image of such a map should also be a group
meaning that it would be contained in GL(U)
Sure, you're basically checking it's a monoid homomorphism and then those send units to units in general
gotcha
also incredibly basic
and im stunned at myself for not immediately knowing why this is true
but given vectors v, w in V
how can one prove that there exists a linear endomorphism T:V -> V such that Tv = w?
Tbf I think this is kinda non trivial in general since you have to assume you can extend maps or take direct complements, I believe
But basically it'd be: take v in V, extend to a basis of V and then consider the map V -> V sending v to w and every other basis vector to 0 (or whatever)
Or, basically equivalently, pick a direct complement to <v> and then consider the map V -> <v> -> W, the first being the projection and the second sending v to w
Ofc with finite dim spaces you don't need anything choicey
Maybe there's an easier method which I don't know though
hm ok, i guess its harder than i thought
You don't need to extend bases -- having just one basis for V is enough. Pick a basis vector that appears in v with a nonzero coefficient, map that basis vector to an appropriate multiple of w, and every other basis vector to 0.
I wonder what the choice strength of "for every k-vector space V and every v in V, there is a linear functional f: V -> k such that f(v) != 0" is.
http://karagila.org/wp-content/uploads/2016/10/axiom-of-choice-in-analysis.pdf states (corollary 39) that it is consistent with ZF+DC that there can be a nontrivial real vector space that has no nonzero linear maps to R.
Oh, and this implies that Pdk's problem does need choice: Karagila shows that there are models of ZF+DC where $(\ell^\infty / c_0)^*$ is trivial. But $\ell^\infty / c_0$ certainly is not itself trivial. If we let $a$ be a nonzero element of $\ell^\infty / c_0$, then there cannot be any linear $T: \bR \oplus (\ell^\infty / c_0) \to \bR \oplus (\ell^\infty / c_0)$ such that $T(0,a) = (1,0)$.
Troposphere
i see
here's kind of another question
so it's well known that the 1-dimensional representations of a finite group G are the same as the representations of G/[G,G]
and since G/[G,G] is a finite abelian group, by FTGAG it decomposes as a direct product of cyclic groups
it's also known that any 1-dimensional irreducible representation over a field F of a cyclic group is identified with the kth roots of unity in F, where k is the order of the cyclic group
so once we decompose G/[G,G] into a direct product of cyclic groups, and associate to each of those factors a root of unity
what is our resulting representation of G/[G,G]? (and therefore of G)
True, though if you assume existence of a basis then you can easily just swap smth out for v right? (assuming v non-zero)
Um. Fix a decomposition of G/[G,G] and furthermore fix a generator for each of the cyclic factors.
Then the representations correspond exactly to a choice of k-th root of unity for each of the generators (where k is the order of that generator). That gives exactly |G/[G,G]| different one-dimensional representations, like there should be.
Is there more to your question than that?
Oh yes, good point.
ok yeah thats exactly what i thought, thanks
ok, so now im considering the permutation representation of S_n in F^n, where char F = 0
lets define F_0^n = {vectors whose entries add up to 0} and F_const^n = {vectors whose entries are all equal}
I'm currently trying to prove that F^n = F_0^n (+) F_const^n as representations
but im struggling to come up with the explicit isomorphism
Isn't it just the identity?
Or rather, it's a direct sum decomp into G-stable subspaces, so it's a direct sum decomp of reps
Each of your direct summands is an invariant subspace under every permutation matrix.
yes they're both invariant subspaces, but that doesnt necessarily mean we have a decomposition
I have: 18 | G and 24 | G, by Lagrange's Theorem, 72 | |G|, but I don't think that gets me anywhere
for example, given any vector space V and a G-invariant subspace U, V/U is also G-invariant
and V = U (+) V/U as vector spaces
a hint anyone?
but not necessaarily as representations
use lagrange's theorem
Uh yeah it does right?
I did
V/U isn't a subspace though...
but it can be identified with a subspace
I don't really understand how that links to this though
namely, we choose a basis for V, say v_1,...,v_k such that U = span(v_1,... v_n), n < k
I mean yes, agreed
But having a decomp into G-stable subspaces does indeed give a decomp as G-reps
It's stronger than having a G-stable subspace and taking the quotient cause not every G-stable subspace admits a G-stable complement
as your example kinda shows i suppose
ok see yeah thats what i was getting rly confused about
because i thought that if U is a G-stable subspace, then V/U is a valid representation of G, that can be identified with the complement of U
Yeah I mean identifying V/U with a subspace is kinda "messy" anyway
There's no "the" complement if all you have is V and U.
In particular "the" complement isn't a thing
lol beaten to it
wait so
even though V/U is a representation
and V = U (+) (some identification of V/U with a subspace of V), as vector spaces
that identfied subspace isn't necessarily G-stable?
Correct.
even though V/U is.
thats very interesting
ok well ig that answers my question, since F_const and F_0 have dimension 1 and n-1 respectively (as long as char F = 0)
and have trivial intersection
I think yeah I mean to me it's that identifying V/U w a subspace is messy and relies on you just picking a direct complement
Usually when such arbitrarily choices are made, you can't really expect it to behave well with the additional algebraic structure
And yeah also there are examples where a G-stable subspace U has no G-stable complement (though for char 0 and other cases this is fine; Maschke's theorem is the result you want) and so in particular that implies any subspace you identify V/U with cannot be G-stable
right
For example suppose we have the two-dimensional representation C_2 where the nontrivial element of C_2 negates the x-coordinate of a vector.
Then the span of (0,1) is a G-stable supspace, and the span of (1,1) is one direct complement of it, but the latter span is not G-stable.
but the complement produced by maschkes theorem is much more involved
namely i think its produced by taking the kernel of a projector?
ill have to review in more depth
i see.
Yes, you take an arbitrary projection operator V -> U and make it into a G-equivariant projection operator (that's how i think about it)
By averaging
Have you looked at hom representations at all? It turns out this is special case of something lol
like, if u have representations U, V of G
then the reprsentation Hom(U,V) produced by g * phi = g_V^-1 phi g_U
well i think it should be like (g.φ)(v) = g.φ(g^-1.v) but yes
Anyway, so it turns out - provided #G is invertible in your field - that if you define e = 1/#G Σ g, then the map v -> e.v defines a projection V -> V^G
(where V^G is the set of elements v with g.v = v for all g)
Idk if you've seen this?
But the point is you just average stuff lol
In the case of Maschke's theorem, we take a projection π, which is an element of Hom(U,V), and then project it onto Hom(U,V)^G
and Hom(U,V)^G is exactly the G-equivariant maps U -> V
Eh I guess that is overcomplicated for proving Maschke but shows this is part of more general theory
\ \
Is the intersection of 2 strict subgroups also a strict subgroup?
I know that in the case of H ≤ G and K ≤ G, H⋂ K ≤ G
so is H<G and K<G => H ⋂ K < G also true?
I am currently thinking of it in terms of sets from an euler diagram
Sure, H \cap K is a subset of H, which is a proper or strict subset of G
please don't double post this to the help channels next time
y^2 + y + 1
y = 0.5(-1 +- rt(3)i)
dont u need to square root?
the field u wrote has degree 2
which makes no sense surely
That would make no sense if the polynomial were irreducible
however it is equal to (1 - x + x^2) (1 + x + x^2)
and indeed it's sufficient to add sqrt(-3)
ty
Hello I'm really struggling with Galois theory.
The Problem states that I should use Kummer theory to prove that
(x^7+\theta) is irreducible in (\mathbb{F}_2(\theta)) where (\theta) is a root of (x^3+x+1\in\mathbb{F}_2) )
My current attempt is I've shown that powers of (\theta) are distinct and that (\theta^7=1) which is helpful, since now I have a primitive 7th root of unity in the base field.
Now I believe I need to show that (\theta) is not a 7th power in (\mathbb{F}_2(\theta)) and that would imply that say if (\phi) is a root of (x^7+\theta), then ([\mathbb{F}_2(\theta,\phi) : \mathbb{F}_2(\theta)]=7)
My questions are:
Would showing all of this be sufficient?
How do I approach showing that (\theta) is not a 7th power of an element?
Marci
idk how you proceeded lol, but yea showing theta is not a 7th power is enough
and to do that, the simplest way i see is to use some finite fields magic
theta lives in the group F2(theta)*... which has order 7. so if its a 7th power it would be 1 :p
it would appear that $a^7 = 1$ unless $a=0$
mniip
oh duh of course
the powers of theta are all distinct, and there's 7 of them, so the multiplicative group of the field is the powers of theta, a cyclic group of order 7
I have no idea what that is
iirc something to do with cyclic galois extensions
but i think you needed to know the degree before hand there 
anyway, i would have done it like this... say k = F2(theta) and F = splitting field of x^7-theta over this. since char is 2, this is separable, so F/k is galois. if phi is a root of x^7-theta, then other roots are clearly phi * theta^i and so F = k(phi).
Now you can use this to define the homomorphism
Gal(F/k) --> Z/7Z given by sigma --> i where sigma(phi) = phi * theta^i.
since phi generates F, this is injective. and so Gal(F/k) is either 1 or Z/7Z. it can't be 1 since theta is not a 7th power so [F:k]=7. which gives the irreducibility of x^7-theta
Let $n$ be a fixed integer, we define
$$\mathbb{Z}_n={0,1,2,\cdots,n-1}.$$
and
$$\mathbb{Z}^*_n={a\in\mathbb{Z}_n:\gcd(a,n)=1}.$$
Define a binary operation $+_n$ on $\mathbb{Z}_n$ by
$$a+_nb=\text{remainder of }a+b\text{ divided by }n$$
for $a,b\in\mathbb{Z}_n$.
Define another binary operation $\times_n$ on $\mathbb{Z}_n$ by
$$a\times_nb=\text{remainder of }ab\text{ divided by }n$$
for $a,b\in\mathbb{Z}_n$.
Given that $(\mathbb{Z}_n,+_n)$ and $(\mathbb{Z}^*_n,\times_n)$ are groups. But are they isomorphic?
I know $(\mathbb{Z}^*_n,\times_n)$ is cyclic since $3$ is a generator, so I believe they are isomorphic but I cannot find a suitable group isomorphism.
Trenton
I have no clue that was just stated in the question and confused me even further lmao. Thank you so much though I didn't think to check possibilities cause I thought it'd be too much effort but the multiplicative group thing works and is probably what the question is looking for. I also very much like your argument I didn't realise phi generated F but that makes a lot of sense
no
take eg 6
Z6 will obviously have 6 elements
how many numbers are there coprime to 6?
Z_n* and Z_n are never isomorphic as they have different orders, but it is an interesting question to ask whether or not Z_n* is a cyclic group. See: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/373711/825884
What you say about 3 being a generator is false.
Typically, 3 is not even contained in Z_n*
oh yes I think my question is problematic
But how about $(\mathbb{Z}_6,+_6)$ and $(\mathbb{Z}^*_7,\times_7)$?
Trenton
In this case, $3$ is really a generator then
Trenton
and the order is the same, which is $6$
Trenton
Did you read the link that I sent?
It tells you exactly the answer you're looking for.
Ok let me have a read
Let $G$ be a finitely generated group and $S_G = \{s_1, \ldots, s_n\}$ a generating set.
\bigbreak
Let $F_n = \langle x_1, \ldots, x_n\rangle$ and $S_{F_n} = \{x_1, \ldots, x_n\}$.
\bigbreak
Let $f: S_{F_n}\to S_G$ be a bijection.
\bigbreak
Let $g: F_n \to G$ map words $x_{i_1}\cdots x_{i_k}$ to $f(x_{i_1})\cdots f(x_{i_k})$.
\bigbreak
Claim: $g$ is a surjective homomorphism, hence $F_n / \ker g \cong G$
@rustic crown also, can i check this is sound, as an explanation
explaining what relations are in a finitely generated free group basically
yee 
ker g are all the relations
more often then not it will be infinite
yep
Im tryna rephrase some ideas in https://kconrad.math.uconn.edu/blurbs/grouptheory/wordproblem.pdf
basically.
if G is finitely presented, then you can find finitely many relations such that the normal subgroup generated by them is ker g
the point is that finitely presented groups can be described (presented) using finitely many generators and relations, so even though these groups maybe huge you only need finite data to work with it
so ker g are the set of all relations, but then we are interested when this can be finitely generated
but that is normal generated, not just group
so like <<R>>
right
And when there exists finite R, we have a finitely presented group
yeep
oki
usually these notions behave very nicely
det doesn't have good intuition with those proofs though, to me they feel like some work which shows the nice properties
"u can write out the presentation before the universe explodes"
for example, if a group is finitely presented, and you have a list of finitely many generators, then the relations with respect to these generators are also finitely normally generated
idk if this is true or not, but i want it to be true xD
i remember this being true at least for commutative rings
finitely presented should be a subclass of finitely generated
so like finitely presented says there exists one set of generators such that relations are finitely normally generated
isnt this the definition?
yeah
oh ok
ur claiming all choice of generators
i'm saying once you somehow know that a group is finitely generated, then any set of finitely many generators is also nice
yea something like "finitely presented is always finitely presented"
ok.
is this true for groups?
is this solved 😶
i think ive heard some of these word problems are undecidable? not sure








