#groups-rings-fields
1 messages · Page 40 of 1
wait but it's in Z so the determinant must equal +-1
which you can phrase as "a \neq 0, c \neq 0" or "ac \neq 0" or just writing "a and c are nonzero"
sure
you can also phrase it that way if you want
you could also phrase it as (ac)^2 = 1
but yhou really don't gain anything
by doing that
i don't?
no
but if i say theyre just nonzero doesnt that leave ambiguity
because they can still equal some integers that make it so that the matrix doesnt have integer entries
if A is a matrix in R, then the statement "A is in R* if a and c are nonzero" is true
oh wait
fuck
i'm so dumb
you are right
lmao
yeah sorry for saying you were wrong
I was thinking this was over a field
not over Z
no worries i just thought i was going crazy for a second
congratulations, dr. isomorphism
wtf ur a phd?
np :P
so yes you do need to specify that matrices in R* are those with a, c = \pm 1
yessir I will do that
you can still just approach the problem directly, by starting with a matrix A in R and calculating A^3
and seeing what happens if you try to set A^3 = Id
you can also approach the problem with more theory and using det's suggestion from above
to think in terms of characteristic polynomials
and eigenvalues
it was basically this, but not doing the whole computation
if you have a upper triangular matrix A with diagonal entries a, c then the diagonal entries of A^3 are just a^3 and c^3
so we wanted a^3=c^3=1 which gives a = c = 1
don't do the whole problem for them.....
.< oopsie
just putting this back here in case someone sees a mistake
Also had another question: if I have a semisimple lie algebra $L$, a Cartan subalgebra $H$, and a root $\alpha$, then letting $h_\alpha$ be the unique element of $H$ such that $\kappa(h_\alpha,h)=\alpha(h) ~\forall h\in H$ is there an easier way to find $h_\alpha$ than computing $[L_\alpha,L_{-\alpha}]$ and then checking $\kappa(h_\alpha,h)$ for some $h\in H$?
đittle âarwhal â
My main problem is the part where you have to choose h in H at the end, being smart about the choice can be annoying. Would be kinda nice if there was some quicker closed form based on already known values
ig it's not so bad though cause usually you have a pretty explicit basis of H so ig im just being whiny about it
how can the galois group of $\bQ(\xi)$ over $\bQ$ where $\xi$ is the $13$th root of unity be $\bZ_{13}^*$?
isn't the minimal polynomial $x^{12} + ... + x + 1$? so the degree would be 12
yes and |Z_13^*| = 12
In fact, the minimal polynomial of a prim nth root is the product of (x-a) as a ranges over all primitive nth roots of unity and thus the extension formed by adding such a root is of degree phi(n) = |(Z/nZ)^x| in general
indeed
Is there a way to define the characteristic polynomial of a matrix without the determinant?
I think this deserves thought
axler moment
product of invariant factors
I wouldn't have problem going to algebraic closures in order to define determinants lmao
In mathematics, in the field of abstract algebra, the structure theorem for finitely generated modules over a principal ideal domain is a generalization of the fundamental theorem of finitely generated abelian groups and roughly states that finitely generated modules over a principal ideal domain (PID) can be uniquely decomposed in much the same...
The last invariant factor is the minimal polynomial, and the product of invariant factors is the characteristic polynomial.
this works over any field
đ
I think Roman actually does that
haven't read the chapters on eigen things of Roman yet, will soon
For real, structure theorem of finitely generated modules over PIDs is one of my favourite theorems. Even simply the Jordan decomposition is one of my favourites
let $p$ be a prime and $L$ the splitting field of $x^p - 2 \in \bQ[x]$. how do I show that the galois group of $L/\bQ$ is isomorphic to [ \Set{\mtrx{a & b \ 0 & 1} | a,b \in \bZ_p, a \neq 0} ]
I think what I did was first determine the galois group which is pretty simple
and then, you will see that this matrix group is also pretty simple and like you just write a bijection
I think you will need to invoke a primitive root
I don't remember all the details now
nvm got it
how can i show that the trace of the trace is the trace in a module?
the first contention is obvious but im confused in the other contention
i take $x\in Tr_{A}(M)$ then $x = \sum im f$ with $f \in Hom(U,M)$ with $U \in A$
alef0
Pinging helpers doesnât do anything in these channels (for the most part) so donât
do you know the definition of the order of an element of a group?
isomorphism
right. So you've done (i) I assume
yes I defined $\langle g \rangle$ as ${g^n : n \in \mbb{Z}}$
(latex wants those angle brakets in math mode)
good then you pretty much have the answer
isomorphism
you just need to show that the only elements you get are those specific n in the set there
all that's left is to show g^n is in that set for all n

how would I go about doing so?
in particular, you want to use this
what is g^m
division algorithm
g^m = e
yep you get it
can I similarly show that it cycles through all negative powers of g
to prove it you can use contradiction, induction, whatever basically
how would I use induction here?
assume g^k is in there, then multiply by g. you showed manually that g^m+1 is in there so you're done
so base case n = 0
g^0 = e which is clearly in the set
Let $n = k$, assume $P(k)$ is true for some $k \in \mbb{Z}^+$, i.e. $g^k \in \langle g \rangle$
isomorphism
uhh not sure how to do the inductive step
Either way this will just get you the postiive powers
not sure why you said n=k
tbh you could double induction on the integers
how you do this is by induction hypo, g^k is either 1, g, ... g^(m-1)
yes but I imagine just using the division algorithm is easier at that point tbh
i dont know the divisin algorithm
is there any simple way to do this
lems just told you
division algorithm is the simple way
one should learn about it before cyclic subgroups
in any proper algebra text, at least
can I argue that we get every negative power of $g$ by leveraging $g^n = 1$
isomorphism
isomorphism
$g^{n-2} = g^{-2}$
isomorphism
$g^{n-k} = g^{-k}$
isomorphism
yes that would be the same induction backwards...
you would need two inductions to do it without the division algorithm
the funny thing is that you are basically doing the division algorithm there
but that would work yes
can you show me how it'd be done with the division algorithm
step one is learning the divison algorithm
A division algorithm is an algorithm which, given two integers N and D, computes their quotient and/or remainder, the result of Euclidean division. Some are applied by hand, while others are employed by digital circuit designs and software.
I could explain it to you but you'd be better served just using your textbook
is it like a = qb + r?
yes thats it
so first you show that the given set is a subset of <g>. This is clear by what you said earlier
I đ€Źing hate when people refer to this as the division algorithm
This isnât the algorithm, youâre just using that division with remainder exists
The algorithm tells you this exists, but this statement that p = aq + r isnât an algorithm
trivially {1, g, g^2, ..., g^n-1}$ is a subset of {g^n : n in Z}
yeah
to do this, use that any element $k\in G$ is of form $g^\ell$ the apply division algorithm to $\ell$
and do what you were doing here
The Migillope
$\ell = qb + r$
isomorphism
yes but you get to choose $b$
The Migillope
so choose it intelligently. What choice solves the problem for you
isomorphism
then what
$g^l = g^{qm + r} = (g^m)^q g^r$
isomorphism
$g^l = g^r$
isomorphism
$r$ is the remainder
isomorphism
well yes but to be done with the proof what do you do
strictly less than m but yes
isomorphism
is there anything else?
what is the implication of this
well, we were trying to show that $<g> \subseteq {1,g, \ldots, g^m}$
The Migillope
and you showed that, given a generic element $k\in \left< g \right>$, $k= g^r$ such that $0 \leq r < m$
The Migillope
The Migillope
mind this typo, should end at $g^{m-1}$
The Migillope
now, if you haven't proven the division algorithm in class yet then you should use the double induction argument
but that seems incredibly unlikely
would it be strong induction then?
how come
because if we start at 0 and go up, we dont get the negative numbers
hm, well, alternatively, you could do the induction for the positive numbers, then show that the set you are given is closed under inversion
either way there is just a little more work after the first induction
is there any way to do this without induction or the division algorithm
bro đ
because it solves the problem
do you not see how it does that?
you wrote out the proof yourself...
hi, this is taken from the wikipedia page on the Schur-Weyl duality, and im having trouble understanding this statement
why $U_i \otimes W = \mathbb{C} \iff U_i \cong W$ ?
xy
you should open your algebra textbook to the first chapter where it will likely be covered
$u_iz_i \otimes_A w_jz_j = z_i/z_j u_i \otimes_A w_j = C \implies u_i \otimes_A w_j = 1? $
Not sure if this makes any sense at the moment
U_i and W are simple submodules of A so you can write them as A/their complements
and these are comaximal if U_i is not W
so that their tensor product is 0
Does comaximal mean Ui+W=A?
do you have any references for this?
I havent learned much about simple modules so I am curious what reference did you use to learn about them. I have only encountered them on rare occasions
I got (1/5,1/5) + Z^2, (2/5,2/5) + Z^2, (3/5, 3/5) + Z^2, (4/5, 4/5) + Z^2
is that correct?
there are more
such as
wait
wouldn't (1/5, 2/5) technically work too
and (1/5, 3/5)
and (2/5, 3/5)
and (0, 1/5) too
there's so many of them
<@&286206848099549185>
yes those examples work too
at this point it seems youve got the gist of what makes an element be of order 5 though, you should be able to enumerate them
do you have a visualization for this group
not that it necessarily helps the question
visualizations are great but in this case it wont help much, the algebraic formalism is more than enough
you can visualize R^2/Z^2 as a torus if that interests you
Its just a form of intuition
Sometimes intuition like this lets you immediately see your guess can't be right
oh yeah that
oh yeah definitely
wait how is R^1/Z^2 homeomorphic to T^2
what's the homeomorphism
R^2 not R^1
sorry i meant that
draw a unit grid on 2d plane.
You identify all the unit squares.
In particular, taking just one of them, notice the left and right edges are 'glued' together. And same for top and bottom edge.
we can move this to #point-set-topology and alg top if you want but its a quotient
oh just identifying edges of a unti square. got it.
R^2/Z^2 = (R/Z)^2 = (S^1)^2
there it is
though i did not know you could extract the exponent from a q.g
Something to prove
When something asks you to "find" you just need to describe really. You don't need to list all individually, you can say something like "the elements of order 5 are precisely the elements of the form [...] for [... parameters]" and that should be ok
There's 24 of them here which is why I say this
think of this as asking which complex pairs (u,v) on the torus have the property
that (u,v)^5 = (u^5,v^5) = (1,1)
there are 24 distinct pairs, by choosing 5th roots of unity in each component, discarding (1,1) (of order 1)
in terms of your answer, this is represented by (k/5, l/5) + Z^2 for k,l = 0,1,2,3,4, discarding (0,0) + Z^2 (of order 1)
what is the group op
and shape of elements in there
thank you very much
so in total, there are 24 elements of order 5?
((x,y) + Z^2) + ((u,v) + Z^2) = ((x,y)+(u,v)) + Z^2
asking them
on wikipedia it says that the lie algebra corresponding to the orthogonal group is the algebra of skew-symmetric matrices but in our class we defined $\mathfrak{o}_n(\mathbb{C})$ as the algebra of matrices $A$ such that $A^TS=-SA$ where $S$ is the matrix with $1$s on the antidiagonal and $0$s everywhere else
đittle âarwhal â
is there a reason for this discrepancy?
so for us we're taking the orthogonal algebra with respect to the symmetric form induced by S while for them they're taking the symmetric form induced by the identity...
and the prof seems to have done the same for sp_2n(C) as well: instead of the Hamiltonian matrices we get the symplectic algebra associated to the form with 1s on the antidiagonal of the upper right quadrant and -1s on the lower left quadrant (while hamiltonian matrices have the identity on the upper right quadrant and negative identity on the lower left quadrant)
okay prof answered and I feel pretty dumb: the matrices are congruent so induce equivalent forms, and this choice was made so that positive roots would lie in the algebra of upper triangular matrices
Is there an easy way of showing that the $\mathbb Z$-module of locally constant function ${X \to \mathbb Z}$ of the topological space $X = {0} \cup {1/n \ \vert\ n \in \mathbb N_{>0}} \subseteq \mathbb R$ is not $\mathbb Z$-free? Notice that any such function $f$ has a neighborhood $U$ of $0$ such that $f\vert_U$ is constant -- but $X\setminus U$ must be finite since any neighborhood of $0$ contains an epsilon ball and thus at a certain point all $1/n$. So $f$ can only take finitely many values. I explicitly tried to derive a contradiction assuming I have a basis, but this didnt lead me anywhere but doing tedious calculations. I hoped there might be a pretty argument.
MrMonday
Why do you believe that this isn't a free Z-module? I think it is, actually.
In fact I think a basis is quite easy to write down
Were you maybe hoping to show that it doesn't have a finite basis?
btw i was wondering if it was a discrete space, then the locally constant functions would be a direct product of Z, how does one see if an infinite direct product is free or not?
Oh boy it's super hard, det. I saw a proof at some point, let me see if I can get it
Because it should be the $0$-th Alexander-Spanier (so Cech) cohomology group $H_{AS}^0(X,\mathbb Z)$ and this should disagree with the $0$-th simplicial cohomology of $X$ (as far as I know this is one of the examples where Cech and Simplicial disagree, next to the Warsaw circle) which can be calculated via path components, so $H^0(X,Z) = H^0({0}) \oplus \bigoplus H^0({1/n}, \mathbb Z) = \mathbb Z\oplus \mathbb Z^{\oplus \mathbb N}$ which is free.
MrMonday
Could be wrong tho!
I calculated the AS-cohomology myself, so there is that for example
i think the following is a basis
f_n = 1 on 1/n and 0 else
and f_0 = 1 constantly
This is the one I was thinking of also
I can't find the proof, but it was in Roman's homological algebra, and it showed that Z^N is not free
so weird
Oh maybe
Mhm
Then I have to check everything I know. This is weird.
Oh maybe thats fine!
I am unsure of the path component splitting thing. I revisited my source and this says that 0th singular cohomology if function X->Z constant of path components, so Z^X not Z^(oplus X)
which is not free as you said
And then everything is fine ;D
Ok thanks for your help, I will see what I can do with that!
ye it's called the Baire specker group, there's a "proof" given in MSE
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/320444/why-isnt-an-infinite-direct-product-of-copies-of-bbb-z-a-free-module?noredirect=1&lq=1
Hi guys!, I have a soft question, can a ring be non-associative ? Yesterday i was in my thesis defense (undergrad), and one of the teachers told me that rings are always associative, that i commited a fatal mistake specifying that in the thesis. But i did that because one of the books i used as reference specifies that the rings to be worked on are associative. So i'm a little confused and i do not know rings that are not associative
Rings are always associative.
It's true that rings are not always commutative, though.
There are other algebraic structures (e.g. Lie algebras) that are not associative though
Thank you
Perhaps the definition of ring changed at some point after the publication of this book:c
Are there shortcuts to showing that a given set in a Euclidian space is a root system? Trying to exploit linearity usually doesnât help too much since you have to handle quotients of scalar products and itâs kind of annoying
If it has a nice form itâs doable
can you tell me the author? wondering if they are french
But if itâs a small dimension exceptional root system say, it can be a bit frustrating
Like showing G_2 is a root system for example
Frank W. Anderson and Kent R. Fuller
If $A,B$ are $k$-algebras ($k$ a comm. ring), is there in general an isomorphism $A\otimes_kB[x]\cong(A\otimes_kB)[x]$? I worked out the case $L\otimes_K K[x]\cong L[x]$ when $L\supset K$ is a field extension.
Ocean Man
it's also associative, so notice that A[x] = A â k[x]
A â B[x] = A â B â k[x] = (A âB)[x]
(all â are over k)
Alright, that's neat. The case of L/K I had to do by hand with bases.
wdym
it's more or less like this only
once you know z generates L over F=L^H, then its minimal polynomial is f(x) = (x-z_1)...(x-z_n) where these z_i are distinct elements in the H-orbit of z. this f is clearly a polynomial in F[x] as if you apply some h in H to f(x), it will just permutes the factors, so the coefficients of f are in L^H. moreover this is irreducible as ifg(x) was a polynomial in F[x] with z as a root, then automatically all of h*z are also roots. and so |H| >= |Hz| = n = deg f = [L:F],
now an automorphism in Aut(L/F) is determined by where it sends z to, and we can send z to any conjugate of z, this means |Aut(L/F)| = n and finally, the elements of H are automorphisms of L/F so we get
n = |Aut(L/F)| >= |H|
and so
n = deg f = |H| = [L:F] = |Aut(L/F)|
there is a proof of this using some linear algebra stuff, but i'm not too fond of that... that one feels more like a trick to me than some nice theory
How do I prove the isomorphism for a general k and A though? To define a map in one direction is easy, but how do I define its inverse?
both maps should be easy to define
Aâk[x] --> A[x] is defined by sending aâx^n --> ax^n and then extending by k-linearity
and for the other direction, start with the map A --> Aâk[x] (which sends a to aâ1) and extend it to A[x] by sending x --> 1âx
now just check both composites are identity
uwu? 
(also k here doesn't need to be a field, just a commutative ring is fine)
what's a fast way to find the fixed field
like I'm working on
,, L = \bQ(e^\frac{2\pi i}{13})
and I'm trying to find $L^{\Set{\operatorname{Id}, \sigma^3, \sigma^6, \sigma^9}}$ for $\sigma : \xi \mapsto \xi^2$
I was thinking of just going through each sigma, looking at what they fix in a linear combination, combine the spans
but that seems really tedious
is there a better way?
will have to think, sigma^3 sends xi to xi^8
so i think xi+xi^8+xi^-1+xi^-8 will generate the thing
say f = sigma^3, then what i wrote is xi + f(xi) + f^2(xi) + f^3(xi)
so for $\sigma^3$ the span is $a + b(x^2 + x^3 + x^{10}) + c(x^4 + x^6 + x^7 + x^9)$
doing this for all 2 other elements seems really time consuming though
is there a decent way to go about this that doesnt just involve calling up a known algebra of type B_3? I want to believe there's some nice argument with the Weyl group... I can show there are at least 18 roots with a few root chain considerations
you might also use the fact that any two roots of the same length are in the same Weyl group orbit. The short roots are in one orbit, the long roots are in another. Now use the class equation/orbit stabilizer
Thanks Iâll try that when I get the time
I didnât think to look at root lengths specifically
Pretty smort
you still have to compute the Weyl group stabilizer on the long/short orbits separately and you still need to know what the Weyl group is and how it's acting
but at least this lets you just pick one short and one long root to compute with
ok so I found the fixed fields of each individual elements to be $\bQ(x^2 + x^3 + x^{10}, x^4 + x^6 + x^7 + x^9), \bQ(x^2 + x^{11}, x^3 + x^{10}, x^4 + x^9, x^5 + x^8 + x^6 + x^7), \bQ(x^2 + x^{10} + x^{11} + x^3, x^4 + x^7 + x^9 + x^6)$ how do I "combine" them?
uh replace $x$ by $\xi$ in your mind
is it just the intersection
it looks like it to me
cuz like
if it's in the intersection
it's fixed by all elements
so by definition
I think the fixed field ought to be $\bQ(\zeta+\zeta^5+\zeta^8+\zeta^{12})$.
Ocean Man
should be + x^11 in the first here
the fixed field is $\bQ(\zeta+\zeta^5+\zeta^8+\zeta^{12}, \zeta^2 + \zeta^3 + \zeta^{11} + \zeta^{10})$
someone on mse replied already
multiposter!!!!!111
cope
I think the second element is redundant, the first generates the fixed field, but w/e.
how do you get the second from the first?
By applying $\sigma|_F$ (where $F$ is the sought after fixed field), that ought to be an element of $\operatorname{Gal}(F/\bQ)$.
what does sought and ought mean
gesucht und soll
Ocean Man
Looking at the MSE answer, Anne already explained how you get the 2nd element.
"edited 1 min ago"
Right.
I think I can give a more conceptual answer why F should look like it does than she did. At least it feels more conceptual to me.
no I totally understand their answer
probably using part 1
so write out your options and check if they work
And q divide An
Bro...
so write out all the p/q with p dividing -8 and q dividing 6 and see which ones, if any, are roots
Anyhow
once you actually have a root it should be straightforward
Do I have to try all options?
up to you
again,
and see which ones, if any, are roots
once you actually have a root it should be straightforward
what does that have to do with it
Idk its confusing me cause I think the teacher said that there is a way to find the root without trying out all possibilities
simply get a root on the first try
The hint here does work
You can try the contrapositive, but I think the suggested outline is the most straightforward
Side-note, that's pretty cringe using d and e for the powers of the polynomials
Are you sure?
The hint they gave is the way suggested in atiyah macdonald too iirc
Or at least, I've seen that method used to prove this before
not really, i'm just saying that I did the way suggested in the hint and it wasn't too long
Assuming such a b doesnt exist, then f(x)g(x) can't be 0 (coz the multiplication of the terms with the highest degree can't be 0) which means f(x) isn't a left 0 devisor
well idk how you'd do it by contraposition
how does this follow
just because f(x) g(x) isn't 0 doesn't mean the leading coefficient isn't a zero divisor
potato have you worked through atiyah macdonald
Hm I worked through a lot of the earlier chapters like last year but need to do more exercises for chap 4 onwards
I think my algebra/cat theory is much better now so hopefully will be easier
hbu
Got commalg this term as i think i said, you do too right?
we don't have an official text for comm alg so I'm thinking of working through it this semester
yeah, we're just following hochster's notes
ah idk those notes
atiyah-macdonald is good but sometimes feels a bit old fashioned idk
well just like how they treat the more categorical stuff
but yeah it's cool
good problems
Oh, hmm
yeah, it seems like we'll be doing a decent bit of categorical stuff since the professor started defining categories today so I'll see if I'm better off just using atiyah macdonald as a reference. at the very least I should be able to do the exercises
mhm cool
But yes sure this looks gud
It'd be a lil clearer to me if you used like some notation for the group action but maybe it's also standard to omit that
Just seems like you're going between sigma acting on a and sigma actually being a function taking in a or whatever but that is probs fine
Anyway, I'm pretty sure that if you want you can write this as just one chain of equivalences
Like, show that $x \cdot \sigma(a) = \sigma(a)$ iff $(\sigma^{-1} x \sigma) \cdot a = a$
potato
Since what you did was show that each direction holds separately
Gl gl!
Thanks đ
probably mult/addition
considering Z can form a group with + and R can form a group with both + and mult
R isnât a group under multiplication you have to remove 0
they really should get around to fixing that
Hello
Which one is the correct definition?
1)yâf(A) â âxâA and y=f(x)
2)yâf(A) â âxâA such that y=f(x)
Please reply as fast as possible if you can I got an exam after 4 hours đ„Čđ„Čđ„Č
correct definition for what?
For yâf(A)
Some people use the first one and some use the second and I just got confused
what do you think the difference between them is
One uses "and" and the other doesn't
ik might seem obvious but my tutor says always that we need to use the CORRECT definition exactly in order to get it right
i mean i can see that there are different words
but what do you think the actual difference in meaning is
can you give an example of a set $A$, an element $y$, and a function $f$ such that $y \in f(A)$ according to one definition but not the other?
Ok wait
Buncho Bananas
"such that" is not a logical operator
it's just natural language
my point is
they are the same thing
there is no difference
except that imo the one that uses "and" is more awkward
For example if we need to prove that
f(AâB) â f(A) â f(B)
I assumed that yâf(AâB)
I tried to use firstly this definition :
ââxâAâB Ùš y=f(x)
ââxâA Ùš xâB Ùš y=f(x)
Now I got stuck because if you have
Q Ùš P Ùš R you can't write (QÙšR)Ùš(PÙšR)
But in ther other definition where "such that" is not an operation I can do it as
Q such that R Ùš P such that R
Yet the first one works in other situations as well so that's just confusing
Yes that's what I mean
Some use the operation "and"
And some use "such that"
Now idk which one is the definition to use
(Q and P and R) implies Q, P, and R individually
in particular, (Q and P and R) implies (Q and R), and it implies (P and R)
so it also implies "(Q and R) and (P and R)"
what do you mean
"A and B" implies A
"A and B" also implies B
and if X implies A and X implies B, then X implies "A and B"
those are the only rules i'm using
yes
And replace it?
that's true
again
if X implies A, and if X implies B, then X implies A and B
now set X = A = B = R
so "R implies (R and R)" is true
isomorphism
and is $\sigma = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 3 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 2 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} 4 & 5 \end{pmatrix}$
isomorphism
bc $1 \mapsto 3$, $2$ preserves its position, and $4$ maps to $5$
isomorphism
<@&286206848099549185>
@chilly ocean is there a question
yes
what is it
whether these permutations are correct
oh you're asking whether your answer is correct
yeah
and is $\sigma \rho^2 = \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 4 & 2 & 5 & 3 \end{pmatrix}$
isomorphism
đ„Č
but im gonna assume you squared it correctly
do you know how to do iii)
does your textbook compose permutations left ot right
or right to left
uh yeah
do you know what lagrange's theorem states
yes
the cardinality of G equals the cardinality of H multiplied by the index of H in G
can D_5 have an element of order 7?
which implies that the order of H divides the order of G
there you go
is the order of the group 10
yeah
why
the symmetries of a regular pentagon is D_5
that's what D_5 is
D_5 has 5 rotations and 5 reflections
isn't the order of the group 7 lol
why would the order of the group be 7
you know what D_5 is right
so because $7 \not\mid 10$
isomorphism
fuck
err
why does it look so ugly
how do u know
happens to me too
when im sleep deprived i miss the most trivial shit
yes 7 doesn't divide 10, which is the order of D_5, the group of symmetries of a regular pentagon
so the main corollaries of lagrange's theorem is that order of a subgroup divides the order of a group and the order of an element divides the order of a group
right
yup
rather
the first thing you stated is the theorem
and the next one is a corollary
and these are the implications
yup
I see
now go to sleep
no worries
just for future reference, $7 \not | 10$ looks a bit better
Wew Lads Tbh
\nmid gang (except you need the amssymb package)
The map $GL_2(\mathbb{Z})\to GL_2(\mathbb{F}_p)$ is surjective right?
AoiKunie
I know that the map when you repace GL by SL is
Just realised it isn't surjective
Im assuming thatâs unimodular matrices?
But yeah wonât be surjective then
Cause matrix will remain unimodular
yeah
In part d) does anyone get why the restriction of Delta to Inn(L) looks like an inner derivation? Iâd need a result that would say something around the lines of Der(Inn(L)) = Inn(Inn(L)) but I donât see why thatâs a priori true
hey guys, if we have a diedergroup Dn=<r,s>, why is the commutator r^2? I don't see how you get it from rsr^-1s^-1
denoting ' as the inverse, note that s'=s so sr's'=sr's=ssr'' (generator reltn) =sÂČr''=r''=r, so we have r(sr's')=rr=rÂČ
sr's=ssr'' why do you have this equality?
the problem is, that we didn't even define it
if I have this equality, then it's "trivial", like I see it
That makes sense, I was fixated on representing elements of A in terms of k. Thanks
you can verify it whatever way you have defined D_n
Here are defining properties of Dih(2n) which I personally find helpful for calculations. A group G is isomorphic to Dih(2n) if:
(1) it contains a normal, cyclic subgroup <r> of order n,
(2) it contains a cyclic subgroup <s> of order 2,
(3) srs' = r',
(4) and finally G = <r> <s> or equivalently G = <s> <r>.
I hope this helps.
Maybe also it would be better to write (3) as sr = r's.
Can someone give me a hand with this?
I still don't see it 
I get why a_d b_e=0
DarQ
i wonder why he says left-zero divisor if R is commutative
maybe that's why you didn't see it >.<
to say f * (a_d g) = 0 you need commutativity

I just spent 15 minutes thinking "wait... doesn't R have to be commutative?"
Lmfao

I need to remember checking out the errata
yea aluffi's first print has a lot of errors >.<
even the second one had quite a few
I don't know where I can get the second one 
Omg
second print has 98
The holy library doesn't have it 
it doesn't? đ
Nope
None that I can see, at any rate
Soo
If anyone has a LEGAL version, please dm me :)
Given X a finite set, why is a function g: X->X surjective if and only if g is injective?
Not really algebra i guess
But intuitively, hopefully it is clear? If you want to fill up n boxes with n items, you can't put more than one item in each box
Not really abstract algebra, this is more #proofs-and-logic . To give a brief answer, if g is surjective, then suppose that X has n elements. If two elements were to be mapped to the same element (i.e. g is not surjective), how many elements will the image have?
if you want to prove this rigorously, induct on the cardinality
I see thanks, sorry for the wrong channel posting.
you're all good
if G is a group and H is subgroup. Then H has index p in G iff it is the kernel of an onto homomorphism \phi:G \to Z/pZ
does this use the first iso theorem
supposing H has index p then
I swear you already asked this once like a month ago
could've been someone else though
nope not i lol
sorry been doing so much algebra lately forgot i did this already
lol don't worry
Donât know if you still need it but index p means G/H is iso to Z/p, and clearly H is the kernel of pi: G -> G/H, composing this with the isomorphism does the trick
For one direction
In the definition given by my teacher, an H-group is an homotopy associative H-space which has an homotopy inverse map but only along the right hand-side of the multiplication map. Is it also a "left inverse"? Or is it the case if and only if the space is contractible?
How?
like for a group
if a monoid has all right inverses then it has all left inverses which are the same as the right inverses
Oh and this translates in a commutating diagram proof I guess?
Anyway, thank you I didn't know about that
yes it should be the same for H-groups
Does someone have an easy example of a non simple tensor that they can explain to me why it's not simple? I saw an example of taking $e_1, e_2$ a basis of $R^2 $ euclidean space and considering $e_1 \otimes e_2 + e_2\otimes e_1 \in R^2 \otimes R^2$ as a non simple tensor but it wasn't clear to me why. They showed it was non simple by contradiction and showed that a system of equations was inconsistent but I can't tell the relevance
fajitas
I think that basically is the simplest example so I'm not sure what you want
My bad but can you explain why it's non simple? It seems like some thing about dependency but I'm not sure how to argue the non simplicity exactly
Is that clear?
Does the system of equations come about because $e_1 \otimes e_1 , e_1 \otimes e_2 , e_2\otimes e_1 , e_2 \otimes e_2$ are linearly independent in the quotient space of $R^2 \otimes R^2 $ so it must be that their coefficients are zero? But then no such coordinates of v and w could satisfy that said system of equations
fajitas
Well I wouldn't say the quotient space, not sure what u mean
But yes they are linearly independent in the tensor product
And so that's why I equated coefficients of the ei tensor ej in my solution
just for my own sanity
the roots of $x^p - 2 \in \bQ[x]$ are $\sqrt[p]{2}\zeta, \sqrt[p]{2}\zeta^2, \ldots, \sqrt[p]{2}\zeta^p$ where $\zeta$ is the $p$th root of unity
ye
well you should say "a primitive pth root of unity" (in some extension field) but ye
if you don't say that we are obligated to pick zeta = 1
what does primitive mean here
it means it's of order p in K^x
isn't there only one primitive pth root of unity
No
Well like this all depends on what field we're using lol
But if there is one primitive pth root, then there are p-1
(if p is prime)
More generally there are phi(p)
This is just because cyclic groups of order n have phi(n) generators
then what does the operation $\zeta^m \cdot \zeta$ correspond to
all elements of the unit circle are rotations
e^ix->cos x + isin x ->cos x & -sin x \\sin x & cos x
if zeta^n=1 then zeta^k corresponds to a 2pi/k rotation
if zeta^m is the kth point (enumerated), then what point is zeta^(m + 1)?
a primitive pth root of unity
what form are you looking for?
we can just say its the zeta^m+1 point?
do we have any more information about m?
if you want a visual
imagine we have unit circle in complex plane
draw a line from 0 to 1
if we enumerate the points
and zeta^m is the kth point
then what point is zeta^(m + 1)?
if we have that zeta is kth root of unity which means zeta^k=1 then imagine making copies and rotating the 01 line by 2pi/k
it depends ig?
if m=n-1
then zeta^m+1= 1
I want a general form
zeta^k= e^2i*pi k/n for zeta an nâth root of unity
no
i said it can be k+1âth or 1
it depends on which root of unity zeta is
i dont know why you arent satisfied
this does not answer my question
can you elaborate on how?
you asked for two questions #groups-rings-fields message
???
that's the same question
I give you the kth point, you multiply it by zeta, which point do you have now?
i said it can be k+1âth or 1
here

Guys in this Cayley table, I have interpreted that the only table that fulfils for it to be a group is C, if a belongs to group G and that is the identity element then C would only fulfil
are you asking for your answer to be checked?
Well, they tell me to prove that it is a group, and the only one I see that fulfils the condition is the C group.
if that is so then you are correct
to solve these quickly find the identity element by looking at each column and making sure that it acts like identity when looking down rows.
then check for inverses by picking seeing if the identity is in each row/column
what about b?
if you know that there are only two groups of order 4, then you can just look for $\bZ/4$ and $\bZ/2 \oplus \bZ/2$ in there
Geopchad
good thing they dont ask for which group
If youâre looking at a cayley table
And asking if it defines a group
I donât think youâd know how many groups of order 4 there are
This is probably like from week 1 of a group theory class
oh yeah people are in school today
I think the multiplicative operation fails in the second row.
why?
probably associativity would be my guess
Eha if I read that example, I understood it, I just need to wait for the exercises, I'm working on it :'D.
hint it is a group
bb=a it could not be possible
sure it can
So you tell me that the bb=a where would give us the identity element why ?
I don't understand
well doesnt a^2=e in integers mod 2?
I didn't know that, where could I read about it?
check klein 4 group
do you know about modular arithmetic?
thats not relevant to the original Q
by the way Aylou this is $\bZ/2 \oplus \bZ/2$
Geopchad
it isnt thats why i pinged the question they asked.
apart from this how is C2 relevant
Yes of course, but I saw it in a numerical way eha not so deep, but yes.
that aside they probably havent seen direct products
ig the takeaway of the exercise is that you should think about the properties for a group
The quickest way to approach the question is to know the groups of order 4
I've never seen that from Klein's group
shuri this is what i was saying
ik
then D monkey said that they prob don't know that
in group tables, associativity and closed are usually implicitly there because you cannot determine order of operations being applied and closed if letters on the inside match letters on the border
Then prove assoc by brute force đ
so you only need to check for identity and inverses which are given by checking this #groups-rings-fields message
how can u see assoc by inspection?
OH mr
I have seen the example you gave me
you dont see associativity because its implicit in how the table is supposed to work
The book gives it I had not seen that detail, I really am an idiot.}
associativity is a law requiring three inputs, a group table only has multiplication in its definition
???
I feel like uve misunderstood what assoc is
there only ever is one operation in a group
the assoc property refers to one op only
thats my point
???????
you can only know result of two elements at a time with a group table
correct
2 lookups
. a b c
a c a a
b b a a
c a a a
(ab)c = bc = a
a(bc) = aa = c
Not associative
===
Check this example.
there is no identity
Thats irrelevant
no it isnt

Anyways without me constructing an explicit example
Algebraic structures that are groups without assoc axiom exist
this always works though
Hence their cayley tables will be non assoc ofc
showing unique identity also shows associative ig
It works only to show not a group
Your steps fail to prove it is a group
no.
it does
If your claim is true, then a group need not specify it needs to be associative
this property would be redundant
i disagree
since identity => assoc according to you
nah this is different
eha
i agree now
Just because almost all intro to algebra studies associative structures doesnt mean non-assoc ones dont exist. You just arent familiar with the examples (and neither am i)
Thanks!
the examples are stupid pathological
Thanks for that tip đ
THANKS
â€ïž!
yeah these have to be bad looking
brief scan, lie algebra might have examples
Good to know theres a small finite example
In mathematics, especially abstract algebra, loop theory and quasigroup theory are active research areas with many open problems. As in other areas of mathematics, such problems are often made public at professional conferences and meetings. Many of the problems posed here first appeared in the Loops (Prague) conferences and the Mile High (Denv...
I'm reading that B3, the braid group on three strands, is the universal central extension of PSL(2, Z), but I was under the impression that a group needs to be perfect to have a universal central extension. Maybe I'm just missing something in the definitions
I wanna find the galois group of $x^p - 2$ for $p$ prime
I know that its order is $p(p - 1)$
so it's either $\bZ_{p(p - 1)}$ or $\bZ_p \rtimes \bZ_{p - 1}$
I know that a $\sigma$ sends $\zeta \mapsto \zeta^b$ for $1 \leq b \leq p$ and $\sqrt[p]{2} \mapsto \sqrt[p]{2}\zeta^a$ for $1 \leq a \leq p$
can I conclude that it's cyclic and therefore $\bZ_{p(p - 1)}$
or hmm
on second thought I'm not sure if it's actually cyclic
ah it doesn't even matter for my actual problem though
cuz the semidirect product one is just the cross product with a different operation, no?
this claim is false, for example if p = 5, then there are two abelian groups of order 20.
yep
hmm then how do I find the galois group
you know how to compose two automorphisms, that's more than enough to find the group up to isomorhpism
yeah but I don't wanna do so much work
is it that much work?
say t = 2^(1/p) and z = exp(2 pi i/p)
then a given automorphism is just a pair (a, b) like you wrote where t --> t*z^a and z --> z^b
the composite can be calculated directly 
Is this problem asking $\exists n, \forall W$ or $\forall W, \exists n$?
mniip
(a1, b1)(a2,b2) should be the pair which sends
t --> t * z^a2 --> t * z^(a1 + b1a2) and
z --> z^b2 --> z^b1b2
which is (a1+b1a2, b1b2)
I believe itâs there exists an n for all W
This clarifies nothing
W are the irreps of G, do all W share the same n
now we have two people claiming the exact opposite
One implies the other
Idk which one the question is specifying, but I'd certainly try to prove the weaker one
The hint in the answers section seems to suggest the weaker version
What's the hint?
I don't see how this would let you relate the n for different phi
Are you asking why this gives you one n that works for all irreps?
I don't think that directly follows but we get the weaker version of the statement
@rustic crown I thought of a better proof
I was able to show that the galois group of x^n - a embeds into Zn rtimes Zn*
https://mathoverflow.net/a/192103
here's a second proof but long
How to show $\Phi_{p^{r}}(x)=\Phi_p(x^{p^{r-1}})$ is irreducible for all $r\geq1$? I know the proof that all $\Phi_n$ are irreducible, it's this special case I'm interested in. The hint suggests the substitution $x\mapsto x+1$ and Eisenstein, just like for $\Phi_p(x)$, but the substitution doesn't help me.
Ocean Man
it works in exactly the same way...
If G = S2 and V = the nontrivial irreducible representation (which is faithful) then V^n alternates between the two irreducible representations so you can't have an n that works for both.
How so? For r=1 we have a simple expression for Q_p(x+1), namely (x+1)^{p}-1/x, that allows the direct application of Eisenstein. For r>1 the expression becomes the complicated (x+1)^{p^r}-1/(x+1)^{p^{r-1}}-1 and I personally don't see how to apply Eisenstein to this.
a polynomial is eisenstein if it is a monomial mod p and the last coefficient is not zero mod p^2
in this case the last coeff is p
I am aware, I am saying that myself I don't see a good concrete expression for Q_{p^r}(x+1) as one would for Q_p(x+1).
I realise this, it's the other coefficients that bother me.
do you know that (x+1)^{p^k}=x^{p^k}+1 mod p
Hm, I didn't think to reduce mod p from the outset, was trying to get a concrete expression for Q_{p^r} (as one does for r=1)...
This works, thanks.
Moreover I'm fairly sure Q_{p^r}(x) = Q_p(x^s) for some s which gives another way to deduce it
There seems to be two distinct ways in which the phrase "solvable by radicals" is used, and it is unclear to me how they relate. Can somebody explain?
i) A polynomial is solvable by radicals if its splitting field is a subfield of a radical extension.
ii) A polynomial is solvable by radicals if its solution has a closed form algebraic expression (did I say it right?).
ii) should be if all its solutions have a closed form algebraic expression (obtained from rational numbers using field operations and nth roots)
the roots you have to take in ii) tell you what radical extension you use in i)
Does anyone elseâs discord not work on PC or Mac I was tryna ask a question but it wonât start on my laptop đ» đ
I have mac
check your system's tray
try cmd-r then
Iâm gonna restart my laptop then see what happens
im trying to show that M is maximal iff R/M is a field using the 4th iso theorem. is this correct:
MyMathYourMath
whole RING* (which is ideal of itself) or trivial ideal
yeah looks right
cool thx
what does "$\on{Gal}(\bL/\bK) \text{ acts transitively on } \Set{\alpha_1, \ldots, \alpha_n}$" mean
$\alpha_i$ are the roots of a separable and irreducible polynomial $f$, $\bL$ is the splitting field of $f$,






