#advanced-algebra
1 messages · Page 11 of 1
What is an injective resolution if not a projective resolution in the opposite category
Yeah, the proof should be the same I think
ah okay, that is interesting, hopefully i will get to see something more explicit connecting the two soon
Bosch's book on AG and CA mentioned it after a long ass proof lol
can this in any way be extended to additive bifunctors? with some analogue of left/right exactness
Some discussion here.
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/4586490/306319
But I think a key part of the step is that
Hom(-, I) is exact for I injective, so if your bifunctor doesn't satisfy that it's probably not true
i see, that makes sense
Does anyone have a nice intuition for direct/inverse limits that they can share?? I seem to often forget their construction and I generally have troubles working with them
For instance, its not immediately obvious to me that every abelian group is the direct limit of its finitely generated subgroups 🥲
injective (direct) limits are basically like generalized unions
the maps from one group to the next tell you how one group sits inside the next
a nice example is the group of all p^n-th roots of unity in the complex plane
which is an injective limit of cyclic group $\varinjlim_{n}C_{p^n}$
Blake
or as you said, every group is the direct limit of its finitely generated subgroups because every group is the union of its finitely generated subgroups
projective (inverse) limits are a bit more difficult to understand at least for groups.
In general if you have groups G_i, then in the injective limit (with a suitable directly family of maps) each element of each G_i will give you an element of the limit
conversely in the projective limit, each element of the limit will give you an element of each G_i
this is basically how I easily tell if something is a projective or injective limit
Why would it be a union? Wouldn't it be better to use free products to be compatible with the group structure??
Thank you so much for your response Blake!! I found it very helpful!
free products are very hard to work with
while using a quotient of disjoint unions an explicit construction can be obtained
$\varprojlim_n\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}=\widehat{\mathbb{Z}}=\prod_p\mathbb{Z}_p$
nGroupoid
$\varprojlim_n\mathbb{Z}/p^n\mathbb{Z}=\mathbb{Z}_p$
nGroupoid
i like to think of colimits as building an object by gluing together smaller parts and limits as reconstructing an object from its shadows.
$\varinjlim_n\mathbb{Z}/n\mathbb{Z}=\mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}=\bigoplus_p\mathbb{Z}[1/p]/\mathbb{Z}$
$\varinjlim_n\mathbb{Z}/p^n\mathbb{Z}=\mathbb{Z}[1/p]/\mathbb{Z}$
the examples of p-adic integers/profinite integers and the dual examples of Prufer groups are kind of the most basic and canonical examples to look at for both limits and colimits of Abelian groups in sequences like this
Q/Z has the nice interpretation in terms of all roots of unity in C*, similarly for Z[1/p]/Z and p-power roots of unit
I guess it is easier conceptually to work with disjoint unions; but free products seem more natural to me here
well you almost never want to consider these examples as just abstract groups
that's one issue with taking the free products approach
I love thatttt!! Thank you :))
Sorry, what do you mean by that??
\hat{Z} and Z_p carry a natural topology since they are profinite groups
a lot of important structural features go out the window if you throw away this additional structure
How does the structure go away??
I've become used to at this point that if you have a map X \to Y of topological spaces; then it should be considered continuous for instance. I haven't seen many situations where we don't unless its a question about that property (e.g. being continuous)
well for example when one has a profinite group G like \hat{Z} one typically studies representations G->GL_n(F) with coefficients in some field F, and you get bad theorems unless you demand that these representations are continuous
if you know a bit of Galois theory then absolute Galois groups are maybe the most natural and interesting supply of profinite groups that nature hands you to study
\hat{Z} itself is the Galois group Gal(\bar{F_q}/F_q) for any finite field F_q
I haven't seen examples where this goes bad before; I only just got introduced to Galois representations this morning and they are continuous?
you want these to be continuous yes
Is there a nice example you have in mind where this goes bad? 🥲
like if you have a number field F and consider Galois representations Gal(\bar{F}/F)->GL_n(C) then continuity forces these to factor through a finite quotient Gal(E/F) for some finite Galois extension E/F, otherwise these things are completely out of control and pathological in general
Right!
another nice example to consider is if G=R/Z is the circle group and you consider the trivial representation M=R, then throwing away continuity you get Hom(G,M)=Hom(R/Z,R)=Hom(R/Q,R) which is huge and poorly behaved, whereas for continuous morphisms you get Hom_cont(G,M)=Hom_cont(R/Z,R)=0
I guess I'm convinced that you generally want continuity. I'm interested in your claim that sometimes you don't want continuity!
OH, sorry, I didn't read properly!
but yeah in the example of Galois representations you're meant to think of Gal(\bar{F}/F) as being built as a profinite group out of its finite quotients Gal(E/F), and the representation theory is meant to reflect that the representations of Gal(\bar{F}/F) are the representations of these finite quotients Gal(E/F) all bundled together
trying to do homological algebra with topological groups like this is classically kind of a headache, there are modern ways to avoid these headaches but not necessary to learn at first
How do I verify these examples? Is it best to write out the direct limit from its construction as a quotient of a disjoint union, or should I verify the universal properties??
I think in these cases it is easiest to write out the direct limit construction and identify the result explicitly
Okayyyy :))
both are manageable for examples like these
for absolute Galois groups in general part of the magic is that you have no a priori control on what finite groups are showing up as quotients, these are very highly mysterious groups in general
like already for Gal(\bar{Q}/Q) you really cannot explicitly name more than two elements of this group without doing some very non-canonical things involving the axiom of choice, nevertheless we can say a lot about the representation theory here
I'm a little lost 😅 . Why do we want to control what finite groups show up??
I mean you don't have to, but the point is that writing Gal(\bar{F}/F) as the projective limit of its finite quotients Gal(E/F) doesn't tell you very much if you don't somehow know a ton about what the tower of finite Galois extensions E/F looks like somehow
for finite fields you can understand what this tower looks like very explicitly
if you pass to the maximal Abelian quotient Gal(\bar{F}/F)^ab=Gal(F^ab/F) and so only consider finite Abelian Galois extensions then there is a lot more you can say
Why is that? Are abelian Galois extensions easier to work with?
well yes understanding them amounts to understanding 1-dimensional Galois representations only, and class field theory completely describes what is happening here
Yesss, right!
if you try to play a non-Abelian version of this game you already run into massive open problems for 2-dimensional Galois representations
I guess you got me interested to learn more about Galois representations! 😂 . Do you have any recommendations to learn it??
well the place to start (beyond basics of algebraic number theory) is to learn how class field theory works
Cassels-Frohlich has a fantastic book for this, as does Milne
I've only had a first course in algebraic number theory 🥲 . Do you need more than that for class field theory?
if you've had a first course you can start learning class field theory, you will spend some amount of time learning various supporting machinery like continuous group cohomology/Tate cohomology and just getting better working with local and global fields, but usually people just learn this stuff for the first time when learning class field theory anyways
class field theory is kind of the first really major big proof around algebraic number theory from some larger perspective
From a google search looking for Cassels-Frohlich's book, I got a book on algebraic number theory. Is that one it??
yeah
also worth checking out Milne https://www.jmilne.org/math/CourseNotes/CFT.pdf
https://www.jmilne.org/math/CourseNotes/ANT.pdf
the ANT notes are very nice for filling in any background, and then the CFT notes develop this story more or less completely
Ooo, sounds like I need some homological algebra?? I'm still reading through (super slowly) Weibels book
you learn it as you go
both Cassels-Frohlich and Milne have nice chapters on Lubin-Tate theory which gives you a very elementary and concrete proof of class field theory for all p-adic local fields, without any cohomological machinery
though the cohomological machinery gives a lot of further insight into the local situation, and then it's genuinely necessary to prove things in the global situation
I'm a little worried that CFT is too far ahead for me; my ANT course was very basic in my opinion
it takes time it's supposed to be a bit further ahead than any first course will prepare you for
you don't understand these sort of proofs all at once, you break them down into much more manageable pieces
if you're already reading through Weibel's book then group cohomology shows up sooner rather than later in that book, and applying this sort of abstract stuff to an actual goal like class field theory is how most people interested in number theory learn group cohomology in the first place
a lot of this machinery around Galois cohomology breaks this stuff down into manageable pieces, like all the actual computations reduce to group cohomology for finite groups
Mmm, I haven't learnt group cohomology yet. I feel like I've hit a dead end with Weibel's section on spectral sequences...
yeah I would recommend returning to that section later when it becomes more necessary
besides one typically learns spectral sequences through actual examples, not through an abstract treatment like Weibel
regardless you can get started with something like Lubin-Tate theory without any of this machinery and it's a beautiful story on its own
I don't feel like I want to give up on it just yet. I'm motivated to learn it so that I can learn about Grothendieck's spectral sequence (I think specifically the Leray spectral sequence)
(I'm interested in all this for learning sheaf cohomology)
generally one needs a rich enough supply of examples before being able to get the benefits of spectral sequences like this (like you should learn some basics of sheaf cohomology and learn the examples that you can compute by hand, before ever needing the various spectral sequences that help you with more complicated examples)
Would that be do-able for what I've learnt so far from Weibel (chapters 1-3)?
I've learnt that sheaf cohomology is the right derived functor of the global sections; is it enough for concrete examples??
I would skip straight to chapter 6 in Weibel and read this alongside the chapter on group cohomology/Tate cohomology in Milne. The two complement each other greatly
for sheaf cohomology I would recommend picking up places where this is actually used first, like in algebraic geometry from Hartshorne, or complex analytic geometry from most texts on Hodge theory
or in differential geometry from Bott-Tu
depends on your interests
Thank you for your suggestion!! Is it for trying to learn class field theory, or sheaf cohomology??
the suggestion with Weibel and Milne is for class field theory, it seems like you could start learning this without too much more background
for sheaf cohomology you will probably need more background to get to computing examples where this machinery actually matters, even if the abstract definition makes some sense
like in algebraic geometry the first real sheaf cohomology computation one does is the cohomology of the line bundles O(n) on projective spaces P^d
this appears somewhere in Hartshorne or you can look this result up and there are probably about a hundred shorter self contained notes various students have written before on this
I'm actually thinking of reading through Gathmann's notes on AG over my holidays instead of Hartshorne 🥲
yeah there are loads of more or less interchangeable books on this subject, so long as they cover what you want to learn
I guess Hartshorne is a little scary for me 😂
So my plan was really to go through Gathmann's notes first; and then come back to Hartshorne :))
He has a section on sheaf cohomology
I thought this was incomplete because it was only 190 pages
But its 2 pages per page
But I will try to get a physical copy
Thanks nG and lucas, your conversion was helpful to me too
The main benefit of direct limits as opposed to arbitrary colimits is that you can work with unions instead of free products.
This is because the forgetful functor to set commutes with direct limits.
OH, that's nice!! Thank you!
the free product is a generalized union, you basically take all of the groups and put them into a big bag and then you allow all possible multiplications with no relations
In some sense at least
I don't remember if you need to use the free product for the inductive limit of general groups
In this case I think a union would actually suffice
Yeah I think so
The main thing you want is the colimit
Using a quotient of a free product is one construction of the colimit
But the useful part is the universal property, and I think the union would satisfy that
Well, not a plain union, but a union quotiented by making elements that map to each other by a morphims in the diagram equal.
(If all the maps in your directed system are actual set-theoretic inclusions, then yes, just the union).
Yeah that’s what I was considering
But you’re right that in the general case you want the quotienting
So long as all your maps are injective, though, your directed system should be isomorphic to one where they’re all genuine set-theoretic inclusions, I think…
Yes, if you identify everything with its image in the direct limit.
I realise now that I am very used to saying filtered colimit rather than direct limit, but not cofiltered rather than inverse lol
(I guess filtered colimits etc kinda appear more in some areas of math though idk – and "cofiltered" is a bit ugly)
I hate the term direct limit so that term is probably better anyway
What's the concept behind "filtered" here?
Why is that??
because it's not actually a limit
it's a colimit
in the language of category theory
But the alternative language also calls it a limit, doesn't it??
No, you could say directed or filtered colimit
OH, by alternative, I mean inductive limit
I like the name "directed colimit"!! Sounds nice!
I guess the adjective "filtered" can also apply for inverse limits too?? Something like filtered limit? Or would people have no clue what I'm talking about haha?
Hm I am trying to think of some illustrative examples. I guess in my mind the point is just that it's slightly more flexible and general than "directed" and all you need to prove the usual things you prove about directed colimits. But it is necessarily slightly hard to give very good examples, because given a filtered diagram D you can always find a cofinal map D' -> D where D' is directed (so that the colimit of any functor out of D can be computed after composing with D' -> D)
That would be what is sometimes called a cofiltered limit
I thought that filtered means a sequence of nested subobjects. But the nesting can be increasing or decreasing?
^So I would of thought by dualising, you just get filtered again
I was mostly wondering about the wording -- it sounds like there's a verb "to filter" which describes something that has been done to the limit, and I'm unsure what the relevant sense of filtering something is.
Ah it is more that the diagram itself is filtered
Is it just by analogy to "a filter is closed under binary intersections"?
Like especially if you think of the prototyping example of having an increasing sequence of subsets or something, then this gives stuff a filtration
I wouldn't think in terms of filters in that sense, but more filtrations in this sense
Which is presumably older
I have no good sense of "filtration" either, though.
By which I mean, I can look up the definition at Wikipedia, but I cannot find an intuition that would connect it to something like a coffee filter.
(Of course mathematics doesn't owe anyone to make etymological sense ...)
Hm I guess I would think of like when you have some increasing sequence so you are gradually adding in bits in stages. Or maybe the reverse (I.e. decreasing sequences) is more evocative in removing bits bit by bit
But this is a good point lol. I am unsure who coined this terminology for example
But I think this may be the spirit at least
Maybe the idea is like in a coffee filter you extract some concentrate from some mush and similarly here since for any two elements you have an element lying over them you're somehow concentrating the elements into something "finer"
Tho also I just came up with this so idk lmfao
It’s a categorification of “directed set”
It looks like there's at least sometimes a distinction between "filtered colimit" and "direct limit" in that the former doesn't require the index category to be posetal.
its more general
i believe
I am currently in a seminar and somebody claimed M in Mod(R) M projective implies M free if R is a principal ideal domain
For finitely generated it is clear what about the infinite case?
yes
over a PID every submodule of a free module is free
uses choice though, of course
A bit, and I think strictly so, but direct limits get a lot of milage anyway
Iirc the keyword is it’s a result of dedekind?
Hilton & Stammbach do not mention a source lol
Thank you
Fun fact: for a connected commutative noetherian ring every infinitely generated projective module is free.
So in particular this also holds for PIDs (though you can probably prove it more easily for PIDs)
you with your connected rings
I feel like it should be more immediately obvious to me why no idempotents iff spec(R) is connected
Maybe theres secretly some AG magic to do, and I think i see why idempotents get you a disconected space, but not the other way
Idempotents => disconnected is relatively easy, but the other direction is bleh
Ok thats good enough for me lol
I dont need to think about AG anymore than I need to, and I can see this direction
The other direction is errr
Spec(A) = V(I) union V(J) with their intersection empty
So I + J = (1) and IJ is nilpotent
So there are e \in I, f \in J with e + f = 1, ef is nilpotent
Then you modify your choice of e, f so that e + f = 1 and ef = 0
just think disconnected => space is disjoint union of connected components => show each component is affine => Spec maps direct sums to disjoint unions (and vice versa) => R = (+)R_i => idempotents
Yeah this looks midly more involved and not something I should just be able to see lol
I am ok with that
Spec maps direct sums to disjoint unions is not immediately easy on the level of locally ringed spaces?
I mean is it that difficult?
Tho okay point taken
but that diagram isn't exactly step by step there are details left out ofc
(I’m mostly saying that bc I tried that approach a couple weeks back when we had it set as an exercise and that was where I got stuck lol)
clopen sets correspond to idempotents
in particular this implies one direction of Stone duality
So one way you can prove it fairly directly is just from the definition of the Zariski topology and Chinese remainder theorem you have that
R modelo the nilradical decomposes as a product if spec(R) is disconnected.
Then you can use the idempotents lift modulo nil ideals (which is something that is true and useful also for non-commutative rings, so is something you should prove anyway).
The alternative root is to build up more AG machinery, so that you can show there is a section that is 1 on one component and 0 on another.
I heard u dont like ag much? Ive only recently started to get a little into it
That question seems cool tho
Ag also seems real tricky lol
The stuff I’ve done I haven’t loved, though I haven’t done a huge amount by any means. I also would learn more if the opportunity to take a scheme theoretic course showed up
But like it’s a huge field, there’s loads I won’t have seen, and what I have done is very much influenced by like 3 people who work on pretty much the same area, and I know other people who do AG feel similarly about that area lol
Yeah im perusing the idea of applying to phd programs so im wanting to be more sure on what area i want to go deeper into
There a sort of middle ground argument here as well more in the spirit of AG without too much machinary:
So let R be your ring, N is nilradical and you've shown that
R/N = R1 x R2
pick e1 a lift of (1, 0) and e2 = 1 - e1. Then we want to show that
R = R[1/e1] x R[1/e2]
We of course have a natural map R -> R[1/e1] x R[1/e2], let us show it is injective.
Say r maps to 0. That means there is an n such that
r e1^n = 0 and r e2^n = 0. Thus
r (e1^n + e2^n) = 0, but e1^n + e2^n is a unit (because it is a unit modulo the nilradical), so r is 0.
For surjectivity note that there is an n such that (e1e2)^n = 0
Let u be the inverse of e1^n+1 + e2^n+1
Then consider r = u e1^n. As e2^n r = 0, the image in R[1/e2] is 0. Notice also
e1^n+1 r = u e1^n * e1^n+1 = u e1^n (e1^n+1 + e2^n+1) = e1^n
means that
r/1 = 1/e1 in R[1/e1].
Similar arguments show that (0, 1/e2) is also in the image. Together this give you surjectivity.
I mean if Spec A = U disjoint union V, the map A -> O(U) \times O(V) is directly an isomorphism by definition of a sheaf (surjective because you can glue, injective because you can glue uniquely)
unless I missed something and you want to avoid using the structure sheaf
What properties does an algebra need to have to be integrable?
i guess then a better question is is there notions of integrability for operations other than addition
like integration for the numbers but instead of infinitely adding infinitely small numbers it would be the operation outputting infinitely close elements to the input infinitely many times?
sorry if this is completely incomprehensible
well its just not well defined at all
you have to choose what aspect of integration is important and then you generalise that concept
for example, a derivation on rings is a generalisation of the differential, which can be generalised to arbitrary categories using Beck-modules
but this takes very specific algebraic properties and generalises it which you might not care about
the first sign that this question is ill-posed is that differentiation doesnt even have a nice analogue for arbitrary rings besides "preimages of derivations"
There is some work in showing that the structure sheaf is a sheaf I guess
Yes, but we can make it concrete: we use that A -> A[1/a1] ⨯ ... ⨯ A[1/an] is injective with range exactly (a_i) such that a_i = a_j in A[1/(ai aj)], which I think is a useful AG-inspired pure algebra fact (proved by pure algebra as you did above) just like local-global principles. In this case e+f=1 so this fact applies and ef is nilpotent so A[1/(ef)] = 0; hence A = A[1/e] ⨯ A[1/f].
Another way to use AG for ideas but algebra for the proofs: given A, I, J as before, we expect that A is a product B ⨯ C with I = B ⨯ {0}, J = {0} ⨯ C, but in general a closed subset or its open complement doesn't have a unique defining ideal because V(I) = V(sqrt I), so I = B ⨯ {0}, J = {0} ⨯ C won't be true for the first I, J you choose. But if we replace I, J by their radicals we can be sure that I = B ⨯ nilrad(C) and J = nilrad(B) ⨯ C (and in general any choice of I, J will be B ⨯ (some nil ideal), (some nil ideal) ⨯ C). The point of all this is that in the product representation we should have e = (1-f', e'), f = (f', 1-e') with e', f' nilpotent. (Now AG is done and we can go back to algebra.)
In particular, for any sufficiently high power of e the second component will become actually 0 and we might be able to make it actually idempotent. Say e'^m = 0 and f'^n = 0. Maybe two ways to go from here:
(i) (e+f) = 1 ⇒ 1 = (e+f)^N = binomial sum and if N ≥ m+n-1 then every term has either e^m or f^n. So we can take new e = e^N + N e^{n-1} f + ... + NC(N-m) e^m f^{N-m} and new f = other terms. (This ought to be almost the same in spirit as showing sum of (commuting) nilpotents is nilpotents: ef = (0, (1-e')e') + ((1-f')f', 0). But IDK how to do it using that directly.)
(ii) e^m = ((1-f')^m, 0) is not quite (1, 0). But ((1-f')^m is invertible with inverse p(f') = (1+f'+f'^2+...+f'^{n-1})^m, which is the first component of p(f). So e^m p(f) ought to be an idempotent we can use, for sufficiently large m and n. I haven't thought about how to prove this yet.
(posting here because #groups-rings-fields is taken)
I am trying to find the radical of $(XY-X^2, X^3-Y^3) \subset \mathbb{Q}[X,Y]$
swifteeee
I have proved some things about radicals, namely:
But I am struggling to use these to find the radical of the above ideal
I'm very certain it is (X-Y), but I can't figure out how to get there fully
r(I) is notation for the radical of I
you can factor out X-Y from both generators
I've tried going down this route, and I end up with (X-Y) (X^2 + XY + Y^2 - X)
and idk if that is eaiser to work with
(X^2 + XY + Y^2, X) = (X, Y^2) = (X) + (Y^2)
I dont see the first equality sry
X^2 + XY + Y^2 = X(X+Y) + Y^2
like if you could write an element of (X^2 + XY + Y^2, X) as
f(X,Y) * (X^2 + XY + Y^2) + g(X,Y) * X then you can write it also as
f(X,Y) * Y^2 + (g(X,Y) + f(X,Y) * (X+Y)) * X
I would prove directly that $(X-Y)^3$ belongs to the ideal, so $X - Y$ is in the radical
Adayah
then r(X,Y^2) = r(r(X) + r(Y^2)) = r((X) + (Y)) = r(X,Y) but (X,Y) is prime in Q[X,Y]. All in all, r(XY-X^2, X^3-Y^3) = r((X-Y) \cap (X,Y)) = r(X-Y) \cap (X,Y) = (X-Y) as it is a subset of (X,Y^2)
okay nice
thank you so much : )
Maybe. I did want to use the results that were used as part of the question though
To show that a permutation p in Sn is a k-cycle, is it enough to show that exactly k points are moved around while the others stays stationary?
Hm does additionally having order k work?
I believe so
Cool
since the order is the lcm of the sizes of the disjoint cycles that make it up
for a counterexample you would need to find a set of numbers with lcm = their sum
actually maybe possible?
thanks AI overview

actually false, consider (1 2 3 4 5 6)(7 8 9 10)(11 12) this permutation has order 12 and moves exactly 12 points
(because lcm(2,4,6)=2+4+6)
Rip
Can I have a hint for the backwards direction of ii please
I know that the left side is contained in the right side by part i
remember that you can write the radical as the intersection of primes lying over your ideal
Hm okay, so we want to show that if q is a prime ideal containing S_p(0) then it contains p
yes
I have no clue what to do Imma try localizing both sides
try a contradiction
What's a linear algebraic representation (i.e. polynomial components) of GL_n on some vector space V and a vector subspace W of V such that the stabiliser of W is the subgroup B_n of upper-triangular matrices?
GL_n acts on n by n matrices* by matrix mult and the stabilzer of B_n is B_n I believe although that's a bit boring
sort of crude but i think you can do like V = k^n (+) wedge1 k^n + wedge2 k^n +.... and let W = span {e_1, e_1 ^ e_2, e_1 ^ e_2 ^ e_3,...}
I don’t quite think GL_n, B_n is a vector space
Ah, OK. Basically Stab(W1 (+) W2) in V1 (+) V2 is Stab(W1) ∩ Stab(W2)? That's neat.
oh oops I mean Mn
OK dang. That's also really neat. And even cooler: both use the same direct sum idea (the only difference is the exterior power step).
OMW to wonder why I didn't think of this...
yeah, i was just constructing something where you are preserving the flag
hey uhh.. does anyone have resources on finite alternative loops.
I may have just made a cryptographic breakthrough. (Generalization of conjugacy based cryptography to nonassociative alternative loops). I'm trying it over finite field octonians but wanna know how to cryptanalyze it.
If my intuition is correct, this would actually get rid of most of the weaknesses of conjugacy based crypto.
Namely, there is no linear representation to exploit.
You can view this in terms of weight theory for reductive groups. GL_n is reductive and B_n is a Borel subgroup. Thus, any irrep of GL_n has a highest weight space, and its stabilizer is the Borel. These are always linear algebraic representations (I'm assuming you're working over the complex numbers).
Ah, also neat. Although I guess the highest weight needs to have a positive component for all the fundamental weights (i.e. be "regular" / in the interior of the standard chamber) to avoid having a large stabiliser? (Which also means it's easy to find a low-dimensional rep with stabilisers other parabolics.
)
Ah yes, that is correct. It needs to be a regular weight (otherwise the stabilizer will be a parabolic that is strictly larger than the Borel).
Does anyone know a concise exposition classifying all closed subgroups between a Borel B of a connected reductive group G and G? I think I used to know the argument but forgot it.
So you mean classifying the parabolic subgroups of a reductive group? I think Malle & Testermann has it in their book
I wouldn't call it entirely concise though...
I think Digne & Michel's book on the representation theory of finite groups of Lie type (the 2nd edition) has a VERY concise coverage of parabolics and Levis
Yeah, in chapter 3.2
would you recommend this book
Malle and Testermann?
It's...
I want to recommend it. It feels a bit weird
I think it's a good book but it is one of those books that assumes that you sort of already know a bit of what's going on
If you know vaguely what a reductive group or a group of Lie type is, then I think it's a good book
The caveat is that I don't know of any great books on these things 
The Hatcher/algtop problem I see
It's straightforward to classify them. If you fix a Borel B, the subgroups containing B are all parabolic, and they correspond to subsets of simple roots. In particular, there's only a finite number of them. This should be in any book on algebraic groups.
As far as introductory books on algebraic groups, there are many out there and they're kinda interchangeable (Humphreys, Springer, Borel, etc). Jantzen's book is the bible and is mandatory if you want to dig deep, but it's not a good introduction.
I don't want to know that there are finitely many, I want an exact list. And it's not as simple as a sum-closed subset of negative roots because the bracket [ga, gb] ⊆ g(a+b) could still be 0.
Thanks, I'll check it out.
Ah, you said subset of simple roots. This is the part I can't reproduce.
This is an exact list. There is a bijective correspondence between the power set of the set of simple roots and parabolics containing a given Borel. This is section 8.4 of Springer's book on algebraic groups.
This result requires some work -- it's nontrivial.
The construction is easy though: a subset of simple roots determines a root subsystem. You obtain the parabolic by adjoining the corresponding negative root subgroups to your Borel. The hard part is showing that this is exactly the list of parabolics.
I agree that's the hard part, and it's what I want a reference for. It is surely in most books on reductive algebraic groups, but not necessarily in one place where I can read just that.
The tensor product of an irreducible $\mathbb{C}G$-module with its dual contains the trivial $\mathbb{C}G$-module as a submodule.
somethingwrong
Anyone familiar with this know where I can find an easy proof of this?
the place where I got this from is a more general book on KG-algebra where K might have non-zero character so the proof is abit more involved but I feel that for the CG-case, there should be an easier proof
Does this work: If $U$ is the irreducible $\mathbb{C}[G]$-module with character $\chi$ then its dual has character $\overline{\chi}$, now $\langle 1, \chi\overline{\chi} \rangle = \langle \chi, \chi \rangle = 1$
FIELD WITH ONE ELEMENT LOVER
yeah that's a character-theoretic approach you can take
you can probably also just construct the trivial submodule directly
i am abit unfamiliar but the first equality just comes from expanding the definition of the inner product right?
I thought that maybe the trivial submodule would just be the sum of all simple tensors
so long as you're finite-dimensional
it's close to this
yep working on finite dimensional*
there's an element of $V^* \otimes V$ which corresponds to the identity map
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yeppers
it can be written as $\sum_i \vec e_i^* \otimes \vec e_i$ for any basis $\vec e_i$ of $V$, with $\vec e_i^*$ the corresponding dual basis
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
but this sum is basis-independent
perhaps the easiest way to do this problem, then, would be to use the isomorphism $U^* \otimes U \cong \text{Hom}(U, U)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
hmm i dont follow this, what would the link be between the tensor product and the identity map
then finding a trivial submodule is equivalent to finding a nontrivial G-equivariant map
which the identity always is
are you familiar with the isomorphism between $V^* \otimes W$ and $\text{Hom}_{\text{Finite Rank} }(V, W)$?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
this works for any vector spaces, even infinite-dimensional ones
ah okay
i am not as familiar as I should be, thanks alot I think i can fill in the details now
if either $V$ or $W$ is finite-dimensional, then of course $\text{Hom}_{\text{Finite Rank} }(V, W) = \text{Hom}(V, W)$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
note that this isomorphism also works at the level of $\mathbb{C}[G]$-modules, not just vector spaces
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
A particularly short proof could be: as CG is semisimple having the trivial module C as a summand is the same as having a non-zero map to it.
But
Hom(V*(x)V, C) = Hom(V, Hom(V*, C)) = Hom(V, V)
he's smooth wit it...
(One Hom is over CG and one over C)
this is essentially my argument but less woke
I guess in the end what is shortest comes down to what you've already established about / how you define tensor, dual, etc
For V finite-dimensional (certainly true if G is finite), V (⨯) V* is isomorphic to Hom(V, V) as a G-representation, and span{id} is a copy of the trivial G-representation inside it. This works in the modular setting as well.
thanks all, i managed to get quite abit more reading in and got here
I am abit confused though, the whole point of my reading was that maybe the following statement held specially for C but it seems to hold for any algebraically closed field over any character:
For simple FG modules, V \otimes V* will contain the trivial module
Don't need algebraically closed either
a
ah okay thank you, i think for my purposes, i am only looking at algebraically closed fields, maybe i will get to take a look at this in the future
oh and by divide, its just mean contains a copy
ah i have a couple typos here
Suppose the trivial module does not divide $M^* \otimes M$, by contrapositive of 2.2 $p\mid \dim M$ and thus by proposition 2.3 $M\oplus M $ divides $M\otimes M^* \otimes M$. But from what I just know, is that $M^* \otimes M$ will always contain the trivial module if $M$ is simple. So this means that $M \oplus M$ will never divide $M\otimes M^* \otimes M$ if $M$ is simple?
somethingwrong
It seems you're picture uses the notation divides to mean has a direct summand, not just a submodule
oh yes your right but I thought that it meant the same thing?
ah that would only be true over something like C right?
In the semisimple case it does. So if p doesn't divide the order of your group
so this would be right as long as p doesn't divide order of the group, is that correct?
So you're saying that if the trivial module doesn't divide, then some stuff follows.
But since the trivial module does divide it you can't really conclude anything
ah okay, the argument doesnt make sense at all in any case then actually right
But if you're over C, then p=0.
So then I guess 2.3 just gives you what you want
(I don't know if it's implicit that p>1 in 2.3)
hmm okay thank you, i think I have direction on what to look at now, thanks as always for the help
Funny message out of context
no pp 😔
0, my favorite prime number
so wait, I've been thinking, with GCH-less ZFC, 2^X = 2^Y but X != Y
is the vector space F^X isomorphic to F^Y?
X and Y are cardinals
The answer seems to be yes because their basis's have the same size but I still need to check
lol i meant more it sounds like C has char p
Well it does
Is there anyone here who can explain me what is Clifford algebra?
Its like a normal algebra but big and red
if M is an R-module and Q is a quadratic form M -> R t's a quotient of the tensor algebra T(V) by the relations v (x) v - Q(v)(1 (x) 1 )
essentially defining how you should "multiply vectors" corresponding to the quadratic form
In a popular book by Roger Penrose "the road to reality" I read that it is related to rotations in R^n and quaternions, but I cannot understand the link
the quaternions are a specific case of a clifford algebra over R, as are the complex numbers
specifically I believe you take the quadratic form Q : V -> R to send a vector (v_1, v_2) to v_1^2-v_2^2 for the complex numbers and (v_1, v_2, v_3, v_4) to v_1^2-v_2^2-...-v_4^2 for the quaternions
but I'd need to double check that
Ok, ok, thank you! I will check by myself, don' t worry!
If I am wrong then it's definitely some combination of +s and -s
just not the one I wrote
Another question Is It correct to say that exterior product Is the generalization of cross product?
yeah
although I'd prefer to just go all the way to "lie algebras are a generalisation of the cross product"
In what way
R^3 with the cross product is one of the main examples of a Lie algebra.
the cross product satisfies the jacobi identity and thus gives rise to a lie algebra structure on R^3
as tropo said it's a main example of a strictly non-associative lie algebra
iirc its actually one of two non-abelian 3 dimensional lie algebras
real
or nvm u need also the condition that the derived subalgebra is of dimension 1 for this "classification" to be true
didn't know that, that's pretty cool
i mis-wrote that
this classifes real dim 3 liealgebras with L'=L
the other being sl(2,R)
if you were to take this over C, youd have only 1 such lie algebra (sl(2,C))
you know the two (sl(2,R) and the cross-product) are not the same by noting that
in sl(2,R) there is an element such that the adjoint representation is diagonal
while you can never have that with the cross-product lie
alg
yeah for clarity so(3) is the cross product one
Glad you said this
yeah you only have one if you consider over C right
Lol I meant just cause I like Lie algebras away from R and C
right 😄
Let $F$ be a field and $G$ a finite group. The group algebra $FG$ is called semisimple if every $FG$-module is a semisimple module, i.e. decomposable into a direct sum of simple $FG$-modules.
somethingwrong
im trying to find something which explains why the decomposiiton is unique up to isomorphism/order
This is just Maschkes theorem and the Artin Wedderburn theorem right?
Well perhaps just AW, maschke just tells you when FG is semi simple
i am not sure of the exact names, i know the former is Maschkes theorem. i chatgpt it but i know i will need the result but the proof chatgpt gave is abit involved
any idea of a book which goes through it in abit more detail?
There’s a pretty good proof on Wikipedia, that’s probably the only modern proof I know where to find (this was an exercise in my noncom class)
There is a proof in like Hungerford but that goes a bit of a different way about it
i am not familiar with what an artinian ring is actually
You don't need AW. Take two decompositions and restrict the identity map to the simple parts and use definition of simple. Serre's Linear representations of finite groups should have a proof
I will take a look, thanks both
Ah nice, my representation theory is borderline nonexistent, I’ve just seen this as an application of AW
Yeah I just looked it up, AW seems to be a lot more general
Say you have a decomposition into simple modules
M = Sum S1 (+) Sum S2 (+) ...
where the Si are distinct simple modules.
Then Hom(Si, M) = Sum End(Si)
which is a vector space, so has a well defined dimension.
So the decomposition is unique
There's also the stronger
Azumaya-Krull-Remack-Schmidt theorem: if a module is the direct sum of modules with local endomorphism ring, then the decomposition into indecomposable modules is unique.
And the endomorphism ring of a simple module is a division ring, hence local
heyy! I'm trying to solve this question. I understand why the composite passes to the quotient (mimicking the second order terms vanishing) , but I'm not quite sure how to show that the kernel of such map is the image of the first.
For me, the natural choice for the first map would be to send a dervation d to the vector (d(pi(xi)))_i , where pi denotes the surjection
however, i am struggling a bit to show that double composition vanishes. If I restrict myself to one summand, given a differential d, exactness should yield $d(\pi(x)) \cdot \pi(\tfrac{\partial f}{\partial x}) = 0$
Brindille Connexe
for a f in the ideal I
however, after trying various manipulations with leibniz rule, I can't quite get this result. If someone has an idea to give me (I may have the wrong first map), that would be amazing!
d(f) is exactly equal to Sum_i d(xi) df/dxi though right. And since f=0 in A, d(f)=0
if you don't already know this then it's enough to prove it for f a monomial (because of linearity) and then you can do induction on degree
I have been reading more abit more about ordinary representation theory when $\operatorname{char}(F)\nmid |G|$. Is the representation ring for the positive case exactly the same as for $\mathbb{C}$? I.e. take the free $\mathbb{Z}$-module over basis elements given by isomorphism classes of simple $FG$-modules where addition is essentially the direct sum of $\mathbb{C}G$-modules and multiplication is given by the tensor product. Is there any notable difference within the ordinary case that I should be aware?
I also recalled my professor talking about the representation ring over finite field $F$ being not very interesting and so when we talk about positive characteristic, we specifically mean an algebraically closed field. Is this still true for just within the ordinary case?
somethingwrong
thank you!
it makes sense in a differential geometry point of view, but i didnt it held for algebraic derivatives
The definition of the representation ring is the same yes.
I'm not sure why it would be less interesting over finite fields. As long as your field is a splitting field for your group the representation ring will be more or less exactly the same over the algebraic closure.
okay maybe i will look at this splitting thing, thank you
Working in an abelian cat with enough injectives. If I have an object $A$ a resolution $A \to R^\bullet$ and an injective resolution $A \to I^\bullet$ you get choose an induced map (unqiue up to homotopy)$R^\bullet \to I^\bullet$ making the triangle commute. Can this be done naturally? What I mean is that if I had $A \to B$, a resolution $B \to S^\bullet$ and an injective resolution $B \to J^\bullet$ together with maps $R^\bullet \to S^\bullet$ and $I^\bullet \to J^\bullet$ can I choose $R^\bullet \to I^\bullet$ and $S^\bullet \to J^\bullet$ such that everythign commutes?
This must be very confusing to read ill draw it
1728
I kind of want to say that you can view $I^\bullet \to J^\bullet$ as an injective resolution of $A \to B$
1728
Off the top of my head, by all the uniqueness up to homotopy results, the map is (unique and therefore) natural if you view it as a map in the homotopy category. Whether it can be done natural without identifying homotopic maps, I don't know.
Yea
I thibk it can
The idea I had is that you consider the category of complexes. Then you can view A -> B as an element of that category and (A -> B) -> (R->S)^* is a resolution of A->B. Since I^p -> J^p is a bounded complex in which every object is injective it is an injective complex. So (A -> B) -> (I -> J)^* is an injective resolution
And then you get an induced map (R->S)^* -> (I->J)^* making the whole thing commute
When you say injective complex you mean injective object in the category of complexes?
If so you also need the complexes to be exact, which their not.
But if you're allowed to choose I and J aswell then it can definitely be done
So I’m trying to understand how the lie bracket gets defined for a Lie group
Say I have two tangent vectors X and Y at the identity
I can make them vector fields by setting the value at g to be g . X and g . Y right
Then… is the lie bracket the commutator of these two vector fields…?
I know of two natural ways to define the bracket for the Lie algebra of a Lie group. One is as you describe: given vectors x and y in the tangent space at the identity, extend them to be left-invariant vector fields X and Y on all of G by pushing forward by left-multiplication. Then their commutator [X, Y] is again left-invariant (one should check this) and the value at the identity is what we define [x, y] to be. I don't really like this definition as I think it obscures what the connection to study homomorphisms between Lie groups actually is.
An alternative way is as follows. Given an element g in G, conjugation by g defines a smooth map F_g: G -> G which takes the identity to itself. Therefore, the differential of this map at the identity, denoted Ad_g, is a linear map from T_eG to itself. One can check that Ad behaves well with respect to composing the F_g maps, so we get a homomorphism Ad: G -> GL(T_eG) taking g to Ad_g. By differentiating Ad at the identity, one gets a map T_eG -> End(T_eG) which takes a vector x to an endomorphism ad(x). One can define the bracket by [x, y] := ad(x)(y). A more expository derivation of this is described in Fulton and Harris' book I think (as well as a description of why these two definitions are equivalent).
i've seen the conjugation definition before but i always got confused by the double differentiation
Fair, I guess I tried to reconcile this by observing that we are treating GL(T_eG) as a Lie group and thinking hard about why Ad is a smooth map so I can differentiate again and what this means intuitively in terms of infinitesimal conjugation
yeah why is Ad a smooth map
It's the composition of left and right multiplication by g and g^-1, respectively. Multiplication in the group is always smooth.
Ig this is more about Ad(g) rather than Ad itself
yeah exactly
i can totally believe Ad(g) is smooth
but that's different from Ad itself being smooth
Should come from considering the map G x G -> G sending (g,h) |-> ghg^-1 locally, like ig this is a submersion
Actually this is essentially the approach here I guess https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4049481/adjoint-map-textadg-rightarrow-textaut-mathfrakg-is-smooth
yea i was being kind of confused
i fixed it out though
because in my situation i had a ses of resolutions and of injective resolutions
and its easy to check that an ses of injectives is an injective complex
and then everyhting works out
Anyone know of any abstract algebra tutors?
Ahhhh so one has to use the tangent bundle like this instead of just tangent spaces. 
I was musing over this recently; it's nice that the answer just appeared in front of me.
What’s a good proof of the hook length formula
i don’t think there’s any thats not annoying combinatorics and sum manipulation
Nothing I could show my students?
yeah iirc a lot of the combinatorial identities you can use for rep theory are really nontrivial combinatorial facts
and have involved proofs
wikipedia shows a probabilistic pseudo-proof so maybe you can do that but also i felt like i didkt lose anything when my professor told us to trust the combinatorics
Tbh I remember doing this in like first year undergrad or before, didn't think it was too bad?
Maybe it was the probabilistic method
How would you explain it
Actually sorry I more meant to reply to hk
Actually n o I think I got it confused with smth else. My bad
Definitely not first year lol
I think it was the special case for Catalan numbers that we did
oh
i don’t even think it’s an “understanding” thing
like it’s not conceptually deep it’s just very involved
Do you mean combinatorics
the proof
hm…
in my experience this usually means there’s something I’m missing about the proof
I feel like I remembering seeing a proof in some slides online that seemed pretty motivated, but IDR anything about it.
I mean when it comes to combi I think it just often is the case that there’s nothing to do but suck it up and count, which can be a bit of a painful process but not all that conceptually hard
I don’t know this formula or the proof so I couldn’t comment on that, but just as a general point about combinatorial things
hm…
I’m not used to that
I guess like
I’m very happy doing big calculations in physics
Not as much for maths
Yeah, I don’t really know what to say to that beyond that’s just how combinatorics tends to be. Not to say there aren’t very clever arguments there, but often times you just have to consider cases and get to counting
https://sites.math.washington.edu/~billey/classes/561.fall.2019/past.articles/glass.ng.2004.pdf i found this which calls itself simple , its 4 pages and uses a complex analysis theorem
That looks gross
lol
Ig more just a generating function trick right
Rather than really complex analysis
(As one would hope lol)
I’ve often found it hard to “get” combinatorics
this really depends on what they/you have seen. my personal favorite proof uses some facts about symmetric functions/rep theory of lie algebras that you may or may not have seen.
Same here, counting is hard
To me it’s always felt very disconnected and hard to make sense of
i like algebraic combinatorics
https://mathweb.ucsd.edu/~ssam/old/22W-202B/notes.pdf#subsection.5.2
roughly follows my preferred proof
I don’t know much in general but the combinatorial comalg I’ve done is pretty sweet
Like it very rarely felt like i was ever “getting better” at combi
this is kind of the appeal of combinatorics imo
the… appeal?
yes, some people like doing difficult things asap
oh yeah. met richard stanley on monday it was cool
which is easier to do in combi than other areas
I feel the same, but I also wouldn’t say I’ve really put enough effort into getting better at it to know if that’s a general truth or not
Oh yeah you mentioned that! Guys a great author very jealous
I briefly spoke to David Eisenbud on the stairs last week though
This I don’t quite understand
V cool
Guy is a great lecturer, very engaging
And from the very brief chat I had with him about getting lost on the way to the talk, lovely too
I got an email from Eisenbud the other day. Felt a little starstruck.
Oh shit! Very nice haha
This is a very nerdy game of mathematical one ups manship happening here
It was just journal formalities, not an actual conversation, but I can feel a little starstruck if I want
Ok I mean I zoom called [prof] recently
Oh if I ever got an email from Eisenbud I’d be milking that
It’s fun being an outsider and having no clue who eisenbud is
He posed an interesting question at that talk I could’ve possibly worked on as my dissertation but nah
Amazing author, huge in alggeo and comalg, head of the MSRI for years
Well-known and respected mathematician in algebraic geometry / commutative algebra who also wrote one of the most-used comm alg texts
Also appeared in that one very famous video about hagoromo chalk
Makes sense i wouldn’t know anything about him
TIL that Maclane was one of Eisenbud's advisors
I’m quite far from AG and comalg
Once upon a time, not long ago, the math world fell in love ... with a chalk. But not just any chalk! This was Hagoromo: a Japanese brand so smooth, so perfect that some wondered if it was made from the tears of angels. Pencils down, please, as we tell the tale of a writing implement so irreplaceable, professors stockpiled it.
Got a story idea ...
Crazy that I remember watching this when it came out, before knowing anything about maths, only to end up being a big fan of the chalk and meeting the guy in the video
Lol v cool
He has many appearances on numberphile
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLt5AfwLFPxWK45hX6QOhtri2cZwwX8G-5&si=3utEnTUl8sfR3RVd
I did always wonder “it can’t be that much better right?” And honestly they had a point, only chalk worth using
I would say w conferences you should fairly quickly meet a lot of your heroes
Indeed I have after just a couple confs
Hm then probably none of the videos I’ve watched
I do think he’s still worth knowing about just because he’s a very good writer and orator
really…?
I will make it there, one day
There was actually a really cool conference over summer that I really wanted to go to but unfortunately… not a PhD student…
I think so yeah
I think often masters students can go to stuff but ye depends
this would be good for me if I didn’t suck at my job
Naur I am sure ur great
I was at that time just unemployed lol, and it was ran by people from my uni I knew quite well “the ring theoretic aspects of Lie Theory”, seemed very cool
It's when like
You calculate the truth by using rings
given my record so far, not especially
Yeah it was a summer school on the Boolean ring
Hug I have belief
Nice
im trying to keep some amount of belief
(This actually reminds me of smth I meant to look up w lie algs lol thanks)
boolean rings mentioned
well you know, x^2 = x so boolean ring = boolean rings
take any set of propositions closed under finite OR, AND, and NOT. This defines a Boolean ring
I don't think it's great for your self-confidence to constantly remind everyone how you suck at math tbh
or, equivalently, the powerset of a set forms a Boolean ring
Interesting, I hadn’t tthought about that
(more strongly a complete atomic Boolean algebra)
there is an equivalence of Lawvere theories of Boolean rings and Boolean algebras
from this lense, Stone duality is just a nice case of the spectrum of a ring being a contravariant functor
Those are a lot of words that I’ve seen but don’t understand
(actually there are a couple lenses as to why one might expect Stone duality to exist)
(one of them being universal algebraic geometry)
This is about me sucking at my job actually
(but thats not a conversation we're ready to have yet)
What's your job?
Being a physics phd student
Hmm, I doubt you can draw the conclusion that you're not good enough to be a phd student already, you only started this fall, right?
I haven't done a phd, so I don't know what the experience is like, but I'm sure it's a whole lot of failing and struggling, until you eventually figure it out
Anyways, my point is that when you constantly tell yourself (and everyone around you) that you suck, that's what you'll believe, regardless of whether it's true. You can struggle with math without actually sucking at math
You shouldn't make "sucking at math" into your personality
Instead, you should tell other people they suck at math
This is the main place I talk about math so it naturally comes up here
they call me the projector
📽️
I do suck at algebra at least
means its.only up from here
-# im aware this will be used against me in the future but idc
Well... I'm pretty sure I suck at math more than you, and I don't go around announcing it. It "naturally" comes up because you bring it up. Tbh it seems like a defense mechanism, like if you fail it's okay because you already know you suck. Sorry, I'm not trying to be rude btw, but I think you have some math-trauma it's worth working through 
Sure but there’s lots of empirical evidence for me sucking at algebra
Seem you figured out the rep theory of Sn pretty quick and well. Doesn't seem like sucking to me
In fact working through and understanding things that are hard is probably a better quality than magically having intuition for things from the get go
Again, if that's what you want to believe, that's what you believe, but it's your choice to make "sucking at algebra" part of your identity. If your only criteria is that there are people who know more than you then pretty much everyone sucks
What if you actually do though
I just read Fulton and Harris and spent a few hours trying to understand the argument
My criteria is an inability to have intuition for algebra is all
Yep, that's completely normal
I don't think many people have a natural intuition for algebra
Hey guys, if I want to figure out what the nilradical of a certain Lie algebra is, what would be possible things I might want to have a look at?
You’re probably just on a downer, maybe just take a break and dont dwell on it
I know how you feel though sometimes i feel like a complete idiot
But like, it's pointless for me to try to convince you otherwise. I'm just trying to say that if you stop saying that you suck, you'll eventually stop believing it
<@&268886789983436800>
Why tag moderators
Scambot attack, dead now.
o ok
I saw [prof] in the hallway less than 12 hours ago.
(more strongly a Boolean algebra, and nothing but Boolean algebras)
It still shouldn't be part of one's identity.
FYI I've tried to read the classification of reps of Sn at least 4 times (or 10? who knows) over 2-3 years and I still don't feel like I "really" understand it or have intuition for it. I've assumed it will be a matter of time, attempts and seeing it "in the wild" and made my peace with not "really" understanding it for the indefinite future.
And I'm literally trying to do research in representation theory.
yeah, it's the sort of proof that you need to play with to really understand
I've got a homework problem I'm really stuck on
Prove or find a counterexample, if the center of a finite group $G$ is cyclic, then $G$ has a faithful irreducible representation.
NotABot
Any hints/suggestions?
Immediate gut feeling: false because how the fuck do you prove this otherwise 🙃
I showed earlier in the question that G having a faithful irrep implies the center is cyclic, but I've been spinning my wheels on this for like 3 days
Lmao thats practically where I'm at
.
This is the whole Q btw
Working on (c)
Any chance I have the converse statement wrong?
C_2 x C_2 works
Doesn't C_2 x C_2 have a non-cyclic center?
mishu read hypothesis challenge
I spent a good our on a problem yesterday wondering why something was true only to realise it was the assumption of the theorem I was trying to prove
lol, happens
Like faithful irrep exists => Z(G) cyclic?
yeah
Yeah that was part (b) of the Q
ok so we just need a group with a non-cyclic centre
I still feel like this should be true
How would finding a group like that help?
Like, (b) gives us that a group with a non-cyclic center won't have a faithful irrep
yes and we're now assuming that G does have a cyclic centre
But we're trying to show that having no faithful irrep means the center isn't cyclic, or the center being cyclic gives the existence of a faithful irrep
Or finding a counterexample to this
quickly looking for a counter example now but my gut tells me it should be true
Same
This question really ramps up in difficulty huh
Yeah
Well this is an undergrad/grad split course, and this is the grad student part of the question lol
That makes sense lol
I've been properly nerd sniped by this
Blugh I'm really out of practice with proper group theory too, so I'm having trouble trying to even start looking for a counterexample
is it an inductive thing where you can assume the centre is trivial and then inflate back up through the central series
Maybe.......
Yeah I havent got a clue, but the fact that you dont know is what tells me this is very tough
I'm looking through stuff on characters, since that's come up a bunch on this assignment
the kernel of a rep is exactly the kernel of the character, all normal subgroups arise as the kernel of a character. If every character is non-faithful then every character arises as an inflation from a quotient.
the issue is they can be different quotients
ok nope got a counter-example
I think
Don't tell me what it is
I really really really wanna know, but this is homework so I should at least try to find it myself lol
fair enough
Coolio, I'll look around 👍
if you want helping hints lmk
Time to crawl through groupwiki I guess lol
groupwiki?
What is the order?
(I’ve checked the standard groups and constructs and all seem useless)
(Granted, these are “what can I compute in my head” but like)
Like I don’t think anything below order 16 should work
Although there might be one of order 12
If you find it (groupprops), please let us know where -- the URL I get from searching has been dead for weeks.
it's not a standard group, it's order 18
raised eyebrow emoji.... go on....
Yup
well don't leave me in suspense - what's the presentation?!? what's the name!??!
WOW
18 sounds a lot like ||the wreath product of C3 by S2||
Like I knew the group then I spent a bit looking for the char table to check
lemme think about if these are iso
the humble method of little groups:
I don't think they are iso unfortunately
I'll check to see if this is another example
No, and my proposal does have a faithful irreducible representation, so it falls apart there too.
ah, thanks for saving me the trouble
I think the ingredients that indicate a counter example are a large commutator subgroup and a large abelian subgroup
which are requirements at odds with each other, hence why counter exampels aren't common
https://groupprops.subwiki.org/wiki/Main_Page doesn’t this work?
I was thinking of groupprops, just forgot the name
I get just 403 Forbidden there.
Seems to work fine for me, hmm
there are 80 counter examples of order <= 200
It works for me
Groupprops becomes the one website in the world to only work in the UK
another brexit benefit
Guys i dont want to ruin the fun but i'm in the us and it works :(
I will say, groupprops is probably better and a great resource. But the name is just nowhere near as cool as DaRT
what's that
Database of Ring Theory
Lfg didn't even know about that
Searchable database for anything rings, it’s a nice way to look for counterexamples and stuff
Yeah but 
groupprops does not have the table of marks for SD_{2^n} it's USELESS
wtf
Someone suggested me an MSc thesis computing a bunch of 3-folds and just like, I’m good
"right-not-left"
computations are cool I like doing them
computations are the best way to learn something
and pretty satisfying to do
well
the process isn't always satisfying
but sometimes the result is
I don’t disagree, the project I want to do will probably just be computing a bunch of cohomology, I just find alggeo uniquely miserable
My friend from UG is currently working on exactly the same problem of working out new fano 3-folds and shit just seems painful
At least that kinda flavour of AG, it’s a big field that I don’t know that well, and all my exposure to it has been coloured by people who do 3folds and birational geometry
I know I like AG i'm just still finding what exactly I like
Hmm, it does work for me on mobile, just not from my laptop (either Firefox or Chromium), though the two devices are on the same wifi. 
I’m on my phone just now, let me try on my laptop
I'm on my laptop
Yeah works fine in safari and chrome on my laptop
This seems to be a very unusual issue on your end lol
Maybe tropo got banned from groupprops
Hardware ban from groupprops would be an interesting one
Im still keen to learn more, it seems like theres a lot of cool ideas in there. I just havent found anything that really blew me away yet, Ive just not loved its vibe. But like I also dont know what a sheaf is so im very far from being able to really pass judgment on the subject
I started liking ag because I have a friend who is doing his phd in it
And he would always tell me these cool things and he helped me with chapter 1 of hartshorne
He basically showed me all the cool stuff in ag through those exercises
I saw recently that universal enveloping algebras of lie algebras correspond in some way to coordinate rings which is kinda cool I guess
Oh interesting I didn't know about that
We learned about universal enveloping algebras I think last week in my lie groups class
I still dont know much about them, but my non-com class had us do some proofs with them
Im guessing they showed up there because that prof is interested in the intersections of AG and noncom ring theory, particularly through universal enveloping algebras lol
Im taking Lie Algebras next sem so ill maybe know what their deal is a little more than just cool rings soon
When I think universal enveloping algebra I just think "set [x,y] = x \otimes y - y \otimes x"
where [-,-] is the lie bracket and \otimes is in the tensor algebra (since it's just a quotient of the tensor algebra)
a sheaf is the correct way to do AG
There's another way to define U(g) from some basis
It also has a nice universal property
Among other things, enveloping algebras are a way to apply ring theory to representations of Lie algebras
Humphreys has a really nice book on this
You can think of them as a noncommutative deformation of the ring of functions on the dual Lie algebra
Oh interesting
its a particularly nice example of an adjunction induced by a term-reduct (when you make a new variety of algebras by taking some set of terms (in this case the underlying vector space and the term c(x, y) = xy - yx) and making that the new operations
Interesting
Oh yeah I watched this last night and somewhere like 3/4ths the way through they mentioned UA
Grothendieck's 1973 topos lectures
Colin McLarty
3 mai 2018
In the summer of 1973 Grothendieck lectured on several subjects in Buffalo NY, and these lectures were recorded, including 33 hours on topos theory. The topos lectures were by far the most informal of the series, with the most significant audience discussion, and Grothendieck says they...
Apparently grothendieck was interested in it for a while
Awesome talk too but he kept reading the french part in french and so I had to keep pausing and translating
omgmgomg
Alright first does anyone know any GAP libraries for:
- Cryptanalysis of algebreic asymetric crypto schemes
- Representation of and computation in finite exceptional groups of lie type? (Part of this cryptanalysis invovles doing stuff in the exceptional group G(p) for a large prime p.(that's the automorphism group of octonions over a finite field)
- Algebra with octonions over finite fields(note split and non split octonions are isomorphic i think over finite fields).
uhh does anyone here know anything about this
... you'll find out by seeing if you get an answer to your question.
Up to isomorphism, there is exactly one split octonion algebra over any field. It just so happens that over finite fields no non-split octonion algebras exist.
I fucking got it
God freaking dammit, I wasted so much time on this
But in class today my prof suggested using Sage to find a counterexample and it took me like 45 minutes
30 minutes to figure out how to build a checking function, 15 minutes to run small groups from the Wikipedia page through said checker until I found one
I want to throw up. Jesus christ
Well.... at least I got some practice with Sage it of it lmao
flexing my magma code that did this in 30s
Thats pretty cool
I was using an online interpreter and have little knowledge of what languages like Sage actually have available, so I'm sure my code had tons of room for improvement
I also want to learn to write sage well, I really only turn to it when I’m already desperate so I just kinda end up beating it into shape
Lmao yeah, I might try using it more on the next couple assignments for this class
Yeah my honours algebra course had a couple of submissions where we had to use it to make conjectures, and a couple of problems that would just be miserable without it (count the number of homs or whatever) but that was a while ago and even then I was kinda just making it work
People who are good with CAS seem to really make it work for them though, so I think it is worth learning
I had a class where we had to do some stuff in macaulay2 for hw
Macaulay2 is fun
Yup. So if you try the normal caley dickenson construction, it ives you something isomorphic to the split ones
it seems
You have access to Magma?
Nope but I do have access to the online calculator
RIP
can someone help me with this linear algebra proof with hermitian matrices - i am getting lost with the steps because i am confused on how to multiply the matrices
im doing the forward case of A being normal implying HK = KH
my professor was gone so i missed quite a bit of lectures
right so you if you factor out the constants you just have to multiply $(A+A^)(A-A^)$
Blake
and show you get the same thing as if you multiply it in the other order
since the constants just commute with everything they don't really matter
an associative algebra over C
so it's a ring (possibly without unit) that also has a C-module structure
In mathematics, an associative algebra A over a commutative ring (often a field) K is a ring A together with a ring homomorphism from K into the center of A. This is thus an algebraic structure with an addition, a multiplication, and a scalar multiplication (the multiplication by the image of the ring homomorphism of an element of K). The addit...
just for context, the funny $a$ is just some type of ring with additive group that is free abelian and $a_C$ is the extension of scalar i.e. $C \otimes_Z a$.
somethingwrong
so i need to treat the tensor product as a ring, then the C-module structure is just how C acts on C?
the C-module structure is just the natural action on C^n as in any vector space
but yes you give the tensor product a ring structure (just multiply componentwise) and you're set
hmm i think im not too familiar with taking tensor products with rings. from what I understand if i take the tensor product between a (R,S)-bimodule and an S-module, then the tensor product is naturally an R-module.
what is it that allows us to give the tensor product a ring structure here?
because both R and S are rings
In mathematics, the tensor product of two algebras over a commutative ring R is also an R-algebra. This gives the tensor product of algebras. When the ring is a field, the most common application of such products is to describe the product of algebra representations.
- Every ring is z-algebra including C.
- by that wikipedia page, the tensor product is a C-module, which can naturally be made into a ring
- Finally, a ring which is a C-module, is a C-algebra where the map is given naturally by phi(c)=c.1
would these sound right to you?
Yeah this is correct
ah okay, thanks for the help
hmm actually, by the wikipedia page i only have that the tensor is a Z-module right?
oh nvm let me think abit more
It depends on what tensor product you take. If A, B are ℂ-modules then you can take A (⨯)_ℤ B or A (⨯)_ℂ B. The former is a ℤ-module with two different ℂ-module structures. The latter is a quotient of the former where the two ℂ-module structures are forced to coincide, so it has a single ℂ-module structure.
yep i figured out which was the one i needed
This is hacky (because I didn't get around to checking out the references) but I think this can also be done using the Bruhat decomposition (or more precisely the (B,N)-pair theory about how double cosets multiply), since a subgroup of G containing B is the same as a set of double cosets closed under multiplication (which is multi-valued on double cosets) and inversion (which is just given by inversion in W).
Oh, that's exactly how Digne-Michel does it. 
Chad
would trying to generalize projective geometry's eliptic curve group law to a noncommutative field of scalars go here?
i'm trying to define eliptic curves over the quaternions
i think that goes into noncomm alg geo territory
Idk noncomm alg geo isn't rly like this usually lol
what the fuck happens when we try to generalize the notion of a projective curve to a nonabelian ring
What the fuck is ts first day of school bro
Idk but it ain’t advanced algebra lil bro. #prealg-and-algebra
would AAG key exchange work over the octonions and would it be vunerable to normal linear-group attacks on aag?
michael artin has a paper on noncommutative projective schemes
if so, i also have an idea to do AAG or something over the automorphism group of the (finite field split) octionions. Represented as conjugation (like, but nonassociativity) actions. Which provides a distinct way to represent elements of G2 disticnt from the typical(easily broken) matrix representations
tbh what group theoretic cryptography needs is good nonlinear representations of like... exceptional groups of lie type. Like we have for cyclic groups now with multiplicitve/eliptic curve groups
This is actually a canidate for that(but needs more research)
further research is also needed into using F4(automorphisms of octonion projetve plane) as well
but i don't understand that as well :3
link pls
thank youuu
Hello everyone, I need your help. My new master's advisor asked me to start working and told me to read this:
algebraic definition of the explosion of an ideal.
Could someone please help me with some information and a little explanation?
Can you tell if he was asking you to learn the definition of a ring ideal?
Do you mean blow up by any chance? That’s an algebraic geometry term
Explosion would be a funny mistranslation then
In that case it refers to blowing up in the sense of a balloon rather than blowing up like a bomb. I’m not aware of the explosion of an ideal
FIRE IN THE HOLE
I heard the term actually comes from blowing up a photo (zooming in, we take it for granted now but you actually had to do a chemical process to created a zoomed in version of a photo back then)
Ah you might be right actually, I think I was told that in my class. I think the visual I have in my head of the blow up at a point just looks balloon like enough that I tend to think of it as that haha
There's also the film Blow-Up (1966) where a major plot point is that a photographer discovers a murder after blowing up one of his photos
I never really got that movie but cinephiles seem to like it
That was a movie I had to watch for a film course for my required humanities credits
It was quite strange.
Yeah but it did have some really beautiful shots, I loved the ending sequence with the ||mimes playing tennis||
Oh of course. I meant strange in a good way lol
Yes, the professor told me to read the book on “Steps to Commutative Algebra.” I only read up to chapter 3, and then he told me to study that definition, since it's faster to study with a goal in mind.
I was searching and I only found concepts in algebraic geometry as mentioned, but then I looked at a definition of rings that says
Expansion of A_{X} by the ideal m_{x}
I looked in the subject index of that book and don’t see anything in terms of expansion. Maybe he isn’t using a standard term for something cause I’ve never heard of that term. Maybe you could share a screen shot of a part of that book you’re confused about. But this might belong in the other thread on rings for all I know.
"I suggest you work on the following problem:
Understand the algebraic definition of the explosion of an ideal. From there, give a justified description of what the explosion of a point in C^2 and in C^n is like. You can assume that the point is the origin. Subsequently, of a point on a curve. For example, the explosion of the origin on the curve y^2 - x^2 - x^3 = 0"
by my advisor
Is he referring to the concept of a blow up? A blow up is a concept in algebraic geometry. I think he’s talking about that. That’s the formal term I know. You should ask this in the algebraic geometry thread
Yes!
He deals with the theory of singularity in algebra.
Nice I like singularity theory too!
Because I was researching the topic and it goes into depth on schema theory, but he's not asking me to go that far into the subject matter.
I guess I'm in the right place. Yesterday I was reviewing my Dummit book and couldn't find anything about the explosion of an ideal. I was wondering if it could be the definition or the theorem. I don't recognize that definiti
"Blown up"
That's what the professor is referring to, I suppose.
I think you wanna take your ideal J=<x,y,z> in k[x,y,z] and consider something called the Rees algebra R(J). I think this is the algebraic description of a blow up. But I’m not so sure
I'm looking through several books to see what I can find, but it's difficult; not everything can be found easily because of the terminology.
Yeah I thought that would be the case, just a funny mistranslation
Yes, thank you for taking the time to look it up and give me the information.
I've already been able to confirm a few things. Thank you very much. I'll have to start working on this issue. If I need anything, I'll be asking on the channel.
Yes my english is bad
Your English seems fine! It’s a perfectly reasonable mistake, the term has like 3 or 4 different meanings in English
Thanks mate
I liked that movie too 🙂 Didn't expect to see it in Advanced Algebra though!
I watched that movie around the same time I was learning about varieties for the first time and I always remember it when somebody mentions blow ups
I've been trying to look up information on differential graded algebras and for some reason, I can't find proofs that the Leibniz rule implies the multiplication descends to a well defined operation in (co)homology
Is it obvious that this is the case?
It might qualify as obvious I guess.
(f + d(f'))(g + d(g')) - fg = fd(g') + d(f')g + d(f')d(g')
fd(g') + 0 = fd(g') + d(f)g' = d(fg') and similarly for d(f')g while
d(f')d(g') = d(f'd(g')) for the same reason.
(I probably have the sign wrong, but 0 = -0)
Note I'm using that d(f) = d(g) = 0
Oh awesome, thanks!!
thoughts on notes from the underground by aluffi directly after ladr
This is probably the wrong channel, but yeah, notes from the underground is great, and doesn't have a lot of prerequisites. I think you can read most of it without even knowing lin alg, as long as you have some familiarity with proofs
would it connect well with ladr?
Um, I'm not sure what that means. There's no special connection between LADR and aluffi, it doesn't matter what lin alg book you read
I recommend asking in #book-recommendations instead
i meant coming straight from linalg, i wanna understand stuff from ladr better but maybe any algebra book would help
and yeah sure ill sstop talking abt it here
Is it true that for (W, S) a Coxeter system (Coxeter group with the choice of simple reflections), for any w, w' in W there exist reduced expressions w = s1...skt1...tl and w' = tl...t1u1...um such that s1...sku1...um is a reduced expression for ww'?
Oh, it suffices to prove if l(ww') < l(w) + l(w') then there exists s such that w, resp. w', has a reduced expression ending in, resp. beginning with, s; because then we can induct on l (the required number of cancellations).
We can always do it if we allow the tj to be non-simple reflections.
For my algorithm to work it suffices that if w in W and s, s' simple are such that sw, ws' are reduced but sws' is not (so w^{-1}sw = s'), then for every prefix w' = s1...sl of every reduced expression w = s1...sk, the reflection w'^{-1}sw' is also simple. Conversely by considering the product (sw')(w''s') (where w'' := s(l+1)...sk), this is necessary.
But if this were true, s1ss1 is simple ⇒ it is equal to s ⇒ s2s1ss1s2 = s2ss2 being simple would have to be equal to s, etc. In other words, no distinct simple reflections would be conjugate and the centraliser C_W(s) would be the parabolic subgroup generated by the simple reflections commuting with s. The former fact is very false (but interestingly the latter fact is true for at least type A_n where I can prove it geometrically).
Re the latter fact we have the very interesting https://web.ma.utexas.edu/users/allcock/research/centralizers11.pdf which says something like it (the centraliser is generated by its reflections, if not by its simple reflections) is true in a Coxeter group with Dynkin diagram without loops but can pick up a free group factor otherwise.
Just read the Dostoevsky
What
@spice idol do you know about free division rings?
Do you know if they are well-understood in the literature*, rather.
What are free division rings?
Well.
The definition I read here starts with all expressions (call it E) in n (non-commuting) variables with operations 0, 1, +, ⨯, -, ^{-1}. Then for any choice of values for the n variables in any ring R (call this a "specialisation in R"), you define evaluation of expressions in the obvious way, getting a function ev_a(e) for a a specialisation and e an expression, which is not defined for all expressions.
Now define an expression to be "sensible" if it can be evaluated in some specialisation (this rules out 0^{-1} for example) and two sensible expressions to be equivalent if they have the same value in all specialisations where they can both be evaluated (there is always at least one specialisation where they both can be). The equivalence classes of sensible expressions form a division ring called the free division ring on the starting n variables.
(Caveat: the paper says to use all specialisations in a fixed large division ring of characteristic 0 but I'm hoping it's the same to use all specialisations in all rings.)
This has the universal property that any specialisation f of the variables in any division ring of characteristic 0 extends to a subring R (containing the non-commutative polynomial ring obviously) which is "closed under inverses" in that whenever a in R and f(a) ≠ 0, a^{-1} exists in R. (I'm not sure I like this universal property.)
OK actually they do cite Skew-field constructions by Cohn which I might check out, but I thought I'd ask first if this is all easier than it looks.
many sources seem to talk about random matrices lol
Exactly!
well this is kinda how Id do it after a bit of prodding probably
the reason it is so messy is because of the inclusion of partial functions which SUCK
In the sense that this seems like a pretty hard free object to use explicitly. Given an expression and specialisation, to tell whether I can evaluate I need to check all equivalent expressions for division-by-0 errors. I suspect there is a "simplest" equivalent expression (i.e. some kind of normal form), but it probably won't be sufficient to check that because there could be a specialisation where the normal form fails to evaluate but a more complicated expression doesn't.
Makes sense.
well the problem lies in the noncommutativity
for "free fields" you can leisurely take the set of quotients p/q that "make sense"
Well I can tell you what it would be on a set with 0 or 1 elements at least 
And e.g. it would be nice if I can just say that it is a localisation of the non-commutative polynomial ring (i.e. specialisation extends to whole thing iff non-zero on all polynomials, in which case it extends uniquely). But the concrete description is complicated enough that this seems hard (at least for something I'm just reading on the side out of curiosity
).
youve got stuff involving Ore conditions right
I think you're right that it's the partial-ness more than the non-commutativity. Free groups aren't nearly this complicated.
well in free groups you can just invert everything
here youve got the fear that simplifying an expression might suddenly make a bad expression appear in the right/left denominator
Yes, you can concretely describe localisations (i.e., you can make something with a relatively simple description as a set of expressions with the desired universal property) if the Ore property holds. I'm not sure the non-commutative polynomial ring has it though.
IIRC Cohn has done a lot on the topic of localisations and embedding rings in division rings though. Maybe I should read something of his.
It does not. In fact it has more than one non-isomorphic skew field of fractions
this is why noncomm rings do not admit an algebraic geometry 💔
I'm going to guess this "free division ring" is one of them (the "most general" one? but I would expect different localisations to be incomparable...).
WDYM?
havent proved it yet but im like 99% sure
What do you need exactly in order to admit an algebraic geometry?
I've mused a little on this before and IG you need a notion of "open cover" such that enough local-global principles hold to do anything useful.
well my definition is a functor to a generalisation of the category of ringed spaces to the analogue in some arbitrary variety V. This functor must be a section of the global sections functor, have enough open immersions, and the base space must be an object like a spectrum
that is what makes an ""algebraic"" geometry
sorry functor from what to what
from a variety V to the category of V-spaces (objects are sheaves with values in V, and morphisms are analogous to morphisms of ringed spaces)
"object like a spectrum" means the spectrum of some coherent condition (which is a bit technical to define right now)
owo
(as in i may be taking up enough space here already)
Woah homotopy theory
im not sure its that kind of spectrum 💔
V cool tho
I didn't you are this type of guy 
movie called happy feet
How difficult is it to show that Out(F_2) is isomorphic to GL_2(Z)?
(I’m trying to tell if this is a “you should take this on faith” or a “you should prove this”)
yeah the naming is just funnt
what is Out here?
oh outer isomorphism group of the free group on two generators

i imagine the hardest part is inventing the right presentation of GL_2(Z)
choosing
just compare sizes duh
if GL_2(Z) and Out(F_2) have the same size they must be isomorphic
It’s easy to get a map in the -> direction
I’m not sure how to either show it’s inj/surj or to produce a map in the <- direction
[a, b; c, d] sends x to x^a y^c and y to x^b y^d right?
thats a homomorphism cuz free and prob also an automorpjism
It’s not immediate that that’s an automorphism
get to proving 
u just need to crunch the inverse
yis
then ur good
?
Oh wait I think I see?
But I’m not sure that works
its obv a homomorphism so you just need to show its invertible
then as functors preserve isomorphisms you have a group action
and for that you just apply the inverse transformation
then if you have an arbitrary automorphism, its gonna send x and y to some words and I think if you just conjugate by the right thing you get it into this form
which proves the result
there's gotta be some incredibly stupid way to do this
yeah I think ur right with the -c -d
(I just computed what f(A)f(A^-1)(x) should be and that’s how it works)
actually this seems maybe a bit harder than I thought
like it's the coproduct (in Grp) of Z with itself so for every pair of maps Z -> F_2 we get exactly one automorphism and any automorphism yields a map Z -> F_2 (restrict to one of the generators)
but I assume there's some way
well you don't get an automorphism for every pair of maps is the tricky part
true they can be endomorphisms
also looking specifically for outer automorphisms
u know what I meant
i am braindead unfortunately
I like to think of this topologically. Identify F_2 as the fundamental group of a wedge of two circles, which I denote by X. Then Out(F_2) is the group is unbased self-homotopy equivalences of X (since X is a K(F_2, 1)) and the map to GL(2, Z) just takes a homotopy class of maps to its action on H_1(X).
This map is surjective because given any element A of GL(2, Z), the matrix induces a linear map on R^2 which commutes with the action of Z^2. Thus, the map descends to the 2-torus T^2 and fixes the image of the origin, hence it induces a map on the once punctured torus which is homotopy equivalent to X. Then by construction the induced action on H_1 is represented by the matrix A.
The injectivity is not as clear to me, but I know a mapping class group trick which works here. Suppose a representative map f induces the identity on H_1. If I work on the once-punctured torus again, then let a and b be simple closed curves which intersect once. Then f(a) is isotopic to a and f(b) is isotopic to b, so we can modify f by a homotopy to fix a and b pointwise. Cutting the torus along these curves, we get an induced map on the punctured disk, which is homotopic to the identity (this last part follows from the Alexander trick) so f was homotopic to the identity to begin with.
Ah that’s a cool application of the Alexander trick
Like it feels fairly standard but also I wouldn’t’ve thought of it here


