#advanced-algebra
1 messages · Page 7 of 1
There definitely are people that study them, but I don't know what the relevant questions are.
And non-Noetherian rings show up in normal circumstances. The noncommutative polynomial ring for example, and other infinite dimensional algebras that show up in rep theory
Bruh TIL this isn't noetherian
i mean what can you expect, noncommutative rings to be nice? welcome to the real world, potato
Yeah I guess I know that to be true enough, my non com course despite being about Noetherian rings did certainly look at some non Noetherian rings
There is however a non commutative version of Hilberts basis theorem
It’s possibly a bit of a stretch to say its an exact generalisation but the vibes the same, if you have a ring S and a sub ring R, and some x in S, then provided that R+xR= R+Rx and the map from R<x> to S is surjective, then if R is left(right) Noetherian so is S
R+xR = R+xR?
"if R is left Noetherian, so is R" lol
Oops lol thanks
Yes obvious typos being that the x should be on the left and the right there and then the second one should be S
guys what are the different interpretations of a matrix's rank, in relation to the linear transformation it represents
wrong channel, try #linear-algebra
Alr
💀
It’s actually a very nice result, it’s an easy ish test and something you can actually work with
Sure hm
is my understanding at the bottom of the connecting homomorphism correct? He did not define it in class and ive been working on trying to chase around what it should be and this is what ive come up with
I feel it should be mentioned that for any b such that g(b) = c there is a unique d such that beta(b) = h(d), and different choices of b must differ by some f(a) and then the corresponding d's differ by alpha(a).
@lone jacinth https://arxiv.org/abs/2412.08904v1 did you see this lol
Is this masterful clickbait
Lmao
hardly passive
xd
Fei is very butthurt indeed. To some degree rightfully so I suppose, but it's not a good color
If you want more "passive" aggressiveness by Fei
https://arxiv.org/abs/2409.12743
😭
I mean I clicked it on it cause of the "AI"
LOL
I guess I misunderstood but when I saw it I was like oh did AI give someone a 2 line proof lmao
Lol i did wonder what should happen in this case
Like if someone else's work easily follows from yours
And I guess what happens is they get a bunch of awards and praise for their ground breaking research and you write salty papers
in any case it feels like tau-tilting theory and semistable torsion classes are completely different languages and for their purposes, the right language
so 🤷♀️
LOL
Hi, regarding profinite groups, there is this exercise I find very nice. Would like some feedback on my solution. Is it correct? Is there a nicer way to explain things? Is there a more natural definition that I missed?
Meanwhile me just being amused by AI in the title
It looks good to me, though you might need to say something about continuity.
Yeah I haven't gotten to that yet
also why do we need G to be abelian in the last line of the question?
I don't think you do
yeah its weird
Are there any references studying, for a Borel subgroup B of a semisimple algebraic group G, the orbits of [b, b] (b being the Lie algebra of B) under the adjoint action of B?
Apparently this is a hard/wild question.
I'm kinda struggling with this, I managed to prove that i and iii are equivalent, and that i and iii imply ii, but not really managing to prove that anything follows from ii
I've reduced it down to showing that, if I = (x1, ..., xn), then I * (xi) = (xi)
I think you can show (ii) implies (iii) by applying Nakayama's lemma to get r such that rA = 0 (in particular, rI = 0) and 1 - r ∈ I. Then take ||e := 1 - r||
ah wait
I think I can use the local nature of flatness here
òf being zero I mean
lol
If A is commutative you can just use Nakayama. In general I'm not sure the result is actually true
it is an algebraic geometry book, so everything is commutative
I'm not sure how to apply Nakayama here though? I don't think the jacobson radical is guaranteed to contain I
wait no nvm that's not what we want here anyways
Nakayamas lemma says if M is finitely generated and IM = M, then there is an i in I with im = m for all m in M
Not im=0 instead if im=m?
I might be misremembering
No, though you might have phrased it as an element r congruent to 1 modulo I with
rm = 0
(So r = 1-i)
is that easily seen to be equivalent to the jacobson radical definition?
See wikipediahttps://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Nakayama%27s_lemma
In mathematics, more specifically abstract algebra and commutative algebra, Nakayama's lemma — also known as the Krull–Azumaya theorem — governs the interaction between the Jacobson radical of a ring (typically a commutative ring) and its finitely generated modules. Informally, the lemma immediately gives a precise sense in which finitely...
I would say this version is stronger because the Jacobson definition also works for non-commutative rings.
right
There’s about 15,000 statements of nakayma unfortunately
hmm, I think I see how the jacobson version implies this version
What you might try is to localize with respect to 1+I
That places I into the Jacobson radical at least
Then IM = M implies the localization of M is 0 which implies there is an element of 1+I annihilating M
I would've never come up with that lol
I mean, the idea is just if you want to use the Jacobson radical you need I to be in the Jacobson radical.
So by definition you 1+I should be units. How to make that happen? Just localize! From there the problem solves itself
the jacobson radical is the annoying bit of the ring everyone hates and all of the theorems involving it tell you when you can ignore it
localisation is slowly dawning on me though
The key is mostly that localization of commutative rings is nice.
I think the only two things to know about the Jacobson radical is that it's the intersection of all maximal left ideals and it's the set of x such that
1 - rx is a unit for all r.
I also like thinking of it as the annihilator for all simple modules
Nakayama.
Naka ya mama
right, as every simple module must be cyclic and isomorphic to a quotient by a maximal ideal, which is the annihilator of said module
Everyone's favorite Japanese mathematician from the 1940s
so their intersection is simply the intersection of all maximal ideals
very quick thinking monsieur _music
as if to taunt me the next question is laughably easy using this 
nakayama is that recent? ZAMN
Is this a joke lol
why thank you sir tbh
I mean how old are schemes or even just "modern" classical AG bro
Badly written question
I would've expected some mf to notice nakyama's lemma in like, 1432
"Show that for every A module M, M is flat iff A is a field"
I would expect you need ring theoretic language to express it really
Like how would you otherwise express it
yeah but rings were not invented in the 1930s
The CRT can be expressed elementarily and that’s why it was known for so long, for example
Still not too much earlier right
this just in, every commutative fucking ring is a field
"All A-modules are flat iff A is a field"
Rings were like, late 1800s?
Dedekind et al right
yur that's what I thought
so I would've expected nakayama in like, the 1910s or 20s
Idk I feel like this still requires more ring theoretic language that didn’t exist for very long prior
Yeah fair point Wew
I think the wording is fine
"A is a field iff all A-modules are flat"
Sounds better
Weirdly
I should say I don't actually mind like I am not being that pedantic lmao
Just I find it amusing when statements are linguistically slightly ambiguous or odd
rather than continuing with these exercises I should probably go home and eat lmao
the uni library is a nice place to work though
Nice
no way, our small little STEM library has the book on quandles by mohammed elhamdadi
he is everywhere....
istg
but that book is acc pretty cool
doesnt cover the cohomology as much as id like them to though >.>
also apparently cohomology is used in universal algebra???
to study extensions
i guess that really shows just how "grouplike" malcev varieties are
Would a class using a mix of linear algebra by shapiro and axler's linear algebra qualify as advanced algebra? or where would I as questions?
#linear-algebra probably
A slight confusion I have. Let $\mu = x \lambda$ be a regular weight where $x$ is a reduced element in the Weyl group and $\lambda$ is dominant. My confusion is if we take $x w_0$. Is this reduced or not?
Delteto
Not necessarily right? If so then how do you make sure it is reduced?
does finite support of (a_i) mean that only finitely many a_i's are zero or is suppor t refering to something else?
it means finitely many a_i are non-zero.
oh okay that makes sense. thank you
Bruh why they doin all that
I know 
when le local ring
van Gogh wrote Yoneda's lemma on the back of the Mona Lisa actually
ahh... ze artisztic beouty onle growz viv time...
Yeah
An element of the Weyl group is neither reduced nor non-reduced. A word representing an element (by which I mean a sequence of simple reflections whose product is the element) can be reduced or non-reduced. If x is any element then l(x w_0) = l(w_0) - l(x) (this is a fact about finite Coxeter groups), but of course the product of two reduced words for x and w_0 will have length l(w_0) + l(x). It is true that there exists a reduced word for w_0 which starts with the reverse of a reduced word for x. If you use that reduced word then you can cancel x and that prefix, and what is left will be a reduced word for xw_0.
is there a ring-theoretic notion of "partition of unity"?
Sometimes people use this term yes
I’ve noticed that this concept appears in a few different places
It comes up in the Chinese remainder theorem
And it comes up in Lagrange interpolation
Hm I just feel this is the idea of having an orthogonal basis or smth
Though this is a special case of CRT ig aha

I mean vaguely orthogonal here like not a rigorous ting
As in just splitting up identity / a constant into like somehow "orthogonal" parts
To reduce smth global to more local
You can translate the usual definition on C(X) into just ring theory at least:
A partition of unity is a set of elements fi such that for each maximal ideal m, only finitely many fi are not in m and
Sum fi + m = 1 + m
But if you require the partition to be finite, then it's just CRT
With POU it is funny here in that like affine schemes are quasicompact. So the finiteness bit isn't that relevant
but it's not like partitions of unity on, say, a smooth manifold have to be "orthogonal", right?
they can have nontrivial overlaps
Locally almost all of them are pairwise orthogonal.
So that's something
I mean like they are all localised and vanish outside them
Like locally yeah you only care about finitely many
is this the abstract algebra spot? #advanced-algebra
-# but if you want monoids or semigroups then here’s where it’s at
or quandles/racks/spindles/shelves/BCK-algebras/cBCK-algebras/leibniz algebras/quasigroups/loops/boolean algebras/lattices/modules/etc
breh.
what, gotta make sure everyone feels included
people who study Leibniz algebras: 
what is a loop in this context
- a topologist
quasigroup with identity element
basically, a magma where you've got left and right division, and an identity element
messed up
lmao
im not convinced that anyone has ever used something here that is not a monoid nor a group
lol
a magma is just nice shorthand for defining stuff
quasigroups are used in studying latin squares
and semigroups are important in computer science
and apparently in cryptography
huh wild
idk i feel like they can be easily described without using a word that makes it seem important
lol

prolix
had a grader known throughout our math department for his feedback. most of the time it was just the word prolix
i accidentally clicked on this page instead of number theory but what the helly is magma i thought that was a volcanic rock 😭
A group but it doesn’t necessarily have associativity or inverses or an identity
equivalently, a set equipped with a binary operation (with no other assumptions)
I prefer partial magmas
Here I don't really understand the notation $I_{G(L|K)} A_{L}$.
ExpertSqueeSQUEE
Here $A$ is a multiplicative G-module a $A_{K}$ is the fixed module of A under $G_{K}$ which is some subgroup of G.
ExpertSqueeSQUEE
Anything specific you don't understand about it?
like why does this notation give this definition
I mean, the I probably stands for ideal
and why the a^-1?
If you mod out by
a^sigma a^-1
then
a^sigma = a
But yeah, as for the notation.
The ideal in the group ring ZG(L|K) generated by sigma-1 is the augmentation ideal.
Thinking of A as a ZG module this is IA, so the notation should make sense
mfw being a unit is a local property
is every local property a direct consequence of some module being zero?
I.e., can it be directly proven from the fact that a module is 0 iff all its localisations by maximal ideals are 0
I feel like most properties of modules can be reframed as some module vanishing
Actually I take that back. Finitely generated and other finiteness conditions are not, but they are also not local properties, so
hm, I see
this, for example, can be turned into the property of R/aR vanishing
and then using the exactness of localisation you get (R/aR) \tensor R_p = R_p / aR_p
so we can use this
which I find awesome
and it proves that an element of the coordinate ring of X that is never zero on X must be a unit, as it is a unit in all localisations at primes (as those are the rings of regular functions at points of X)
Maybe I am silly but why is this true?
I guess okay nvm I see what you mean
Too much schemes brainrot
It's the fact that the maximal ideal of the local ring is given by functions vanishing there lol
I interpreted this as like "vanishing as an element of the local ring" or smth which was silly
lmao
I'm going through classical AG so I can motivate schemes for myself
it's great practice for my com alg too
schemes are really just manifolds but affine lmao
Well not necessarily affine (usually not)
But ye like affine varieties subbed for R^n
Which makes it more interesting! As even the local structure varies
I meant manifolds but instead of locally euclidian n-ball locally affine
Yee sure
I just mean cause affine also has a meaning lol
Like R^n being affine n-space
:cereal_2:
I was recently shown the following recipe for producing an algebraic group from a compact Lie group G: the space of G-finite vectors in L2(G) is an algebra over C, and in fact the group structure on G makes it a Hopf algebra. Then take the spectrum of this algebra.
does someone have a reference for this construction? it was claimed that the original group should be a compact subgroup of the C-points of this algebraic group, but this is quite unclear to me …
I don't have any reference, but in the interest of understanding, do you know if L2(G) is to be considered with pointwise multplication or convolution? Because the latter seems more usual for this kind of argument (e.g., for a finite group, the group algebra with convolution as the multiplication is a Hopf algebra with the original group encoded in it as the group-like elements), but that would probably be non-commutative and non-unital, so IDK what its spectrum would be.
I believe theres a character theory proof for this, but i wanted to find something avoiding that
Usually the approach would be to consider a non zero S_n - submodule of Alt^k(V), then look at some nonzero element and use some nice permutation (transpositions work very well usually i guess) to generate the entire module. But i cant seem to find a way to do this
Maybe another way to do this would be to show that every non-zero element's stabilizer is precisely the identity permutation?
is this not just a funny restatement of classical theorems by Chevalley and others?
the category of compact Lie groups is equivalent to the category of R-anisotropic reductive groups over R whose connected components have R-rational points.
I have a bit of a silly question but given a chain map, we know the mapping cone can be used to describe the kernel/cokernel of the induced map in homology
But suppose I have chain maps p: C ---> D and τ: D --> C such that p \circ τ = id (I'm working over Ch(R-mod) here)
Since homology H_i is a functor between Ch(R-mod) and R-mod, doesn't p \circ τ = id immediately imply H_i(p) is surjective and H_i(τ) is injective? Or am I missing a subtlety here?
If this is true, I'm curious how I can use the mapping cone of p and τ to reproduce this
Yes, so what this means is that the induced map
H_i(D) -> H_i(Cone(p))
is 0
Ahh ok, thanks!!
Are all Gelfand pairs (G,K) where G is a sporadic finite simple group known?
There is a theorem that says R is Cohen Macaulay iff Rm is Cohen Macaulay. Later the book wants to compute H^imRm(Rm) to determine if Rm is CM, and so uses this theorem 3.5.6 to say H^imRm(Rm) = H^i(Rm (x)R C)
but I am confused because H^i(Rm (x)R C) means we are viewing Rm as an R-module but the theorem im assuming is interpreted as R is CM (as an R-module) iff Rm is CM (as an Rm-module)
hopefully my question makes sense, and hopefully someone can help me because im so over all of this
Another question: why is the Cohen-macaulay property only defined over local noetherian rings and fg modules
it is defined over general noetherian rings - you check cohen-macaulayness at each localization
ok
wdym we check it at each localization
Like you can define a Cohen-Macaulay ring/module as a ring/module whose localisations are Cohen-Macaulay
Oh lol but now I am confused by this theorem you state
Ok
It was an exercise ill show u
Kinda confused cause you say it's only defined over local rings but also above seem to use Cohen Macaulay for non-local rings
Or maybe you mean like R is an algebra over some local ring or smth
bruns-herzog? i completely forgot what the asterisk business is supposed to be
graded or something
M_m is an R_m module
ok thanks
its just too much and now since i dont care about going further into math i have such low motivation to do this stuff
its kind of an annoying position im in atm
im hoping once i meet with my supervisor again she can help me
i think CM/gorensteinness is a little unintuitive and a slog without any geometric intuition of what they are telling you
(c) is the important one right
R is CM as R-module iff Rm is CM as Rm-module is from (c)?
Using this we want to say H^i_mRm(Rm) = H^i(Rm (x)R C) = H^i(Cm) = H^i(C)m
But that is viewing Rm as an R-module not an Rm-module
Does my question make sense
anyone hear know basic algebra to plot points and make lines I am kind of Dum
ty
one way to make a property local (for Noetherian rings)
lmao
would appreciate some help on this!
you could try to find the character, and take the inner product and show that it is 1
like the
$$\frac{1}{|G|} \sum_{g \in G} \chi(g) \chi(g^{-1})$$
.enpeace_music
Very random question: let V be an irreducible cuspidal representation of GL_2(F_p). Is a matrix representation of V (say, depending on its character) known?
How does one go about finding all injective representations of a given quiver?
If A is the path algebra of your quiver then every indecomposable injective is given by
D(eA)
for a trivial path e. And all injective modules are direct sums of indecomposable ones.
Or more explicitly in terms of the quiver: reverse the arrows, find the projective representations, reverse the arrows back by taking transpose of the linear map corresponding to an arrow.
Yes, I see it now. Thanks
If B is isomorphic to C, then A (x) B is isomorphic to A (x) C for any modules A, B and C, right? I think this follows from functoriality of the tensor product?
also because its a universal property
I suppose a universal property guarantees functoriality
I see
I was curious about this, why it in principle isn't enough for (A ⊗ B) ⊗ C to be isomorphic to A ⊗ (B ⊗ C) to get generalized associativity. I think the point is that we need the substition property of equality: A ⊗ (some parenthesization) = A ⊗ (other parenthesization) because (some parenthesization) = (other parenthesization). And it turns out we have the substitution property for isomorphism too 
I have no idea what "pentagonal" diagram he refers to 
that is weird
tensor products are functorial; isomorphic substitution should hold
maybe its something to do with canonical isomorphism?
ohh the diagram must commute and that is not immediately obvious from simply the associativity isomorphism of the case of 3 modules
i see
thats really what it means to be associative up to canonical isomorphism: every way of turning two expressions into one another must be the same, that is, if we have two paths from one expression to another where every step is some canonical isomorphism (A ⊗ B) ⊗ C ≅ A ⊗ (B ⊗ C), then those paths must compose to the same isomorphism
and it turns out that this diagram commuting is enough for all such paths to be the same
I believe it is true that once you have the Pentagon, then all the higher associativity relations will hold
ah, I see, and if you just use isomorphic substitution and (A⊗B) ⊗ C iso to A ⊗ (B ⊗ C) then you won't necessarily get a canonical isomorphism?
well, in the case of tensor products you will, because this diagram is commutative for all modules
but in a general category with some associative bifunctor, this diagram might not commute
so that means there are two ways to "associate" two expressions which give different isomorphisms, which is not what you want of course
because if two expressions are the same up to associativity, you dont want there to be a choice of isomorphism between them
that makes sense, thanks 

This is a case of the pentagonator object in the category of modules no?
Yh my intuition also says so
i believe i read somewhere that the pentagonator is an isomorphism that actually relaxes this diagram?
yes
yeah it gave off pentagonator vibes
this is simply called the pentagon identity
Beautiful
the best category theory concept ever is verdier duality imo
its not cat theory but it is based on cat theory
dont know enough topology to know that sadly
You can think of it as two versions of the same calculus on sheaves
hmm
not for this channel
or maybe #precalculus ?
no actually I've got no clue where this should go
but not in this category that's for sure
also it's not clear how this should continue
does it continue to 1.1 or to 0.11
1.1
ah okay
in that case it should be just 0.5 I guess
also how is it bracketed
in the interesting way
True
Power is right associative
power towers are conventionally
a1^(a2^(a3^...)))
nah
If it wasn't right associative it wouldn't be solvable
well, you'd still take the limit but it would just end up 0
the fuck does dequeue mean
Lmao
and also why post it here
Because I have no friends
I meant the channel
Oo
remove from queue
what the hell is a queue
First in first out
Like a real life queue to get pokemon merch
ok so a stack
Last in first out
not really, stack is pop of put on
this is more fucky wucky where you need access to both top and bottom
so.... a shift register?
I guess yeah
ah so like the stack then
Fortran progarammer
to actually answer your questiom, this is an example of a discerte dynamical system on (if I'm understanding what dequeue means correctly) the power set of {1,2,...,100} so yes there is "a formula way" of doing it
I lied actually sorry, it might be on a much larger set
the sets are ordered though
lmao
I don't understand how but good to know
Ik very less math
Although math is a cooler subject than programming
And programming is one of the coolest

Dis be advanced abstract algebra
You probably want a pre university channel
Like precalculus or smth
how does it being a discrete dynamical system imply that there is a formula (or a "formula way" whatever that means 😅 )? Isn't Collatz a kind of discrete dynamical system?
and collatz is written using a very simple formula
okay, but I'm pretty sure conway's game of life is a discrete dynamical system. Checkmate 
and it is described using a very simple formula
lmao
read the description
I mean, the dequeue question also has a very simple formula, given in the question. It depends on what you mean by formula, but I interpret it as some closed-form thing, or atleast a way to compute it that is simpler than just brute forcing through the steps given in the question
everytime i get off a plane i find it funny how they say "deplane"
I just noticed now that for this modified cech complex, the xi form a "system of parameters" for R
Why do we need that?
i dont think ive seen that being necessary for my purposes
reducing to a system of parameters is almost always nice
because the ideal generated by SOP is m-primary
and local cohomology is invariant under taking radicals
so if you want to compute things like the cech complex, koszul complex, etc, it's nice to use system of paremters
it gives you nice results about things like depth, length, dimension, etc
Serre's Local Algebra has a nice treatment of this iirc
it also gives nice characterizations of cohen-macaulay rings that i can't recall off the top of my head
ok cool ty
yes i know this fact, how does this connect to / is related to the ideal being m-primary
^
Local cohom is invariant under taking radicals (so like H_I(M) = H_rad(I)(M)) but why is that related to I being m-primary
Cause you said “and”
m-primary means its radical is m
so computing local cohom of H_m is the same as computing the local cohom of H_(x1, ..., xd)
and thus you can explicitly write down terms in your koszul complex and your cech complex
Thanks mb I read it wrong so- 😭
In my infinite boredom, I'm skimming Wikipedia, and in the span of 10 minutes, I ran into two baffling things.
First, every compact Lie group is isomorphic to a matrix group. So I was like "Wait, is the spin group isomorphic to a matrix group?"
So, of course I jumped to the article on the spin group, and found that the Clifford algebra of a vector space with a definite quadratic form is naturally graded. And now that's even more confusing, because Cl(V, q) is a quotient of the tensor algebra TV by a nonhomogeneous ideal, so where in the hell does the grading come from?
Someone please unconfuse me.
I don't even care about the general case. Just the case where q is the square of the Euclidean norm is enough.
Is there any function which is R integrable and having infinite number of limit points?
#real-complex-analysis is over there. -->
Notice that it says "graded as a vector space" not "graded as an algebra"
yeah I think it's a little dum to just grade as a vector space. I think the thing you actually want to think about is a filtration on Cl(V), where you say F_k Cl(V) are the elements who can be written as sums of products of at most k elts of V, and so F_k Cl(V) * F_l Cl(V) lands in Cl_{k+l} (V), and this is a filtered algebra. Then the associated graded of this algebra is the exterior algebra, and I think wikipedia is just lifting that grading to the vector space
So the grading should just be things that are the product of k linearly independent things (and sums of those)
Okay, that filtration makes sense.
usually I've seen the spin group as the even elements of Cl(V) that are norm 1 and conjugate V back to itself, I guess this is supposed to somehow be the same?
Woah Clifford algebras... I love
Wait, now I'm confused again. The definition of filtered algebra that I know uses a filtration by ideals, but those F_k Cl(V) mentioned above aren't really ideals of Cl(V). They're just vector subspaces.
I think the usual definition is just that
Fm * Fn < F[m+n]
nothing about them being ideals
If they were ideals the filtered condition would be kinda moot since A*Fm < Fm < F[m+n]
Okay, then I just have to live with the fact that $F_0 \oplus F_1/F_0 \oplus F_2/F_1 \oplus \dots$ can only be identified with the algebra's underlying vector space, not with the algebra itself.
Eduardo León
I had only encountered descending filtrations by ideals before. Like, the ones you use to construct normal bundles in algebraic geometry.
I mean I’ve seen ascending filtrations used that weren’t even subalgebras (in some generic sense like vector subspaces are subalgebras)
Wait, where the terms of the filtration weren't even vector subspaces? That's just crazy.
Symmetric positive definite matrices always have a Cholesky decompositon ?
#linear-algebra is over there. -->
But yes.
I mean, what could be a more explicit proof than the algorithm that computes one?
The N grading on clifford algebras comes from the chevalley isomorphism to the exterior algebra, they are naturally isomorphic everywhere except char 2 (I hear that careful definitions can reclaim this isomorphism in char 2).
Algebra isomorphism of mere linear isomorphism?
Because the latter isn't terribly surprising.
it’s still just a linear isomorphism. In the exterior algebra, v^2=0 always, and this need not be true in the clifford algebra (unless your quadratic form is identically 0)
Linear isomorphism.
That said, you can define the exterior product from within the clifford algebra by using this linear isomorphism
And then it's an algebra isomorphism
Mmm, can we think of this linear isomorphism as arising from a deformation process? I mean, in the construction of the Clifford algebra, we quotient $TV$ by the two-sided ideal generated by $v \times v - q(v)$ for every $v \in V$. Now let's replace the generators with $v \otimes v - t q(v)$ and make $t \to 0$.
Eduardo León
If I have a Lie algebra A and a ring ideal J in A is it true that A/J is also a Lie algebra?
Is a ring ideal another word for ideal, or is it something different?
If you mod out an ideal you get a lie algebra at least
I am just worried that only certain ideals J would give Lie algebras but okay sweet thanks!
Indeed, T(V)/<v^2-Q(v)> with Q=0
I can't really recite the details very well, but this is my preferred reference
Thanks.
Been getting familiar with local properties more and the fact that x in J(R) iff 1 - rx is a unit for all r is due to a local property!
(=>) Suppose 1 - rx is a unit for all r in R. Suppose then x notin m for some maximal ideal m. Consider the quotient R/m. Then r has a unit v, and as such we must have that 1 - vx + m= 1-1 + m = 0 is a unit in R/m, which of course is impossible, hence x must be in m.
(<=) Suppose that x in J(R). Then, for all r, rx in J(R). Passing to the localisation R_m; this is a local ring, so rx being a nonunit (as it is in J(R)) means that 1 - rx is a unit in R_m. But being a unit is a local property, so this means that 1 - rx must be a unit in R.
do you mean a lie algebra ideal or an ideal of a ring structure, the commutator lie algebra of which being your lie algebra?
Say A is an associative algebra that happens to also be a Lie algebra.
I am asking if any arbitrary ring ideal J of the associative algebra A induces a quotient A/J with a Lie algebra structure
I am guessing by your question, it might be necessary to require the ring ideal to also satisfy some compatibility condition with the bracket?
lie algebras are never associative I believe
like, they must be abelian then
oh wait you meant that your vector space carries both a ring and a lie algebra structure
like different operations
I mean A has three operations.
Yeah exactly
then yeah of course the ring structure and lie structure must be related
couldn't tell you exactly though
because since we're only talking about ideals, that doesn't tell you much about the ring structure itself
So your saying the quotient A/J won’t necessarily be a Lie algebra unless J has a certain form?
A sufficient condition, of course, is that we have an equality xy - yx = [x, y]
I mean that the ring structure and lie algebra structure being unrelated basically guarantees there are ring ideals which arent ideals of the lie algebra and vice versa
I guess I didn’t know there was a notion of a Lie algebra ideal okay. And these must be the ideals that quotient to other Lie algebras
like, take any k-algebra and consider the abelian lie algebra structure on it. Then most ideals of the lie structure (they are nothing more than the vector subspaces) wont be ideals of the ring structure
I guess its why would you expect the ideals of the ring to have anything to do with the lie structure
Okay so also not all ring ideals of A will also be Lie algebra ideals. Thanks got it
yis
but "ring ideals of A" is kinda nonsensical because a lie algebra does not inherently carry a ring structure
I have another Lie algebra question, say (L,<,> ) is a Lie algebra and L is a commutative algebra (L,+,*)
I know <x,x>=0 for any x in L. Say x is invertible. Does this imply that <x,x^-1>=0 or one? I feel like the bracket should give me this value but idk
no, because the algebra and lie structures have nothing to do with eachother, unless you specify that
it's like putting two different group operations on the same set and expecting them to interact in some way
Ah okay I see thank you.
What if I had a Poisson bracket? In a Poisson bracket there is a Leibniz identity which does relate ring multiplication to the bracket
[1, x] = [x^-1, x] x + x^-1[x, x] = [x^-1, x] x
=> [x^-1, x] = [1, x] x^-1
maybe you can prove its 0
idk
Ah okay I think I got the same thing dang. It could be the case that [1,x]=0 but I need to check. Thank you so much ! I needed a sanity check
[1 • 1, x] = [1, x] + [1, x], so indeed
I have a funny question. I hope Im right in thinking the "trivial Lie algebra" functor Mod_k -> Lie_k (notation hopefully clear, feel free to assume char k = 0) is the unique section of the forgetful functor Lie_k -> Mod_k? I.e. unique way of functorially endowing every vector space with a Lie bracket. I guess any section must send k to the trivial Lie algebra on k (no choice there) and since the forgetful Lie_k -> Mod_k is conservative and preserves filtered colimits and biproducts, the same must be true of any section, which forces the trivial (i.e. abelian) Lie algebra structure on every vector space
hi girls, i’m in my representation theory arc
i missed the first month of lectures so i might be cooked already but uh yeah
that means <x,x^{-1}>=0 thanks!
aligns with the intuition that [-, -] is some form of commutator
as inverses commute
We talking groups, lie algebras, associative algebras, quivers, something else?
the course is supposed to be an introduction to the representations theory of finite groups, compact Lie groups and complex Lie algebras
Cool beans
idk what lie algebras are 
i should probably be reading right about now but i’ve way too much on my mind guh
think of an associative algebra A, and the commutator [a, b] = ab - ba
that's what a Lie algebra tries to model
Lie algebras is basically the structure you get by "taking the derivative" of a lie group.
ohh lovely so like tangent space stuffs?
question that just popped into my mind: is there such a thing like lie algebras but for algebraic groups/group schemes?
There is such a thing yeah
cool! what's it called?
https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Linear_algebraic_group
"The Lie algebra of an algebraic group"
Yes, given a lie group the multiplication induces a lie bracket on the tangent space at the identity.
I see
thanks
If you think of lie groups as just matrix groups and X(t) and Y(s) are two smooth maps from R to GLn that are the identity at 0, then
d/ds X(t) Y(s) X(t)^-1 = X(t) Y'(s) X(t)^-1
and
d/dt X(t) Y'(s) X(t)^-1 = X'(t) Y'(s) - Y'(s) X'(t)
So the lie bracket of matrix multiplication is just [x, y] = xy - yx.
This same thing you can do in general, taking a derivative of conjugation like this
right
I've always wondered why people study Lie algebras by themselves. I know it gives you information about Lie groups - every Lie algebra is the Lie algebra of a Lie group - but what importance do Lie algebras have in "pure" algebra?
One way they naturally occur is in Hochschild cohomology. There are some interesting open questions that Linckelmann is asking about the Lie algebra structure of HH^1 of blocks of finite groups, and also the whole algebra HH^* has a Lie bracket which remains relatively difficult to work with. Linckelmann has shown that there appears to be a connection between the Lie algebra structure here and the representations in the block of the finite group.
I have heard from my friends who do p-group stuff that there is supposedly a way to classify p-groups through Lie algebras over F_p, but I don't know anything about this so I will leave it there.
I am trying to remember a name, give me a second...
Yes there we go
And also something something they're inherently interesting blah blah etc. Cushing, Stagg, and Stewart recently discovered a large number of simple F_2 Lie algebras which is in itself very curious I think.
The classification of semisimple lie algebras and the connection to Dynkin diagrams is pretty interesting
(Btw it's precisely that this classification fails in F_2 that the paper above is interesting)
of course it fails in F_2
They have interesting representation theory and lots of connections with physics and quantum algebra
i particularly enjoy Lie algebras because they are a particularly nice example of algebraic structures where congruences correspond exactly to substructures
Thanks for the examples
my reading speed drops to 2 WPM when I'm in this channel for some reason
Linckelmann mentioned
it needs to be a short exact sequence of complexes right (lol almost 2 months later reply)
You could probably triangulate me from this if you didn’t already know
derived functors are about left/right exact functors, and in particular measuring how much they fail to be resp. right/left exact
call ts triangle distinguished the way I'm translating over to ur location
oh yea i was thinking of the general thing where a ses of complexes gives a les in homology but that theorem is just used in proving the les in derived functors i think
Fun times
This is v important in general
I am interested in this boytjiw now as someone who has thought a decent bit about hochschild stuff but not reps
Collaboration time
Yeah i like that theorem
I enjoyed learning about hom algebra and i got depressed once i had to learn combinatorial algebra
I dont know, im learning about “stanley reisner” theory. Correspondence between simplicial complexes and quotient of polynomial ring by squarefree monomial ideal
The nonzero monomials in the quotient correspond to faces in the complex sort of things
@ornate atlas knows most about it in this server probably
From what ive seen at least
Hom alg is like 80% bookkeeping it's frankly exhausting
I'm afraid it's not something I personally know about (yet -- I am interested!) but you should definitely talk to Marcus Linckelmann if you're interested. He has high hopes
Aha nice
I think a friend is interested in something quite close to this
There is also the area of deformation theory which is now known to be controlled (in large part) by generalised Lie algebras. I work with lie algs for this reason
One thing that is interesting in this though is that there should be a lot more structure than a Lie algebra structure
Well for starters like it should be a dg Lie algebra but much more than that
Marcus was saying it's a graded Lie algebra
I don't really know much more
But that already gives us a lot ofc
Ye
Ye.
Ye.
graded stuff is funky
t's not pure algebra, but another motivation for Lie algebras sans Lie groups is to define weight systems with connections to finite-type/Vasilliev invariants in knot theory; see chapter 6 of this book
This book is a detailed introduction to the theory of finite type (Vassiliev) knot invariants, with a stress on its combinatorial aspects. It is intended to serve both as a textbook for readers with no or little background in this area, and as a guide to some of the more advanced material. Our aim is to lead the reader to understanding by means ...
mm thats why ive seen lie algebras come up with quandles before
also the leibniz algebra - lie rack correspondence
yeah that one is what i was thinking of
lie rack is such a weird ass thing to say lmaoo
real
i love all the connections in math
ts 🥀
ive been thinking on how I can somehow generalize the notion of regular map (i.e. locally "nice") to universal algebra. For commutative rings this would be locally rational, but in arbitrary structures theres no such thing, sadly
however, if your notion of algebraic geometry is nice enough, there is some notion of "product" of congruences by which "prime congruences" can be defined, i wonder if something can be done with that
I know a bit but not a huge amount, there’s someone else here who seems to know a bit more but I can’t remember who, they pop up sometimes
That is essentially the basic idea though, you can often turn hard combinatorial questions into problems about relatively easy comalg questions (or well not easy, but like problems with more angles of attack)
At least at the basic level there’s that anyway, you then get into Hilbert schemes of points and stuff and I know much less about that stuff
schemes? consider me enticed
This sounds very interesting; can you elaborate (especially: what kind of "deformation theory" do you mean)?
I think the reason the word "locally" works in comm alg is that you can define A_a to be an "open subspace" of A and {A_a1, ..., A_an} to cover A iff (a1, ..., an) = A and this actually behaves like it makes sense. This suggests to get a notion of "locally" for another signature with category of algebras C one should look for Grothendieck topologies on C^op.
hmm, i have heard of those
rn what my intuition would be is to look for nice-enough-but-not-too-nice notions of functions on some set A
like, if A carries an algebraic structure the obvious notion is that of terms or polynomial operations but fields show that this isnt really enough
maybe theres some way to classify whenever the notion of "locally polynomial" is too restrictive
oo thats a cool idea
to show two extremes: polynomials for sets are exactly the identity and constant functions, and the polynomials (hell, even just the terms) for any primal algebra are every operation on that set
here's how I think about why to study Lie algebras. In a linear algebra/ring theory course, you spend a lot of time on the structure theorem for PIDs, particularly with the application in mind for the k[T]-module structures on a finite dimensional vector space V... just a fancy way of saying you study a single operator T: V->V, but you already get lots of worthwhile results, like the jordan/rational canonical forms.
A finite dimensional k[T]-module is the same data as a finite dimensional representation of the 1-dimensional Lie algebra/k, which I'll call kT, so this is a morphism of Lie algebras kT -> gl(V), which is again picking out a single operator.
The study of Lie algebras then generalizes this study from 1 operator to several operators (the generators of your Lie algebra).. In the same way that we get a lot of mileage in algebra/geometry by recognizing group actions, I see Lie algebra representations as recognizing that some collection of operators on a vector space have formal properties in how they commute. So, it's maybe worthwhile see what has to be true about "realizations" of operators given some data about how they commute (so studying the representation theory of a certain presented Lie algebra).
For example, in Hodge theory (sorry I guess this isn't strictly algebra, but this is the example I have off the top of my head), you get operators on the cohomology ring (the Lefschetz operator, it's dual, and the counting operator). If you know Lie theory, you might wonder how these commute with each other, and then you would notice that these satisfy the same relations as the usual generators of sl2, so cohomology is an sl2 rep, and we can then automatically apply that structure theory to define primitive cohomology
By deformation theory I mean studying problems of the following type: I have an object x defined over a ring B and a map A -> B of rings, and I want to find some y over A that reduces to B. Like e.g. x might be a B-module N and you want to find an A-module M such that M (x)_A B = N. Or you can play a similar game with schemes or representations etc. Usually the focus is on "infinitesimal" deformations e.g. surjective maps of Artinian rings, and e.g. you may be interested in going from F_p to Z/p^2 to Z/p^3,... with the hope of lifting to Z_p.
You can then formalise this sort of problem (i.e. in terms of functors satisfying a couple of properties) but what's interesting is that in many cases the problem of lifting is somehow related to differential graded Lie algebra (or dgla). It turns out that if you generalise these functors enough to define them on more general (homotopy-theory-flavoured) rings (and value them in spaces rather than sets) then it becomes literally true that dglas correspond to these deformation problems (this was proven independently by Pridham and Lurie), at least in char 0
But yeah tl;dr the point is you can study these often quite geometric lifting problems by studying something more algebraic
Like it is kinda amazing that an entire problem of lifting some object to any ring is encapsulated by a single algebraic object, about which you can ask questions (e.g. is this Lie algebra abelian?)
just saw a talk a little bit about this last week! it seems very cool
Oh wow nice lol
Was there anything thjs was about in particular?
Or like a general ting
For I an injective module, in the proof of something bruns and herzog say let I = E(k). Would anyone know what this “E(k)” means?
what is the context?
Ill send screenshot one sec
Oh R is noetherian local ring
So im thinking k probably means residue field idunno
Cause it later says assume I = E(R/p) where p is not maximal ideal
inhective hull, apparently
ah, the largest essential extension
it is the "universal" injective module for M, in some sense
For a commutative noetherian ring any injective module is the direct sum of modules of the form
E(R/p)
the injective hull of R modulo a prime ideal.
Presumably here R is local, so k is the residue field
So E(k) means E(R/m)
are the x_j fixed here?
I think they are a system of parameters for R so they generate an m-primary ideal . I dont know the significance of this atm
So yea i think they fixed
it was about whether central degree two elements of the homotopy lie algebra all come from embedded deformations
does this condition on injectives imply noetherian? i think i remember hearing that but i cant verify
Can the inverse limit of commutative rings with totally bounded krull dimension be notherian with infinite krull dimension?
Hmm interesting
By totally bounded do you mean there is a universal bound for the dimensions of all of those rings?
Also, if the inverse limit of commutagive rings R_i is noetherian, is the inverse limit of ideals (of R_i) precisely the ideals of the inverse limit?
yeah, i asked a prof a while ago and they said they suspect it to be hard for the inverse limit to have Krull dimension more than N+1, if it is noetherian and if the bound is N.
Yeahh that is my intuition
(With the N+1 case have easy examples like e.g. Z_p being limit of Z/p^n)
I dont have intuition beside these examples since idk what the inverse limit being noetherian tells us. If the second statement about ideals corresponding to inverse limit of ideals is true (given that the inverse limit if noetherian), it might be much more approachable.
A ring is Noetherian iff the direct sum of injective modules is injective.
So yes. Though I think E(R/p) might still be the only indecomposable injective modules for a commutative ring R, not sure...
How about this:
Let R = k[x1, x2, ...] be the polynomial ring in infinitely many variables and J = (x1, x2, ...).
Then R/J^n is zero-dimensional for all n.
The inverse limit should be some kind of power series ring thingy. Which I'm guessing should have infinite dimension...
Indeed the inverse limit should be exactly the power series ring
k[[x1, ...]]
and
(x1) < (x1, x2) < ...
is an infinite sequence of prime ideals
Shoot, you also said Noetherian
I don't want to think about Noetherian rings with infinite Krull dimension
yeah this example was why I added noetherian
although i did the inv limit of k[x_1,..,x_n]/(x_1,...,x_n)^n cuz i didn't think of R/J^n being 0 dimensional
Why not
🔥
Potato the true algebraist
I am baby
A,b,c >1 is false btw only abc>1 is given and a,b,c are all positive.
This would belong more in #real-complex-analysis
This channel is for like, Lie algebras, commutative ring theory, homological algebra, homotopical algebra, etc
I see
Lol
Got assigned a hw problem to classify all irreducible representations of D4, but we haven't dont characters yet. Any ideas how to proceed?
Say D4 = (s, r)
r must be sendt to a matrix of order 4. These are diagonalizable, so you may assume it's diagonal.
Then s needs to be sendt to a matrix of order 2 with srs = r^-1
Also sum of squares can help
It means there is 4 1-dim and 1 2-dim irreducible representations
You can get that without characters?
Anyway, another useful thing could be that determinant and trace are preserved under conjugation, so r and r^-1 must have the same of those
I think so
I mean, you can prove it from the group algebra being semisimple I guess
Yes thats how I remember it
How can you show this
Makes sense, im stuck on why we would be forced to be dim 2 or 1
So my suggestion is essentially to classify all the representations, then just notice which are irreducible.
So you may think about decomposing the space into the eigenspaces of r.
Is there information missing here?
Why do you think there is?
It just seems like very little information to go off of
I can conclude some things under slightly stronger assumptions, so idk
Hmm, this feels like some segre embedding stuff that we did in my alggeo class, but I remember that proof essentially being just a bunch of linear algebra and we showed it was something to do with the rank of the matrix of the coefficients I think?
I don’t know if that method could be extended to generic R modules (I’d be surprised) but maybe that’s somewhere to start?
FWIW I don’t know, that does seem hard in general but I haven’t thought about this at all really, so 
Yeah I’d be surprised if the answer isn’t “iff c_11 c_22 = c_12 c_21”, but I don’t even know how to prove that such elements are pure tensors if we’re not in a UFD
Actually I don’t even think that’s true outside a UFD
Like if we took c_11 = 2, c_12 = 1 + sqrt(-5), c_21 = 1 - sqrt(-5), c_22 = 3 in Z[sqrt(-5)]
I'm not sure there's missing information, but it's not so clear what the question is asking for.
Like conditions on cij that make it true for arbitrary M and N maybe?
I think the question is supposed to be an "it is a pure tensor only if ..." type question
But seeing as this is a commalg course and no algebraic geometry has been covered, I think whoever wrote this exercise probably just forgot to add some conditions or something
I will just skip it
In group theory, a branch of abstract algebra, the Whitehead problem is the following question:
Is every abelian group A with Ext1(A, Z) = 0 a free abelian group?
Saharon Shelah proved that Whitehead's problem is independent of ZFC, the standard axioms of set theory.
this is an absolutely wild statement to be independent of ZFC
Yea I remember my prof talking abt that in my alg course
ive done a little digging and found that the cohomology for this is actually a specific version of something called monad cohomology. Namely, we take the canonical resolution of a comonad, take any abelian group object Y, and consider Hom(-, Y) : C → Ab. This defines a cosimplicial object in Ab, so we can simply take its homology
How do we prove that for a ring, if all its right ideals are projective then the ring is right hereditary (submodule of any projective right module is also projective) ?
Let R be an integral domain with infinitely many elements, of which only finitely many are irreducible.
Suppose every non-unit has an irreducible factor. Show that R has infinitely many units.
refrain from double posting
#groups-rings-fields is the better place for this anyways
The dreaded... Double Post.
Would anybody know how one would prove this?
Or just where to even start really
I will first review what the *local is
I feel like it might not be that hard really but i havent actually tried going thru it yet
I've noticed something weird, but it takes a little set-up. I'm not actually interested in reps of finite groups, but this is a good "test case".
Let $H$ be a subgroup of a finite group $G$ and let $\phi:\mathbb{Z}/2\to \text{Aut}(G)$ such that $\phi(1)(H)=H$. I will write $G^+:=G\rtimes_\phi \mathbb{Z}/2$ and likewise for $H^+$, which is a subgroup of $G^+$.
If an irrep $\pi$ of $G$ is not isomorphic to $\pi\circ \phi(1)$, then there is unique irreducible representation $\tilde{\pi}$ of $G^+$ such that $\text{Res}_{G}^{G^+}(\tilde{\pi})\cong \pi \oplus (\pi\circ \phi(1))$. Otherwise, there are exactly two non-isomorphic irreps $\pi_1, \pi_2$ of $G^+$ such that $\text{Res}(\pi_i)\cong \pi$.
Suppose now that $\pi$ is a complex irrep of $H$ which is isomorphic to $\pi\circ \phi(1)$, and let $\pi_1$ be any one of its two irreducible extensions to $H^+$. The irreducible composition factors of $I_{H^+}^{G^+}(\pi_1)$ are exactly the extensions of the irreducible composition factors of $I_H^G(\pi)$.
Claim: If $\sigma, \tau$ are irreducible composition factors of $I_{H^+}^{G^+}(\pi_1)$ such that $\text{Res}^{G^+}_G(\sigma)\cong \text{Res}^{G^+}_G(\tau)$, then $\sigma\cong \tau$.
kr1staps
To put this another way, if $\rho$ is and irreducible composition factor of $I_H^G(\pi)$, then $I_{H^+}^{G^+}(\pi_1)$ only contains one of the extensions $\rho$ to $G^+$.
kr1staps
Im having a hard time interpreting M-sequences
an element of R being M-regular is good but then say x2 being M/x1M-regular gives me pause
i guess a key point is that x2 may not be M-regular right
It’ll be true if R is local and M is finite
For x2 to be M-regular?
If it’s M/x1M regular yeah it’ll be M-regular
it boils down to some cute lil application of nakayama
idk if it's true without noetherian assumptions, so me assuming R is noe local
For (left or right) derived functors, given M->N we have R^iM->R^iN. Do we get that map from first making a ses using M->N ?
Well this is what Weibel calls the horseshoe lemma, like given a map between things you can find a map of injective resolutions
Like this is how it is a functor
Yea what i saw so far from that is, if you have a ses and have an injective resolution of first and third entry, then there is an injective resolution of the middle that is also a direct sum of the two other resolutions
And also true for projective stuff
filling in the horseshoe 
my prof once had us prove the horseshoe lemma in a homework but he didn't call it that
but i remembered reading about it somewhere so i titled that problem "Horseshoe Lemma" and he left a comment saying "i told you not to use outside resources"
Thats why i was asking do we set up an ses from M->N and then do horseshoe lemma thing?
Like just ker M image
do you need horseshoe lemma to show that M -> N induces a map R^iM -> R^iN?
i thought it was just some homotopy lifting argument
Yea im just wondering where do we get that map
Derived “functors” so like how is it a functor type shi
you can probably find a proof of this in any homological algebra textbook
True lol I guess in my mind horseshoe was basically this lifting thing lol
Mb
lift lift lift
I saw lemma of if u have map M->M and two projective resolutions of M then u can connect them
Does that work with any M->N
yeah that's basically what i mean by homotopy lifting argument
you have a map of modules M -> N and take projective resolutions P and Q of both
your map M -> N lifts to maps between P_i -> Q_i
Kinda funny doing all the stuff w existence of resolutions and then it usually only gets used for modules or smth in a first course, where there are canonical things
But lots of maths is like this ig
i would guess authors assume if you're reading about it then you've seen it in the context of modules
And does the map given from that way coincide with the maps between derived functors you get when you extend a ses M N L to an ses of derived functors
and just handwave any of the nitpicky details that you prove/see in modules
Ig you mean LES
Yes mb
Riiight its like the same thing
in the same way that homology and cohomology are functors
And the (non-boundary) maps are just those induced by applying (co)homology
you can just think of these as generalizations of them
Yea, ig the core problem was i wasnt totally sure how to interpret homology as a functor
well actually not generalizations it is homology and cohomology
Yeah
if you want a concrete computation I think Hatcher has this
in the context of simplicial homology or singular homology whichever he uses at that point
more formal treatments you can find in any hom alg textbook
Yea cause not all homology comes from injective or projective resolutions kind of thing right
weibel, rotman, etc
I only really been studying that because i needed to know Ext and local cohom and those are both derived functors
Yea i mean, simplicial homology has nothing to do with resolutions right ..?
for modules they should
Oh, why?
umm wait actually lemme think about that
okay to be precise
homology is not a functor from the category of modules but from the category of chain complexes (or something like that)
as long as you have an acyclic resolution you can use it to calculate homology
in this case they come from projective/injective resolutions
Acyclic meaning exact? I forget that defn
so you should be able to say something like if you category has enough projective/injectives everything works out
acyclic means 0 homology for i>0
Do u mind spelling out more what u mean here
resolutions in abelian categories are the same as resolutions of modules
not necessarily projective/injective resolutions but just resolutions
when you're computing singular cohomology you're taking a chain complex of abelian groups
if memory serves me right
A resolution of M is just 0 -> M -> M0 -> M1 etc exact?
i think usually it ends with M
you can write right resolutions like that
I got kinda lost on what we’re talking abt now tbh
yes, you are correct
though a lot of homology comes from derived functors
group cohomology, for example
Ya thats why i liked learning about derived functors they seemed nice / useful
Real
this convo is much more fun than my stupid lie groups homework which has been sitting on my second monitor for a while
bvlah blah regular map blahblah
Lol
this map is regular blah blah blah
Anytime something is “regular” its boring tbh
yeah just lie groups
Simplicial homology can be expressed as sheaf cohomology which is a derived functor tbf
Lel
hey dont you talk shit about regular maps of vatieties qwq
its also a monadic cohomology
regular maps are useful
Sure
i just dont like these routine computations
but anyway it must be done to get a good grasp of it
Idk what im thinking of is regular sequences in algebra and thats kind of boring
"regular sequences" and "boring" in the same sentence is crazy
Ok ik it is interesting i just havent thought of it enough
Ok but like listen the definition of it is not interesting
But the fact it can detect other cool stuff is interesting
I havent studied properly yet how it can detect homological things
the first one that comes to mind is that you use it to define depth
under some loose conditions i forgot
Regular? For Lie groups?
you can use depth to prove things like existence of hilbert polynomials in two (or more) variables
we just started so it's moreso proving properties of the underlying manifolds
regular as in the manifold sense
Oh
Just smooth group homomorphism?
we don't assume smooth
we're working over C^k, real analytic, or complex analytic
So regular means C^{whatever the manifolds are}?
Right
wait no sorry
regular functions are C^k or whatever
regular maps pull back regular functions to regular functions
Question about the phrase "symmetric part" in the following
NotABot
On a previous page it talks about an r with
NotABot
Though in that context r is more firmly defined.
So my question is, is it correct that "symmetric part" is referring to the r_12 + r_21? Or would it mean some component within r that is symmetric
Then (I^t + Ann(M))M = I^tM = M < mM
So, M = mM would be bad?
Nakayama ain’t it
yeah was just reviewing it rn. Would this need R to be local so that jacobson radical is just m?
Hmmm
True
Oh
Well this is bad because Supp M = V(Ann M) so if m contains Ann M then M_m can’t be zero
But when you localize this says any m containing I^t + Ann M has M_m = 0
Not sure abt this part
I literally argued it above
This shows that Mm = 0? Im not sure why
This says M_m is 0
What does?
That equality lol
Uhh ok ik since Supp M = V(Ann(M)) then if we had I^t + Ann(M) < m then Mm ≠ 0, i dont know where Mm = 0 is coming from
Localize this equality and apply Nakayama
Now M_m is 0
You said it needs to be local so just localize and now you get to use Nakayama
In the context of affine weyl groups, let y = x w_0 t^(w_0 lambda) where here lambda is dominant and x is an element of the weyl group. I'm trying to show length(y)=length(x)+length(w_0 t^(w^0 lambda)). I know I'm supposed to use the length formula but I'm not sure how to deal with it
Localize the modules over m?
Yuh
If M = N then Ms = Ns for a localization?
Localisation at s is a functor and in particular isos induce isos
Yes i thought it was smth like that
is being isomorphic local?
Of course as stated it seems a little different aha
Yes or no depending on what you mean aha
Functors in general preserve isomorphisms right
Because they preserve identity maps and diagrams
"Being an isomorphism is a local property of a map" is what I would say
f : N → M being an isomorphism i can imagine is local
Yes
yippee
ofc you can just use the exact sequence
0 → ker f → N → M → coker f → 0
and then exactness of localisation
anyways sorry to interject
ye that was his point
Yeah and nice short exercise
it should be referring to the Sym^2 component yes
But also this doesnt help me concretely with what the map between things are
Like ik now how you get the map, ok do resolutions, fill in the diagram, apply functor, and then map on homology comes from chain map
But like …
In particular, the map M->M just multiplying by some x in R induces the same map Hm^i(M) -> Hm^i(M) on local cohomology somehow
Just multiply by x
For example for this you can use just one resolution of M and then map it to itself via multiplication by x in each degree
Also for modules and stuff it is often possible to use like very canonical resolutions for these kinds of arguments, like any R-module M has the resolution using free R-module on M etc
How does that help?
So the map that just multiplies by x does the same on the map of derived functors for any of them
So like Ext would be the same
Like you just reason using that resolution
Ye
But a map I1 -> I1' thats just multiply by x means after applying functor the map FI1 -> FI1' is also just multiply by x...?
for local cohomology i guess its just that because when u apply the I-torsion functor, maps dont change its just restricted
Oh, we have M = mM and we can localize these R-modules over m to get Rm-modules Mm = mMm, then apply nakayama to say Mm = 0 which is the contradiction
sorry just want to make sure i really understand this properly
Of course, if you have a maximal M-sequence x1, x2, ... xn, then M/x1M has a maximal M/x1M-sequence x2, ... xn right
Depends on the functor
But for many things this is the case
So you saying Ye here wasn’t totally true?
Because like you said now it depends on the functor
Ok I guess I didn't rly understand what you meant by this lol
But it does depend on the functor ye
But a lot of these functors behave very well with such things ye
Whats algebra
its like x+ 5 = 3 solve for x type shi
Ahh it’s easy
ye
it's like when you've got thingies and arrows between thingies
thats #category-theory
and when youre doing geometry and the arrows turn around then youre doing algebra
we are not like them
But algebraic geometry its hard i think
sure is
no super easy, barely an inconvenience
I mean sheaves and schemes, who doesn't understand them
It’s incredible it took people so long to simply realise that points are prime ideals
Plainly obvious to any small somewhat educated child
exactly, like its such an obvious step!
I mean duh, any shmuck knows that
help a brother
Suppose we have some function $w:{(n,m)\mid n> m} \to F_\infty$ where for any $n>m$ we have that $w_{n,m} \in F_m \leq F_\infty$ in the obvious usual embedding.
How many groups can arise as quotients of groups of the form
$$G_w = \big\langle (e_i\mid i<\omega)\mid \forall i>j. e_j^{e_i} = w_{i,j}(e_1,\dots,e_j)\big\rangle$$
(For some choice of word sequences w)
Sharp, the Inevitable
what does e_j^{e_i} mean?
As in, conjugation
But the idea is things that have many concentric subgroups that you can’t escape by conjugation from outside
Without being quite normal
(Necessarily, anyway, you could just permute the generators and be grand and run into no issues, or otherwise have the words be freely independent and generate F_n or wtv)
I was hoping these would be nice enough to make an argument work but they don’t quite seem to be
given a real vector space V and a real number $\lambda$ is the tensor product $V^{\bigotimes \lambda}$ well defined?
HausdorffT1
I don't think so and honestly have no idea what this would mean
honestly that would imply real numbered bases then lol
Dang okay thanks. I saw something like this in the context of “tensor densities” but maybe that is a specific geometric construction.
You can have weird dimensions in op alg things

Hi fellas, I was wondering something about general rings in positive characteristic. Given a ring R with char R=p a prime number, given x in R nonzero, if we take the ring S=R[t]/(t^p-u) then the module of Kähler differentials of S over R is zero iff there is already an element u such that u^p=x.
This is obviously true if R is a field, but I was wondering some general case without even asuming that R is noetherian.
One side is obvious since if there's already a root for t^p-u then S is a product due to the chinese remainder theorem. The other side I was trying to figure out if it makes sense to asume the Kahler diferentials is something like S/(f'(t)) which is non-zero since f'(t)=0.
It seems some letters have been swapped here, but ignoring that I feel this may be true for general R - I'll have a go myself now lol
actually you can just read this off here
(Here the set up is you have R -> S -> T)
The Chinese Remainder theorem shouldn't apply though. Since p = 0 in R, if t^p - u has a root b then t^p - u = (t - b)^p and your polynomial ring is just R[t]/t^p up to iso, not R x .... x R
More concretely like the 'differentiation' map $R[t] \to R[t]$ of $R$-modules descends to a non-zero $R$-linear derivation $S \to S$ since the derivative of $t^p - u$ vanishes. This shows that $\Omega^1_{S/R} \ne 0$ by the universal property
Prismatic Potato
I guess you could also consider residue fields of R and reduce to the case of a field
Damn, I just looked at this and realized that I don't know what I was thinking. Thanks a lot!, this makes a lot of things clearer.
No problem. I guess this is just a very funny thing where it would work were we not in char p with an inseparable poly lol
Just want to make sure. Say $\Phi^{+}$ are the positive roots of a root system and $\Phi^{-}$ otherwise. If I take the sum $\sum_{\alpha \in \Phi^{+}} |(\lambda,w_0 \alpha)+1|$, since $w_0 \Phi^{+} \in \Phi^{-}$ we can sum over the negative roots so we get $\sum_{\alpha \in \Phi^{-}} |(\lambda,\alpha)+1|.$ My question was is this right? If this is right then can we also just sum over the positive roots instead?
Delteto
This is right but you can't just sum over the positive roots because |(l, a) + 1| ≠ |(l, -a) + 1|. You could replace the sum over negative roots by a sum over positive roots of |(l, a) - 1|.
This is true in general. For any commutative ring R of characteristic p, Omega_{S/R} is a free S-module with basis dt since f'(t) = 0.
I see thanks for checking my sanity
I've been trying to compute a certain length of an element in the affine weyl group. So say you have the term x w_0 X^(w_0 lambda) where X here is representing the translation part and lambda here is dominant. I'm trying to show that ell(x w_0 X^(w_0 lambda)) = ell(x)+ell(w_0 X^(w_0 lambda))
the length of the big term is $\sum_{\alpha \in \Phi^+} |(\lambda,w_0 \alpha)+\chi(x w_0 \alpha)|$ where chi here outputs 1 when you hit a negative root and 0 otherwise
Delteto
We can split the sum for cases when this chi is either 0 or 1
I tried subtracting this sum with ell(w_0 X^(w_0 lambda)) to hopefully show that indeed I get ell(x)
I ended up doing so and getting some cancellation and at the end what I got is $\sum_{\beta \in \Omega^+} |(\lambda,\beta)| - \sum_{\beta \in \Omega^+} |(\lambda,\beta)+1|$ where $\Omega^+$ here denotes the set of all $beta \in R^{-}$ such that $x \beta$ is in $R^+$
Delteto
now since lambda is dominant and beta is in R^-, (lambda,beta) <=0 and from there I got partially what I got
when (lambda,beta) < -1 I think the terms simplify to 1 and you get ell(x) but otherwise it's a mess
hello. I am new to abstract mathematics, so my question might be misinformed. regarding lie group lie algebra correspondence, I wanted to ask if lie algebras act similarly to the jacobian as a derivative. the surface level similarities feel obvious, tangent space to a manifold, lie algebra's to my current understanding study linear fields
the jacobian is a linear field
u get where I am coming from
oh but to clarify I dont think lie algebras study the rate of change, just that they can be used analogously as a means to study the manifolds/functions
If you have two chain maps p and tau such that p \circ tau = 0, this implies H_i(p) \circ H_i(tau) = 0
Based on this alone, is there really anything I can conclude about the injectivity or surjectivity of H_i(p) and H_i(tau)? I tried analyzing the homology of mapping cone for p and tau and didn't get anything useful...
Not really cause one of them could be 0 and the other anything
Yeah, I had the same conclusion as well
Or maybe more dramatically like you could take the complexes to just be in degree 0
And then you just have pi = 0 which doesn't let you conclude much
:(
In my practical situation, my complexes and chain maps do have a certain form.
But they're not specific enough for me to conclude anything more definitive about them based on the p \circ tau = 0 condition sadly
Ah sure
What is weird is that I keep numerically finding that H_1(Tau) is surjective for my specific p, tau, and complexes (still obeying the condition that p \circ tau = 0)
But I guess that's just a consequence of the situation I'm dealing with, rather than something to do with general hom alg
Hm then this forces H_1(p) = 0 right
Yeah it does by the property of epis in additive cats. I was hoping to prove in generality that something about p \circ tau = 0 in hom alg implies this instead of relying on numerics for my specific chain complexes and chain maps, but I guess that's out of the question
Sure, in a certain sense. By the correspondence, real/complex representations of a simply connected Lie group correspond one-to-one (via differentiation) to real/complex representations of its Lie algebra. This turns the geometric problem of classifying the former, which can be daunting, into the linear-algebraic problem of classifying the latter, which is often much simpler
I see, thanks for the response!
hello
@here Could I link my hypercomplex preprint for review and possible colaboration?
it is in osf
whats it about
it is about new methods for generating the multiplication table of hypercomplex numbers from patterns I observed I made pythons script for it and also probable a formula for zero pair divisors count for any hypercomplex dimensions, it got the results aligned with recent preprints
There seem to be two definitions of the Lie bracket:
- On a general manifold, the Lie bracket [X,Y] of two vector fields X and Y is defined by [X,Y]f = X(Yf)-Y(Xf), which one can check defines a vector field
- On a Lie group G, we can define [X,Y] as the "quadratic" term in the expansion log(exp(X)exp(Y)) = X+Y + 1/2*[X,Y] + ...
Is there a quick way to see that these give the same answer?
I think I am asking for a proof of some easy case of the Baker–Campbell–Hausdorff formula
You can find a proof of this result in "Symmetry, Representations, and Invariants" by Goodman and Wallach
Let f: C ---> D be a chain map of chain complexes of finite dimensional vector spaces
I can take the dual of the entire diagram, which gives the cochain map f*: D* ---> C*
On the other hand, since the boundary maps obey partial_i \circ partial_(i-1) = 0 = partial_(i-1)^T \circ partial_i^T, could we not also have a cochain map g: C* ----> D*?
If so, what's the relationship between f* and g?
Not sure what you mean, like how are you defining g even if our complexes are in degree 0?
Is there an analogue of Schur--Weyl duality for other semisimple/reductive groups in place of GL_n with their Weyl group in place of S_n?
Actually, disregard my question. My chain map in my application has a lot more specific structure where several of the vertical maps are identical. So my original question is irrelevant
I feel like my approach is wrong here. Could anyone steer me in the right direction?
I'm not really sure what you are doing in the first line
If M is faithfully flat, then the exactness of the sequence gives N = 0
Why should it be exact?
It's 0 everywhere
I mean like what is your original exact sequence
0 -> 0 -> N -> 0 -> 0
That isn't exact
I know
?
But if M is faithfully flat, then the latter sequence gives that this would have to be exact too
Just I would make it more clear what you are doing