#Irrationality of π
1 messages · Page 4 of 1
the cutting, perhaps, flattens the position where it is cut
Right, if you delete the cheese at every countable position, 100% of the cheese remains.
Says the person, trying to reify an infinite process into a fixed resultant outcome quantity (comprised of countable quanta), which is impossible to do.
But cutting refers to partitioning the volume of a shape with a plane, which necessarily preserves it.
USE. WORDS. CORRECTLY.
they are not trying to force an irrational into what you call a quantity of countable quanta, it is quite obvious that this is not possible
the discussion cannot go anywhere
some people have a different conception of what counts as a number that's it
I don't even fucking know if that's what I'm trying to do because I don't know what the fuck that means, because none of those words have formal mathematical definitions consistent with Sapphire's usage.
what it means is a rational number, lol
Exactly, quantity, to be comprised of countable quanta, must be divisible and of ratio. Irrational means without ratio.
...yes, obviously an irrational number is not a rational number, that's what the prefix "ir-" means.
yup
that's why this discussion is not interesting
and why i was waffling about cheese and finite texts instead
And thus, it has no specific quantity, it is not comprised of quanta, or countable elemental units.
No. That does not follow.
the comparison # to ### doesn't look like a quantity to me, tbh
You cant have a specific quantity, without quanta.
Prove it.
It is represented using quanta, or countable elements. You can never do that with the irrationals.
It is in the word my friend.
No it isn't.
.# is the quanta, we can represent the value as quanta.
Quantity
yeah we can represent the number 3 as ### where it makes sense to call the number 3 a "quantity" (it's the quantity of #s) but i don't see the same relationship when trying to quantify "# to ###"
Because we a representing it, in a format or way, that still utilizes countable elements. # relative to # # #
You cannot do that with the irrationals.
They are of no quantity.
many things can be represented that aren't quantities, though
we can represent happiness with :)
etc.
Is happiness a number?
i don't think so... i don't think it's a quantity, certainly
seems like rationals are something that shouldn't be called quantities
but you can use words however you feel like ig you're already way off the beaten path
It aint a number, hello is though.
incredible
I think if we can represent it in some format, as quanta or countable elements, we are good. Rationals fit that requirement.
run doom in Q
We probably can. (I think)
Running it in N however might be harder ...
How do we even represent an algorithm as a number?
Use Gödel’s trick???
somehow make the entire code one long binary string
the goal is to make operations in Q (addition etc) correspond to execution steps
i think
john conways fractran is a good start
maybe you could indicate location of the code by some string of numbers that dont include 0 or 1, then the code, then another location code for the next, etc
Can we lock this down when we reach 3142
I think that would be hilarious
It's not active either way anymore and the discussion has ended
Shouldn't we lock down at 3141
I know it's rounding but
eh it doesnt matter to me both are fine
how can you even check how many messages there are
ah
scared of the later person 😭
Can I share my Pythagorean Discord at 3142? || #advertisement message ||
in #advertisement
But it inflates the message count
lol crank label?
It's been alot of threads
----√2 φ π e √3-----
Closing statement, the great Pi debate of 2025
The Pythagorean framework that I have been arguing for since the beginning challenges the conventional view of irrationals as complete numbers by insisting that true numbers must be finitely constructed, measurable, and composed of countable elemental units (a quality entirely absent in irrationals, whose existence is predicated solely on infinite procedures like convergent sequences, Dedekind cuts, and limit processes).
I holds that the methods used to "fill the gaps" on the number set of the reals rely on axiomatic abstraction and reification fallacies - such as completeness - that reify the abstract concept of convergent infinity into a static entity, based on a priori rules established from their incommensurable counterparts. This is despite irrationals never having a discrete, measurable landing points like the rationals.
During this debate by arguing that quantities, by definition require countable quanta and must have explicitly defined, finite measurements (which irrationals fail to possess due to their inherent incommensurability and lack of common measure with rational units), I deconstructed traditional proofs like the diagonal of a square and the Pythagorean theorem as misapplied in this context, concluding that irrationals are, at best, useful fictions rather than genuine quantities grounded in the finite, elemental foundation of mathematics.
Using infinite processes to define irrational numbers obscures their lack of tangible discreteness. In this regard, procedures like the bisection method or Cauchy sequences only generate a never-ending sequence of approximations rather than a finalized entity that can be pinned down by a finite collection of rational units. This falls into the reification fallacy.
Irrationals, I argue, are not numbers, nor measurable distances, nor quantities comprised of countable quanta.
They are Failures of Measurement.
||If anyone wants to hear or debate more of my constructivist perspective, I am somewhere in #advertisement message and there is a lot of cool other ones there as well. 🙂This was a very joyful debate where people can see the best arguments from both sides. Ὑγίαινετε ἕως ὅτου ἀνταμώμεθα, φίλοι μαθηματικοὶ φιλόσοφοι. ||
❤️ 🙏 📐 🔢 🚫 ♾️

we need to pick one then restart the thread and do the other
3076 🔥🔥🔥
3077 🔥🔥🔥
Or 31416
it follows easily from
What does this fucking mean
what's unclear?
pi is a positive real number, it has a decimal expansion, how do you know the decimal expansion begins 3.14?
So we just throw in any approximation?
you need to say what the error is tho if you want to use an approximation argument
How would I do that?
dunno, let's see.
let's first define pi
we can say pi is:
pi/2=min{t: cos(t)=0 and t>0}
equivalently
pi=min{t: e^z = 1 iff z ≡ 0 (mod 2ti) and t>0}
hmm idk
one thing to do is put polygons on the inside of the circle
i tried this once, and it takes a very long time to get as close as 3.14
because cos has an alternating series on the reals, the error is easier to bound
oh but we're inverting it
so cos(1.57) > 0, cos(1.575) < 0?
probably would work
though, idk if this would require you to prove that taylor expansion is a thing that works
cosine is one of the functions that is exactly its power series so nbd
because pi=3.14159... is a theorem, not a definition of pi
It's easy to prove with a computer because even if a series converges slowly to it, you can just calculate enough terms to make the error small enough, if you have a bound for the error
proving it by hand is not easy
yes this is the most straightfoward way
For an alternating series
Sum{k=0 to infinity} (-1)^k a_k, for all a_k > 0, a[k+1] \le a[k] for all k
with lim{k to infity} a[k] = 0
ye its a weller known theorem than the taylor series thm
then after calculating the first n terms of the series, the error, which is the sum of the tail of the series, call it R_n, satifies |R_n| le a[n+1]
mm-hmm
And cosine is analytic, meaning it's exactly it's power series, well known result
if I call C_n(x) the partial sums of the cosine series,
|R_n|<x^n/n!
using a computer to see how many terms we need
up to C8, 4 non-constant terms (because cosine only has even powers)
C8(1.570) > 0.008 (error < 0.00003)
C8(1.575) < -0.004 (error < 0.00003)
So you just need to calculate
C8 of those numbers
Which is very annoying without at least a simple calculator, forget a scientific calculator.
But if you allow yourself a simple calculator, your idea works!
For C6, the error is large enough that it doesn't guarantee the approximation is the same sign as the true value
there should be a root finding method for cosine that's faster
ah but then you have to be able to do trig on the guesses, so, not doable without a calculator really even in theory
Convergent fractions might be faster
no, but hen you need to assume you know it begins with 3.14, that's circular
there's a method for evaluating polynomials by nesting that's generally easier than calculating powers x^2, x^4, etc, called Horner's rule
1 - (x^2)/2 + (x^4)/24 - (x^6)/720 + (x^8)/40320
=
1 + x^2 · (-1/2 + x^2 · (1/24 + x^2 · (-1/720 + x^2 · 1/40320)))
well this method is more for what's faster for a computer to do
It's not necessarily what's easier for a human with a pen and paper
youd need like 1000 terms to get the error low enough
arctan doesn’t converge outside |x|<=1 am i wrong?
oh yeah it does work at 1
that’s the 1-1/3+blah that converges really slow
Good point
Use Newton’s approximation instead
Should I spam the thread with LaTeX
P is for 'Priceless', the look upon your faces
E is for 'Extinction', all your puny races
R for 'Revolution', which will be televised
F is for how f**ked you are, now allow me to reprise...
E is for 'Eccentric', just listen to my song
C is for 'Completion', that I've waited for so long!
T is for the 'Terror', upon you I'll bestow...
My name is Perfect Cell. And I'd like to say...
Hello