#Irrationality of π
1 messages · Page 3 of 1
Then all real numbers are numbers, because all real numbers can be represented as a countable sequence of digits.
1/3 need not be described as 0.3333...r, it depends on the base system you encode it in or expand into its decimal form so to speak. You can still represent anything that is with ratio as countable whole unit elements. ie 1/3 is the same as saying # relative to # # # so it has measurement and quantity.
Digit sequences are not comprised of countable elemental units when they are in non-uniform flux.
You cannot represent anything irrational as countable elemental units and produce a measurement without making it rational.
YES. YOU. CAN. EVEN A NUMBER WITH INFINITELY MANY DIGITS STILL HAS COUNTABLY MANY DIGITS.
I mean when irrationals play a role in the real world and effect quantity it is because they have landed and their effects are in rational form. The golden ratio is a good example of this.
Just absolutely ignoring what I said and going into a new topic...
No, it is like trying to count infinity or the total numbers that exist in an infinite sequence. It is a failure of measurement. You cannot measure what you cannot count. Irrationals literally mean unmeasurable in classical Greek.
What? About Planck?
Yes and about the fact that you dont need to comprehend something fully as a living being for it to be true
I. DON'T. GIVE. A FUCK. ABOUT. ETYMOLOGY. ESPECIALLY. NOT. FROM SOMEONE. WHO DENIES. THE EXISTENCE. OF COUNTABLE INFINITY.
This thread is gonna drive everyone on mathcord clinically insane after some time
"I am intrigued by your notion of “failure of measurement”, and I can somewhat see where you are coming from. But that does not mean that π is not a real number! You understand that 1/3 cannot be expressed in our number system, so why do you not agree with this same rationale for irrational numbers?"
Thank you for asking. The answer is well, because in some number system, any fraction or ratio can be expressed as a non recurring decimal when encoded in that format (which is a format of exponents of the base system lest not forget it holds no significance one over another). Irrationals cannot be expressed as a finite decimal point in any base system. And more important than decimals and base systems, is the inability to express an irrational as countable elemental units, it is in flux by definition. Just like an function with a limit that uses infinity in some form (aside from a few special examples). And positionally when encoded into any number system on a numberline, that flux is also non-uniform. There is no conceivable measurement, to measure one must be able to count units.
The square and its corner to corner with a line segment have being covered many times in the debate (can probably do a search for keywords and find all my mentions of it).
Anyone with a working brain denies the existence of countable infinity. I think this debate is bad for you. Your responses keep getting more intense and now you are defending the ability to count infinity.
So your problem is with irrationals not being a finite amount of information...? and im pretty sure no definition of irrationals says its "in flux"
see. my. point. about. plancks constant.
(Ik you already saw the message but youre still completely ignoring the idea that our knowledge of something isnt a requirement for it to exist)
If you have a function, that uses infinity in the way that the irrationals do, or likewise a divergent function approaching infinity itself, that by definition is in flux. I view a function for an irrational with a limit that is the irrational, more similar to a function with a limit of infinity than a number. It cannot land by definition, it is in flux in any representation that involves numbers, number systems or countable elemental units. If we produce a measurement, it makes it rational.
Irrationals therefore cannot be operated on, and only ideological formalism with classical axiomatic abstractions as rationalizations/justifications permits such operations in my view.
I do not see any problem with using plancks constant. Just like we use Pi or the Phi in approximation, we land it and make it rational.
Tell me youre not reading what Im saying properly without telling me youre not reading what mi saying properly.
my main point was literally that plancks constant WAS rational so you should be perfectly fine with it, yet we didn't know it before 1900 but it still worked we just didn't know that it worked bc we didn't know it existed in the first place
read my original message PROPERLY for the proper explanation
I have forgotten how Max Planck mathematically derived the e = hf, so I cannot really comment on that accurately. I would have to read up on my old notes again.
why can it not land by definition?
take the limit to infinity of a sequence (6 + 1/n), it approaches 6, does that mean 6 doesn't exist? does that mean that 6 has no landing point?
also what do you mean "likewise a divergent function", A divergent sequence either diverges to +∞ or −∞ or is oscillatory, how is pi any of those...
I literally have not learned anything about max plancks constant properly yet, all I had to do was look up "rational physics constant" to prove my point. thats how easy and intuitive it is.
I dont even remember the first digit of max plancks constant because of how briefly I went over it before I had enough information for my argument
So how is it relevant? It is constant, it is rational, it is all good to me.
We didn't always know anything.
exactly
yet everything has always worked
human knowledge is not a requirement for things to work
try saying that to yourself about pi please
Pi does not exist in the physical world, infinitely perfect circles do not exist in the physical world or objects. Only in paths of motion if we assume a continuous distance and time metric and field of force, which produces other contentious issues in the groundwork of modern physics.
Look to not get into unrelated details ill ask you about sqrt2 instead
does that too not exist in the physical world? cant you measure the diagonal of a square with side length one?
If you say no lines of length exactly 1 exist then great, by your logic 1 isnt a number either
Define "counting".
I think this is another case of horrible use of math terms
she thinjs by countable infinity you mean a human can count all of it
but maybe im being unfair here surely shes seen stuff like N is countable but R isnt
Yes, that square-diagonal analogy has very much been exhausted. I, too, a not a fan of repeated assertions. No need to say something twice.
Sapphire, you’ve got a good head on your shoulders when it comes to civil debate. I can tell when someone has put ample research and consideration into their writing. I also recognize mavericks when I seem them, since I feel that I relate to them more than standard convention. However, although many of the mathematicians who have made extraordinary discoveries also followed such unorthodox thinking, that does not mean that they were infallible. Bringing up your idea that the Greeks denied the existence of irrational numbers is an interesting key point, and it also ties into reason why it took almost 2000 years to prove the irrationality of pi. It takes continuous trial and error to reach a common notion, especially for those who must exert stronger efforts to reach mathematical conclusions.
If by “in flux” you mean that pi is not constant, that is simply not true. Just because all of the decimal digits in pi are inconceivable to our human comprehension does that mean that they do not exist (look towards other fields of study such as quantum physics and general chemistry!).
You can continue delving into this if you’d like, but you will receive vehement disagreement from almost any individual deeply ingrained in this study. I disagree with the mass antagonization you have received, and am rather interested in your claims; I think it’s great to quarrel (with complete respect from both parties), as it opens doors for extreme clarification and precision in prospected definitions. However, it might help to take into account that math is not just based on logical reasoning, it is also based on widespread consensus.
Perhaps you should take your findings onto some different platform(s) as well. Will esteemed individuals who have devoted their lives to mathematical degrees also agree with your justifications? I’m quite interested! Please don’t lose this curiosity of yours! As an artist, I can tell you this much: almost any famous artist, such as the revered Van Gogh, was hated in their time, and their efforts were only recognized many decades after death.
Why are you praising them for being obnoxiously wrong?
No you cannot, it will always overlap or not reach with a line segment of any measurable length (made of equidistant countable elemental units). The sides of the square are 1, but no line segment can fit perfectly between the corners, I have covered this many many many times now. So I am not getting into a drawn out long explanation.
As an artist
So, not a mathematician and therefore a totally irrelevant perspective in this context.
I’m praising them for sparking debate, of course. I like to see both sides of an argument before determining my position. I don’t find an issue with being wrong—the only issue I find is if somebody is wrong and they refuse to fix the given misconception.
Euclid disagrees with you.
This isn't a "debate", this is them being obnoxiously and stubbornly and publicly wrong.
So the requirement to enter mathematical discussion is to have aptitude in such? Don’t see how that’s relevant.
if somebody is wrong and they refuse to fix the given misconception.
Yes. Yes, that is exactly what's happening.
No, the requirement to have something relevant to say about mathematics is to know mathematics.
They are invoking something unrelated in the mathematical sense, so I assume they defer to something relevant to the discussion in my response. In actual mathematical terms "countable infinity" has nothing to do with counting it.
No, it absolutely does.
He actually does not, have you read his work?
And not the formalist revision bs
I've read Postulate 2.
I’m not here to argue with you. I’m here to give my advice to Miss. Sapphire. If there’s two things we should know about entering debate is that it is futile to argue with two types of people: people who refuse to admit lapses in thinking, and people who are unintelligent. I do not like to waste time, of course.
...are you insulting me? We have someone here who says irrational numbers change in value and you're insulting me?
Your philosophy seems to be technically self-consistent, though it's not one that I can buy into. It locks you out of many of the most beautiful areas of modern mathematics.
I’m not. Please don’t take my words in the wrong way. I’ll admit that I’ve always been quite fond of you for your intelligence.
You said "I'm not here to argue with you," then you said "it's a waste of time to argue with stupid and stubborn people", and then you said "I don't like to waste time".
Yes, I did.
...do you not see how those three statements together could constitute an insult directed at me?
If you're unwilling to accept limiting processes, unwilling to accept irrational numbers; then you simply cannot do any modern analysis, or any modern algebra. If you want to say "irrational numbers do not meaningfully exist, so I refuse to engage with them" you are wrong in the same sense that you would be wrong if you cut off your ears so that you couldn't listen to music.
I'm actually curious how much cutting off an earlobe actually would impair hearing.
After all, the inner ear would still be intact.
"If by “in flux” you mean that pi is not constant, that is simply not true. Just because all of the decimal digits in pi are inconceivable to our human comprehension does that mean that they do not exist (look towards other fields of study such as quantum physics and general chemistry!)."
With all respect, "all the digits" of Pi is no different to talking about "all the natural numbers" in infinity. There is no conceivable fixed notion of such a thing, or quantity. In general chemistry, I see so place we use Pi that does not land it and make it rational, for uses in approximation. In the physical world irrationals do not exist, except perhaps in the paths of motion of bodies acting under a field of force if we assume a continuous distance metric in the force equations and of course a continuous time and distance metric in space itself. But such a thing is non-physical itself, it does not have properties in and of itself with being defined by the physical (the actual definitions of space or spacus in the root word is distance between, ie defined by the physical).
Then puncture the drum instead, and my analogy still holds.
I wasn't criticizing your analogy, just indulging a curious digression.
I accept limits to infinity and that something can approach infinity in a function, same with irrationals used as limits in calculus. It is a convergent form of infinity to me.
"Convergent form of infinity" is literally incoherent.
Not being willing to yield is a case of an impossible debate. I believe you fall into this category but I did not say that you were unintelligent.
I am not responsible for any other misinterpretations you have cultivated from my writings. But I will not speak any further, because, as I said before, there’s no point in arguing when both sides (not pointing any fingers) are unyielding.
So you accept that irrational numbers exist and can be the limits of a sequence of rational numbers? Then I do not see what the issue is here.
I'm willing to yield when I'm wrong, which does happen, but I'm not wrong when I say that pi is a number.
great then just extend the line segment however long you want, THEN measure how long it goes from one corner of the square to another
(btw it is possible to do it without overlapping but im supposing youre right for now)
I still study them, I am not dunking on the usage of say real analysis and other fields in certain applications but those to me are always in the realm of approximation (which is how we navigate the real world with mathematical usage) as opposed to strict mathematics. And a lot of the time, some tweaks to certain definitions and we can have the same practical usage in my view.
We explore the possibility of a calculus only over the rational numbers. This leads us to the important role of the axiom of completeness in the important theorems from first semester calculus.
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I assume they meant it's the limit of a convergent sequence of rationals?
They are not numbers. Infinity is not a number either. We can use infinity as a limit, it does not make it a number.
I don't think anyone sensible would deny that approximations are a large part of real analysis. But what I dispute is your notion that, by involving approximations, it is somehow not "strict mathematics".
Your responses to me have been replete with all kinds of fallacies and insults since the start of this debate.
Euclid requires the existence of irrational numbers.
It's such a simple construction, too.
So what? What's the significance of being a "number" versus a "non-number"? It's an arbitrary convention rather than a term with any significant mathematical weight, to consider this a number and that something else.
I mean, I don't think we can do arithmetic with non-numbers, can we?
You can do arithmetic with elements of finite fields, with points on elliptic curves, with rational functions, etc.
That is not a line segment with a specific quantity or length. It is just an infinite line, ie conceptual or in flux. I do not know what translation you have read of postulate II, but you a greatly misinformed.
Considering your prior disrespect for Euclid and other great ancient thinkers, your lack of awareness of their work is no surprise.
No, shut up. The construction is so simple. Consider line segment AB of length 1. Construct point C such that BC is perpendicular to AB and of length 1. Then AC is of length sqrt(2).
No, the word number has specific connotations going back to its root words in Latin and Greek. The axioms of Real numbers when it comes to operations are also only consistent with something that has specific quantity. If one argues it is impossible to operate on infinity and subract it from itself, then I find it inconsistent to say an irrational can be operated on likewise.
And what of your disrespect to Hippasus? Ignoring and belittling his life's work, and essentially justifying his murder?
Are you literally denying that pi is finite now? Is pi not strictly between 3 and 4???
You do not even know Euclid properly, nor the difference between an axiomatic abstraction based on rules derived from rational proofs, and an actual proof measurement or quantity. You cannot talk me down, or change my mind when you miss the mark repeatedly on demonstrated clarity of knowledge on the works you cite, as well as comprehension of my reasoning on the matter.
Certainly historically and amongst laymen it has specific connotations. Within mathematics, as it exists today, I am personally unaware of any context wherein the distinction between a "number" and a "non-number" matters. Generally far more specific terminology is used nowadays.
That does not make something finite.
YES IT LITERALLY EXACTLY DOES. X IS INFINITE IF AND ONLY IF FOR ALL Y, X >= Y.
In most modern mathematics, yes. Not constructivist arguments and mathematical opinions. These things matter to me and others who care about clarity and mathematical principles.
I think you are misusing the word "finite". A real number is finite if it is smaller than some other real number. Perhaps what you mean is that pi "does not have a finite decimal expansion"; but this is also true of many rational numbers that you do not dispute, e.g. 2/7.
The person who says pi is not a number does not get to claim monopoly on "caring about clarity and mathematical principles".
No, first of all you in your fit of rage on the keyboard are forgetting negative infinity. Second of all, that is divergent infinity. If we go to the root of the word infinity, it is perfectly acceptable to also have a convergent infinity assuming a non-discrete numberline.
If this chat continues there will be the first digits of pi displayed on the number of messages, this transcends all expectations
You're literally redefining every word in mathematics in your quest to deny a fact that every mathematician in the world has accepted for literally all of recorded history.
You almost spilled my tea on my device. 😅
NOBODY GIVES A FUCK ABOUT YOUR FUCKING ETYMOLOGY.
You really do get worked up over the possibility of someone having an opinion that differs to the consensus dont you? Perhaps you should look inward, and introduce some rationality into your methods of objections and discussion.
No, it's not you having an opinion I care about, it's you being wrong.
If you said you didn't like pi, I wouldn't really give a fuck.
But you said pi isn't a number.
And you are redefining both "pi" and "number" in order to try to make your case.
It is not a number. It is a failure of measurement. 🙂
Say it all you want, that doesn't make it true.
How are they not losing it?
No I just thought it would be funny to snitch
By the way, Sapphire made squaring and rooting not commutative so √(2²) and (√2)² have different answers
Crashing out over this is genuinely hilarious lmao.
I do think its kinda lame to return to the friend group server to get validation
but it doesnt really matter
What I find funny about this entire conversation is that there are at least three professional, adult mathematicians who have wasted hours here, and you're probably in middle-school and really proud of yourself for getting us for this long.
Honestly, it's impressive commitment to the bit.
No, I actually believe this. I just obviously find some of the responses amusing here enough to share.
You know the insane supervillain is the one saying that line, right?
Techie, it's not worth it to fight over this one.
Hey, wasted is a little negative. I like to think that even fake sparring is worth something.
It’s a meme bruh
Who's fighting? I just think it's ironically appropriate.
Accidental self-awareness.
Not enough screenshots-within-screenshots. Here's another one.
Nice.
Wow, the quack has a sensitive ego, how surprising. /j
Try not to sperg out over it
No it is just a lame thing to do. Like wooo, I shared some funny moments from the debate.
Like you sharing it is just lame, like wow big deal people share stuff and joke about stuff.
Why bring it into the debate space?
Uh, could we not with the ableism?
Probably the only thing we can agree on there.
That's not true. You both agree that it's really important whether irrational numbers are numbers.
Assuming we agree on the definition of the word "ableism", which seems unlikely considering you don't agree with common usage on the definition of any other word.
I like to think anyone can sperg out
unless you're here to tell me you did it before it was cool
True 😅
It is a mathematics Discord with clear rules on certain language. It is ableistic. I did say when inviting you all to participate in the debate no offensive language (racism, ableism, transphobia or any ism or -phobia).
I genuinely believe that sperging out isn't a disability thing, well okay maybe it is but in the socially disabled sense.
What do you think the term “sperg” comes from?
...which is also ableist.
And dont ask me about what the english call cigarettes
Okay, you've interpreted this as ableist, now what?
Where is this going
Do you think calling someone “gay” isn’g homophobic because people use it to mean [any arbitrary negative trait]?
Like, what’s the logic here lmao.
I believe the word "gay" can be meant in ways that don't necessarily pertain to homosexuality.
Yeah I’m done here 💔
Just an absolute red herring to the debate. 🤦♀️
I hope they ban you for your antagonistic offensive language you cannot help using, you little rat.
”little rat” is crazy 
ngl
the claim that no line segments and also no numbers exist would be way more self consistent than whatever rxrsapphire is saying
the concept that there is a line segment, and a corresponding number, that perfectly fits between (0,0) and (1,1) is equally contrived as the idea that for any line segment, there is a point on it, that splits it exactly, not approximately but exactly in half
-warn @willow knot Defending ableist language.
⚠ Warned markedoff
It only exists when I mentally construct it smh.
since when were they commutative...
sqrt((-2)²) = 2
(sqrt(-2))²=-2
sqrt(x²) is actually a definition of the absolute value function
btw fyi an operation not being commutative JUST means that the commutative property doesnt hold for ALL cases, it can hold for some, like how here it holds for all non-negative numbers (ie:the 2 you mentioned)
Their knowledge in mathematics is really not that great. The only reason they are here is because I invited them into the discussion/server, in part to better understand my position but also in part to join the fun of debating something deep/intellectual as a challenge. They will not last long before being banned for using offensive language even though I told them not to, at this point they will.
Do square roots preserve signs then?
Could you maybe explain the second one a little?
All of this is also goes out the window because of imaginary numbers.
OP left the convo early on
But the devastation they've left in their wake is massive
sqrt((-2)^2) is just 2 because (-2)^2 is 4, and sqrt4 is in fact 2 not +-2, because conventionally sqrt2 means the sqrt FUNCTION and for it to be a function it has to only give 1 output so we take the principal branch (the positive number)
ie:
sqrt(9) is 3 not +-3
sqrt(16) is 4 not +-4 etc
However sqrt(-2) is just isqrt(2)
so (isqrt2)^2 = i^2 * sqrt(2)^2 = -1 * 2 = -2
so thats why you cant always just cancel out the square and the root
bc like i said sqrt(x^2) behaves as an absolute value function so any negative x you input into it will become positive ie
sqrt((-3)^2) = 3
sqrt((-4)^2) = 4
etc
for (sqrtx)^2 you can just simplify it to x though (For real x) because its not the same as sqrt(x^2) since like I showed they aren't commutative
what a way to waste time
(sqrt(-2))² = -2?
Why, because it's cursed?
sapphire is onto something very important and useful to mathematics
we should let them be
and not disturb them.
Yes
bc this
I see.
Interesting.
So (√-2)² => (i√2)² => (i√2)(i√2) => (-1)(2) = -2
But √(-2²) => √4 => 2
So is there a discrete order of operations for you to do them in?
I guess since the square root is enclosed it should be clear...
Yes
Yes but VERY important correction
-2^2 is -4
you have to specify with brackets (-2)^2
otherwise that sqrt(-2^2) would actually be 2i
I guess I just meant commutative in the rationals? But I'm still wrong aren't I?
Work from the inside out
-2^2 = -4?
Yeah this doesn't have anything to do with irrationals im pretty sure
Its more like theyre commutative over non-negatives
I mean, not including imaginary numbers.
Fuck
I've made so many mistakes lmao
it's not even funny
what's the domain for non negatives?
its ok dw
but you mean not including negatives?
bc you can do something like sqrt((-2)^2)
it doesnt include any imaginary numbers but still it fails that commutative property
Wdym?
Yes. That.
yeah because -2^2 is typically read as -(2^2)
because order of operations PEMDAS
E for exponentiation comes before M for multiplication (by -1)
so you do 2^2 first then multiply by negative 1
rather than do (-2)^2
Right. This is one of the reasons I don't like negative numbers.
Their notation is always inbred
Thank god You meant don't like subjectively
I thought yall were denying negative numbers too for a moment...
Well any negative number is essentially just 0-x
At least that's how it's sometimes parsed
Negative numbers to subtraction is like what fractions are to division
But with less organization
@terse palm Before I go, is there anything that IS commutative?
I was afk sorry
Nah it's fine
Just like alot of irrational numbers are just logx or sqrtx but SOME people don't like that either...
Addition and multiplication im pretty sure
Honestly, it seems like most major mathematical disagreements emerge from an arbitrary lack of definition.
Computers are much kinder to me
Hold up I don't want you to misunderstand by some im talking about a particular irrational denier, theres obviously like basically no disagreement about things like this these days im pretty sure
But really you could come up with any function thats symmetric
(meaning f(x,y) = f(y,x)) thatd be a binary operation thats commutative
ie if i came up with f(x,y)=2^(xy)
for x = 1 y = 2 it gives 4, for x = 2 y = 1 it still also gives 4
so its commutative because no matter how you switch the inputs the output stays the same
I do have curiosities but I should probably go to the discussion channel.
Should I ping you?
sure ok

Also countable infinity not existing is wild lmfaoooo
@gusty burrow give me a bijection from ℕ to ℂ please
That question presupposes N, which is countably infinite
They probably would disagree based on that immediately
Huh.
Finite products of countable sets are countable
Lmfao
@tawdry swift try proving that ℚ is coumtable
how do you see how many messages are there
4 posts to a nice pair of Twin Primes. 🙏
He was misusing the terminology, so in his context/argument it does not exist. Countable infinity has nothing to do with counting infinity.
22 isn't prime.
And? There are more than 22 posts here. And I am actually offended you would think that I would make a mistake like that.
The first two digits of the number of posts is 22. When you said "a pair of twin primes", I thought you meant the number of posts would represent both primes simultaneously, i.e. the first two digits would be the first prime, the second two the second prime.
LOL. Whu what? You never heard of ...? Nevermind.
This is reasonable in the sense that it's the same thing that I would assume. It's unreasonable in the sense that I am baffled that you are still engaging with this thread.
How many of you are completely unaware of the Twin Prime Conjecture? 😅
Unbelievable.
What do you think the twin prime conjecture says?
There can be no debate or subjectivity on the matter of what the conjecture states ...
There can easily be misinterpretation, which is why I ask.
It is very clear.
No. There cannot.
Then state it.
Very bizzare and obvious request. The TP conjecture asserts the existence of infinitely many pairs of prime numbers (p, q) such that q = p + 2.
No subjectivity to that.
Bravo. However, under your mathematical framework, this is trivially false. After all, if infinity does not exist, there can not be ininitely many of anything.
It is the simplest of conjecture statements.
Infinity does exist. I never said it did not.
Strawman bs
I mean, that doesn’t necessarily follow, no?
Even in finite set theory, you can prove there are infinitely many natural numbers, even though there is no set of them. There is also not in general any actual infinity(because there need not be any infinite set)
Jabs at you aside; this is indeed what the twin prime conjecture says. What is the relevance of this to your claim, on post 2262, that we are "four posts away from a pair of twin primes"? Techie read that as interpreting you as claiming that (22,66) was a set of twin primes; a reading that I frankly agree with. In what way does stating that 22 is not a prime indicate that Techie does not know what the twin prime conjecture is?
I cracked a joke and then my serious thing took long enough to type that my joke was interpreted as serious.
ah, my bad then.
I am aware of how ultrafinitist philosophy works. I think it's silly, but I understand it.
Just to be clear, ultrafinitism is “there is a largest finite number”, and finitism is “there is no actual infinity”, right?
If so, yeah ultrafinitism is quite silly.
Why would someone with anything more than a simple understanding of mathematics state that 22 is a prime? It is an insulting assumption. I corrected him on multiple errors already.
Then why did you say this? #1350078306099269662 message
He was misusing the term countable infinity in the wrong context as an argument. It has nothing to do with counting all of the numbers in infinity
No.
Not sure then
2265 is divisible by 5.
...what?
What does that have to do with "4 posts to a nice pair of twin primes"?
After they posted the image, the amount of messages was 2263
Ah.
2263+4=2267 is prime and so is 2269
Yes, that makes sense.
I was confused about 2266 not being prime.
(Obviously; it's divisible by 2).
Okay, that clears that one up.
It went to the wrong comment (the link).
No it didn't.
I just checked it again.
I’m still a bit curious about this..
Yes, it did for me. It scrolled up to the wrong comment.
Can you please click on the link from this comment, and reply to the message that it goes to? #1350078306099269662 message
It goes here.
Well, that’s where what it replies to goes to
It scrolled up to the comment below it. Can you stop arguing trivia? First my TP comment which was fine and now this. It did do that for me, not a fault of the link just a glitch in the scrolling.
Huh. This is weird. Maybe discord links are just broken.
Sorry if that wasn’t clear, mb
Sorry missed that one.
Your TP comment was bizarre. My followup question is; how does not immediately recognizing that 2267 and 2269 are prime indicate that we are "completely unaware of the Twin Prime Conjecture"?
No. The message that I gave you a link to had a link within it. I wanted you to click on both of those links, and then reply to the message that you landed on.
"The first post that would represent both primes simultaneously" ie he thinks it is referring to digit representations in pairs that are both primes, as opposed to their separation by 2.
No, that is not what they think. They assumed that you thought we were four posts away from a number like 5961.
Why would he assume that when someone literally right above posted the TT posts? He obviously does not know what the TP conjecture is.
He already made blunders on simple things about Euclid's work.
The Real Analysis stuff is forgivable, but that was not.
Especially him then assuming I do not know 22 is not prime 🤮
I interpreted your comment in literally the exact same way as I think Techie did.
You communicated poorly, as you are wont to do. Then you insulted someone for misunderstanding you.
2267 is obviously likely prime even without knowledge of how to quickly determine that and 2269 not being a factor of 5 or 2 or 3 should allow one to quickly determine I was alluding to a p, q pair.
What are y'all talking about?
How is that remotely obvious?
Nothing worthwhile. Begone from this thread, newcomer, before it sucks you in too.
We are not 4 posts away from any number where the digits are ... 🤦♀️ why even argue this?
Right. I read it as you being wrong about something weirdly easy. You've been wrong about plenty of things before, so it would be in-character for you; though it is a more obvious thing than you've been wrong about before.
Jump to the top of the thread and see yourself.
Like what? What have I been wrong on?
You claimed that pi is infinite.
It is.
It is a convergent form of infinity.
No it is not. It is finite. It is, in fact, even less than 4.
That does not make it finite.
is 1/infinity finite?
In that case, you are wrong about the definition of "finite". Or perhaps you have redefined most mathematical terms in a way that make you technically correct, but far outside of the common usage of the terms you are using.
Yes, for any sensible definition it would be zero. (e.g. arithmetic on the riemann sphere). Though, it is also often just undefined. It depends on the context.
No, you are actually wrong. I have studied the roots of all these terminologies and the mathematical history of them. I am not just pulling definitions out of the aether or being whimsical. I speak Latin and Classical Greek and have read a lot of the works that led to our modern understandings and interpretations.
This does not make you correct. That's like if my brother said, "I'm not homophobic - the word actually refers to a bundle of sticks! I was calling them a bundle of sticks!". Contemporary usage is often informed by historical etymology, but it is not dictated by it.
Words can change meaning.
No, it is not sensible to say it is 0 in an absolute sense. It is not a number, but it is not 0 either. If it is a function with a limit of 0, it will approach 0 but not reach it. lim[x → ∞] 1/x = 0
I agree that $\lim_{x\to\infty}\frac{1}{x}=0$ does not imply that $\frac{1}{\infty}=0$. You'll note that that was not the sensible definition I cited; I instead cited arithmetic on the riemann sphere.
Pear Category Theorem
The modern usage of number has no clear meaning, at most we have the axiomatic requirements for real numbers which you cannot meet without invoking formalism and assuming quantity to something which incommensurable to it.
There’s tons of things people call numbers in math that aren’t even real numbers either tbf.
Complex numbers, infinite ordinals, etc.
The Riemann sphere is just more convoluted and involved way of getting lost on a chalkboard to prove something which is still in any tangible sense superfluous and irrational (in the non-mathematical sense of the word).
I agree that "number" has no clear meaning. Nor need it have; in modern mathematics it is redundant, and has been replaced by far more precise terms such as "rational number", "real number", "natural number", "ordinal", etc.
I would argue to the contrary; not only is the Riemann sphere neither convoluted, overly-involved, superfluous or irrational, it is in fact the natural setting for complex analysis, with a beautiful and elegant construction.
Complex numbers, in their rational form, are still comprised of countable elemental units.
Though, I concede that we are now entering the realm of personal preference.
The complex numbers are uncountable.
"Nor it need have"
To be clear, sapph, do you mean “countable” in the linguistic sense of the word, or the mathematical sense(e.g. in bijection with a subset of N), or some other meaning?
I said, in their rational form, are comprised of countable elemental units. That is my definition of a number. An individual number is comprised of or can be represented as countable elemental units in some form to produce measurement. Anything else is a failure of measurement.
Asking a contemporary mathematician for a rigourous definition of "number" is like asking for a contemporary physicist for a computation of the density of the aether, the medium through which light waves propagate. It is historically interesting, though ultimately not interesting to the contemporary subject itself.
Definitions matter. The definition of a number matters. Formalism has destroyed common sense, operating on non-quantities that cannot be measured to begine with like they are numbers is nonsensical.
Claiming that definitions matter, and then arguing against formalism, is contradictory. The point of formalism was to attempt to rigourously define everything.
I agree that definitions matter, which is why it's concerning that your definitions rely entirely on other things that you have not defined, and refuse to.
If you can represent something in some form as countable elemental units, you have measurement. ie you have quantity and can have a number. This is the ancient Greek and Latin definition of the world number |numeros| in its root word. Without that there is no specific quantity to operate on and meet the axiomatic requirements of a number.
No it was an attempt to ignore and cast aside millenia of definitions to do make believe operations on letters on paper that have no relation to reality.
Constructivism is the only way for rigor to be maintained in mathematics, without it, it is no longer mathematics.
What do "countable elemental units" mean? It is a phrase that you keep repeating, and which I have never seen in a modern mathematical context aside from this conversation.
It is the literal definition of the word number in Greek and Latin (the root of the word). ie we can represent 5 as # # # # #
We can represent a fraction 1/3 as # relative to # # #
It allows measurement. It gives something quantity.
Wihtout it there is no measurement.
Only in an axiomatic abstractive sense based on rules established from rationals beforehand there is "measurement" in such a sense of the word used today, that is not measurement.
If something has no countable elements to measure, there is no measurement.
It is no different to infinity, or more similar to it.
Are you utterly unaware that the definition of a word can change over time? The word "guy" is a rather well-known example of this; it evolved from just the name of Guy Fawkes, to refer to the effigees burned on Guy Fawkes' Day, to refer to people dressed in bizarre clothes, to eventually refer to men in general, to nowadays just being a casual gender-neutral way to refer to groups of people.
Just because the Greeks and Latins used a word in one way does not mean that we, two thousand years later, must do so as well.
And just to clarify, a number is a countable elemental unit, and a countable elemental unit is a number?
There is no clear definition for number anymore. Mathematics must be based on fundamental truths, it is not something you can have wavy definitions that mean nothing tangible. The definitions and connotations matter.
Even in regards to mathematical definitions, the axioms cannot be met, because you cannot operate on a non quantity. You can subtract something that has no measurement or quantity from itself to make nothing. It is no different to saying infinity minus infinity. It is formalism at its worst.
I also take umbrage, actually, with this notion that ancient Greek mathematics was somehow less based on abstract imaginary bullshit than modern mathematics. You cannot draw a line with no width, despite that being how lines are defined in Euclid. Even the smallest point you can draw on a piece of paper must still have some area, miniscule though it may be. The geometry of Euclid is as imaginary as the famous cuts made by Dedekind; it is simply older, and more prestigious to history-obsessed highschool students who don't know any better.
Mathematics is not based on the definition of "number" anymore. It is based on fundamental truths, or at least on axioms and assumptions that we make that are at least as valid as Euclid's five.
A countable elemental unit, would be in its whole form representation of things 1 or #. Without elements that you can reduce things to and count, you do not have anything to measure.
So the only numbers are the natural numbers, then? 1, 2, 3, etc.?
Nope. Absolute false equivalence there. It is nothing like the Dedekind cuts and modern axiomatic abstractions applying rules established from rationals and measurable quantities to incommensurable things to apply operations on them.
A line, is not a line segment anyway. There is a difference. The former divergent and infinite, the latter has quantity.
No, because we can represent rationals as whole countable elemental units. ie 1/3 can be represented as # relative to # # # we can still produce measurement.
There is an interesting neo-Platonic argument about this though.
A line, is not a line segment anyway. There is a difference. The former divergent and infinite, the latter has quantity.
This does not change my claim about how you can not draw a line, in the strict Euclidean sense. Euclid's lines are fiction, just as much as Dedekind's cuts are.
What of negative numbers?
You cannot draw an infinite line in a physical sense, but you can assume one. There is nothing wrong with assuming an infinite divergent numberline. Just as there is nothing wrong with its reciprocal assumption.
Why is this assumption allowed, but not the assumption of quantities that can not be expressed as what you call "whole countable elemental units"?
Divergent, ie from the origin point O, we can go in both directions on an infinite line. Infinity has no start point.
Infinity is not a quantity.
I never claimed that it was.
Well, the assumption is allowed, because even though it is not comprised of countable elemental units it is not claiming to be a number or specific quantity.
For example, if we take a limit or Pi, to me that is acceptable, just like a limit of infinity is acceptable.
Alright. Let's throw away rigour and formalism, and try to put this in terms that you will think are rigourous and formal despite not being so. Infinity is what happens when you go all the way down the number line for-ever and ever, correct? The square root of two, or pi, or whatever, refer to precise, specific points on the number line, do they not? In what sense are they infinite?
Because they have no precise, specific points on the numberline. They are in flux or conceptual. They are constructed like a divergent function approaching infinity, but instead in the convergent sense.
There is no quantity or measurement.
Thus it cannot be operated on.
This is not their construction, not even in the Euclidean sense. Consider the following: Begin with a ray, whose origin is on the point A. One unit away on that ray is the point B. From point B, construct perpendicular to it, a unit segment on whose other end is the length C. Place the point of your compass on A, and the other end on C. From there, draw an arc, until it intersects your ray. It should intersect it at precisely one point D; if the distance from A to B is 1, then the distance from A to D will be sqrt(2).
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I already addressed this type of argument.
Those were each quite different arguments. I should know, because I made them. And I did not make this specific argument to you previously, because it didn't even occur to me.
Frankly, it was before I was able to understand precisely what you were arguing for. (You are not very good at communicating your ideas).
#1350078306099269662 message << I address this type of argument here as well.
No you didn't.
"The existence of a number is tied to a way to construct it" "Here's a way to construct it, within the rules you've set forth (ancient Greek fetishism that puts Mussolini's Rome obsession to shame)" "I already addressed that, haha, I'm not addressing it"
ngl the characterization was funny and did make me laugh a bit. But no, I am here for common sense, not to fetishize and adore Greco-Roman statues whilst larping in Greek robes and papyrus if that is your opinion of me.
Look to determine that AC = √2, and follows that AD = √2. You first have to assume that we are dealing in quantities and Pythagorean theorem can be applied in a way to yield one. It cannot, it is an axiomatic abstraction based on rules established from the rationals
Also the ficitious diagonal of a square whose side is of unit length, what we now denote as √2, was actually shown by Euclid to be incommensurable with its side.
I want to clarify. Your claim is that common sense holds that, if we draw a right-angled triangle two of whose sides have the same length; then the hypotenuse is a segment without length?
There is no hypotenuse, at least one that does not overlap.
Do you dispute Euclid's first axiom?
Not at all.
So, in the construction I have given, you must agree that we are able to construct the segment between the points A and C?
Does this not give a right-angled triangle ABC, with hypotenuse AC?
No. Euclid’s postulates, including his first postulate were expressed without any reference to a coordinate system like our modern x‑ and y‑axes.
You are not thinking about it in the correct framework.
When did I invoke coordinates?
By reification of the points as being part of a construct of a square, and then being continued in such an axiomatic sense for the line segment, you are invoking co-ordinate systems.
Given a ray whose origin is A, we can pick an arbitrary point B. On that point, we can construct a perpendicular. (This is a well-known construction). By drawing a circle centered at B and whose radius is the segment AB, we can intersect that perpendicular at the point C.
This is doable entirely within the Euclidean framework.
Unless you claim that we cannot draw a ray? Cannot pick a point on that ray? We cannot construct a perpendicular? We cannot draw a circle of given radius? That circle will not intersect the perpendicular? We cannot draw the line AC?
Where does this break down?
Which step, precisely, are we unable to do?
There are no perfect circles, it is a ficitious construction that invokes infinity. Circles are irrational.
Ah. So it's Euclid's third that you dislike.
Good to know.
In part, but it depends on the interperetations as well. The terms used with the connotations of the time are actually very interesting "locus" for example being one of them and its similar references in ancient Indian texts. In essence, at least in my view Euclid acknowledges the circle as infinite in his works.
Euclid's third axiom, according to Heath's translation according to wikipedia, states that we may, "describe a circle with any centre and distance".
I want to clarify. In all your appeals to ancient Greek mathematics; in all your arguing about how Euclidean axioms are the superior way to do mathematics, and that Hilbert and his formalism are bullshit; you also dispute the third axiom of Euclid's elements?
Not only is your worldview outdated; not only does your worldview cut you off from the beauties of contemporary mathematics; you even lack self-consistency.
It depends, partially I do. But again, the inferrence of measurement is not necessarily there either. Euclid’s Third Postulate does not assume any form of numerical measurement. The focus is entirely on the ability to create the geometric locus of points at a fixed distance from the center. Hilbert took Euclid's work though and created an absolute monstronsity.
Where is the lack of self-consistency?
My argument is not "x philosopher/mathematician was 100% correct" anyway it is a strict constructivist argument, there is a difference.
At this point I am done. You have advocated for self-defeating, self-contradictory, ill-defined points. You have insulted and belittled people for not recognising your genius.
If you want to completely cut yourself off from modern mathematics in order to advocate for your Euclid fetishism but not axiom 3, then be my guest. I'm not wasting any more time on this.
I have barely mentioned Euclid in elaborating on my position, only when correcting other people's incorrect arguments misusing Euclid's work as arguments (not referring to you specifically as many others before reference Euclid incorrectly as an argument). My argument is rooted moreso in Pythagorean/neo-Platonic arguments put forth by other figures as well as modern constructivists who refuted formalistic notions.
I have not belittled anyone who did not use the same language against me multiple times beforehand.
When it reaches 3142 posts
It has a wealth of resources and arguments for anyone interested in the arguments for/against on both sides.
I have offered my best and so have other people.
it has nothing useful lol
It deserves a shrine. And a marble statue.
it contains other people's tries (in vain) to convince you
It has the best arguments for/against the entire philosophical enquiry. And also the worst.
that's about it
Those are counterarguments. And I responded to all of them.
People can look at the debate and come to a conclusion.
It has the best arguments for and against.
Constructivism vs Classical/Formalism
And it is not at 3142 posts. Which would be fitting.
I don't see any use for any of this personally
but I'm on the far end of the hating-philosophy spectrum
Don't worry we won't actually be closing this thread forcefully that's against the rules probably
I have received multiple DMs just because of this debate for different reasons, people are interested in the discussion.
It is thought provoking to many.
I do not share personal DMs to me without permission. A lot of the time, they do not probably want to be seen talking to "the crank" in the village hall so to speak I would assume. Mostly it is people who want to know pose an argument not addressed here, or curiosity of how I would intepret something or implications on calculus (like people thinking I would want to do away with limits because of it etc.).
👍
There have been negative reactions to people engaging with me in a civil way by others so it is no surprise some prefer to keep it private. Which is fine with me.
have you ever tried this in a philosophy server?
Yeah not many mathematicians on them or people interested to my surprise, you do not get much engagement at all if any. And nobody who disagrees will give you strong arguments either. I want the best arguments people can come up with against my position.
maybe they are ignoring you because they don't think it's worthwhile
didn't you turn down all the arguments with nearly undefined terminology?
No, not my impression. They are just not mathematicians. People who study philosophy and lurk in those Discords tend not to be studying mathematics also at any high level or deeper level/interest.
The entire argument is around terminonology. What is a number? And what can meet the axiomatic requirements?
but your arguments are philosophical
not mathematical
you are debating over axioms
They are both. Have you heard of constructivism? It is a part of mathematics and mathematical discourse.
have you worked on any mathematics? apart from whatever this is
Yes of course.
constructivism is a philosophical ideology I'm preety sure
which stems from math maybe
wanna share?
unlike this, there won't be any ground for debate there
No it is a part of mathematics. Modern mathematics is rooted in philosophical discourse around numbers and notions of formalism, classicalism etc.
very sure it isn't
so wanna share?
I am not sharing my mathematical work on here. Someone could take my work and there are prizes for the things I am working on.
If you are talking about discoveries.
As opposed to just, well mathematical exercises.
you just went up the crank index
Cool, thank you for your intellectual engagement.
I'm just extremely interested in how your philosophical stance blends in with your mathematical work
gatekeeping groundbreaking discovery is wild
@gusty burrow try uploading it on Vixra.
They are not complete yet. And gatekeeping is not the same thing either.
My mathematical work is not in somewhere that requires assuming irrationals are fixed quantities anyway. It is in analytic number theory mostly.
And physics related work that has mathematical proofs.
what's wrong with sharing?
you always have proof that you came up with it first
I disagree, if someone takes the final condition that needs proving to prove a statement, when you discovered the condition itself, they still get recognition as the person who proved the statement.
But I can DM you some other work and discoveries if you like 🙂
That are math related, but also physics related.
yes, please do
okie 🙂
I'm guessing it works sort of like modular arithmetic ?
Btw rx so do you think you can't measure the length from one corner of the square to the other?
Correspondence with the naturals, right?
That sounds quite reminiscent regarding the proof of a certain, French conjecture! I hope we will have the opportunity to see some of your work once you have formally submitted.
Yeah prove that you can draw a bijection between them
No you cannot. There is no measurement of such a thing. To measure you must have specific quantity and something comprised of countable elemental units in some form or metric.
Euclid says you're wrong.
as everyone's favourite manager i am advising everyone to stop discussing this, certain people with certain beliefs will never change those beliefs
You have already misquoted/misinterpreted Euclid multiple times now.
We should just make a thread inside the thread
This discussion isn’t actually on topic
"irrationality of Pi"
"it's just something fundamental."
"*We know that an irrational number cannot be expressed as p/q (p,q are coprime integers). Then what is to say about π? After all it is the ratio of the circumference and the diameter of a circle. *"
So what happens when you place a ruler on it and measure it?
Also can you please define the whole countable elemental units thing and justify why it's a requirement for something to be measured/ a number? Since like the flux argument you seem to keep using it without defining/justifying it
yes, if the diameter is rational, the circumference is not, so the fraction isn't of two rational numbers, if the diameter is irrational, then the fraction isn't two rational numbers, so either way, it's irrational
I mean, this discussion isn’t relevant to the thread. Pi isn’t a rational number, which I assume we can agree on, right?
Dicussion about the existence of pi isn’t relevant to whether it’s rational or not(which is what they were asking)
the discussion hasnt been relevant for the last thousands of messages
is there really much point bringing that up now
True.
and it seems to have died down now anyways
*Also can you please define the whole countable elemental units thing and justify why it's a requirement for something to be measured/ a number? Since like the flux argument you seem to keep using it without defining/justifying it * << I have explained this multiple times now, even to you in replies.
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Pi is not a ratio of a diameter to the circumference, because circles are fictitious objects and have no ratio to anything at all. They are irrational themselves unless one has been hoodwinked by the worst notions of formalism. Pi is not a rational number, it is not an irrational number either, it is not a number at all and likewise if something is not rational it is not a number.
If you believe that 2rPi = Circumference, outside of approximation purposes you are inferring ratio in some formalistic sense if you think it is alright to perform such operations on non quantities. That was the OP point. Their layer points extended into the discussion about Pi having specific quantity.
You know, this reminds me of a quote by Kronecker
”What good your beautiful proof on π? Why investigate such problems, given that irrational numbers do not even exist?"
It is exploring a convergent form of infinity or infinite function. It can offer, when encoded in different formats, ways of producing reproducable infinite streams of non-uniform data.
Even the rational results when we land them are interesting with intrigueing properties depending on changes to n.
Just entered the thread/debate?
If anyone by the way is just reading this and does not want to read through the entire debate to understand the constructivist/neo-Pythaogrean/Platonic position I advocate on behalf of.
I am happy to DM you to a full complete summary of my arguments all together.
Just send it here (My goal is to inflate the message count)
No it could be seen as spam as it is a wall of text.
PDFs I suppose
your definition for countable whole unit elements is literally just multiples of rationals, so youre saying rationals exist bc theyre multiples of rationals
and the flux thing literally disqualifies 1/3
1/3 in base 3 = 0.1 you cannot do that in any base system for an irrational though without reification, begging the question and serious formalistic fallacies.
And rationals exist because you can express them relative to others and the single elemental unit. ie 1/3 is # relative to # # #. We can count and produce measurement.
Pi is exactly 10 in base pi.
No such thing as base pi my friend. 🤦♀️ 😅
"... without reification, begging the question and serious formalistic fallacies."
I don't see why not. Surely given a real number $x\in(0,1)$ we can find a sequence of integers $0\leq a_{n}\leq3$ such that $x=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{a_{n}}{\pi^{n}}$. You probably just modify the proof that base $p$ works for integers $p$.
Pear Category Theorem
^
"... without reification, begging the question and serious formalistic fallacies."
The answer: Because then rxr starts flooding #geonosidan-prison-complex.
In the usual setting for base-b representations, b is an integer greater than 1. The classical algorithm (often called the “greedy algorithm”) and the uniquenes proofs actually rely on arithmetic properties of integers.
The “Exactness” and Constructibility Issue
• When someone claims “Pi is exactly 10 in base pi,” they are attempting to reify the number π by using it as both the base and its own representation. In analogy, in any numeral system the symbol “10” represents the base itself. In an integer-base system, this works because the base is an accepted, fixed, and finitely describable whole number.
• However, using π a number already only defined as a limit of an infinite process as the base raises concerns. The representation “10” in base π would mean that the number π equals 1·π¹ + 0, which is trivial by definition. But the system as a whole would require all numbers to be represented by infinite serie using π as the denominator. For constructivists, this does not resolve the “landing problem” aforementioned because you are still encoding numbers (even apparently “simple” ones) by an infinite, indirect process.
By trying to generalize the representation theory from integer bases to the irrational base π (or any irrational β), you are “reifying” the infinite limit process. That is, one treats the limit (the number represented by an infinite series) as if it were a finished, finite object - even though by the constructivist criterion it never has landed fully. Simply extending the familiar algorithm to an irrational base does not resolve the underlying philosophical objection brought forth.
It is just advice! Maybe you can learn something yourself from the discussion, even if she’ll not budge.
The OP agrees with me. 🙂
@hazy iron You have no argument to refute strict constructivism.
Thus you would rather shut it down.
This is not remotely "strict constructivism". A mathematical constructivist rejects non-constructive existence proofs. Meaning you actually should reject the existence of infinitely many primes, but at least the computable numbers are fine.
You clearly have not read up on what constructivism is properly. Euclid's proof of infinitely many primes is not rejected by a constructivist approach, to claim so either shows a.) a misunderstanding of constructivism or b.) an attempt to strawman
The proof does not construct the set of primes.
If constructivists accept it, that's only them being hypocrites.
Constructivism insists on proofs that not only show an object exists but also provide a method or algorithm for constructing such an object in its claimed form.
In Euclid’s proof, given any finite list of primes, the construction of a new number (the product of those primes, plus one) and then showing that at least one prime divisor of that new number is not in the original list follows a clear algorithmic recipe. This procedure explicitly produces an additional prime, aligning with constructive principles.
You are misunderstanding constructivism as some sort of complete rejection of all mathematical proofs that are not constructed in a specific example for all cases, to imply a false dichotomy of philosophical choice of either being opposed to any and all mathematical proofs or formalism/classicalism being the only way to accept them. This is a misrepresentation of what constructivism means.
If that was true, Pythagorean theorem would not apply beyond a few select triangles.
Non-constructive proofs rely on indirect arguments such as proof by contradiction combined with existence axioms, Euclid’s approach is constructive because it doesn’t merely assert “infinitely many primes exist” via contradiction and axiomatic abstraction; it gives a finite algorithm to extend any given finite set.
The objection that constructivists sometimes reject non-constructive existence proofs is not meant to dismiss all proofs concerning infinity. Instead, it targets those that fail to offer a method to "construct" a particular instance. Euclid’s proof, by contrast, does exactly that.
Okay, so by exactly the same logic, we have algorithms to produce arbitrarily many digits of pi, so pi must exist and be a number.
By producing digits and expanding into the decimal system your answer, you are landing a rational number and creating a measurment, which is a failure of measurment of Pi itself. You have landed it already so to speak with the outcome of the sequence with a given n value.
Anarchy
How can to "fail to measure" a thing that doesn't exist?
This would only make Euclid's proof constructive if $2\cdot3\cdot5\cdots p_{n}+1$ were always prime. It is not. Consider $$2\cdot3\cdot5\cdot7\cdot11\cdot13+1=30031=59\cdot509.$$
Pear Category Theorem
It is a proof by contradiction, demonstrating that there is no finite list containing all prime numbers by arriving at a contradiction - if there were such a list, there would be a prime number not on that list. (Either that product plus one, or some divisor of that number). It does not provide a method or algorithm for generating infinitely many prime numbers; nor even for always finding a new prime number given a finite list of prime numbers.
Glad you are finally seeing that irrationals are not numbers or quantities.
I know how Euclid's proof works. I did not write out the entire proof.
That is not what's happening, that's me pointing out an inconsistency in your position.
Mayhaps the counterargument is - well, this isn't how we get Euclid's list. The algorithm clearly lays out that $p_{1}=2$, \$p_{n+1}=1+\prod_{k=1}^{n}p_{k}$. In this case, $p_{1}=2$, $p_{2}=3$, $p_{3}=7$, $p_{4}=43$ and $p_{5}=1807=13\cdot139$ is once again not a prime number.
Pear Category Theorem
Right. I'm not debating you on the merits of the proof, or whether it works. I'm refuting your claim as to the nature of the proof. It is not an algorithmic, constructivist proof.
Algorithmic Recipe to Generate a New Prime:
• Start with any finite list of primes, say [p1, p2, …, pn].
• Compute the product P = p1 × p2 × … × pn.
• Form the number N = P + 1.
• Even if N itself is composite (as in your example with N = 30031), every prime divisor q of N satisfies q ∤ P. (None of the pᵢ divide N because each pᵢ divides P, thus pᵢ does not divide P + 1.)
• Therefore, at least one prime factor q of N does not occur in the original list.
This process provides an explicit method to generate a prime that is new relative to any given finite list. Even though the number P + 1 may not be prime, the proof gives a concrete, finite procedure:
Given any list, you can compute P + 1 and then use a reliabble factorization algorithm This confirms, step by step, the existence of a new prime and thus an algorithm to extend any finite list of primes.
About the contradiction aspect, if we notice that the structure of the argument demonstrates that for any finite set L of primes, one can construct a candidate N and subsquently find a new prime factor q ∉ L.
This is not merely a pure non-constructive existence proof. It gives you a method by which, from L, you explictly get a new prime. Thus, it still walks the constructivist line because at no point does it assume the existence of an infinite completed set; it only shows that any finite approximation can always be extended. There is a clear difference.
The initial list of primes, is calculated beforehand algorithmically from finite objects, not assumed.
Infact the Euclid proof is actually referenced as a good example of a constructivist proof.
the problem is that this proof is almost always presented as a proof by contradiction
which of course it doesn’t need to be
Doesn't it?
though can you constructively prove the fundamental theorem of arithmetic?
it’s not necessary here because you can prove there is some prime factorization
I suppose my followup question is; given an arbitrary composite number, how do you actually find the prime factors? This is a very difficult problem that underlies much of modern cryptography. I might be mistaken, but saying "yep, the prime factors exist" without being able to actually point to them doesn't strike me as being particularly in-line with your constructivist philosophy?
Every composite number, by definition has prime factors. There is not reification either.
You make composites from primes and their products.
And lol as for mathematics in general anyway, obviously have no problem engaging in different things whatever they might be. If someone gives me an algebra test, I am not going to tear it up out of principle and storm out the test because it has a square root that is incommensurable which needs operating on. 😅 I just believe in distinction between approximation mathematics (for example continuous curves, integrals etc) and strict mathematics.
I think “there’s finitely many for any given n so you can just check them hypothetically and see there is a prime” usually works fine(at least, for Brouwer iirc?)
Yeah but that's O(n!) and thus kind of gross. I don't like it.
actually, can you? one step in the argument i looked up involves saying "either n is a prime or not", which shouldn't be legal
Pretty sure that’s fine for natural numbers(because you could in principle check every number below p algorithmically or whatever and see if it is prime, or not)
it is not constructively valid to say that every subset of a singleton is either empty or a singleton
it could be that you can do this with N because "you can theoretically check all N but you can't check all singletons" (??)
This makes me wonder if you had a function, the smallest prime factor of the prime factorial(n) +1
I wonder what it's graph would look like
where pi?
Oh yeah, the smallest prime factor of a number is just the smallest factor besides 1
you think the formula for primes is really simple or really complicated?
Yeah
There’s a proper class of singletons
🥶
nobody has checked all of N though
i don't see why it's different
i don't think it's constructively valid to say that every subset of {{}} is {{}} or {}
Idk
such a proof is gonna end up having some casework on the truth of a statement and that's not valid
MSE post seems to agree(about checking all the finitely many numbers before p), fwiw 🤷
idk if i believe them
Well, there isn't just one formula
but I think if there was a simple good fast formula it would be well known by now
There could be the thought that we haven't developed the tools for that yet
Are... are you being serious, Techie?
yes.
I don't know how constructivism is so misunderstood here. You can obviously construct, for any finite set of primes indexed $p_1,p_2,\dots, p_k$, a prime not in that set $P$ by just calculating the prime factorization of $p_1\cdots p_k + 1$--this is in response to techie
obviously there are intuitionistically valid proofs of the fundamental theorem of arithmetic because they don't necessarily rely on the PEM or any other constructively dubious principles like Markov's principle.
magma the chaos magmician
From a constructivist point of view, FTA is not merely postulated by an axiom of completeness but is proven by an algorithm that finite steps yield the prime factors (as I have put before “landing” them on the number line, so to speak) and by an elementary, constructive argument ensuring uniqueness.
This aligns with the insistnce that to be counted as a “number” (or a property of a number), one must obtain a finitely realizable, discrete construction rather than only an indefinitely convergent process. I am actually writing out a complete FTA into 4 steps.
For some reason people do not get it, they think it means or implies an absence of mathematical proofs. If that was the case and it was that stupid/poorly thought out, constructivism would have no proponents at all as it would preclude all mathematics. 😅
Well, lots of things are constructively invalid.
True, but if the fundamental theorem of arithmetic or proof of infinite primes was precluded by taking a constructivist stance, nobody would have ever adopted it in the first place. That said, my perspective/ideology differs from most of traditional constructivism in some aspects anyway. I feel like in some areas it does not give enough leeway for proofs and in others it is just accepts and bends the knee for formalism/classicalism when it should not.
you can prove the existence of a prime factorization by induction
this may somehow shock you guys but induction is constructively valid!!!!
It shouldn’t be ✍️
Very fishy !
does this
respond to the thing i raised
but uh, not all instances of "P v ~P" aren't intuitionistically not affirmed
i guess im curious, do you think $\forall x (x = 0 \lor \neg (x = 0))$ is constructively provable over the integers
magma the chaos magmician
i wouldn't guess so if you weren't asking in this specific scenario
yeah so not all predicates are undecidable
saying some integer is either 0 or not zero seems just a bit harder to show than saying that some subset of {{}} is either {} or {{}}
this is kind of important to make clear
well intuitionistic set theory and something like heyting arithmetic are pretty different
but yeah so the fta is intuitionistically provable i want to make clear
just to make absolutely sure i wasn't lost in the sauce that "X is prime" is decidable since it is Sigma_0
uh, im honestly a bit perplexed as to where this confusion comes about
okay guys so just to be clear, it is also inconsistent with minimal logic to affirm ~(P v ~P)
this is different when you introduce quantifiers
well, unbounded quantifiers at least
since now de morgan fails intuitionistically
i guess to summarize so you guys aren't confused by my incompetent ability to communicate
uhhh
yes, the fta is intuitionistically provable
x is prime could be in the form of some negation like for all a ≥ 2, for all b ≥ 2, ab ≠ x, and then "x is not prime" would be like "it is not contradictory that there exists a ≥ 2, b ≥ 2 with ab = x" and then we can conclude that either x is prime or not prime, but then afaict we can't conclude that actually they do exist which we need to do later when establishing the factorization
I support constructivism with the added constraint that things have to be polynomial time in particular. O(n!) algorithms or whatever are fucking stupid. I have seen no valid proof that Groebner bases exist.
so like, when you're formalizing "x is not prime" do you want to write it as like "~(phi -> \bot)" for some phi or what
This is the bad-math-phil shitposting channel at this point, so I decided to lean into it.
anyhow all of these sentences are Sigma_0 so they are decidable in HA
what is that
google the "arithmetical hierarchy"
Ping @molten lichen
the fta is at most Pi_2 so it is also definitely provable in HA since it is provable in PA
specifically, PA is Pi_2-conservative over HA
automagical negation of sentence rephrasal detected
i asked this, you never responded
Pi_2(S^2, S^1) ✍️
$\bot$
magma the chaos magmician
well so the thing i've done here is "x is prime" looks like phi => bot, and so "x is not prime" would of course be (phi => bot) => bot
alright, cool
which is true iff phi => bot is not true, iiuc
yeah so it doesn't actually matter to be clear
since (phi => bot) => bot is still going to be deicdable
but yeah you will rewrite it to something which is easily identified in the arithmetical hierarchy
anyhow this is the most general answer i can probably give?
this just means that every Pi_2 formula provable in PA is provable in HA
due to friedman
well, at least that's uh who it's named after
Intuitionistically, $\forall{P}(\neg\neg{P}\vee{\neg{P}})$ still holds right?
this is heyting algebra?
idk actually who first proved it
heyting arithmetic
Topology & Groupoids
just the intuitionistic version of pa
it's literally just PA + IQC
that's it
idk man i guess you can insist HA is not at all constructivist
that's fine
kind of weird but whatevs
uh, no
i spent some time trying to construct a countermodel
~~P v ~P is the wlem though
IPC + wlem is known to be consistent and subclassical
i found some cool program that doesn't work though
called heytinget
so guys what did we learn? constructivism is not what you guys thought it was
guys if the fta was not constructively provable, wtf do you think is constructively provable
yes, indeed you can constructively prove sin(x) has a smallest positive root
you can do a large amount of analysis constructively though you do need to change the definitions a bit
in ways which aren't just "godel-gentzen translation"
alas, constructivists will still get no more respect after this
it's just philosophical mumbo jumbo or whatever
.-.
can we be not condescending
alright, sorry
it's just 99% of discord people think constructivism is absolutely ridiculous and then know nothing about it
i am genuinely sorry
i thought this was true because !P => !!!P, and !!!P => (P => !!P => F) = !P, but
maybe not
yeah i should have realized constructivists weren't just fooling around with statements and stuff and probably had an axiomatization of N also
I think Sapphire is absolutely ridiculous and not an actual constructionist, which is why I was arguing against their position.
if you are curious about constructive analysis, bishop is the guy who is attributed with really getting the whole project started though lots of work was done by people like brouwer before him, there's his foundations of constructive analysis then there's a revision of it by douglas bridges called Constructive Analysis which is pretty good
im also a bit biased because douglas bridges has Representations of Preference Orderings which has a great chapter on jointy continuous utility functions
alright, i misunderstood you then, my apologies
but i wasn't really so much complaining about you, this is a general trend ive seen among math people
i've accepted that sapphire's position is probablyyyy self-consistent, and #1350078306099269662 message reasonable
Constructivism is absolutely ridiculous. If it weren't, I'd know more about it.
haha
i mean you can always learn a little bit of logic, i promise it is not hard otherwise i wouldn't know any of it
but there is some degree of carefulness i think necessary that makes it hard to give a simple rundown of
All the logic I know, I learned from watching Ben Shapiro compilations on YouTube.
haha
I think the biggest problem has just been that she tends to use a lot of terminology in very, very nonstandard ways.
Now I don't know if I agree so much the position is reasonable.
I'm a bit undecided on whether it is self-consistent, too, but I'm willing to grant it is at the cost of it being very unmotivated!
But definitely, the natural numbers are much more philosophically secure than kind of arbitrary real numbers.
Hell, even constructible numbers can be screwy.
And when Q can be defined in such a simple way from N in terms of very simple operations on pairs (p,q) of integers, it's easy to see the allure of not going any further.
However, I think she does go into crank territory when she begins to talk about physics.
I only recall a bit, though.
I guess one problem I have is that I don't really see any robust reason to privilege the integers ontologically over say, compact groups.
It's not like fictionalism is unheard of, though its success is... well, who knows!? (I'm looking at you, Field)
Augh
"Irrationals are not numbers because bla bla 'failure of measurement' bla" is "self-consistent"?
Yeah, so how is it inconsistent?
Like, maybe absurd or whatever. But where's the internal tension?
Frankly it's not defined well enough to evaluate its consistency.
Okay, so for sapphire we have these idealized objects which we can specify in a variety of ways "perfectly round," for instance, "spherical," et cetera, which do not exist, but we can talk about them being able to be approximated in a variety of ways and irrational numbers are kind of abstractions of contextual levels of approximation by existent quantities which are rational numbers.
Now, as you pointed out earlier, one glaring problem is we still want to say whatever whatever we're approximating exists. Otherwise, how else could we approximate it?
Now this is kind of a more general problem though.
Like, let's say I want to say "you look like Sherlock Holmes," does this commit me to the existence of Sherlock Holmes?
Cause God gave us the integers per Kronecker ✍️
god didn't give us the integers else the integers wouldn't be finite first order undefinable
thank you, thank you bro
Fun fact! Every statement about rationals is actually a statement about integers. Same with reals to integers(a real number is just a sequence of integers)
Only the integers exist
So true.
Real numbers are just shorthand
Aren't you topology-pilled?
The integers in the Furstenberg topology are homeomorphic to Q too anyway
Iirc it’s a topological group on Z, too
well, wikipedia says it's the topology induced by the inclusion in profinite Z
with profinite topology
At this point, the question is not whether we are committed to the existence of Sherlock Holmes, but what existence even means. Certainly we can say that Sherlock Holmes exists as a popular character in our collective consciousness, but not as a real person.
so i can buy that
Metaontology moment!?
Alright, sounds fire to me.
I'm down.
Let me get something to drink real quick.
Okay so I'm starting metaontological but I'm going to quickly veer into a sort of strange status-quo preserving pragmatism where I end with "existence doesn't matter, but how we use these concepts does regardless of whether they exist or not".
Alright, I see.
Nothing exists
Okay, well what do you mean by that?
Existence is a scam pushed by big $\exists$
Topology & Groupoids
Do you mean it in the Westerhoffian sense or the Priestian sense?
I am, of course, jesting.
Yeah, I mean I think this is pretty intuitive, actually.
This feels vacuously true.
So, yeah, before we get into metaontology I think it's worthwhile to ask at least what things we want to say uncontroversially exist.
Now, as it turns out, basically nothing uncontroversially exists, but I think we can make a list of things we agree exist.
glad we could lift this thread from the depths of "failure of measurement" math into the heights of "what is existence" philosophy
The only things whose existence I accept axiomatically are the real numbers. If they're not real, then that's something of a misnomer, and that is something I can not abide.
Of course, whether [nothing] exists (no, not "ZFN") is highly controversial.
I understand completely. Luckily, your first-order theory of the world has a model completely in the real numbers.
Well that's awfully convenient.
I only accept the existence of totally separated spaces with > 3 points
So, I want to say
- Shoes
- People
- Dogs
- Trees
- Photons
- Stars
- Pear
- Force fields
all exist.
Of the things I want to say do not exist,
- Sherlock Holmes
- Fictional characters more generally
- Causally inert objects
- God
- Supernatural forces
are some.
I would say that shoes, people, dogs, trees and myself are largely uncontroversial. I will take issue with stars, photons and force fields.
And "supernatural forces" is such a fucking copout for something nonexistent. If it existed we would by definition claim that it is natural and not supernatural.
Haha, yes, in part this is true! Perhaps naturalism is trivial...?
The present king of france, too.
But I mean moreso stuff like what we lump in with "supernatural."
Haha! Indeed!
Is he bald?
Do I appear jolly, everyone?
To elaborate on this a bit, does anyone think there are objects which have no proper parts?
Alright, are you actually committed to the existence of the singleton or are you merely jesting?
does the empty set count as a part
Excellent question!
I would say so.
But there is a more general question when we talk about objects in general.
I am commited to the existence of the extension of any concept(unless it entails a contradiction ala Russell’s paradox)
If the empty set is the part of the singleton, it is presumably part of every thing.
So just whatever works, honestly.
What about the concept which causes all things to be true, like literally makes every statement true?
🤔
What is an object and what is a part?
Nah, no set of all sets.
After the edit, I’m not sure what you mean.
Uh, so by existing, it automagically turns everything true.
Like, every proposition.
I’m not entirely sure we mean the same thing by “concept”
Well, imagine I have the concept of an object C which I concieve of as "C is defined as any object which, by existing, causes all propositions to be true."
An object is a thing, and a part is an object, ostensibly, within in some sense some object. For example, your arm is part of your body.
By “concept”, I mean a function which is well-defined on all objects, and always outputs a truth value
E.g., ala Frege.
Ah, I see.
This feels eerily similar to that, "God is the greatest possible thing; the greatest possible thing having the property of existence is better than the greatest possible thing having the property of nonexistence, so therefore, God must exist" argument used by that 12th century theology guy.
Indeed!
Well, then it's kind of vacuously true! In the same way "every thing exists" is.
I very much dispute this definition. I would argue that my laptop is an object; and yet it is not the icelandic parliament.
This joke went over my head.
A thing, also known as a folkmoot, assembly, tribal council, and by other names, was a governing assembly in early Germanic society, made up of the free people of the community presided over by a lawspeaker. Things took place regularly, usually at prominent places accessible by travel. They provided legislative functions, as well as social event...
In Iceland they still call their parliament "Thing".
Pear, you should read Constructive functional analysis. I have yet to even open it nor download a PDF but it sounds awesome and is by my GOAT Bridges.
Awesome.
Read T&G first ✍️
i can imagine how musty a physical copy of this book must be
so this book is like ancient
uh lots of stuff has happened in the last 50 years
apparently he ONLY considers metric spaces
i guess that makes sense but i was hoping for some basic acknowledgement of constructive topology but whatever
out of curiousity, how many hours do you estimate it would take you to read a book like this
Cold war ahh book
ive actually never read a full textbook from start to finish, despite doing some work from many of them
i think most people with some solid analysis background could get through this book in 2-3 weeks if they work diligently, it's more a monograph it's not like it has exercises or anything
I don't usually read a book from start to finish. I just usually flip forward to an interesting topic.
he proves the stone-weierstrass like 90 pages in
i like to start with problems and then flick my way back through until i can solve them
he also develops only integration on locally compact spaces which makes sense for functional analysis
actually though i think pear would enjoy Techniques of Constructive Analysis, almost all the content in this book is subsumed there
I consider the textbook cooler than the math class it teaches
look at this
Time to get the texromancers back together.
I'm digging through my alg 2 textbook my teacher gave to never use, and I found a lot of interesting stuff
what?
his replacement of the pretty fundamental result that all finite dimensional subpaces of a linear normed space are best approximation spaces is pure trash
this is his definition of "at most one best approximation" by the way
It commits you to some form of existence of Sherlock Holmes. Obviously Sherlock Holmes doesn't exist as a human person, but he does exist as a character with an established appearance, which is what gives meaning to the claim that someone looks like him.
So, is there anything which does not exist?
And also perhaps sapphire can say the same thing.
A married bachelor doesn't exist.
A qwalrexivor doesn't exist.
How can you talk about one, then?
To be clear, if you can say this, surely it is not a far stretch to say "x approximates this thing" where that thing doesn’t exist.
I mean, about the only thing I can say about it is that it doesn't exist.
haha, surely you can also infer a married bachelor is married, and a bachelor, and a variety of other facts
presumably many statements that apply to married people apply to married bachelors
But regardless! It’s still worrying!
Presumably "married bachelor" refers to something lest "there are no married bachelors" be meaningless.
Cleary just a disguised form of “there is no x such that married(x) and bachelor(x)”.
✍️
Or, equivalently, for every x, not (married(x) and bachelor(x))
yes! why did they stop smh
i was recently looking into ways we can use ai here and it is looking not very bad
if i get some time to work on it you could have auto-tex-er
Alright, based. Now, what about "all married bachelors are married?"
That’s just “for every x, (married(x) and bachelor(x)) implies married(x)” ✍️ which is vacuously true
Alright, so I presume you have the same account for "if X is a married bachelor, he is married?"
Yeah
Although, a paraconsistent logic would probably be better for this than one that affirms the principle of explosion, if you want things like “married bachelors are married” to be true but not “married bachelors are green”
Yup!
Anyhow, counterfactuals with impossible antecedents occur all the time, even in mathematics, and we don’t really want them to be trivial / vacuous.
But that isn’t exactly related to discussing non-existent objects(after all, if it is true there are no married bachelors, every married bachelor satisfies P for any predicate P)
There’s also the problem of capturing in virtue of what is any implication vacuous.
Well, married bachelors would not exist, but there are married bachelors.
Existence becomes a predicate usually!!
And \exists becomes something like "there is."
Kant is seething and coping right now
Frege’s notion of existence was better fr.
Not a first order property, but a second order one ✍️
Same as being instantiated
Frege was a GOAT, fr—I think given you’ve read Frege first you’ll stick near and dear to his tradition.
Whereas I’m very, very Quinean. Strangely, I like a ton of nonclassical stuff too.
Ngl I didn’t just read Frege first, I’ve never read any other philosopher(aside from a little bit of unhinged Brouwer on women of all things)
Ah, you probably should!
I might read Kant, cause according to the internet Frege was a transcendental idealist before 1891, but I’m not sure what that even means entirely
I do recommend Quine, he’s a very good thinker.
For example, "if the halting problem were decidable, then we would be able to solve arbitrary Diophantine equations."
It was being run when a bunch of my friends were in undergrad and had a ton of time to kill; especially over the summer. (I had a job that summer, and so could not participate). Right now, most of the texromancers crew are in grad school.
can we contribute??
let us young'ns do it
not like we have anything better to do
I'm not in charge of it. I've been thinking about trying to revive it, but I haven't had the time. If you want to do something, reach out to Aareyan Manzoor at Waterloo.
The circumference and diameter are never both rational
thr circumference or a diameter of a circle must be rational i.e. have a terminating decimal expansion because they are definite
Why must a number be rational to be definite?
use the madhava-lebinz series
$lim _ {p \to \infty} \sum_{n=1}^p\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{2n+1}$
curry supplier
k not p ?
mb
Ok so how is e irrational if its series is based upon the sum of reciprocal factorials?
infinite sequence of rational numbers can converge to an irrational
(the sequence here being the sequence of partial sums, each of which is rational)
In fact, that's basically trivial. For any irrational, you can construct a sequence of rational numbers that converges to it by just making the nth term of the sequence equal to the irrational to the nth decimal.
There is an exercice I know that uses this fact you set s_n=1+1/2+..+1/n! and consider v_n=s_n+1/(nn!) then you can prove that (s_n) and (v_n) are adjacent and have limit e, in that case for all n you have s_n<e<v_n if e were rational you would get a contradiction because if e=p/q, p>0,q>0, being integers then you would have q!qs_q<q!p<q!qs_q+1, you would have an integer contained between two consecutive integers strictly (not possible)
$\underset{k \to \infty}{lim} \sum{n=1}^p\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{2n+1}$
curry supplier
You can write it this way $\underset{k \to \infty}{lim}$ if you prefer
R
ohhh
ty
$\underset{k \to \infty}{lim} \sum{n=1}^p\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{2n+1}$
curry supplier
💀
$\lim_{p\to\infty}\sum_{n=1}^p\frac{(-1)^{n+1}}{2n+1}$
Kocher
Someone decided to join in (mind you, not OP!) and basically start a really long argument on Euclidean ideologies and how basic shit is defined
There’s so many topics discussed in this thread that you can’t summarize it properly
Ain’t this just pi/4 though
Or rather -pi/4
Nah not really
$\arctan(x)=\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{(-1)^nx^{2n+1}}{2n+1}$
Kocher
I was reading for around 5-10 minutes about "irrationality of pi proof but simplified" and i was like "why does this keep going?!"
We had the same question
"why did this keep going?"
don't forget your _s lol
ye rhat mb gng
Because irrationals like Pi do, they do not land on any fixed quantity comprised of countable quanta.
This ping genuinely scared me
I've literally directly explained to you how they do.
No, you have been refuted at every point. I have clearly explained my position as to how they do not.
No you haven't.
How do they land, on a fixed quantity comprised of countable quanta (or elementary units)?
That is right, they do not.
Unless you make them rational.
P1. Any set which can be placed in bijective correspondence with any subset of the natural numbers is countable.
P2. The set of all natural numbers is a subset of the natural numbers.
P3. The digits of any finite real number can be placed in bijective correspondence with the natural numbers.
Cl. The digits of any finite real number are countable.```
That does not answer the question.
How does an infinite convergent sequence, produce a specific outcome/result/quantity that is comprised of specific countable elements or quanta?
Yes. It does. It exactly does. A finite real number is fully described by its digits, which are countable.
For an irrational, the digits are not all countable, they have no specific quantity or measure.
...yes, the digits of any finite real number are countable.
Although the digits of any real number can be indexed by the natural numbers (and are therefore “countable” only in the sense of correspondence, this is not my point and you know this already), this indexing merely arranges an infinite, convergent process.
It does not provide a finite, fully constructed object, a requirement for genuine “numberhood”. The infinite list remains an idealized procedure rather than a completed, measurable entity.
Although we can, in principle, assign a natural number to each digit of π (first, second, third, and so on), you can never finish counting them all because π has infinitely many digits. Thus they are not a specific quantity comprised of countable elemental units or quanta.
You response does not bypass the central issue I have to point out again and again to you: the infinite tail of the expansion is never finitely “landed upon.” The claim that a finite real number is completely described by its countable digits glosses over the fact that the process of engaging with infinitely many digits is inherently non-finite. In essence, their totality embodies an infinite process that falls short of constituting a fully explicit, finite construction. A point which is paramount to my critique of irrational numbers, you repeatedly avoid addressing or acknowledging.
If you don't mean "countable", then don't say "countable".
Specific quantity, comprised of countable elemental units or quanta.
Where is your specific quantity?
Comprised of a specific amount of quanta?
You have none.
As always.
Right, "countable". Like the digits of any finite real number.
Or the set of all rational numbers less than a given finite real number, i.e. the Dedekind cut defining the number.
it does make me uncomfortable that we define the set of real numbers, while at the same time most particular real numbers are not definable
(there are pointwise definable models of set theory...)
(except in those models R is much smaller than we actually want, they are actually countable but the model does not know how to count them)
What numbers aren't definable?
most reals
y'know, there are uncountably many reals but countably many finite texts
π is definable, we can define it as the algorithm that produces its digits or whatever (this is actually kind of a funny way to think about going about things, you can define the sum of 2 algorithms as the algorithm that runs the first two and adds the digits of their progressively more accurate outputs), but most reals aren't
That does not make an infinite sequence, produce a realized finite specific outcome or quantity comprised of countable elemental units. They are not realized specific contructible quantities.
Dedekind cuts are not proof of measurement or common measure, they are axiomatic abstractions.
You're talking about computability, which is arguably different than definability.
i really want to understand rxrsapphire, their position seems apparently defensible and believable, but everything they say just looks like nonsense
yeah it is, but you can't really define definability
so i just used computability instead
What the fuck is an "elemental unit"? Because if it's a digit, then shut the fuck up because every finite real number has countably many digits.
What do you want me to explain further?
and it doesn't change the fact that there are Z many finite texts
No, they (the irrationals) do not have a specific quantity of countable digits.
most of R is somewhat unknowable, which is very strange
i have heard the phrase "finding hay in a haystack" used to describe this
...yes, they do. They have countably infinitely many digits.
i have also heard the expression "where is all the cheese hiding" used to describe this
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=aYuzwNa0_4o
which is very funny
What?
Still waiting on that specific quantity.
...infinity. Countable infinity. Aleph null.
Comprised of a specific amount of countable quanta or elemental units in some representation.
No such thing.
Yes, there is. It's the cardinality of the set of natural numbers.
no such set!!
It is not the specific quantity, comprised of a specific amount of countable quanta or elemental units in some representation, that I keep asking you for.
Maybe you should use words that mean what you're trying to say instead of words that either mean something completely different or don't mean anything at all.
from what i have heard, she only believes in positive integers, basically
rationals only exist as ratios of integers, not numbers in themselves
You can represent them in some form as countable elements.
ie 1/3 is # relative to # # #
You cannot do that with irrationals. Thus they have no specific quantity, comprised of quanta.
i just really like the idea that you could take a cheese and cut it with a thin knife at every possible computable position, and the cheese would remain 100% there
USE. WORDS. CORRECTLY.
this is "real cheese", not to be confused with real cheese, which is made of atoms
...I mean, the cheese would "remain 100% there" regardless, as cutting cheese does not remove any of it.
if you cut it at every possible real position, then it would disappear