#help-39
1 messages · Page 321 of 1
You could make it work with weak, but it's awkward. Instead of proving the statement P(n) for all n, you would essentially need to change the statement to the equivalent statement P(n) and P(n-1) for all n and handle two cases at once.
Again they're equivalent, so you're free to use strong induction all the time if you want
can we prove this using strong induction
.
So now what would be your induction hypothesis?
2 < k < m holds
<=
both
2 <= k <= m
So you should write that your statement holds for 2 <= k <= m.
And now you want to prove that P(m+1).
how do I do it
What is P(m+1)?
I see no m+1 in there.
@summer imp
Renato
now yes ?
Yes
This is what you want to prove.
Now you're given some recursive definition of a_n. Apply it to a_(m+1)
in particular we know that P(k) holds for 2 <= k <= m
what?
How is a_n defined?
,, a_{m + 1} = (m + 1)(1 + a_m)
Renato
this shit still depends on am
Hence why you use induction.
,, a_{m + 1} = (m + 1)! \sum_{k = 1}^{m} \frac{1}{k!} \ (m + 1)(1 + a_m) = (m + 1)! \sum_{k = 1}^{m} \frac{1}{k!}
Renato
@summer imp
,, a_m = m! \sum_{k = 1}^{m - 1} \frac{1}{k!}
Renato
Yes good continue.
,, a_{m + 1} = (m + 1)(1 + a_m) \ a_{m + 1} = (m+1) \left(1 + m! \sum_{k = 1}^{m - 1} \frac{1}{k!}\right)
Renato
Yes/
,, a_{m + 1} = (m + 1)(1 + a_m) \ a_{m + 1} = (m+1) \left(1 + m! \sum_{k = 1}^{m - 1} \frac{1}{k!}\right) \ a_{m + 1} = (m + 1) + (m+1)! \sum_{k=1}^{m - 1} \frac{1}{k!}
Renato
Yes
(m+1)! / (m-1) = (m+1).m.(m-1).(m-2)! / (m-1) = (m+1).m.(m-2)!
,, \sum_{k = 1}^{m} \frac{1}{k!} = \frac{1}{m!} + \sum_{k = 1}^{m - 1} \frac{1}{k!} \ \left(\sum_{k = 1}^{m} \frac{1}{k!} \right) - \frac{1}{m!} = \sum_{k = 1}^{m - 1} \frac{1}{k!}
Renato
(m+1)!/m! = (m+1).m!/m!
bingo
,, a_{m + 1} = (m + 1)(1 + a_m) \ a_{m + 1} = (m+1) \left(1 + m! \sum_{k = 1}^{m - 1} \frac{1}{k!}\right) \ a_{m + 1} = (m + 1) + (m+1)! \sum_{k=1}^{m - 1} \frac{1}{k!} \ a_{m + 1} = (m + 1) + (m+1)! \cdot \left(- \frac{1}{m!} + \sum_{k = 1}^m \frac{1}{k!}\right) \ a_{m + 1} = (m+1)! \sum_{k = 1}^m \frac{1}{k!}
Renato
@summer imp
So then P(k) for 2 <= k <= m implies P(m+1) and by strong induction P(n) holds for all n in N.
Notice how you didn't need to use anything other than the case k=m to prove k=m+1.
whats your point?
@summer imp
strong induction is more useful than knowing weak induction
My point is just that assuming P(k) holds for 2<= k<= m was unnecessary in the end. You could've just assumed that P(m) holds.
And the argument would've been the same.
I still prefer it
It's a matter of style. I was just pointing it out.
It's always the same thing :
base case
induction hypothesis : Suppose (your induction hypothesis about P(m))
induction step : Then P(m+1).
By the principle of mathematical induction, P(n) holds for any natural >= (your base case).
can you help me with the proof structure for this specific exercise
Well you have all the pieces. You've done the base case. You've written down your induction hypothesis. You've proved the induction step.
Try writing something that puts those together like this
but I want to use strong
It's the same thing. You induction hypothesis will be that P(k) holds for 2 <= k <= m
The format is always the same
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I'm forgetting how to do something simple.
Going through a power series to find the convergence interval, I've manipulated it into geometric series form and found that r = (x - 4) ^ (-7).
This means the power series converges on | (x - 4) ^ (-7) | < 1.
I should be able to solve that the convergence interval is (−∞,3) ∪ (5,∞). I've forgotten how.
do you remember the ratio test perchance (i don't expect you to)
finding the infinite limit of the absolute value of series a sub n+1 / series a sub n < 1 ?
yea
so just do that with this is all
find what $x$ satisfies $\lim_{n\to\infty}\qty|\frac{a_{n+1}}{a_n}|<1$
;(
or like
a geometric series with ratio r converges with |r|<1 is also another way you can do this (so you're halfway there)
you can use that |x^n|=|x|^n to simplify the inequality
that's right, I should be able to do that..
just curious, should it be simple to see | (x - 4) ^ (-7) | < 1 and solve for the interval being one away from 4? I'm wondering how the speed would compare to the limit ratio test, if I remember how
my instruction just says this:
The step is simply skipped
i mean its common enough (the geometric series, that is) for you to be able to recognize it
the interval solving part not as much imo
its a little bit of algebra that you may or may not know cause inequalities are a bit tricky
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how do i know the direction of DA?
i know the magnitude is 3q
but how can i determine if DA is from D to A or if its AD from A to D
or do i assume its -3q since its parallel to CB
you determine that based on calculations
DA itself is just a line segment, not a vector
until you assign it direction it stays that way
so if i want to express DB as DA + AB would DA be 3q or -3q?
i would say -3q since vector BC = 3q
so parallel vectors are opposite of each other?
^^
BC has the upwards direction, so AD will have the same sign, whereas DA will have opposite
looking at where the vector is travelling to and from
oh so since AD and CB are parallel, they should share the same direction? thus DA is opposing it so its negative?
parallel in a direction sense, yeah
DA and BC would be antiparallel, that's all i'm trying to say here
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Renato
,w simplify 2a^2 - b^2 -2(a^2 - 3b^2)
,w simplify -3(2a^2-b^2) + a^2 -3b^2
d = gcd(2a^2-b^2, a^2 - 3b^2)
d | 5b^2
d | 5a^2
=> d | gcd(5b^2, 5a^2) => d | 5.gcd(b^2, a^2) => d | 5.gcd(a,b)^2 => d | 5.7^2
,w divisors 245
also from gcd(a,b) = 7 we get that 7 | a, 7 | b and that 5 does not divide b
@stoic imp Has your question been resolved?
@stoic imp Has your question been resolved?
is it 49?
$5|a, \gcd(a,b)=7$ calculate $\gcd(2a^2 - b^2, a^2 - 3b^2)$, okay so \ $\gcd(2a^2 - b^2, a^2 - 3b^2) = \gcd(5b^2, a^2 - 3b^2) = \gcd(b^2,a^2-3b^2)$, since $5\nmid b \Rightarrow 3b^2 \not\equiv 0 \pmod{5}$, so $ \gcd(b^2,a^2-3b^2) = \gcd(a^2,b^2) = 49$
well, 7 divides a and b so divides 2a²-b² and a²-3b², at least you know the gcd won't be 5
it can only be 7, 35, 49, or 245 in the first place
is it correct?
amywinehouse11
seems correct to me
sorry for interrupting, but just to clarify, are we allowed to basically give helpees the solution directly like this?
not really but renato solved 95% of it and found d | 245, I hinted he couldn't do random stuff with the 5
so he kinda was supposed to find the last step
it is recommended to not give a full sol but sometimes it's hard to not add a detail
fair enough. sorry for interrupting again.
can someone explain
you said d | 5a² and 5b², that's true
but what you could conclude was that since it divides b² and a²-3b², it doesn't contain a 5
since 5 divides a but not b, it doesn't divide a²-3b²
so your gcd is gcd(b², a²-3b²)
you removed the 5 of 5b² from knowing 5 doesn't divide d
and gcd(b², a²-3b²) is gcd(a², b²)
and you already figured out this one was 49
hence, the answer is 49
how
how what ?
think of the prime decomposition of numbers if you have gcd(a,b), and 5|a but 5 doesnt divide b, then 5 cannot appear as a result of this gcd so you can eliminate all prime factors of 5 of a and its gonna be the same gcd
how is gcd(5b^2, a^2 - 3b^2) = gcd(b^2, a^2 - 3b^2)
.
5b^2 is a multiple of 5, and a^2 - 3b^2 isnt
bcs a^2 is a multiple of 5, but 3b^2 isnt
until you dont think about prime decomposition you arent gonna be good at number theory
In mathematics, the fundamental theorem of arithmetic, also called the unique factorization theorem and prime factorization theorem, states that every integer greater than 1 is either prime or can be represented uniquely as a product of prime numbers, up to the order of the factors. For example,
1200
=
...
if you want another way to write it to convince you, it's about Euclid's lemma
amy justified that d was coprime with 5
but if d divides 5b² and is coprime with 5, by Euclid's lemma, d divides b²
this is assuming d is prime
nope
(the proof of this generalization is also quite easy, it's just multiplying Bezout's identity)
I mean I can give you the proof of this generalization if it's what convinces you
n | ab
gcd(n,a) = 1
nx + ay = 1
bnx + bay = b
bay = 0 (mod n)
bnx = 0 (mod n)
b = 0 (mod n)
if (a : n) = 1, by Bezout, there are x, y st ax+ny = 1, so bax+bny = b
then if n divides ab, ab = nq, so nqx+bny = b, so n(qx+by) = b and n divides b
quite trivial and doesn't depend on n being prime, as you can see
it's not exactly euclids lemma is more like a corollary
on wiki it's called Euclid's lemma, in the language I learnt about it, it's called Gauss' lemma
what do you want me to call whatever thing that has 70 different names
what i mean is that euclid lemma gauss lemma etc never talk about coprimality
and it's not a corollary of euclid's lemma
it's a generalization
it's stronger, not the opposite
well the gauss lemma I learned is this one so it definitely did, but you can call it generalized Euclid or generalized Maribel I don't think I care that much about its name
from now on it will be Maribel's lemma
what i mean is that here p is prime so its one or the other
but if p is not prime then it can also divide both, that's why we need coprimality
d is coprime with 5
it's very easy to be coprime with a prime
it just needs to not divide you
since d divides a²-3b², 5 doesn't divide d
so d and 5 are coprime
however, by Maribel's lemma, since d divides 5b² and is coprime with 5, it divides b²
then, since being a common divisor of 5b² and a²-3b² implies to divide b², it's in the set of common divisor of b² and a²-3b², so gcd(5b², a²-3b²) = gcd(b², a²-3b²)
I mean I thought about this argument because you didn't sound very convinced by thinking of the prime factorization, but if you don't like it, amy explained the prime factorization very well
maribel's intervene latter
when I write it
the fact that 5 doesn't divide d has been detailled in all explanations until now
if 5 divided d, since d divides a²-3b²
5 would divide a²-3b²
oh you mean here too
yeah you could use maribel's again
a^2 -3b^2 = 3b^2 (mod 5)
why
you can't write -3 = 3 mod 5 like you did here
so 5 divides b² by maribel's or by the fact that 2 is invertible mod 5
pick your favorite
which is a contradiction
because gcd(a, b) = 7 has no 5
and 5 divides a
the inverse of 2 in mod 5 is
3
ty
there are a lot of ways to justify that 5 doesn't divide d, and then it follows from here
if the inverse exist then what
2b^2 = k (mod 5)
b^2 = 3k (mod 5)
b² = 0 mod 5
but 5 does not divide b
in this hypothesis
yeah that's the point of a proof by contradiction
you asked why 5 doesn't divide d
I say if it divides d it divides a²-3b²
so it divides 2b² so it divides b² because 2 is invertible
but it can't divides b² because it can't divide b
gcd(5,2)=1
and here is the contradiction
that happens to be a synonym of being invertible mod 5, indeed
yes
this is what I was asking earlier
but you don't really need it you can just use the inverse
then by maribel 5 | b^2 => 5 | b
2b² = 0 so 6b² = 0 so b² = 0
maribel can be used here but is not needed if you're inverting 2 mod 5
yeah you could say that too
maribel's can always be used for this kind of argument
so we get that 5 | 5b^2 but not that 5 | a^2 - 3b^2
why
which is not the case
I see using that divisibility is transitive
how is gcd(5a^2, b^2) = gcd(a^2, b^2)
the exact chain starts from your original problem gcd(2a²-b², a²-3b²)
it's equal to gcd(5b², a²-3b²)
= gcd(b², a²-3b²) (what we just proved with Maribel's and contradiction)
= gcd(b², a²) (trivial, we add left side 3 times to right side)
= (gcd(a, b))² = 49
how
also I am asking something different
how is gcd(5a^2, b^2) = gcd(a^2, b^2)
you could prove it again with Maribel's
if d | 5a² and d | b², 5 doesn't divide b, so doesn't divide d
so d divides a² by Maribel's, since d coprime with 5
since d | 5a² and d | b² => d | a², gcd(5a^2, b^2) = gcd(a^2, b^2)
I mean there are at least 30 possible chains
most of them didn't convince you and ended in a "how?"
at some point I had to prove things 3 times a different way
I probably didn't do only optimal things, for sure
gcd(2a²-b², a²-3b²)
= gcd(5b², a²-3b²)
= gcd(b², a²-3b²) (what we just proved with Maribel's and contradiction)
= gcd(b², a²)
= (gcd(a, b))² = 49
is already a very clean answer in my opinion
5 does not divide b, so 5 does not divide d?
yes that's the contradiction we wrote 10 times
if 5 divided d
it would divide a²-3b² and 5b²
so would divide b² so b
contradiction
so 5 doesn't divide d
(5 | d => 5 | b) <=> (5 doesn't divide b => 5 doesn't divide d)
I've proved every step 3 different times atp Idk what you don't like in the proof
is that the contrapositive
yes
I think this is a good way to put it
this is the most redundant but at this point I write it in every possible way
is good to have options, I have to think on the spot for the exam
if you write that much in 3 different ways in an exam I assure you you won't have time to score point
gcd(2a²-b², a²-3b²)
= gcd(5b², a²-3b²)
= gcd(b², a²-3b²) because 5 doesn't divide a²-3b²
= gcd(b², a²)
= (gcd(a, b))² = 49
is already a very, very reasonable proof
I just need to write it in one way, whatever I can come up with on the spot
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nope
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
1
how to start any geometry problem: make a sketch
how does your sketch look like
its a triangle...
upload it
alright
hint: draw a line segment horizontally on the bottom AB (=1)
and draw a ray from A at a 20.21 degree angle
infinite line sounds weird but thats the point
wanted to be explicit xd
(a ray)
then every point C on that ray (call it R) creates a triangle ABC with some sidelength AC, i.e. x
yeah i did too originally lol but the key is that you know the angle
so you need a ray
i see so like the number of points c is like the number of non congruent triangles i can form?
we haven't gotten to congruence yet
as i wrote it right now there are infinitely many points C
yeah
how do we move forward from there?
alrighty hold on
representation on ms paint, i dont have a phone to take photos rn
i am drawing it correctly right?
yup
note that there exists an x s.t. this is a right angle
noted
this means that there are a bunch of these blue lines which are the same length
is this multiple choice or is it separate questions
lol
just clarifying
ok good
multiple choice
i think i confused myself a bit, give me a sec..
lright
The majority of the options seem to be correct 
C must line on a circle centred at B with a radius of x, shouldn't it. So just count the amount of ways a line can intersect with a circle
D can't be right
Yes
but the rest seems to be correct
The others sure can
Which goes back to this
i see can you draw the circle?
like
i think this is it
im having a bit trouble witht hat-
Im on phone 
oh okay so like
Maybe artemetra can
can't c be any circle?
it just needs to have its centre at b right?
OHHHHHHHHHHH
i get it

we are looking for the case where it intersects the maximum amount of
like that
points
i see da vision 😮
She sees da wae
the inner circle corresponds to 0 points when x is too small (i.e. 0 such triangles exist)
the one in the middle is 1 point
the outer circle is 2 points, i.e. two triangles
When you realise you are getting old 
you can also have this situation where x is big enough that there's only 1 point but that's still 1 triangle
so the answer is a,b,c
hm yeah
anything btw i can invoke or like
or is this it
like
the graphical solution
you can draw the triangles in each case
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(x+b)^2/2=y/6
In this scenario cross multiplying works because its the same as multplying both sides by 2 and then both sides by 6, but with cross multiplying we do the same thing but faster right?
$$\frac{(x+b)^2}{2} = \frac{y}{6}$$
Fahad07
that worked
I guess cross multiplication is faster, but its upto personal preference
Yeah I know it works, I just wanted to confirm that my logic and reasoning behind why it works is correct.
This is basic stuff, I should have a thorough understanding of it and not just memorise it
Anyways thanks for the confirmation guys
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Can sum1 please check this it looks super long so i think it could be wrong it just looks very wrong to me 😕
@pearl mauve Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
Question about your problem: why do you have this being the integral of a series on the other side?
Oh, a very weird separable equation
So your integration of u seems fine
Did you have a specific question or concern though?
@pearl mauve
I just wanted to know if i did anything wrong since it looks super wrong to me
Also i was using an approximation to a function thats why the number looks super weird
The series was the taylor polynomial at t = 0 of ln(1/4 t + 4)
Also i already solved the ode using numerical methods but since my function is a polynomial near t = 0 if i use my code to solve for u(5/4) ≈ 30.78...
Does that mean if i sub into my analytical one it should be close to 0 or would that not work since i did a taylor near 0 and 5/4 is not close to 0 and have to pick another number near 0 and test on my analytical solution?
@pearl mauve Has your question been resolved?
@pearl mauve Has your question been resolved?
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
It might simply be that the work you're asking about is correct, but you've made a mistake on a previous part, so the results you're getting are wrong in a previous step, but you've only been able to thoroughly check them at this step.
to solve an ode
du/dt +f(u)g(t)=0
f is a cubic and g is ln(1/4t+4) i used numerical methods to write f approximately as u can see and for g i used taylor polynomial at t=0
The cubic is kinda messy since it depends on my student id so i cant really send it
@pearl mauve why are you expanding the log btw? You can just integrate it normally.
$\int \ln(t/4 + 4) , \d{t} = -t + (t + 16) \ln(t/4 + 4)$
OmnipotentEntity
Bc the question said to use taylor polynomials
Its basically approximating and solving analytically
Idk why he told us to do that tho
!original
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
Alr ill send in a bit sorry
Ignore the bottom this is f(u) and then i used bisection and newton raphson to approximate the roots so i could write f(u)≈(u-a)(b-u)^2
And as i said before g(t)= ln(1/4*t + 4) which i approximated by an n degree taylor polynomial
So the ode we solve is du/dt +f(u)g(t)=0 with u(0)=u_0
That's basically all the original text has 5 parts with tons of writing its not gonna help if i send it i just simplified it if u really need it i can send but its super long i promise u. 😭
And they want the solution in h_n(u(t),t)=0
I won't lie, I'm not convinced you understood what original means here
Omni's asking for the original question, as it was stated to you, verbatim
I literally said it bro
Be that a screenshot, a photo of a book, etc-
Its not a book
Its from a question the teacher sent
And the question is 5 parts with 10+ paragraphs
Im not gonna send 5 parts of something i already know which is 10+ paragraphs of text filled with my alpha and beta which my student id takes
Unless the ODE is given entirely divorced from the other parts, it is possible you have the wrong ODE to begin with
du/dt + f(u)g(t)=0
Its not
That's why we ask, as a general rule
^^
Its literally this
With u(0)=u_0
Thats all
Every other part is to approximate f(u) using a root finding technique and analyses it its not useful in the context of my question
And then to approximate g as an n degree taylor polynomial
Which i already gave lmao
@pearl mauve Has your question been resolved?
@pearl mauve Has your question been resolved?
Well we still require the question with the entire context.
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How to understand functions like TREE(3) SSCG(3) graham's number. And doing manipulations on very large numbers. And what topics should I learn to get good at these concepts?
I'd suppose all of these fall under number theory.
TREE(3) I think has roots in graph theory though.
so is Graham's number.
so the computation might be NT but the problems that these numbers arose from are usually other fields.
hm, technically also SSCG(3). so all of these are graph-theoretical functions/numbers.
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I feel I'm tripping here (6.1.2)
So the $\lambda$ in the poisson distribution is $30,345p$?
Wai
so $\Pi_{i=0}^{21} \frac{ (30345p)^{i} e^{- 30345p}}{i!}$?
Wai
why do you have i=0 to i=21
yeah it's Poisson(Np)
but this is wrong
conceptually, the likelihood is P(data|model)
so x_i instead of i
why do you have x_i
the formula calls for it, does it not
this
I don't see $x_i$ in this formula
Element118
just $\lambda$ and $k$
Element118
then what am I doing wrog
maybe you have a likelihood formula you aren't showing
and that is where you have the $x_i$ from?
Element118
Isn't the likelihood function, the product of pdfs at the points
Kinda, but you only have one point of data, 22
right so $\Pi_{k=1}^{21}\Pi_{i=0}^{k} \frac{ (30345p)^{i} e^{- 30345p}}{i!}$?
The product occurs if you have multiple points
Wai
A product of one term probably doesn't need the $\prod$ operator
Element118
I don't get it
The question says there's only one observation, 22
so just the pmf at k=21
so just $\frac{ (30345p)^{22} e^{- 30345p}}{22!}$
Wai
yeah that's just it
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im back, cuz this time is hard
I understood the hint, but have no idea how to create such sequence
"...which the values of the function f tends to 0", what if f outputs big numbers? f is not really represented in some expressions so thats why im confused
first fix x then there exsits some y_1 such that the property holds
then use y_1 ito deduce the existence of some y_2 with the property
use this repetitively then you can see that you will obtain some sequence f(y_n)
tending to 0
try it yourself it is not very hard to get the idea
omg
thats so good
brb
I wonder how u thought of this instantly, I need that mindset @broken moth
give it time
there is a problem where y_n might be all over the place, like you could have y_(2n+1) be 0 and y_(2n) be 1
we dont care about y_n
we need (f(y_n))
to show that there exists a value z such that f(z) = 0 it is not sufficient to show that f gets arbitrarily close to 0
yes thats it
and you can obtain this using squeezing
and since f is continuous on that interval it follows directly the existence of z
ok this is my draft so far
less or equal to not equal
what
consider the function f(x) = 1/x on [1, ∞). then f gets arbitrarily close to 0 yet does not attain it
which part
$|f(y_1)|\leq \frac{1}{2}|f(x)|$ not $|f(y_1)|= \frac{1}{2}|f(x)|$
Roufaid
and you must show the existence of (y_n) by induction
you cannot say we do this repetitively in the proof
you can by squeezing
y_n exists in [a,b] so why should we need to prove its existence
you totally just can
and the existence of (y_n) does not follow by induction, it follows from the axiom of choice
but we are working on a closed interval
so D' is included in D we dont have any problem having limit inside the closed intervals and mind that it will settel at a value that is not inside
because every sequence converges inside the interval
this is simply not clear and the proof is not obvious
again not every sequence converges, consider x_(2n+1) = 1/2^(2n+1) and x_(2n) = 1/2^(2n)
yes i can agree with that but in our construction
we dont care where (y_n) settels
is it like this @broken moth
both converge to 0
yes but this requires you to separate x_n into two subsequences
you need to actually do this
why?
because otherwise you cannot say that there exists some z with f(z) = 0
the idea is you need to find a subsequence of y_n that converges in [a, b]
this is the only way you get to use continuity
ohh I get u
wait wait
let me ask you a question
create two sequences where all elements are negative and positive respectively
our construction
of y_n
is in [a,b] right?
if it ever converges will it get outside [a,b]?
no
ok you edited it now
you are right
he must say this to
what's going on
so your problem was weather y_n converges or not right?
it simply will not in general
yes you are right
ok this is fixable
use bolzano
y_n is bounded
so it hase a convergent subsequence
ok yeah you are right he needs to write this detail
your steps are right
just before taking the limit justify why y_n must converge
ok it will not but since it is bounded it has a convergent subsequence call it y_k
thats all you need
you can't just tell them the solution like this
they don't even know where the issue lies
why do we need to tell y_n must converge when the sequence has elements of f(y_n)?
wait isn't it y_n
no
yea but the question asks you for an actual value, not a sequence
it is not y_n
how about instead of making one sequence, I make two, where I take all positive and negative values of f respectively
you can do that
so say you have a sequence y_n such that f(y_n) is all positive. what then?
this may be empty
then the other one negative, but I can't seem to reach the final conclusion
yeah it's surprisingly difficult right
if y_n converges we would be done. do you see why?
it is not about being difficult
taking y_n a sequence of positive values of f is not exhustive
how can you guarentee that there is no f that is non-negative for all values of x satisfying the property?
well this would be done if the sequence is like jumping from positive to negative then reaching to 0
like y1 >0, y2 < 0, y3 > 0,...
or maybe a non-positive function f satisfying the property
be careful
think about whether the sequence being positive or negative really matters
I think it does, since we want to show that there exists a negative and positive value of f
then we can get f(c) = 0
you are confusing values of y_n being positive or negative with f(y_n) being positive or negative
my bad
the function f(x) = x² on [-1, 1] attains 0 at 0 but is never negative
how else am I gonna use IVT to prove f(c) = 0
you are not going to use IVT
to summarise the situation we are given some sequence (y_n) such that f(y_n) converges to 0. we need to use this somehow to find c with f(c) exactly 0
again you should answer why (y_n) converging in [a, b] means that we would be done
wait
what if
since I already found that lim n-> inf f(y_n) = 0
I can use Sequential Continuity Theorem that the limit I mentioned is equal to f(c) for some number c
what is c
the number in [a,b]
f : [a,b] -> R is continuous at c in [a,b] iff for every y_n converging to c in [a,b],
lim f(y_n) = f(c)
ye I just realized a flaw, need to show y_n converges to c
I wanna curse
you should have a mental visualisation of what's happening, it makes organising your thoughts easier
something like this
is the [---] part [a,b]?
yeah
Which branch is being discussed (js asking pls don't mind)
baby anal
-ysis
I am stuck now
this is lowkey diabolical without having topological tools
here is an illustration that may or may not confuse you further. if we have the function f(x) = 1/x on [1, ∞), then f gets arbitrarily close to 0 yet does not attain it
so somehow your argument needs to rely on the domain being [a, b]
didnt we make a sequence out of [a,b]
the argument we used to define our sequence didn't really rely on the nature of [a, b], it came from the question just telling us we could find some domain value with less than half of what we have
but from here we need to use the nature of [a, b]
well, it is bounded
another example is f(x) = x² on (0, 1]
oh so that c might be a lol
wait since the sequence is bounded, can I just make a subsequence converging to c by bolzano
yeah if you know that then sure
then since it converges to c and we know that f(y_n) converges to 0, that subsequence must converge to 0
mhm
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Can anyone pls tell me the answer of q17
I got answer as B
This server is not about handing out answers, we can only help you with figuring it out
ya I figured it out and got answer as B but book's answer is A
<@&286206848099549185>
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Well let's see how you got the answer then
wait 1 min
See this @honest oyster
I'm not convinced that (2-a)(c-2) implies either both are 1 or both are 3, since that assume a and c are integers (I think they infact are in this case but that doesn't justify the fact we have to assume it)
hmmm....
ya but still is my answer wrong sir?
@honest oyster
Gtg right now, hope someone else can help
<@&286206848099549185>
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dont ping helpers again and again
bro 15 mins gone
Ya as he left that's why I pinged again
bro
ping when it's been a long time since no one answered you
not just pinging randomly and hope to get some help
try converting log10x - 1 to log10x - log10(10) then log10 (x/10)
see if you can do something from there
my solution...
should i maybe solve it 😃
From the 3rd. equation
I took log10 x =a, log10 y = b, log10 z =c
...
yeah. well
log(a)(b)=c
then a^c = b
here log10(a+c) = 2+(c-1)(a-1)
so 10^[2+(c-1)(a-1)] = a+c
@flint spindle when you made the equations i,ii,iii . try to subtract i and ii
can you sub in the value of a,b, and c in your equation and tell me if that satisfies it
this one
can ya send me the solution
mine?
@valid nova
did you try this?
gtg sir, I will try tomorrow
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ioqm de rha hai
(2-a)(c-2)=-1 is the same sir
you wrote +1
agreed
true
wait. i will solve from scratch i am getting confused
$\log_{10}(2yz) = 4 + (\log_{10} y - 2)(\log_{10} z - 1)$
TheAstorPastor
$\log_{10}(2xy) = 4 + (\log_{10} x - 1)(\log_{10} y - 2)$
TheAstorPastor
$\log_{10}(zx) = 2 + (\log_{10} z - 1)(\log_{10} x - 1)$
TheAstorPastor
$\log{10}(2yz) = \log{10} 2 + b + c$
TheAstorPastor
$\log{10}(2xy) = \log{10} 2 + a + b$
TheAstorPastor
$\log_{10}(zx) = a + c$
TheAstorPastor
can we say log10(2)=k ?
@flint spindle ?
k+b+c=4+(b−2)(c−1) - equation(1)
k+a+b=4+(a−1)(b−2) -equation(2)
a+c=2+(c−1)(a−1) -equation(3)
you got (a-2)(c-1) as 1
subtract 1 from 2
$$(a - c)(3 - b) = 0$$
TheAstorPastor
similarly with others, yoy get
(a−b)(3−c)=0,(b−c)(3−a)=0
combining them all gets me
a=b=c = 1
a=b=c=3
for being 1 you get x=y=z as 10
for 3 you get x=y=z as 1000
(a-c) = (b-2)(a-c) is what im getting
and x1>x2
same thing ig yeah
mhm
mb
so x1 is 1k and x2 is 10
now you just check out the table
@flint spindle do you get it?
@flint spindle Has your question been resolved?
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Please help me to solve the following question :- For what value of p is the coefficient of x2
in the
product (2x – 1)(x – k)(px + 1) equal to 0 and the
constant term equal to 2 ?
expand the product?
i exactly dont know what to do.. It would be better if anyone would help me
expanding means (a+b)(c+d) = ab + ad + bc + bd
I just told you what to do.
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this channel is to ask for help. if you still need help then ask, dont give up and say you cant solve it
OK THANKS FOR AN INSPIRATION
ACTUALLY I M IN CLASS 10 , and wanna solve olympiad level question
bit rude imo... its better to stop responding instead of saying thats
itll be better if you get familiar with basics first
ok...
start with , "what does expanding a product mean"
So what are the basics that I must know ??
It'd to draw attention to the helper's statement 
Multiplication.
Of Algebraic expressions
ignore my speelings
do you know what is $(a+b)(c+d)$
Annie Maqionde
.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-39 message
(so it doesnt lock)
yes. ac+ad+bc+bd
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
show what you've done so far
onexpanding the eqn (2x-1)(x-k)(px+1)=0 I got, 2x2-2kx-px=0. I f alpha and beta are the roots of this eqn then > alpha+beta=-(2k-p) and alpha*beta=-1/2
actually I dont have any webcam
are you able to take a photo on your phone?
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.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-39 message
please do not close unless the doubt has been cleared
can you tell me if my approach for question is correct or not?
No that's wrong and I'll explain why.\
$(a+b)(c+d)(e+f)$.\
Whenever faced with such a situation, ignore $(e+f)$\
Expand $(a+b)(c+d)$\
= $(ac+ad+bc+bd)(e+f)$\
Now do the needful\
$ = e(ac+ad+bc+bd) + f(ac+ad+bc+bd)$
Annie Maqionde
ok...
did you understand?
yes
final eqn :- 2px3-2kpx2-px2+kpx+2x2-2kx-x+k=0
actually I am too late to sleep so I want to close this discussion
.close I will come here tommorow
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guyz what you are yapping about
wut is this
!redir
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I'm sort of confused
Does this mean Q(2+√3)?
Well, for $\mathbb{Q}(2+\sqrt{3})$, I believe $(1,\sqrt{3})$ serves as a spanning set, which is linearly indepndent as $a+b\sqrt{3}=0$ would require $\frac{-a}{b}=\sqrt{3}$ which isn't possible for rational (a,b) so the degree of the extensions is $2$?
oh come on
Wai
I don't know your background in extension theory, so I'll start with some light remarks
do you know what the degree of a number over Q mean?
and also, Q(2+sqrt(3)) is just Q(sqrt(3)) since 2 is in Q, but how does it relate to what you're trying to say?
I assumed the degree of a number here referred to Q(2+√3)
that is the smallest field extension of Q containing 2+√3
yes it's called an extension not a degree
the degree of a number over Q is the degree of its minimal polynomial in Q[X]
but you were still right about one of your points
as I said, Q(2+sqrt(3)) is just Q(sqrt(3))
and clearly, sqrt(3) is of degree 2
since x²-3 cancels it
so 2+sqrt(3) is of degree 2
right as the minimal poly is x^2-3
so in very rudimentary terms the degree of an element,t, over a field is the degree of the monic of the smallest degree such that t is a root of said poly
I'll read the theory from D&F rn, but just wanted to be clear
the degree of n over Q is the degree of its minimal polynomial, and it also happens it's its dimension as a vector space over Q
one example is that you said 1, sqrt(3) spans Q(sqrt(3)) = Q(2+sqrt(3))
it was also a way to conclude 2+sqrt(3) is of degree 2
-# oh r u indian
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can somene help here
I would assume that by touching the line g they mean that this line is tangent to the graph of f(x) at the point (1,0).
Although it's worded somewhat poorly.
That would mean that the slope of f(x) at x=1 is the same as the slope of g(x).
huh
but why like
it just says that it touches the line
it doesnt say anything about tangent tho
wait
yea this is rly rly weird
they have the points f(1) = 0, which i understnad
and f'(1) = 2
for some reason
Because otherwise this piece of information is redundant. Both f and g intersect the x-axis at x=1.
So obviously they would touch in the strict sense
oh also
''touching''
is also different than intersecting right
in this caes
This is why interpreting it as "being tangent" makes more sense.
yep ty makes sense now
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Hiii
I don’t understand this integration question
Like I integrated from y=5->7
But I’m not sure if I’m finding the whole area
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
Ok
I’ll try to show what I’m confused abt
Am I just finding this area when I integrate ?
Why do you integrate from 5 to 7
Bc y=5 here
And I don’t want the area under the curve to the left of the dot
Why do you integrate with y as a variable
Because the area is between the curve, x=14 and the y axis
What i would do is extend that line at x=2 to separate a square and another shaded area that we can calculate with the integral from 2 to 14 of 7-y dx
I get 51.875 as an answer when i do calculations according to the method i proposed
The answer is just 44/3
Ok
Oki nvm
I have another unrelated question
Im not sure about ib
It’s the second one but I thought it would be the fourth
@acoustic tangle Has your question been resolved?
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@acoustic tangle Has your question been resolved?
lemme take a look
ok
so
when the mean is equal to the median
the distribution will be perfectly symmetrical
the mean is greater than the median when there’s a right skew
for 2
remember that a geometric distribution represents the number of trials until the first success
and remember that binomdist is typically unimodal
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i haven't done functions in a sec can someone tell me if this is correct?
if f(x)=8/(x-2) +2 and the domain is (2, 4), then the range is (2, 6), no?
idk why the mark scheme says it's (6, infinity)...
,w 8/(x-2)+2=7, 2<x<4
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
sorry i don't have any working :<
i just have to find the range given the domain is (2, 4)
i thought y=2 is a horizontal asymptote cuz of the +2 translation so all f(x) within that domain should be greater than y=2
and at x=4, f(x)=6 so the range should be less than 6
cuz it's an increasing function
that was my reasoning
$$2<x<4 \implies 0<x-2<2 \implies \frac{1}{2}<\frac{1}{x-2}<\infty$$
For some intuition, notice that as you divide $1$ by increasingly small positive numbers, the result gets larger and larger (tending to $\infty$).
Civil Service Pigeon
,w graph 1/x
also all of that counts as working/prior reasoning, which you should include in your post when you first ask for help.
OH my bad
You're fine.
okay i just got it 💔

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how do i solve this, idk how to go step by step
Hi! Before anything, do you know what a "base three numeral" is?
i have a slight idea but can you remind me
Basically, you’re every number is based on powers of 3. And you’re only allowed to use the digits
0, 1, 2
i see
The classic number system that we use is called base-10 (decimal), because every number can be written in terms of powers of 10.
For example, 123 is the same as 1 * 100 + 2 * 10 + 3 * 1. Here, every number we multiply by has a base of 10.
