#help-39
1 messages · Page 311 of 1
im gonna make my previous whole denominator ^2
since itself is just Pr(a1) expanded by lotp
No you must square inside each conditional not after summing
but theres this
Your denominator is P(a1 cap a1) = P(K1 cap a1 cap a1) + P(complement(K1) cap a1 cap a1)
You already have the first term
if each result is independent what makes Pr{a1}^2 wrong?
They are only independent given the key
Both prints depend on the same chosen key, right?
Pr{ a1 cap a1 } never specifies they had to be correct/from k1 tho
Yes exactly, which is why you have to sum over both possibilities
Each print has the same probability, but the two prints are not independent overall since they both depend on the same key
is this the nature of a1 cap a1 or is this part of my situation where both did in fact come from k1
Due to your situation yes
It's just about both prints sharing the same key in this case
what makes you say this
Only independent once the key is fixed
reading the question again i didnt infer this
is there any way you can elaborate as of maybe how its dependent when the key is not fixed
'one impulse is chosen, then it is used twice' so both prints come from the same underlying key
by independence only when given a key, do you mean that, when not given a key, id know that first a1's p is not second a1's p (itd be 1-p and sth)
If the first output is a1 for example, it becomes more likely the key was k1. but the same key is used again, so the second output is now more likely to also be a1
Does that make more sense?
ig it does more now
so now i have Pr{ a1 cap a1 cap k1' }, itd be Pr{ a1 cap a1 | k1' }Pr{ k1' }, and the first on would be Pr{ a1 | k1' }^2?
why is reading comprehension in math so much more difficult now
Yes that looks right
Yeah in probability you really have to pay attention to small phrases in the problem
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I'm confused here
How is a_n≥0
if a_n < 0 say a_n = - epsilion with epsilon>0 then the series converges to something <= - epsilon
because every term in the series after that is <= -eps
you can clearly see an is tending towards zero so it's never gonna be exactly zero or smaller than zero
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@sharp smelt what book is that
likely "Understanding Analysis" by abbott
abbott
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I have a proof
one minute
To begin our hypothesis is
\
(i) $\abs{a_1}≥\abs{a_2} \dots \abs{a_n}$
\
(ii)$\left( \abs{a_n} \right) \to 0$
Just want tot be sure of this
Wai
you sure?
is that what your theorem states?
(i) is poorly written
and its also wrong as stated
it doesn’t even parse. what is n
it states this
why did you add the absolute values then?
I thought I had to here 😭
You don't have to, and you shouldnt. The hypotheses are written in the theorem, so you can just copy them down word for word
or rather symbol for symbol
i dont get why they didnt just say "an is decreasing"
okay, I think I messed up
oops
I'll continue late, it's near 1 am
sorry
.close
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Hey guys, I’m confused how is their x intercepts at -5, -1
Jm in adv func and how do I know which one intersects the asymptop
Something like this!
?
$$\frac{a}{b}=0 \implies a=0 \text{ and } b \neq 0.$$
Civil Service Pigeon
,w 2x^2+12x+10=0
(this is immediate from factoring)
you can check this yourself on desmos
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Find all integers $a,b$ and prime $p$ such that $a^p + b^p = p$
Copter
What ideas you have?
i have that if a,b neq 0 mod p then (a,b) = 1
and by fermat a= -b mod p but other than plugging that in i have no idea
We know that: $a^p \equiv a \pmod{p}$ y $b^p \equiv b \pmod{p}$, right?
Ga³¹Br³⁵I⁵³9000✞
yes
Maybe first look for bounds for a and b
Then $a+b$ it's multiple of $p$, right?
Ga³¹Br³⁵I⁵³9000✞
yes, thats what i did
well a and b can be negative tho
if p = 2 we have solutions so we can consider odd p
The difference in general will still be bigger than p
And since $a^p + b^p = (a+b)(\frac{a^p+b^p}{a+b}) = p$, doesn't that mean that $a+b$ can only be $1, -1, p$ or $-p$?
Ga³¹Br³⁵I⁵³9000✞
Yeah!
So if $a+b = p$, the other factor $\frac{a^p+b^p}{a+b}$ has to be equal to 1, and if $a+b = -p$, it has to be -1. Do you see any solution for $p > $2 that meets that?
Ga³¹Br³⁵I⁵³9000✞
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State your question and what have you tried?
<@&268886789983436800> troll, also left server
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Help rq
with which one and for what?
Question 3, I don’t wanna read just please tell me what I’m supposed to do🙏
idw read is kinda a bad idea when asking for help in a text-based platform, fyi
Dw I read better when it’s on the digital screen instead of a textbook
🙏
What you're supposed to do is interchanging x and y in vertex form and solving for y.
i.e. what is written
Alr
huh
Wait
The 2 on the y^2 got to go somewhere
Correct?
Yes, 2 under the root.
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Bru how do I answer 4 a
2(2^2) is not equal to 2 +4,
bracket means multipliccation,
2 is multiplied with 2(2^2)
also if you do not reopen the channel it will be recycled
This?
Where did bro go
@buoyant cypress
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Br
mistake in this step
do you know BODMAS or PEDMAS
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2 things
- did i do the log part right?
- how do i find range of the thing inside log
also can i just keep this channel open so i dont spam make new channels
that would make it harder for people to help you
ok ill just make new channels
which step is the "log part" all 4 of them have log
hope no one minds
the last step
and the thing i made with the arrow to explain
yeah i didnt really didnt do whole thing
just to explain the step which is joined by the arrow
the base for last equals to is 5
are you just asking if $\sqrt{5} = 5^\tfrac{1}{2}$?
pi_day
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
im not sure if the base's power come in denominator or numinator
im wondering about that part
(also to step back a little bit, are you implying that sin(x) - cos(x) is between -1 and 1?)
yes?
oh wait shoot
its root2
man maybe i should take a break im messing up simple stuff
then the 2nd part of what i asked is just dumb now
anyways about the log part
does base power come in deno or numerator
bit 
How do you mean "base power"? as in where does the 1/2 go?
would it become 1/3 log10 base5
yeah thats what i mean
english is 2nd lang so not really the best
Pretty much, if you use the change of base rule, you can write $\log_{b^k}(c)$ as $\frac{\log_b(c)}{\log_b(b^k)} = \frac 1k \log_b(c)$
@merry carbon
thanks alot
i just hv last question left in set
which i dont know how to appraoch
Sure, which question? 
range of x^3 -12x for x belongs [-3,1]
i belive if i take x common it would creat a quadratic
however i dont know if i would get min value like that
caus min is at x=-3
wait no its "-12x"
so idk
Hmmmm, what have you learned up to this point? Have you e.g. covered calculus yet? 
we havnt done calc yet
Fairs 
wehv done quadratic graphs and the basic funtions
and the GM>AM stuff but i dont think thats usefull here
well we have done it in phy
differentiate then =0
then differentiate again to see if it a maxima or minima
is that what im supposed to do here?
You could do it that way, and that was the way I was wondering whether they expected you to do it that way, but it can be done without it 
can u explain the way to do it without calc?
also i just tried the differentian way however the minima comes at x=2
which is outside of our range of x
so do i just put in the end points of our range of x and see which value is min?
I may need to leave an explanation for someone else tbh
I can't remember how to do it off the top of my head, so I'd need to do some digging 
no worries ill just ask my teach when we have our next class
And cause we have the minima being "after" x = 1, if we made a roughish sketch, we have that the minimum is gonna be what we get when we plug in x = 1 into the cubic
(it's not too hard to find the roots of the cubic, hence why we can figure out that will be the minimum
)
hmm
well we havnt really studied the cubic graph so i though that if i put end points of range it would give max or min
im not quite sure if this is correct but i belive the cubic graph is somewhat similar to the quadratic graph
bro had to cross his explination 🥀
nvm he uncrossed
Ah no I crossed it out cause I forgot we found the turning points with calculus, I was gonna say "that assumes the turning points" 
oh lol
The explanation is fine, I've only slightly embarrassed myself there 
nw bro
if u saw the shi i was asking u wouldnt feel bad 
Anyways, depends on how you mean by "similar", odd degree polynomials will either go "up" or "down" (e.g. from bottom left to top right, or top left to bottom right)
yeah thats what i was saying similar
the max and min of the interval would either be at end points or the turning points
Yep, that's pretty much always the case 
I'm gonna cheat a little bit and get a graph for us
,w plot y = x^3 - 12x
min in our interval is at x=1
letzzzz gooo
im finly done wit this assigment
Do we have to get the max as well? 
max is at x=2
from calc method
um the funtion becomes 16
final range becomes [-11,16]
Yep, -3 is between the left hand root and the max so we're happy 
well ima go sleep now
its like 1am where i live
Hope you sleep well
you definitely should get some rest, it's quite late
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thanks a lot
Have a good one, rest well 
Zzz
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Wanted a quick proof of this checked
As $\sum a_n$ converges absolutely, $(\abs{a_n})$ is bounded, by say $M$. Then $\sum a_n^2 = \sum \abs{a_n} \abs {a_n} ≤ M \sum \abs{a_n}$. As $\sum \abs{a_n}$ converges, by the series comparison test we're done.
do you mean absolutely
Wai
@sharp smelt Has your question been resolved?
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Have you tried anything?
I genuinely can't tell what your answer is here
If it's 2^2025-1 then I'm gonna ask you to read the definition of period again
mb
$(2^{2025} - 1) - ( \sum_{d|2025} 2^d - 1)$
Sigma, not sigma
\sum
parthisjoking
But yea you have the right idea then
Find everything of "period" 2025, and remove elements that have period dividing 2025
is this correct answer ?
do i leave it like this or do i actually calculate everything ?
I don't believe this is correct though, since you'd have to do some inclusion exclusion
Cuz like, smth with period 405 would include periods 81 and 5 and what not
So you can't just naively subtract all factors
Unfortunately not a number theory person myself
Hopefully someone else can help you with that
I'd personally do this by some dynamic programming argument but that's quite computationally heavy
oh
@shadow elm Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> 💔
what is mobius inversion
God damn i just scrolled past your channel
try to count many secrets as possible
something
💀
A mathematical operation
No this was arguably the hardest from previous year alonside 2^a*3^b problem
@shadow elm Has your question been resolved?
Please do not trust ChatGPT or similar AI tools for mathematical tasks, as they often generate output which "sounds correct" but has numerous factual or logical errors. Use of these AI tools to answer other people's help questions is strictly against server rules (see #rules).
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whats 20+1
Do you have an actual question?
21?
thx
Ur wlcm ig?
Please . close if that was all
Just type in . close
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Pom
yes but it is bad style to write in this way
Pom
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✅ Original question: #help-39 message
Were you given a statement in that format
because nobody writes like that
Are you in like an intro to proofs class that specifically tests if you can parse logic symbols
because otherwise that is a pretty atrocious way to write mathematics and there's no excuse for it

I guess that makes sense
carry on
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✅ Original question: #help-39 message
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Renato
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
@stoic imp Has your question been resolved?
can I get some help proving these using this axioms?
Cute, lemme just look up the field axioms once cuz I keep forgetting which ones are axioms and which ones are theorems
,w field axioms
Okay so for the first one, you wanna prove a ⋅ 0 = 0
The first step would be to rewrite the 0 on the LHS to something more useful
Also I'd highly recommend the natural numbers game for this sorta stuff. It's a very good way to learn how to prove stuff starting from axioms
@stoic imp Has your question been resolved?
i need to use the axioms that i attached above
Isn't the stuff in the image what you need to prove
Oh right that mb
Hold on
Okay so the axioms in this are:
Commutativity of addition and multiplication
Associativity
Existence of additive identity and additive inverse
Existence of multiplicative identity and inverse (except for 0)
Distributivity
Cool same stuff as what wa said
Anyway, let's write the 0 as b + (-b) and see what we get from that
Yup that would work as well
Minor nitpick cuz this is foundational stuff, you wanna write + (- a.0) instead
Cuz you haven't defined subtraction
But yes that proof is correct
a.0 = a.(0+0) = a.0 + a.0
a.0 = a.0 + a.0
a.0 + (-a.0) = a.0 + (a.0 + (-a.0))
0 = a.0 + 0
a.0 = 0
Yup
which axioms are i am using
Firstly you're using the axiom of additive identity to write 0 as 0+0
s3?
And then D
And then you're using some properties of equations which aren't really field axioms
Stuff like "you can add the same thing to both sides of an equation and that doesn't change it"
where
Writing a. (0+0) as a.0+a.0
oh. distributivity
Ye
which axioms we used
S3
a.0 = a.(0+0)
D
a.0 = a.0 + a.0
S4
a.0 + (-a.0) = (a.0 + a.0) + (-a.0)
S1
0 = a.0 + (a.0 + (-a.0))
S4
0 = a.0 + 0
S3
0 = a.0
P2
0 = 0.a
Yup.
Also you'd need P2 since the question asks for 0.a
And we have worked with a.0
we good?
Yup
now what
The second question I imagine?
ab = ac
P4
b = c
Basically yeah
Ye
ab = 0
Suppose a ≠ 0
P4
b = 0.a^-1
??
You've also used P2 implicitly
But yes that works
A full proof of what you've done would be
ab = 0
Suppose a ≠ 0. By P4, there exists a^-1
a^-1.(ab) = a^-1.0
By P3,
(a^-1.a)b = a^-1.0
By P2 and P4,
1.b = 0.a^-1
By P3 and (a),
b = 0
It is easy to forget just how much is done implicitly most of the time
i shee
ab = ac
By P4, there exists a^-1
a^-1(ab) = a^-1(ac)
by p1
(a^-1a)b = (a^-1a)c
by p4
1.b = 1.c
by p3
b = c
what if a = 0
Well, yes what we have done is one half of it
We have shown that if a ≠ 0 then b = 0
If a = 0, then we already have a = 0
(we need a = 0 or b = 0)
(a = 0 already gives us that)
Yup
whats your point
We have two cases for this
Case 1, a = 0. In this case we already have what we want
Case 2, a ≠ 0. In this case, we showed that b = 0
So we have what we want in both cases
what if both a=b=0
That's fine too, it's not an exclusive or
you said two cases
Yes, a = 0 and b = 0 is a subcase of the firdt
The point is, once a = 0, we don't care about the value of b
Cuz we already have one part of the or
So we are done
The idea is that p or q is logically equivalent to "if not p, then q"
We don't care what happens if we have p
All we care about is having q if we don't have p
tautology?
F -> ?
Okay let me put this explicitly
We want to prove a = 0 or b = 0
Case 1: a = 0
In this case, we do not care what the value of b is
Because no matter what the value of b is, we already have a = 0 and therefore the or is already true
Case 2: a ≠ 0
In this case, we have proven that b = 0
Since b = 0 in this case, our or is true once again
These are the only possible cases because a is either zero or non zero
It cannot be anything else
We don't need to do anything if we assume a = 0
Assuming it makes the result we want true immediately
(-1).a = (-ac)
-ac + ac = 0
-ac + ac + a = a
Make it explicit
fuck my life
(-1).a = a.(-1)
a.(-1) + a.(1) = a(-1+1) = a.0 = 0
a - a = 0
a.(-1) + a.(1) = 0 = a - a
This works if S4 mentions uniqueness
we can prove the inverse is uniK
suppose it isnt, then we
suppose x and y are both inverse additive of z
such that x ≠ y
then
That we can yeah, just makes your life easier if the axioms mention uniqueness
Cool, then attach this as a lemma
x + z = y + z
x = y
the proof of uniqueness in a commutative field (I meant more that the group is commutative) is really short so you're ok
x+z = 0 if x is inverse, if y is another you can add y on both sides
x+(z+y) = y
x+0 = y
Commutative fields are really nice once you're done proving all this obvious bullshit
Unfortunately proving this obvious bullshit is extremely annoying
sorry
Why are you sorry not like you came up with the bullshit
If anything you're a victim
Yeah e is really really annoying, but you can use d to help somewhat
jejejehe
(-1).a = a.(-1)
a.(-1) + a.(1) = a(-1+1) = a.0 = 0
does this shit work or no
a - a = 0
a- a = a.(-1) + a.(1)
(a - a.(1)) -a = a.(-1)
Looks good to me but I'm also sleepy lol
fuck my life
@stoic imp Has your question been resolved?
what's your progress on that
well
here
@rough forge
the first line doesnt work, that's what you want to show
but the seocnd line is correct, because you apply P3
by adding both sides the additive inverse of -a
the first line doesnt work, that's what you want to show
care to elaborate?
You want to prove (-1)a=-a
but by writing -a as (-1)a you already assume that's true
(-1)a=-a is an assertion
The only things you know is P3: a=1a, D: distributivity and S4: that a has an additive inverse
I never did that
(-1).a = a.(-1)
must have been the wind
but i am just doing xy = yx
oh okay
srry, my clipboard is dirty I pasted something else hehe

I am trying to figure out which stuff I did one sec

uff sorry I went to a yogurt eating break for a bit
P2
(-1).a = a.(-1)
S4 and D
a.(-1) + a.(1) = a(-1+1)
no axioms
a(-1+1) = a.0
used exercise a)
a.0= 0
S4
a - a = 0
S3
a- a = a.(-1) + a.(1)
P3 ??
(a - a.(1)) -a = a.(-1)
@errant cedar @rough forge
you basically want to prove that (-1)a is an additive inverse of a which means a+(-1)a=0 which you showed since a(-1+1)=a0=0 so this is where you finish
alrighty!!
can I get more help with e)
what's e)
this ^
used the proof from d)
(-a) . b = ((-1).a) . b
P1
((-1).a) . b = (-1).(ab)
P2
(-1).(ab) = (-1).(ba)
P1
(-1).(ba) = ((-1).b).a
used the proof from b)
((-1).b).a = (-b).a
P2
(-b).a = a.(-b)
pretty sure you can derive e) without using commutativity
care to elaborate?
consider (a-a)=0 for all a in the ring
then use a)
spoiler, try a bit before unspoilering: || start from using 0b= 0 and a0=0||

i am trying
what i dont understand is how to avoid using p2
this lad is saying we can avoid commutativity, correct?
a hint if you havent unspoilered yet: prove that a(-b)= -(ab) and (-a)b= -ab instead
Mmm
i dont get it
wtff is going on
do you see the motivation of the hint?
nop
is this true?
its, i have done it on a call
call?
is this proof-baiting
can I join
sure
i was wondering because i dont see how
im in vc
yes but in your situation it's only instant gratification, you dont gain anything, you think you do, but when the paper is blank, your mind is blank
uff I already forgot
let me try
(-a).b + ab = (-a + a).b = 0.b = 0
(-a).b + ab = 0
(-a).b -ab + ab = -ab
(-a).b + (ab - ab) = -ab
(-a).b + 0 = -ab
(-a).b = -ab
do you remember the motivation of this?
partially correct but not the actual intention
what is the real motivation
to use transitivity?
oh maybe that
how do you know if this is true?
if everything is equal to each other
I pressume
like, pairwise
if everything is pairwise equal to each other
?

idk
you are missing implication signs
is it both ways or one way implication
should be iffs

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I’m stuck on what to do next
keep going
There are two -cos^2x
what if you multiplied the first one on the right by (1+cosx)
You can try simplify numerator
both sides
The first one has a 1- but the second one doesn’t
by (1+cosx)/(1+cosx)
I’m confused
sinx/(1-cosx), multiplying it by (1+cosx)/(1+cosx)
This is how my teacher did it and I’m very confused
how did you randomly get 1-2cosx-cos^2x
I'm seeing it now
I factored it by putting it in the box
-cosx * -cosx = +cos^2x, u also had that one
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guyes
in one is free for a call i need help
Just ask your question here
Asking the actual question right away is more likely to get responses.
Asking "Can I ask...?" or "Does anyone know about...?" doesn't give people enough information to decide whether they can help, and answering can feel like a promise to help with the actual question, which they might find themselves unable to.
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
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3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
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5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
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7. None of the above
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explain inverse functions
liek I wanyt you to start from the very basics
my teacher yapped abt random stuff but I got so confused by all of it
it does not make sense
inverse function is instead y interm of x is now x interm of y
y=3x? then x = y/3
it's when you flip the graph
I know hwo to do the proecdure
I just do not understand why that works
or why we solve to make y the subject after
wdym why that works
I also understand this
like WHY does changing the variables (x and y) GIVE the inverse
reverse the role of input and output
if f turns x's into y's, then the inverse turns y's into x's
if input x gives output y, if you change, then the role also change
ok but then why do we solve for y in that one after
then tell me why you solve for x in normal functions
its the same but just inverse, thats it
cuz thats what ur looling fo
then we looking for y in the inverse
ok but like if there is a restriction in an inverse but u rearrange it for the y
then u might lose a resitrction
example?
You are mirroring the function values across the y=x line
so in a sense it's a transformation
y=2/x+3
change the x and y
x=2/y+3
yx=2+3y
yx-3y=2
y(x-3)=2
y=2/(x-3)
we have now lost the original restriction of y cannot equal -3
@sterile python I just don't understand the logic
why
blud
wassup
try to solve 3=2/x+3
you get 2/x=0 which is a contradiction
you will never attain y=3
you never lost something cause there was never something to begin with
You don't have to swap the variables. Suppose you have a function y=f(x), and f is invertible. You can just write x = f^-1 (y). In other words just solve for x in the original equation.
how can we find the inverse from just the original function
ok sorry I think I just am not getting it
are theer any videos you reccomend I watch?
but I was referring to y=-3
as mention ^ swapping y with x in other words y=x is only mirroring your original function along the first y=x line
Try to pinpoint your question. It seems you are just getting caught up in notation. x and y are ultimately just symbols. in the notation y = f(x), x is the input of the function and y is the output. When we write x = f^-1 (y), we are saying y is the input of f^-1 and x is the output.
why can't it be -3?
loook at my word abnove
^^
i looked and it doesnt make sense
I think I am overcompiating this
why not
I want to work thru this step by step sorry im just very confused rn
like from the beginning
so f(x)=y
let y=-3 then -3=2/x+3 => -6=2/x => x=-1/3 so f maps -1/3 to -3 and the invese -3 to -1/3
inverse of f(x) = x
It does seem you are overthinking a bit -- do you know how to draw a function-as-a-machine diagram?
yea
let's call our function f, you can put x's in it and it turns them into y's
yes
okay, so if f is invertible
like f(x)=2x^2+6x+2 or whatevr
it must pass the horizontal line test
then there is another function f^-1, that takes in those same y's that came out of f, and turns them back into x's
because if it does not, that means there are multiple x's for the same y
which altho is a function,
it means if u invert it, the function will not know which x to take
yes
Is any part of what i have said not clear atp
what wud happen if u took the inverse of smth where it does not pass horizontal line test?
nope! everything makes sense so far!
you can't, because in that case the inverse does not exist
We say that a function f is invertible if it (1) is one-to-one (i.e. passes the horizontal line test) and (2) is "onto"
It seems that at your level of understanding you do not need to worry about "onto"-ness
ok
so if your function is not 1-1, then the question "what is the inverse?" makes no sense
does that help?
yes
yes
what else you got
but more specifically now I want to dig into why flipping the x and y does work for finding the inverse
sorry mb I mistyped
okay so this is just notation, again you do not have to do it
we typically do it because we are interested in plotting f and its inverse on the same set of axes
ok
wait I just realixed if u flip a horizontal line over the line y=x then you get a vertical line
does that have anything to do with inverse functions not working if it does not pas s horizontal line test?
again, there is no "inverse function" if the function in question does not pass the horizontal line test, so there is nothing to either work or not work
yes, but realize vertical lines do not pass the vertical line test and so are not functions, so this is irrelevant to the discussion of inverse functions
or functions in general
I meant like
the fact that the above is true
is another reason the horizontal line test works right
the "solve for y" part when finding the inverse is attempted in order to basically check whether the "inverse" is a function. If you can solve it for y then the inverse is a function. If you cannot, it is not.
what do you mean reason the horizontal line test works?
what do you mean "works"?
the reason the horizontal line test proves an inverse function exists
the horizontal line test is a graphical characterization of the definition of injectivity (1-1)
Okay so tell me what a function is, precisely
we need to check that your understanding is correct
every input gives one output
one output and exactly one
Very well
correct. now a definition: we say a function is 1-1 if whenever f(x)=f(y), we have x=y.
graphically, a function is 1-1 if it passes the horizontal line test.
(1-1 is read "one-to-one")
a function needs to be 1-1 in order to be invertible, because if it is not, then the "inverse" could take in single numbers and output more than one thing, and thus won't be a function
make sense?
ok
yea
okay good, feel better now?
hm
I am still confused why after flipping the variabales
u need to solve for y = something
like for the inverse ^^
I thought of it more like one to one means every y only corresponds to one x
how does this work
Because we usually write our functions with x as the input variable and y as the output variable
I think all the variable changes is what ocnfuses me
you don't "need" to necessarily. but your ability to do it gives you information about whether or not the function is invertible. Again, the notation y = f(x) means y is a function of x. We don't typically plot x = g(y) graphs on the same set of axes and call g a "function". More precisely, f is a function of x, and g is a function of y, but may not be a function of x
ok
if we have f(x) = x + 3, we know the inverse of "adding 3" is "subtracting 3". Hence f^-1(x) = x-3
For example, f(x) = x - 6
If we write y = x - 6 and, given a value of y we want to know the x that generated it, we isolate x
=> x = y + 6
So f^-1(y) = y + 6
But it isn't common to use y as independent variable, hence we change it to x and write:
f^-1(x) = x + 6
ok
You are bogging yourself down in the roles that the symbols are playing. It does not matter that much. Like @verbal whale said, we typically use x as the independent variable, and y as the dependent variable, so writing f^-1(y) = x is a bit awkward
for sure, good luck
@wicked kayak @verbal whale !
I have an exam on monday
take some time to digest. draw some pictures.
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Pinter, Abstract Algebra, Chapter 29, Ex. A7
Clearly, $\pi$ is algebraic over $\mathbb{Q}(\pi^3)$. Now, as I understand it, we need to prove that no polynomial of degree less than $3$ in $\mathbb{Q}(\pi^3)[x]$ has $\pi$ as a root.
If so, I proceeded as follows, although there might be a simpler way. Let us prove that $\pi \notin \mathbb{Q}(\pi^3)$. By a previously proven theorem, $\mathbb{Q}(\pi^3)$ consists of rational expressions of the form
[
\frac{a_n (\pi^3)^n + \cdots + a_0}{b_m (\pi^3)^m + \cdots + b_0}
]
(with nonzero denominator). Suppose $\pi \in \mathbb{Q}(\pi^3)$. Then
[
\pi = \frac{a_n (\pi^3)^n + \cdots + a_0}{b_m (\pi^3)^m + \cdots + b_0}.
]
Hence,
[
a_n (\pi^3)^n + \cdots + a_0 - b_m \pi^{3m+1} - \cdots - b_0 \pi = 0.
]
Since the powers of $\pi$ in the first part do not coincide with those in the second part, the expression can equal zero only if all coefficients are zero, which contradicts the assumption. Therefore, $\pi \notin \mathbb{Q}(\pi^3)$.
Thus, $\pi$ cannot be a root of a linear polynomial in $\mathbb{Q}(\pi^3)[x]$. Suppose $\pi$ is a root of a quadratic polynomial $x^2 + bx + c \in \mathbb{Q}(\pi^3)[x]$. Then it is divisible by $x - \pi$ in $\mathbb{Q}(\pi^3)[x]$, which again is impossible. Therefore, the minimal polynomial of $\pi$ is $x^3 - \pi^3$.
Dedekind
Check, please, if the proof is correct. Or maybe there is a simpler way to do it?
@prime stream Has your question been resolved?
Looks correct, maybe you should say something like x-pi dividing x^2+bx+c is not possible due to the same reason as before, instead of just saying that's it's not possible (although maybe you meant that, some may take it wrongly)
As for an easier method, just showing that x^3-pi^3 is irreducible in Q(pi^3)[x] is enough (think of eisensteins criteria + gauss lemma)
Thank you! But isn't the eisensteins criteria applied only in Q[x]?
ah, I see, didn't know about it. But as I understand, we still need to prove that pi is not in Q(pi^3) in order to use it?
take D=Q[pi^3].
(pi^3) Is a prime ideal be ause quotient by it is Q which is an integral domain
Then the above theorem (Eisenstein) says x^3-pi^3 is irreducible in Q[pi^3][x]
And Gauss lemma says that the irreducibility carries over to Q(pi^3)[x]
think I understood, thank you very much!
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Task: Given a poset $(X,\leq)$, prove that
$$A \preceq B : \Leftrightarrow \inf(A) \leq \inf(B)$$
never defines a partial order on the power set of $X$.
Hint: Do the cases of $X = \varnothing$ and $X \neq \varnothing$ seperately.
My question: If $X = \varnothing$ I'd just start checking the properties of a partial order one by one. But like... What is $\inf(\varnothing)$?
Ruby
.close
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What set are you working in
I noticed that since X is the empty set, the infimum can't even exist
$\inf{\varnothing} = \sup{X}$ usually
Xavier 🌺
Because it would have to be an element of X
.reopen so it doesn't close on us
✅ Original question: #help-39 message
So it's obviously no partial order, since it isn't even a well defined relation
I'm working on the other part now
(X nonempty)
Ah fair
Thank you :)
Ok, got the other direction too:
We know, that $\abs{X} < \abs{P(X)}$ (Cantor type shi), so $inf: P(X) \to X$ (just assume that all infima exist, cus otherwise it's not well defined) cannot be injective, so there are $X, Y \in P(X)$ s.t. $X \neq Y$, but $\inf(X) = \inf(Y)$, so $X \preceq Y \preceq X$, which shows that this is never antisymmetric.
Ruby
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Wtf is this
I thought maths was just 2+2
What is "2"? Have you previously defined this symbol? (I'm in uni. We don't really do numbers...)
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Stfu. I can't even do factorization. And how tf u do maths in uni. I once saw it and I almost died
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It's... An aquired taste, ig
Valid crashout😂
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Just like the 1st image end behavior (marked green), for the 2nd image, can I say that the end behavior is as follows:
3rd image
would this be correct?
i don't see why not
@arctic hatch Has your question been resolved?
for f(x) = $\frac{3x^5 - x^2}{x^3 + 3}$ \
$x \to \pm \infty, f(x) \approx 3x^2$\
$\lim_{x \to \pm \infty}, f(x) \to \infty$
professor paradox
if we look at the graph, as x is approaching -ve infinity, f(x) is approaching 3x^2 right? so can I not say that?
it would be appropriate to say acts like 3x^2 or is similar to 3x^2 the higher x-values we have, it also goes both ways(- and +)
but yeah approaching is also the right wording I would suppose
you can say that
so this is correct?
mhm.. i dont feel its incorrect it like saying f(x) is asymptotic to 3x^2 as x-> +- infinity
it goes both ways, it does approach 3x^2 both ways
but for +ve infinity, the curve is outside 3x^2 then how is it approaching, it just acts like 3x^2
I want to say it this way bcz in the 1st image, they said it like this
it is not exactly 3x^2, as x approaches infinity it will act closer and closer to it but it is NEVER exactly 3x^2, it doesn't matter if it's inside or outside, that's just cuz I think (3x^2-1/x)/(1+3/x^3) gets higher if x is negative whereas it gets lower if x is positive
if it's outside, how is it going towards 3x^2
it's not, so we can't say that, can we?
bc the distance shortens
think of what happens with -1/x as you go to negative infinity or something, it becomes increasingly positive, what about the bottom part, 3/x^3 becomes decreasingly negative so it tends to be higher than the graph of 3x^2(or in this case "inside")
now what if x approaches positive infinity, the values of -1/x decreases 3x^2 or rather gets more subtracted to it or smth while the value of 3/x^3 keeps being positive so it would be smaller than 3x^2, thus outside as you are referring to,
however, as we keep going along, the deficit gets shorter and shorter, it gets trimmed as we're going along until there isn't any
wait
I'm not done typing
I prolly didn't make sense here but the behavior at the start of the graph doesn't always define the behavior of a graph at infinity
yh I don't get it
-1/x if x is negative is positive, so the numerator increases
+3/x^3 if x is negative is negative, so the denominator decreases, as the denominator decreases and the numerator increases, it would be greater than JUST 3x^2, thus appearing to be "inside" 3x^2
-1/x if x is positive is negative, so the numerator decreases
+3/x^3 if x is positive, is positive, so the denominator increaseS
as the numerator decreases and the denominator increases, it would be lower than JUST 3x^2, thus appearing to be "outside" 3x^2
vice versa also applies here where 3x^2 would be inside of f(x) and the other one or smth
however these values LOWER to almost 0 as they approach infinity thus being negligible
even if its it outside youcan still say that it is moving closer the parabola
so if it were an asymptote we would've said that the curve is approaching 3x^2 (just like the 1st image), but since it's not , we are saying that it approaches +- infinity instead.... right?
In analytic geometry, an asymptote ( ) of a curve is a straight line such that the distance between the curve and the line approaches zero as one or both of the x or y coordinates tends to infinity. In projective geometry and related contexts, an asymptote of a curve is a line which is tangent to the curve at a point at infinity.
The word "asymp...
but there is no H.A or S.A in this problem
asymptote has a few different meanings, the high school one is super generalized to just a line or something
well not a few different meanings
so it's an asymptote? 3x^2 ?
yea ig
not a linear asymptote
altho i do not much about the terminology we might need to consider the definition of asymptote
so can I say that as x approaches both +ve and -ve infinity, f(x) approaches 3x^2?
prolly
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hey i need some help with f(x) = ((1-5a)/(a+1))^x, i have to find the values of a so that f is defined in all R. I know a+1 must not be 0 but is there another condition that is neccesary?
you don't want the base to be negative
first note that what ur exponentiating is a constant
wrt x
let b = (1-5a)/(a+1)
if b < 0 then f(1/2) = sqrt(b) which it not defined
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need help in linear algebra, 2 questions:
-
If matrix A is an nxn matrix and Ax=b has more than 1 solution for some b, then the transformation x->Ax is not 1-to-1. What else can you say about this transformation?
-
Suppose A is an nxn matrix with the property that the equation Ax=b has at least one solution for each b in R^n. Without using Theorems 5 or 8, explain why each equation Ax=b has exactly one solution.
Theorem 5 & 8 will be provided with photos.
I'm confused by question 1 because Theorem 8 says an invertible matrix must have "at least one solution" (g) and the transformation x->Ax is 1-to-1 (f). In the question, though, it says Ax=b has more than 1 solution for some b, and that the transformation is NOT 1-to-1. I understand that an invertible matrix can only have one solution (linearly independent), but I'm confused by the "at least". It's worded strangely. If that's the case, then I guess it makes sense why it wouldn't apply here. I'm not sure what else I could say about it. That it's not invertible? Singular matrix?
yes not invertible
thats about it
the reason th 8 states it like that is that its often convenient to have slightly weaker sounding statements that you can prove
And I'm not sure how to answer question 2 without using the 2 theorems. I could apply logical reasoning and just say "if it has more than 1 solution it will have infinitely many solutions which means there would be infinitely many inverses"
but I'm not sure if I'm expected to answer more in a more in depth manner
if th 8 had both the statements "Ax=b has at least one solution for all b" and "Ax=b has exactly one solution for each b" then the first obviously seems easier to prove in some cases
and the second seems stronger as a tool to apply
I dont know what other things you have covered in your course that they expect you to say
rank nullity maybe?
furthest we've gotten is theorem 8 and invertible linear transformations
idk that
no
hmm
what do u think of this reasoning
well the conclusion would be that it has no inverse, not infinitely many. but even then, so what
the matrix wasnt stated to be invertible
so it doesnt get you closer to your goal
let me see if the instructions contain any information i may have excluded
what are theorems 1,2,3,4,6,7?
Nope
Suppose A is an n x n matrix with the property that the
equation Ax = b has at least one solution for each b in JE. 11 •
Without using Theorems 5 or 8, explain why each equation
Ax = b has in fact exactly one solution.
One sec
oops i forgot i can do photos
one sec
FUdge
@tropic saddle
why
what does "there exists at least one solution" mean for solving linear systems by gauss/row reduction
it is invertible
without th8
it will at least equal 0
what will equal 0
the matrix
that makes no sense
im confused then
you have solved linear systems by row reduction, yes?
yeah
at which point can you see that there is at least one solution
when Ax=0
whats the difference
that the thing on the right can have nonzero entries
