#help-39
1 messages · Page 287 of 1
P(A)=1/n
what does this mean tho?
that was what I'm confused about. A* doesn't look like the power set and we're talking probability, so I thought P(A) is some probability, assuming A here somehow means some element in A
yea, its a nightmare for the notation
A* is sometimes a notation for set complement, P(A) is most commonly used as powerset and if you want to say probability, it would be much preferred to explicitly state what you want
baktep
still not watep 🥀

Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
I solved it
A number greater than 0 cannot be rolled.
Because if for example I toss a coin it is impossible that nothing comes out
Thanks anyway
!done
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math god saves the day
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$P(A|B)=\frac{n_{A\cap B}}{n_B}$
Goofy Joe
Why is it done this way?
what's $A \mid B$ here?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
describe that in words for me
A knowing that it happened the event B
So the probability that A happens knowing that event B has happened
yeah so if we restrict ourselves to the events where B happened, it's the probability that A also happened, right?
Yes
remembering that the probability of something is (number of successes) / (total events under consideration)
Yes
number of successes would be times when A happened and B happened
total events under consideration would be number of times when B happened
Yes
so.... n(A & B) and n(B) as in the equation
$P(A|B)=\frac{|A|B|}{|B|}$
Goofy Joe
its $P(A|B)=\frac{P(A\cap B)}{P(B)}$
scoob
the one that you wrote? |A|B| isn't a symbol that makes sense as far as I'm aware
Goofy Joe
Goofy Joe
Because P(A) would be favorable cases over possible cases
what does "A|B = C" even mean
Substitution
A|B isn't a thing on its own
it only makes sense in P( A | B ) "the probability of A given B"
to support these are venn :
this the chance B occurs given that A has occured, reducing your sample space to A
P(A) = |A|/|OMEGA| , S = A|B => P(S) = |S|/|OMEGA| ?
i just flipped A and B
"S = A|B" makes no sense, i do not know what you are trying to say
I call S the set that has the elements A|B
No
you mean event C such that P(C) = P(A|B)
ok....
if A is "i wear a raincoat"
and B is "it's raining outside"
then what is A | B?
It is the set that has the elements that respect it
okay better idea - can you colour in A | B on this please
Where are the elements?
each pixel is an element
like.... the circle that's labeled A? everything in that circle is an element of A
so this is what you're calling "A | B"?
that is indeed the intersection, written A n B
Why isn't it A|B?
-# well for one thing that's not a set like i've been telling you
What's wrong?
A|B is not a set
A|B is not a set of symbols that make sense on their own
A|B as a phrase only makes sense within P(A | B)
what i have highlighted is A ∩ B, the set of events where A is true and B is true
So the formula with the substitution doesn't make sense?
-# its sometimes divisibility
this one does not make sense, as it uses |A|B| which is not a symbol that makes sense
So C cannot be equal to A|B, since C is a set and A|B is not?
however, it is true that $P(A | B) = \frac{ |A \cap B| }{ |B| }$
hayliänus austrǎlis
that's correct
So how do I know if a replacement is possible or not?
where did C even come from? did you make it up?
Yes
you can relabel things, but $P(\rsq | \bsq)$ should really be thought of as something that takes two sets and computes a number
hayliänus austrǎlis
rather than soemthing that takes an object that looks like A|B
Goofy Joe
Like $f(g(x))=f'(g(x))g'(x)$
Goofy Joe
no, those have nothing at all to do with each other
$P(A\cap B)=P'(A\cap B)(A\cap B)'$
Goofy Joe
where is bro cookin this from
...what?
I don't understand what it means that it's the chain rule
it's... not though
did someone tell you to use the chain rule in the context of probability? or did you make that up?
why is there a chain rule in probability anyway
is it 2 am thought
On Google it comes up
what did you search?
Chain rule probability
why did you search for that anyway?
I don't see anywhere in this convo where a chain rule is mentioned
It connects to the formula above
Exactly!
.... and what you wrote down was not even close to that???
yea this is the calculus chain rule and is definitely not applicable here
I thought it could be done
let's not mix things up
But why is it called the chain rule?
I have no idea honestly. this formula, to me, has always been the conditional probability formula, rearranged or not
you are "chaining" the conditions
it makes more sense with multiple events
I stand very much corrected. TIL and thanks
Consider this: 50% of people you know go to your school. 60% of people you know also like burritos. What is the probability that a given person you know likes burritos if they already go to your school?
"Going to your school" becomes the new universe
We only consider these cases
And the intersection (both things happening) is some percentage of that universe
You want to find which percentage of B the intersection is
But
So you divide the intersection by B
$P(A\cap B)=P(A)P(B)$
Goofy Joe
Only when A and B are independent
meaning no matter whether A is realized or not, it doesn't change how likely B is to be realized
$P(B|A) = P(B)$ in that case where $A$ and $B$ are independent
Rafilouyear2026
so, you can hopefully see the link between this formula
and the formula for the specific case when A and B are independent
But if A | B, isn't A automatically dependent on B?
what does "A | B" mean
I don't really know how to interpret your question
I'm saying that, when A and B are independent, asking whether "A is realized knowing B is realized" is kinda the same as asking when A is realized, probability-wise
The most basic example is 2 coin flips
A = "tails on first flip"
B = "tails on second flip"
Does knowing whether you flipped tails or not on the first flip tell you anything about the second flip's outcome?
No
exactly, that's what independence means
So the probability of B being realized doesn't matter on knowing A is being realized
P(B|A) = P(B)
In the opposite case where P(B|A) and P(B) are different, they are dependent on each other
Still on 2 coin flips
A = "tails on first flip"
B = "heads on one of the two flips"
Can A being realized or not affect B's outcome?
yes
how so?
Yes
I don't know if heads came out on the first roll that's why it's possible
if A isn't realized, then B is also happening
yes but knowing whether A or not(A) happens influences how likely B is
Yes
so B does depend on A somehow
P(B) = 3/4, whereas P(B|A) = 1/2 and P(B|not(A)) = 1
So this is not true
And this is the only true formula concerning P(A and B)
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yo can i get help
Probability is the ratio of the number of favorable outcomes to the total number of possible outcomes
We have 4 favorable outcomes and 14 outcomes overall
yea
Just find the ratio
1/4?
Teach don’t tell answer
Again, probability is favorable outcomes divided by the number of all outcomes
Imagine you have 3 chocolates out of which 2 are white chocolate what’s the chance of getting a white chocolate
Okay. This has to be rage bait
Nd bro is playing arena breakout
yes yes but im doing my assignments
what
Uh
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
No help in live test
live test!?
Did you just doxx yourself?
<@&268886789983436800> racism/troll whatever
so in total
no
if u mix
red paint
with white paint
what happens?
the red takes over MORE
:facepalm
why are we talking about paint now?
so please support me further through my question please (:
so as why are we talking abt choccolate?
What is the probability trump invades greenland
because it’s an example that will help you solve your question.
Explain this more clearly to me?
What does "the black take over the white" mean to you?
If you mix 2 liters of white paint with 1 liter of black paint, the mixture will be 1/3 black and 2/3 white. It'll be closer to white than to black
this was the example though
the black is a darker shade and it takes over the lighter shade white
Why?
so there for the dark is taking 1%
But it doesn't mean it's more black than white
bc what if the choccolate melted?
or if its being melted?
or
what if we chop it up and melt it..
Are we using laundry color theory in a probability problem about beads 
The ADHD goes crazy
What if one is colorblind
so there for no racism is involved.
So your point here is just that these two colors visually mix a certain way?
R you doing math or philosophy
si
Got you there! It's black and white anyway
which helps answer 1%
Oh 👍
Still no
oh
I’m still very confused on how you got the answer 1%. Please do show your steps.
What if they become grey
@still nymph Good luck with life if this is seriously a doubt 🫡 🫡 🫡
not relevant. Please stay on track.
they arent grey
What is left relevant here
The black and white chocolates.
what does this mean.
Chance of getting 4
If I have 4 cats and one is a tabby cat you'd say the odds of me picking up a tabby cat if I pick up one of my cats randomly is 1 in 4 right?
It means the probability of pulling 1 specific card out of 4 cards, in this case a card with a number 4
Do you know fractions?
I'm just talking about the bead problem here for what it is worth
Ah I see the card one too.
The same style of thinking I mentioned earlier applies to this too though
You have 4 cards, you pick one card randomly once here
You wanna know what the probability is that the card you drew is 4.
1/4
Yep
If you have 27 friends at a party
And 4 of them like pizza
What is the probability that if you walk up to one randomly and chat with them that you will be talking to a pizza enjoyer?
Doesn't matter
yes it does
Nah
yes
Pretend it's your birthday party then
Maybe the real probability is the 27 friends we made along the way
so it cant be
Pretend they are my friends and it's my birthday then
well i dont know u so ur not invited.
but you helped me
so you are invited
but i didint invite your friends
so there for its only me
and you
and my mom and dad
Nah
The question is just 27 people at a party, 4 like pizza, and you talk to one randomly.
1/27 odds
try to make $\Omega$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
But there are 4 pizza enjoyers at the party
oh so 4/27?
so like
Yep
try to imagine what $\Omega$ is here
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
$\Omega$ is just a set of all possible outcomes
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
and see how many elements/outcomes is in $\Omega$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
is this racist?
-# rude ahhhh
Yeah don't be rude
They may not know this terminology/notation though tbf
im only in middle school
If you're not going to interact here in good faith what is the point?
u guys are not good support\
then leave
Are you over 13
scoob
Well the question then is, is he black or white paint?
okay
I don't rlly but ok
bro
But you are kinda just being rude and wasting peoples time when they are trying to help you.
not true
I'm not asking you.
didn't you just been rude with me?
somone came in here saying some $omega/ solve
or smth
and im respectfuly saying i dont need what hes tryna do
so please leave.
There's a more formal way to describe these kinds of problems that they think might help you to use
are you calling me autistic?
-# respectfully?
Nope
-# since when lmao
bc i am
Getting fairly tired of the trolling though.
Respectfully
i am not trolling sire
if you think this is not a good source of help
I disagree
then you can leave
we don't need rude people like you
It's the same trick as the last couple questions.
What would you get if you tried the same trick?
$\text{probability} = \frac{\text{correct outcomes}}{\text{total outcomes}}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
$\text{probability} = \frac{\text{correct outcomes}}{\text{total outcomes}}$
Yep
-# that is only when all outcomes are equally likely to happen btw
That's what I told him in the very beginning
18 horse , 5 bay
Chance bay = favourable/total outcomes =
No. Of bay/total horses
Please do not ping individual helpers unprompted.
-# unless you have permissions from her
this. ingrain the reasoning into your head
HAIIII
hello !
can you help me
Do they actually have permission to ping you?
they are not making sense ):
-# Bsharp enters the battlefield
not technically, but i won't hold it against them
I will
atleast in my head
but yeah everyone else has said what i would have anyway
-# Chill
-# ||onto someone who wants me out because there is an omega set which represents the set of all outcomes possible||
Great, so this time I did mute you rather than somebody else. Moving forward don't blatantly lie, troll, waste peoples time and etc when those people are giving you free help.
Yes, trying to teach you some sort of tricks? When you're not a magician or anything
Crazy
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great job mods
-# yk after he kicked me out i didn't want to help him anymore
-# im generous enough to still help in this channel
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Could anyone explain 2 (b) for me? Struggling with Depth first search
My idea was a-b-c-d-i-j-k-e-f idk?
do you know about like how preorder/inorder/postorder traversal work
i thought i did
we have this from class slides
i understnad this
but im kinda still struggling with the task above
u are almost right
u r just like
missing the last two
a-b-c-d-i-j-k-e-f-g-h ?
welp that was easz
so basically follow the path in alphabetic order and backtrack if not possible
chatgpt confused me lol it said smth different but i guess i was right
yay
thank you for the confirmation 
thanks!
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How can we show that if f:R-> R smooth is such that f^(n) (0)=0 for n odd, then there exist g smooth with f(x)= g(x^2) ?
p sure this may not hold without extra assumptions
because of some kind of nasty but smooth bump function that turns out not to be even
If we defined f(x) = e^(-1/x^2) for x > 0 and f(x) = 0 for x <= 0, then this would be smooth, all derivatives at 0 would be 0 and it's clearly not even
yeah that's the exact kind of bump function i was talking about
yeah do that
Oh
can you translate the handwritten text
I changed 3 to 2 to make the problem simpler
mmmmmm sus
Rtilde has the structure given by ...
Ill rewrite it
is it structure?
How can we show that if f:R-> R smooth is such that f^(n) (0)=0 for n not divisible by 3, then there exist g smooth with f(x)= g(x^3) ?
how tf is it structure
Yes
looks roughly czech
ʌtɯclūu
Anyway, same counterexample works but with f(x) = e^(-1/x^2) (the og one works as well actually)
where did u get the g(x^3) from? There seems to be no g in the question
g is supposed to be f(x^(1/3))
It is the composite of f by the inverse local chart
x^2 isn't one to one btw while x^3 is
wouldn't that fuck things up
Ye i figured
<@&268886789983436800> scam
<@&268886789983436800> scam
@verbal tree Has your question been resolved?
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@verbal tree Has your question been resolved?
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ii)a)
the tringle is similar so the ratio between each side should be same
so 4:3?
I'm dumb excuse me
idk tbh the answer
ohhhh
I understand ty @dense axle
I didnt the question well mb
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Hello, could someone check if this proof looks good please?
\begin{Theorem}
Suppose $A$ and $B$ are sets. Then $\powerset{A \cap B} = \powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B}$.
\end{Theorem}
\begin{proof}
First, we prove that $\powerset{A \cap B} \subseteq \powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B}$.
Let $X \in \powerset{A \cap B}$.
Then, by the definition of the powerset, $X \subseteq A \cap B$.
Let $x \in X$.
Because $X \subseteq A \cap B$, we have that $x \in A \cap B$.
Then, by the definition of the intersection, $x \in A$ and $x \in B$.
Since $x \in X$ implies $x \in A$ and $x \in B$, we have that $X \subseteq A$ and $X \subseteq B$.
Then, $X \in \powerset{A}$ and $X \in \powerset{B}$.
Thus, $X \in \powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B}$.
We have that $X \in \powerset{A \cap B}$ implies $X \in \powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B}$,
hence $\powerset{A \cap B} \subseteq \powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B}$.\\
Next, we prove that $\powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B} \subseteq \powerset{A \cap B}$.
Let $X \in \powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B}$.
So $X \in \powerset{A}$ and $X \in \powerset{B}$.
Then, by the definition of the powerset, $X \subseteq A$ and $X \subseteq B$.
Let $x \in X$.
Since $X \subseteq A$ and $X \subseteq B$, we have that $x \in A$ and $x \in B$.
So $x \in A \cap B$.
Since $x \in X$ implies $x \in A \cap B$, this means that $X \subseteq A \cap B$.
Thus, by the definition of the powerset, $X \in \powerset{A \cap B}$.
We have that $X \in \powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B}$ implies $X \in \powerset{A \cap B}$,
hence $\powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B} \subseteq \powerset{A \cap B}$.\\
We showed that $\powerset{A \cap B} \subseteq \powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B}$
and $\powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B} \subseteq \powerset{A \cap B}$.
Therefore, $\powerset{A \cap B} = \powerset{A} \cap \powerset{B}$.
\end{proof}
Mor Bras
Where?
"Since x in X implies x in A and x in B [for all x in X]..." 3 lines up from the bottom of the first proof paragraph
i dont really think its all that necessary
@vestal thistle Has your question been resolved?
<@&268886789983436800> scam
holy
<@&268886789983436800> some kind of raid it seems
@vestal thistle Has your question been resolved?
Looks good to me
@vestal thistle Has your question been resolved?
You can get a much more concise proof simply by expanding and equating the definitions
X ∈ ℘(A ∩ B) ⟺ X ⊂ A ∩ B ⟺ X ⊂ A and X ⊂ B ⟺ X ∈ ℘A and X ∈ ℘B ⟺ X ∈ ℘A ∩ ℘B.
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two angles subtended by the same chord at the circumference of a circle on the same side are equal
consider joining the two bottom points with a chord to see it more clearly
like this
btw what does subtended mean i lowk forgot
"GEOMETRY
(of a line, arc, or figure) form (an angle) at a particular point when straight lines from its extremities are joined at that point."
in simpler terms, when an arc or a chord makes an angle by its endpoints connected to that point with lines
for example, here, chord BC subtends x angle at A
and chord AD subtends 60 deg at C
ah
so there is nothing to do with triangles
what if we do x+80+60=180
interior angles
x+140=180
x=180-140
x=40
idk how i did that
correct
what do you mean
i dont understand it like
last time when i did smthing similar lik this i just made a isocles traingle and tries to solve like that
what could this blud be possibly talking about
lol
the conditions must have been different in that question
like the vertices
no the lines
ah
so what am i basically doing here
since chord AD subtends two angles on the circumference of the circle, they'll be equal
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I am dumb, why is distance of b from line ap less than d
its less than the height of afp which is less than one of its sides which is d
or apply a bunch of pythagoras I guess
@subtle crystal Has your question been resolved?
Yea that's just restating the problem
How is it less than height of afp aka d
distance of a to b/distance of b to ap=distance of f to a/height from f to ap
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If I have y= sin of the picture below, how would I interpret it and graph it? Does it mean that the period is 2x faster (meaning the x values are multiplied by half), and then I shift everything to the right by pi/3?
SIn(A+B) = sinAcosB + cosAsinB, you could start with that as well... plotting the addition is quite easier
scoob
in general
f(ax+b)=f(a(x+b/a))
so you translate -b/a units, and stretch by a factor of 1/a
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what is the problem?
correct conclusion but wrong reasoning
this series fails to converge absolutely but its general term DOES tend to 0
although...
now that i am looking at the first few terms written out here
the very picture is wrong
something is certainly wrong here
and also no question actually asked
What is wrong?
What?
general term tends to 0? How?
yes it tends to 0
it depends on whether u look at the left side or the right side of the equality
interestingly, they are different
and yet we are supposed to brain wash ourselves into thinking they are the same
uncrop and send full page please
just out of interest, what's the hint?
the question is wrong though, the LHS and RHS arent the same, so I'd just skip it or solve it for the LHS and RHS individually
I guess LHS should be (-1)^n-1 into n
@autumn fossil @toxic lichen
What should we do now?
For absolutely
n/2n+1 and limit will be 1
As I stated at the start of the question and ann denied
it'd be n * (-1)^(n-1)
Or maybe another helper saying 1/2
limit wont be 1
yeah
try it
at worst it wont work
there is a much easier way than all those tests though
Terms of all convergent series (that is both absolutely and conditionally) tend to 0
in this case, the terms will oscillate roughly between 1/2 and -1/2, they certainly wont tend to anything, so not even 0
and so it cannot be convergent (not even conditionally)
this is either known as divergence test, or in this specific case, it's part of alternating series test
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Me proof for "if (zn) is a divergent sequence and yn is a convergent sequence, such that yn≠0, then a sequence define by xn:=zn/yn is divergent ".
Kindle check
@crimson nebula Has your question been resolved?
Please helpppp
The proof is alright.
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I'm so lost at this limit
Are you allowed to use L'hopital
Yes
Ok may i please know where did u get that
How did you do it
I did it without l hopital
Nice
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.
Can someone explain converses, inverses, and contrapositives better to me? My problem is that I cannot determine if the statements are true or false. For example, one problem I did that asks "Rewrite the postulate in if-then form then write the converse, inverse, and contrapositive and state which ones are true," I got the statements right:
Of there is a plane, then theres atleast 3 noncollinear points.
Converse: If theres atleast 3 noncollinear points, there there is one plane.
Inverse: If there is not one plane, then there is not atleast 3 noncollinear points.
Contrapositive: If there is not atleast 3 noncollinear points, then there is not one plane.
I said that all the statements are true.
But, the converse and inverse are false? Could someone explain.
My thinking for the converse is that if there are atleast 3 noncollinear points, then one plane exists.. and for the inverse if there is not a plane, then therefore 3 noncollinear points dont exist because then there would be a plane if they did.
(i'm new to geometry) :)
Also, the question Do two lines that intersect have to be in the same plane? also confuses me. I said that they did not have to be in the same plane, but every other source says they do. What if two planes intersect, with lines on each of them, that intersect at the line created by both planes?
Who said the converse and inverse are false here?
Two intersecting lines do indeed share a plane
some website i looked up for answers to Big Ideas Math: Geometry
could you explain how? Why can't they not share a plane
If you are given a statement of the form P ⟹ Q...
The converse is Q ⟹ P,
The negation is P and not Q,
The contrapositive is not Q ⟹ not P, which is logically equivalent to the original statement.
Share a link?
I lost it 😂 do you know any websites that do have a reliable answer key though? (for every question would be nice)
Well I don't really get what you're doing exactly, geometry or logic?
For the same reason that 3 points share a plane. A line can be defined by any two points on it, so two intersecting lines can be defined by their intersection point and another point on each of them. Any three points share a plane, so the three that define the two intersecting lines share a plane, and every other point on either line are also in that plane.
It feels like you're not very comfortable with geometry so if you're going to study logic I would recommend either doing so without the side of geometry, or study basic geometry first
ohhhhhh
i get it now my bad i was thinking a different dimension for some reason from the previous question
I am trying to learn Geometry more so right now but also learn the logic parts of it. I am trying to get ahead on my school classes to get into a higher class next year, but its kind of tough learning Geometry on my own.
what do you think I should do then?
I don't know, search for various resources online or try asking in #book-recommendations
I probably wouldn't study logic and geometry at the same time using the same resource, I would study one and then the other
Otherwise your lack of understanding of one topic could make the other topic harder to understand
truew
i do already have 2 textbooks currently
Big Ideas Math: Geometry and Geometry: Seeing, Doing, Understanding
I am trying to just do geometry honestly but the textbooks involve some logic i think
In that case, understanding converse, inverse, and contrapositive is probably all you need
Like, just remember that if you have some statement in the form of an "if ... then ...", its contrapositive is the same statement, and so they are either both true or both false
yeah
On the other hand, the inverse and the converse are not the same statement, so they could be true or false independently of the original
(and the inverse is the contrapositive of the converse so they are the same statement)
i never thought of it like that, but that makes much more sense
so the inverse and converse are either both true or false?
Yes
also, in a high school geometry honors class though, do you typically have to learn logic?
to prepare for other classes like algebra 2 or calc
Uh I don't know, I'm not a teacher, but I would imagine you don't learn actual logic, just the very basic stuff (like contrapositive)
yeah
I think the people I've seen doing logic are always in uni or above
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Let m and n be integers. If the four numbers m+2, 2m+1, n, 8m-101 form a geometric sequence in this order, find the value of n.
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
why did u square it??
Tho I cannot find any
It has n in it
oh wait my bad i thought it was a typo haha
you're right sorry
so what seems to be the problem?
I cannot figure out a possible m. I even expanded it but it was too difficult to factor it.
I think I have to find the possible m first. But I’m unable to do so
oooh im not that good but let me see if there's a way
I got thing like this when I expanded it
It is a bit nasty so I give up factoring it
isnt this divisible by 3?
and im not gonna lie
its nasty ;-;
if u use the quadratic formula you'll get some long decimal
are u sure this is the question? cause if so i give up 😂
we're gonna need a smart helper aha
Yes. It is from a high school competitive math institution
Sure
i mean its possible to just go for it but we're gonna be using weird numbers 😭
The answer is accordingly -25
Yes. I think you are going to need some talent like you have to be able to tell some possible m from what you have got
-0.268 and -4.69
,w (2m+1)^3 - (8m-101)(m+2)^2 expand
idt your algebra worked out
you should've ended up with $81m^2+378m+405=0$
Civil Service Pigeon
your $(2m+1)^3=(8m-101)(m+2)^2$ is fine though
Civil Service Pigeon
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I am facing problem to count the cases in the problem
A fair die is thrown 3 times. The chance that sum of three num bers appearing on the die is less than 11
what's the expected value of the sum?
less than 11
no i mean, the mean
36
if you roll a die 3 times, you would expect the sum to be 36?
how did you obtain that?
do you know meaning of expected value yes or no
no
6/2= 3
do you know the meaning of average yes or no
yes
show how you computed it
he did, as 6/2 (which is quite wrong)
21/2?
i was hoping that was just an unrelated trivia fact
why 21, why /2?
again, if you roll a die, you expect the average outcome to be 10.5?
no
we can expect that total sum of values for 3 throws can be
(1+2+3+4+5+6)*3
21*3 = 63
there are total 6 outcomes for one throw so there would be 18 outcomes for 3 throws
this is also not true
i dont think so 🙁
uh
How do you get a sum of 1 with three die
its not possible
So definitely less than 18
can we do P(sum < 11) = 1 - P(sum >= 11)
perhaps, can you justify why this is useful?
we may get correct answer because total sum - (not favourable) should give favourable
but there are many cases for this
is it easier to calculate than P(sum < 11)?
ig
ok, go for it
can't count
😭
this is not a diffiuclt question at all god why i am not able to do
the idea behind finding the expected value (mean) was to use a shortcut that will make it very easy
i believe that is what was intended with this question
(the fact that they specified 11 and not some other number makes that pretty clear)
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i need help (specifically explanation) with cie a levels further mechanics, circular motion. i have no idea how they even begin to solve this question
thanks
i was searching how to rotate haha
so i dont know why they did any of the things they did in the working, basically i just need concept explanations and tips to solve questions and if there are any steps to solving these
@vast prairie Has your question been resolved?
i wish it was ;-;
hiii mb
hmmm
first of all
when we get a question like that, what's the first thing we do
why did they find Flim and what even is that
the terms are not similar but i might give an idea
okayy
you have a particle on disc which is rotating, for the particle to remain on its position the centripetal force should be what is required for rotation at distance r from the hole(center)
wait the particle is also rotating with the disc right?
yes
what is the Flim for
if omega is small enough particle will tend to move towards the centre because of tension from B, so friction will act outwards
wait wouldnt it move towards the centre no matter what
it's to determine the bounds of omega where the particle slips
which brings us to my second confusion how would the particle move AWAY from the centre 😭
nope
so when friction is at Flim it starts slipping? either out or inwards?
i dont want to go in pseudo force and shit
but think it as if you have attached a string to a stone then you move it in a circular path
the more you increase the speed the more force you feel the string is applying at your hand
so basically its possible for the particle to slip outwards?
yes as the angular speed increases
Fc = mromega^2 the more you increase the angular speed more centrepetal force is required to keep the same radius
ohhh
so at some point it cant keep it and it just goes out
btw
now how did they get that calculations for the inward and outward?
why is inward 60=F+mromega^2 while outward is 60+F
so let's consider omega is small such that particle tends to move inwards
so friction is applied outwards
as T is greater than Fc required
you have T - friction = Fc
for other case the object tends to move outward so friction is applied inwards the Fc reuqired is greater than T so you have Fc = T+ friction
this would be easier to see with centrifugal force
where you just balace Tension and other forces
T = Fcentrifugal + friction(both act outward)
same for other
but i dont need centrifugal in this case right?
what is centrifugal? is it the opposite of centripetal? like the force away from the center
its the same as comparing with centripetal but yh
okayy
yh
thanks man i think i have a rough understanding now
ill try to do some practice questions and come back if i get stuck again
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do u know the general form of a quadratic or vieta's formulas
I think the general form of a quadratic cause I don’t recognise the other
Thank you ❤️
okay so can you tell me what the general form is
I don’t remember it was a couple months ago I was working with this
Where’s the imagine
Which forms do you know
Wdym by forms I don’t do maths in wnglis
Which language
Swedish
Also you said general form here
I am asking which forms do you know
General form is one
$f(x) = ax^2 + bx + c$
USS-Enterprise
Oh yeah I know that one
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how do I show that every normal subgroup of a group is the kernel of some homomorphism ?
Have you seen quotient maps yet
I have
In the quotient maps, what is the kernel
the quotient map cause that itself is a homomorphism
The quotient map given by the quotient G/N yes
No it isn't
But you weren't tasked to prove that every normal subgroup is the kernel of a unique homomorphism
You were tasked to prove it's the kernel of some homomorphism
yes I got that part
So show there's at least one that works
If N is my normal subgroup
And f:G->H is a homomorphism with ker(f) = N
Look at the point of intersections with the x axis, 0 and -4, then apply the form of roots quadratic funtions in terms of its roots x²-(v+b)x+vb where v and b are the roots
excuse me? we are in the middle of something
Mb
Ohhhh thank you 🩷
I'm new here
This channel is no longer attributed to <3, as you can tell by the name of the channel
Mb vro 💔
Keep in mind for next time
Anyways I can create $F:\begin{cases}G\to H\times H\ x\mapsto (f(x),f(x))\end{cases}$
Rafilouyear2026
That's another homomorphism
With kernel Ker(F) = N
Tons of examples I can make up
I edited to write ker(f) = N
hmm
makes sense
I am taking a first course in group theory and sometimes the algebra gets too abstract for me to know what is supposed to be done, do you have any suggestions😭
but yes I should take this elsewhere, thank you
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how does this relate to your problem in the screenshot? which part are you asking about? i don't see a 55.2 there
not sure if this is yo
"25 degrees to the vertical", but you've drawn it as 25 degrees to the horizontal
not sure if this is the source of your issues
Oh ye mb just realised that lol
Thank you
Have a good day or night
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Confused whether a negative sign would come. From where I am studying it seems it should but I can’t understand why
It should just be pq cos(alpha) right
With the vector going into the plane
@neat lily Has your question been resolved?
@neat lily Has your question been resolved?
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further
@bright apex Has your question been resolved?
your 2nd line is incorrect
how
you can't just split the fraction like that
i can split it
do you know how to factor the numerator?
1/(n+1)^2 is just n^2/n^2(n+1)^2
