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Are there any recommendations for learning first order logic + other stuff related to it fundementally that build from the ground up? (i.e. assuming reader is a complete noob to first order logic stuff)? I know Hanako gave a recommendation above and wanted to knwo if there were any more people recommedned
I found this: https://www.logicmatters.net/tyl/ although im not sure how biased it is (since all the books here are by the same author
A Study Guide A re-titled, expanded version of the old Teach Yourself Logic study guide. This is a book length guide to the main topics and some suitable texts either for teaching yourself logic by individual self-study, or to supplement a university course. You only need to read just the first half-dozen pages to see […]
Avigad - Mathematical Logic and Computation
would you say the books you recommended should be read front to back?
almost no texts should be read front to back, much less Open Logic
you can if you want to
oh shoot, ig i mean sequentially yeah
cuz ig i learn more in a structured manner
sry if this is too many requirement
cuz i just finished parts of Folland (real analysis)
and his writing kinda hurt
structured is fine
but you aren't gonna need everything in OL
unless you do
that being said, I'd highly recommend skipping the first section of OL and come back to it after you've understood first-order logic
i see yeah, i was thinking of/trying to find unified source/source that is self contained for first order logic
and ig Avigad is the way to go then?
im looking at its reviews rn and etc
since once i start im gonna commit
Avigad for main reading, OL for reference (which is what I'm doing atm too)
Introduction to Mathematical Logic by Elliott Mendelson is also not bad
or what woudl you say his style is like ok
eh... it can be
rip ggs
but that's where OL comes in
I suppose you will have to at least be familiar with a bit of set theory
no, those are his lecture notes
okay becuase he says
I'm talking about his book Mathematical Logic and Computation
https://www.amazon.com/gp/product/1108478751/ref=ox_sc_act_title_1?smid=A2XZ7JICGUQ1CX&psc=1
this one specifically
This new book on mathematical logic by Jeremy Avigad gives a thorough introduction to the fundamental results and methods of the subject from the syntactic point of view, emphasizing logic as the study of formal languages and systems and their proper use. Topics include proof theory, model theory...
you can skip the set theory chapters and come back to them later I guess
youd say the book is moslty self contained tho right
and just lke OL is helpful to fill in gaps he deosnt say in proofs'
mostly self-contained for what it needs to do, but not completely for set theory
you'd supplement this with other sources like Kunen or Jech for set theory
if you want to further in computation, Rich's book is also a choice
so depends on what you mean by self-contained: if you mean in mathematical logic, mostly, for the fundamentals
waiti wdym computation
computational theory
yeah ig for mathemtaical logic and like what is considered "canoncial" for that field (sry this probably very ignorant but im open to learn mroe)
if by canonical you mean fundamental, then yes, Avigad is not a bad idea
if by canonical you mean "all-in-one solution", no
as in from beginner all the way to research-level, then no
you'd need other resources to continue
nah just like maybe first course for logic
by the way, for resource recommendations, consider #book-recommendations next time
then Avigad and OL more than suffice
arguably a little too overpowered
but hey that shouldn't be a concern, you can cherry-pick topics as needed
yeah i thought there should be a channel like that ngl but why is it hidden from me
like there are hidden channles in server?
you collapsed the discussion category
wait sry i dont even thinki have those channels, like my discussion is uncollapsed
then go to id:browse and select #book-recommendations (and other channels as you see fit)
please refrain from asking personal questions in a help channel.
if you wish to chat, you may do so in the discussion channels or #chill.
okay so just to be clear, Avigad (prob chapters 1-7, more if needed) is main, read thru sequentially and then OL helps supplement gaps that Avigad does nto have (i.e. when working thru problems or if proofs too terse)?
i just dont wanna end up jumping around everywhere cuz then i go down rabbithole
if you can understand chapter 1 then yes
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wait sry i was just browsing the book recomenedaiton channel and there seems to be book by Mendelson and Enderton, what do you think of those?
if you mean Introduction to Mathematical Logic by Elliott Mendelson, I have it on my to-buy list. heard good things about it but no comment since I have not read it myself
never heard of Enderton, unless you have the title
nvm I know what book you meant.
I would say, they seem overlapping to me. Mendelson is good enough for a first run through (of course, this means your first run through won't be super thorough but your second run through with Avigad would be just right)
ah i see. when you say first run do you just mean like i read thru the stuff and work on some fo the exercises but i dont dive too deep, i.e. more like kinda reading book/novel? Im not really sure how to approach reading books on logic and etc and if i shoudl treat them diffrently than say an analysis or lin alg textbook
no, I mean first run as in a deep run through Mendelson
you'll definitely not cover all of logic with Mendelson, hence the second run with Avigad and OL
also for Avigad, you might want to hear a review of the book from a better person than myself
Avigad is a good book, quite notationally heavy right from the start. It's good if you already are comfortable with stuff, but want to learn logic formally
Perfect for a second run as Hana put it, but even for a first run it's all right, just maybe a bit of effort
okay yeah, and would you say Enderton covers logic formally as well then? or just like enough
I haven't read Enderton
I started with Avigad, did the first 4 chapters cuz that was all I needed and moved on to HoTT
Enderton and Mendelson have similar styles, and from what I know of Mendelson it's decent enough as scaffolding to Avigad
I'd recommend Avigad to someone who's done a decent amount of maths but has never seen logic formally
Cuz if you can tolerate some notational weight, it is much superior because of how well it motivates stuff
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When we linearize a nonlinear first order ode system, why is it that the Jacobian's eigenvalues might fail to predict the behavior of the nonlinear system? This behavior occurs in orbits but I cant justify why.
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Q1 .
For the part :-
I ⊆ I' => a'≤a and b≤b'
Check my proof
My proof :-
For second implication:
My proof for other way around
From a'≤a and b≤b' , combining both inequalities we get :
a'≤a≤b≤b'
Which implies a'≤a≤b' , so a ∈ [a',b']=I
Hence a ∈ I'
Also , a'≤ b≤b' , so b ∈ [a',b']=I
Hence B ∈ I'
Since a,b ∈ I' and a<b , from the Characterization theroem I= [a,b] ⊆ I'
it looks correct but your formatting and symbols seem messed up
ok so you only want us to look at "$a'\leq a$ and $b\leq b'$ $\Longrightarrow I\subseteq I'$" right?
Rafilouyear2026
I have also proved that part ..
But about this part i was uncertain
Wdym you've also proved this part?
This part i have proved ..
In question it's double implication.
The proof you've shown us is "From a'≤a and b≤b' we get I= [a,b] ⊆ I'"
In my message
I went from I ⊆I' to a' ≤a and b≤b'
No, look again
From a'≤a and b≤b'
your assumptions
Since a,b ∈ I' and a<b , from the Characterization theroem I= [a,b] ⊆ I'
Your conclusion
You've shown a'≤a and b≤b' implies I ⊆ I'
The message I wanted to forward somehow wasnt copied
I will put down my idea here :-
a'≤a and b≤b'
Combining both inequalities, we get :
a'≤ a ≤ b≤b'
Which implies a'≤a≤b'
So a ∈ [a',b']=I'
Also a'≤b<b'
So b ∈ [a',b']=I
Since a,b ∈ I'
And a<b
Therefore by Characterization theorem
I= [a,b] ⊆ I'
.
.
This is the proof i want to know if it's correct
Well, if your characterization theorem is to be believed, since I don't see any problems other than some typos here and there
Yes your proof is correct
Typos...?
Also a'≤b<b'
So b ∈ [a',b']=I
Also a' ≤b***≤b'
So b ∈ [a',b']=I'***
Overall it seems fine
Okay thanks for your patience and help
It's just the "Since" "Therefore" that seems a little clunky
You could replace "Since" By "We thus have"
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hello, how do you calculate the conditional probability in an event where its "or"
addition
and = multiplication and or = addition
So the event is "the person is a man or has a winner bowling ball"
,rrcw
so id just do 0,3 + 0,05?
,rotate
What's the probability a person is a man
this is a really bad oversimplification
0,7
why does chatgpt say this then
Yeah, my bad
You have to add the probabilities but only if they can't both happen
but in my case they can right
Yeah you're right
So what's the probability that it's both a man and a winning ball
0,05
Look at the cell where W and M meet
Yep exactly
bartdestinkerd34
If this equality holds, they are independent
Sorry my brain is not working
tysm
This is the correct one lmao
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Hello. Does anyone know of an "easy" proof of the Schröder-Bernstein theorem? In class, we defined a bunch of sets and our prof didnt really explain why, and its taking me a long ass time to understand that proof. So, if you have a recommended proof in your disposal, pray share
is that the one where if theres injections both ways between two sets then there is a bijection
yep
ok right yeah there is a visual proof for it actually
or at least a proof that is more visual than the "define a whole bunch of sets" thing
call our sets X and Y and also assume wlog they're disjoint (otherwise biject X with something disjoint from Y and continue)
id love to see that
a very informal argument. for (wlog disjoint) sets A and B, if for every element in A we can take one distinct in B, and for every element in B we can take one distinct in A, then surely there exists a way to associate every element in A with one in B
and let's call our injections f: X -> Y and g: Y -> X
what we'll consider will kinda be a disjoint graph structure on X \cup Y
connect x ∈ X to y ∈ Y with a red arrow x -> y if f(x) = y, and connect them with a blue arrow y -> x if g(y) = x
i see, but as you said this is quite informal lol
so in other words we now visualize f as "follow a red arrow" and g as "follow a blue arrow"
here are some facts about these arrows:
Your "then surely" is kind of the whole point of the theorem isn't it?
shhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
but yeah i realize that takes a lot for granted. i'll let ann finish
are we in agreement so far
what does this sentence mean exactly? it confuses me
got it lol
uh
ok so hold on augh
let me just draw what happens at the level of individual elements
and get my colored pens
Just make a graph where the vertices are elements of X and Y, and directed edges going from X-vertices to Y-vertices that correspond to applications of f, and similarly from Y to X for applications of g
i dont get the third point here
you just assumed that my intelligence is high enough to understand this
this isn't one-to-one
yes, but ann said so about different colours too
X = {1, 2, 3}, Y = {a, b, c}
f(1) = a, f(2) = b, f(3) = c
g(a) = 2, g(b) = 1, g(c) = 3
Make a graph with vertices 1, 2, 3, a, b, c
Then add blue directed edges 1->a, 2->b, 3->c and red directed edges a->2, b->1, c->3
"opposite colours would violate the fact that X,Y are disjoint"
Because f and g are both injective, you cannot have more than one arrow (directed edge) going into any one vertex
what are edges and vertices?
Have you never done any graph theory?
no
Damn
if you're pointed to by a red arrow then you live in Y. if you're pointed to by a blue arrow then you live in X. you can't have both colors pointing at you.
this implies some element of y is mapped to by some element in x and some element in y as well
@wary vault do you understand what goes on in this picture
i see that makes sense
im reading it gimme a min. i understand the top half so far
Keep in mind that if X and Y are finite, you can only have loops
Red/blue rays and lines (in Ann's terminology) go on to infinity
i dont get the point the second half makes
try this
theres a slightly psychedelic version of this same argument but with cats and dogs
starting page 59
it is cartoonish and weird but trust me
Taking my (bad) example:
The black parts (1,2,3,a,b,c) are vertices
The arrows are directed edges and correspond to applications of f (in blue) or g in red)
okay i see
Now you want to look at the sequences or chains of arrows
If you start at 1, you get 1,a,2,b, and back to 1
the thing about these arrows is that the properties of f and g ensure there's never any branching, which allows us to speak of chains and shit in the first place
If X and Y are finite, |X| = |Y| and so once you start somewhere, you necessarily end up back there at some point, making a loop
yes i see how now
branching meaning something like divergence from a pattern?
So then for infinite sets, you can also have rays and lines. For rays, you can build your bijection by pairing the first two vertices from the end, and then the next two, and so on
No like a vertex from which two arrows go to different vertices
u said the black parts are vertrices but the entire background of the pic is black
(or to which two arrows come from different vertices)
Oh sorry the background is fucked
how does one pair two vertrices from the end?
The end here is x_0
Pair x_0 and y_0, then x_1 and y_1, ...
Basically for red rays your bijection is the red function
For blue rays, it's the blue function
just want to say this was a great read
For lines and loops, just choose either one
oh i see it
i still have gaps in understanding how that proves existence
lemme elaborate a bit
Ann writes: "points of XUY are joined up by arrows according to f and g". what does that mean?
.
connect x ∈ X to y ∈ Y with a red arrow x -> y if f(x) = y, and connect them with a blue arrow y -> x if g(y) = x
wait i may be onto something
aughhh
its weird
what does x_(something negative), or y_(something negative) denote exactly?
something negative as an index i mean
They're just elements of X or Y, their indexing doesn't really matter
okay and why is there even a difference between the blue/red ray and the line structures?
f and g are injective functions
f: X -> Y, the output of f doesn't necessarily cover all of Y
g: Y -> X, the output of g doesn't necessarily cover all of X
(they do if X and Y are finite)
x_0 in Ann's example is just an element of X that is not an output of g
y_-1 is just an element of Y that is not an output of f
In other words, there is no blue arrow going to x_0, and there is no red arrow going to y_-1
hmm okay i see
so the line represents the case of the two sets having the same cardinality?
No
All four of these structures can potentially be found in the situation where X and Y are infinite and there exist f and g (injections X->Y and Y->X)
Take X=N and Y=N\{0}, with f(n) = n+1 and g(n) = n-1
The only structure here is a red ray, with x_0 = 0
how could the loop be one of these structures? that would mean that there is an x, or a y that maps to two different outputs
mayb not actually im not sure anymore
I don't see a vertex here with multiple arrows coming out of it
okay true. but if X is infinite then how can a loop occur?
then all the rest of X's elements are left out
okay i see why
Take X=N and Y=N\{0} again, but this time f(0) = 1, g(1) = 1, f(1) = 2, g(2) = 0 and otherwise f(n) = n+1 and g(n) = n-1
0->1->1->2->0->... is a loop
The rest is a ray
oh so the loop is consisting of a finite amount of elements and there exists one of the two rays to continue right? not a line because we have a starting point
In this case, yes
okayokay so loops can always occur
Any combination of these structures can occur
im still struggling tho i feel like im missing on something important
oh shit
I suppose if the sets are infinite you can't have just a finite number of loops since those are finite
An "infinite loop", if that could exist, would just be the same as a line
that doesnt make much sense. unless u mean in a scenario where we have only loops
Yes I mean only loops
okeoke
so 1->1 , 1->1,... , 2->2, 2->2,... ?
Yes
okeoke
yo any1 help me on maths questions?
i feel like we veered off too much lol
find an available channel, this ones reserved rn
sending it to see it without scrolling
so Ann's point is that we can create a bijective function in any scenario consisting of those 4 structures?
Well I'm asking a some1 that can help cuz no1 is rn
In any scenario where there exist the two injections, because only these structures can form
are you a fucking pirate bro? this my ship get out
so dumbolic
mhm mhm
What's dumb is expecting random volunteers to answer your questions within minutes of you asking
so what we do is isolate each structure and show that a bijection exists in each one, thus combining structures wont change anything?
<@&268886789983436800> basically insulting and just overall disrespectful
Yeah
hmm okay lemme think on it some more i think im close
Please find a free help channel rather than coming to occupied ones. Doing this does not help you get answers.
I find this example for a bijection between [0,1] and [0,1) pretty good
tbh that seems like a topic for a different help thread lol
actually i think i understand it
i see the logic behind it at least
but i cant connect it to the proof of the theorem here
i guess my only question left is how do we construct a bijection in each of the 4 structures?
Basically for red rays your bijection is the red function
For blue rays, it's the blue function
For lines and loops, just choose either one
well whats the difference between f and the red function? if there is none, then f is a bijection no?
No, f is defined as an injection, not necesarily a bijection
i mean yeah, but saying that the red function is a bijection means f is bijective, i dont see a way around that
No we're taking parts of each function
oh, how so?
If you restrict the domain (and codomain) of f to just the red rays, then it is a bijection
That's the point
thats kinda confusing to me
Take that [0,1] -> [0,1) example
bc the blue lines only represent g, not f
f(x) = x/2
And we define the set C = {1, 1/2, 1/4, ...}
If you restrict the domain of f to C and its codomain to C\{1}, then it becomes a bijection
But on [0,1] -> [0,1), it's just and injection
oh wait a minute i forgot what a codomain is
The set of possible outputs
A function is surjective if its range equals its codomain
f is an injection because it takes all of [0,1] and all its outputs are different
hmm yes i see that
f<=1/2
If you make it take only C then it's still an injection, but not a surjection since, for example, 3/4 is not a possible output
Now if you also make its codomain equal its new range, that is C\{1}, then it becomes bijective
okay true
very true
And now we have g: [0,1) -> [0,1], so the other way, and g(x) = x
For anything that is not in C, we take g^-1, and that's obviously a bijection
For anything that is in C, we take f, and that's also a bijection
So both combined into h(x) = x/2 if x in C and h(x) = x if x in [0,1]\C is a bijection
yerp i see it
In this case, we have a ray that goes 1 -> 1/2 -> 1/2 -> 1/4 -> ...
(alternating between [0,1] and [0,1) )
That ray is covered by f
why does 1/2 map to 1/2?
The rest is an infinite number of loops, all covered by g
Because that's what g does
The ray starts at 1 in X (where X = [0,1])
You use f to go to 1/2 in Y (where Y = [0,1) )
Then you use g to go back to X, specifically to 1/2
Then f again to go to 1/4 in Y
ohhh
And so on
But now you make pairs with these vertices
First pair is 1, 1/2
That's covered by f
Second pair is 1/2, 1/4
Also f
And so on
and thats a bijection
Yes
now that confused me what
For the bijection
The ray is a chain of arrows alternating between f and g
But the bijection needs to use a single function and its inverse
That's why we pair the vertices
Again, the ray is 1 --(red)-> 1/2 --(blue)-> 1/2 --(red)-> 1/4 --(blue)-> 1/4 -> ...
We only keep the red parts to build our bijection
We don't need them
For anything that is not in C, we use the blue parts
That just means we use g^-1 (the identity in this case)
yeah because we only wanted to exclude 1, so the rest we just map to themselves, or halve them
pls tell me thats right
From 1, using f and g, you create a ray that goes through all of C
For anything that is then not in C, we indeed map the elements to themselves
And that makes an infinite number of small loops
mhm mhm
im a bit fried but i get it i think
im tryna connect the same logic to our original example
Actually that's wrong I got confused myself
Anything that is not in C is part of a ray that starts in Y
why does it start in Y? to exclude 1 because its in X?
So there are an infinite number of rays starting from some y in Y, and so we use g first, which becomes the bijection
Take 3/4 in X
It comes from 3/4 in Y, because g(3/4) = 3/4
But there is no x in X such that f(x) = 3/4
So that's a ray starting from 3/4 in Y
g is a func that goes from Y to X then?
Well yeah...
You have an injection from X to Y and one from Y to X, that's the premise
If you take something further down, like 1/5 in Y, you get the chain 1/5 <- 2/5 <- 2/5 <- 4/5 <- 4/5 and that ends (or starts) in Y
The only ray that starts in X is the one corresponding to C, which starts at 1
why did you make the arrows go the opposite way now?
That's the direction of applications of f and g
i feel like i need a semester of graph theory to not keep getting confused by simple stuff like that
Honestly, do learn the basics of graph theory, if only just to understand what graphs even are and how to build one
It's not difficult at all
i didnt know yall would use graphs to explain the theorem
And it's very useful to visualize a lot of things
yeah even tho ive never used that kinda thing before it did help
its better to stop it here, and ill keep the pic Ann sent saved for the future. you helped me understand a lot of stuff and get a deeper understanding in bijections and stuff so thank you
ill go read the weed book too
Functions can always be described using bipartite graphs (that means two parts, corresponding to the domain and the codomain)
So sometimes a graph (network) is better than a graph (plot)
idk what a network or a plot is exactly lol

Network is another word for the kind of graph we've been talking about
Plot is another word for the usual "graph of a function" with axes and stuff
hmm yeah we dont need an analytic expression to create a network
its the first time ive seen a network so ig its natural to be confused at the basics
Well you don't need one for a plot either, you just draw each point
Of course that's bothersome if there are an infinite number of points to draw, but you can't be infinitely precise anyway
points on a 2d plane are random tho. so if the function doesnt follow a pattern we cant rlly plot it
yeah, the network describes them through the properties of the function, while the plot shows you whats happening. thats my interpretation
plotting seems a bit useless in proving stuff
well ig were just visualizing
anyway
ill go take a break cuz my brain is a slime rn
thank you for the help, appreciate it
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Nobody knows u when u r done and under hmm
down and out*
GL
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I’m practicing for a test in which I’m not allowed pen, paper or a calculator
The formula to find fuel required = burn rate X time in hours
You’d need to find the time first (SDT) (Time = D/S)
I’m able to do this on a calculator however I’m not allowed to use one
I get 1 minute per question
How can i do this quickly with mental maths
Example Questions:
**• You travel 176 miles. How much fuel will you need if you burn 36 kgs per minute, and are travelling at 264 mph?
• You travel 343 miles. How much fuel will you need if you burn 40 kgs per minute, and are travelling at 490 mph?
• You travel 423 miles. How much fuel will you need if you burn 60 kgs per hour, and are travelling at 470 mph? **
@simple tusk Has your question been resolved?
@simple tusk Has your question been resolved?
goated naam
i mean it really just is a mental maths challange, just look for multiples that are familiar
like in the firsts question you have $36 \frac{176}{264}$ i'd be thinking well maybe they are nice and its a multiple of 36. 36, 72, 144, 176 you get the idea. Its just a game of find a nice multiple reduce the fraction
Nyxzore
In the initial time calculations there's always a common divisor in these examples you've given. Example 1: 88, example 2: 7, example 3: 47
Obviously you can't recognize these easily without a lot of practice
Eventually you'll see them very quickly
just practice
sometimes thats the hard truth, no funny tricks at your disposal
❤️
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i keep getting 100 for the average acceleration...my points r (40,2.2) and (22, 0.4)
also a question..am i allowed to send a viscous drag related question iin help category? i need urgent help since my exams soon and im not getting answers in physics server
Show ur work
my working is 2.2-0.4/(40-22)*10^-3
maybe the keyword is they want average accelertation during collision so i should consider the start and end of straighjt line?
yes that would make more sense
alr tyy
also does anyone have a clue if this is fine? 😓
yes
are you asking about concepts or calculations?
can i send it in this channel or do i open a new one.
if concepts, a little iffy, but if calculations, send them along with the relevant formulae
you can send it here and I'll pin it, but make sure you're done with your current question first so as to avoid confusion
i want to check my method of solving for one, and for the other question i used a different logic but its not in the marking scheme and i dont know why its not correcr
yes
ty
how did you get eta in page 2
if you're not sure of the liquid
you assumed it is glycerol and tried to prove by contradiction or something?
@empty reef Has your question been resolved?
it appears that yielding density through viscosity leads to a greater numerical uncertainty
so that try judging yse or no with viscosity instead of density
yeah i assumed it is and used the eta given in the question and then found its density following that calculation
then i compared it with its actual density which is also given
ohhh
i see, thats why theres a big differece in the density
okay thanks a lot, also does the workig in page 1 look okay to u? the marking scheme says this so ig they allow other methods?
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<@&268886789983436800>
have you solved the ode?
its linear first order so it shouldnt be that bad
try the method of integrating factor
i dont know where to start
do you know how to solve a first order linear ode?
no 🙁
https://youtu.be/gd1FYn86P0c
Learn that first
This calculus video tutorial explains provides a basic introduction into how to solve first order linear differential equations. First, you need to write the equation in standard form [y' + P(x)y = Q(x)] and then identify the functions P(x) and Q(x). Next, you need to determine the integrating factor I(x) using the formula I(x) = e^(integral o...
$$\frac{dy}{dx}+\frac{x}{x^{2}-1}y=\frac{x^{6}+4x}{\sqrt{1-x^{2}}}$$
BBMaths
okay w8
yeah ping me once u watched the video
(I just rewrote the question for anyone to use)
@brazen stream Has your question been resolved?
So the first step would be to work out what P(x) and Q(x) are
okay
The video has this right $$\frac{dy}{dx}+P(x)y=Q(x)$$
BBMaths
So just match that up with the equation
twin
thas all ryt?
Well the formula in the thumbnail is the general case for any possible P and Q
3 steps: \
BBMaths
@brazen stream Has your question been resolved?
so did u solve the ode?
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Help guys
hello
hello
Please only use the <@&286206848099549185> ping once if your question has not been answered for 15 minutes. Please do not ping or DM individual users about your question.
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
1
as a hint,
draw a horizontal line from the tip of the leftmost triangle to the tip of the rightmost triangle
then erase the base and \ side of the rightmost triangle
ill need more hints ;-;
oh and also we dont know wht type of triangle it is
if its isosceles, equilateral, or scalene
with problems like this, you assume its equilateral
rigor does not seem to be the focus of this problem, its too much of a popular clickbait one to require that
have you followed the two instructions in the hint?
yes
also, the trick Ill show you would work for any triangle, but equilateral triangles are the easiest to be convinced by
ohk
can you show it then
like shade it and show?
yea
yep
next up is a bit harder to realize
consider pairing up the dark and light areas like this
similarly:
next up you can prove that each pair together has the same area
uh how
how do you calculate the area of a triangle?
1/2 bh
now lets say you had two parallel lines (like the two //s)
and two transversals going through them (the \ and the -)
yeah same angle
we can use this as an example
we know the triangles are similar, right?
yep
can you see that their bases add up to the same amount each time?
yea youre not done yet
;-;
let me be sure on the next step
ohk
nothing ;-;
did you want to guess that, because the dark and light areas always added up to the same, that theyd add to 36?
you can see in this picture for example that whatever area they add to, it has to be less than 36
since the light area < the unshaded area of the ∆
true
hm?
first, we know if we can figure out the dark + light area here, that should be it for the whole problem, right
yes
and also, the exact position of the - line doesnt matter
since the area is always the same in any of its positions we've seen so far, right
im getting 162
Ill check
eh does 90 work
as a reminder, the dark + light area here has to be < 36
that means all four dark + light areas < 36 * 4
since four dark = four light,
four dark + four dark < 36 * 4
so four dark < 36 * 2 = 72
make sure your guesses are less than 72
ohk
brb
okk
messed up, the dark + light doesn’t always add to the same area
hmm..
idk if this helps
-# those two statements mean the same
i think i messed up
following the below one those sum should be twice
this should do
the orner half triangles
nvm
its wrong
we reach nowhere with this
why
@frank violet get your ass over here
dem
maybe do some geo
im doing geo
she went to bed ig
lemme see if i can help
;-;
saviour
definently not
imma go to bed its 1 am here
but lemme see what i can do
i just woke up and its at this time
dem
oh
do you sleep in day
ur bio is so true🥀
idk how i slept 19- 00
nocturnal being
NOW I CANT SLEEP
eh ill go study rotational dynamics
also are the triangles congruent?
i believe
alright then.
jee?
yep
ic
anywayz lemme know if it is solvable
;-;
no way this came from teacher
dem
at 2 am he was scrolling reels
better do something else
yes
now these triangles are congruent from congruency and since they lie on the same bases and parallels. They have the same area.
assumes all equilateral triangles
i still cant do it
this feels like a 10th grade question but it isnt somehow
you can close if you wanna
yep
im half asleep and the last thing i wanna do is do more math.
.close
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can anyone help
whats missing
the or vice versa part
firstly what's the probability he makes it and what's the probability he misses
for any single shot
0,25 he makes it 0,75 he doesnt
so we can just do that ^25
because half half kinda right
but the vice versa part
why .25/.75
cuz p^4 = 0.0016
yea
so it 0.2 not 0.25
^^
yeah reasoning is correct, fourth root of .0016 is .2
if u dont come to a result
if you can't figure out .2, use that
it's prolly for partial credit, so they can't make it same number or else they won't know which one you used
it’s like…
part (a) compute this
part (b) use what you found in part (a) to do this, but if you didn’t find it just use this number so that you can still try this part
yea
so
(0.2)^25 * (0.8)^25 * 2
this is correct?
ok i think you're on right track, now question is what are the different ways you can alternate missing and scoring
yea
so
wait you're good
yep you add over the configurations, which in this case is exactly multiplying by two because both configurations have equal probability
yeah
notably if it was some odd number instead of fifty you would not be able to multiply
yep good job
nah thats not gonna come
thats too hard
wat
wait
nvm
yea
op are 0 2 4 9 it was on my test yesterday can anyone cook this up??
wait where's the rest of the question
thats it
is w then last digit of w is?
last digit of w is asked
what is w
tbh i cant understand a single thing here
OHH
What's the last digit of the number of length 6 king move walks that start and end at the origin
i think it suffices to find the number of length 6 king move walks that start by going one unit to the right, then multiplying by eight due to rotational symmetry
8 i thought of only 4 still i cant calculate possibilities and whatever that mnabcd part written there
I'm tryna count them out but I'm in car rn 😭
king move is just saying it's one square out, like literally the valid king moves from chess
yk what the answer is 8840 so we cant rlly calc manually
the mnabcd part is irrelevant I'm sure
wait last digit so answer is just 0?
yeah
just need to find where remaining 1105 comes from
maybe some inductive thing?
i got scared looking at that only and skip the question
bruhh
wait yeah i don't see why it's there unless I'm misinterpreting and it's asking for the number of those sets constituting the walks?
@daring bay Has your question been resolved?
@daring bay Has your question been resolved?
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can someone help me find where i went wrong on evaluating this?
!ss
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integral of 3x^2 dy is not 3x^2
that's not what he meant
yes
this should be 3x^2/2
yes
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hello i need help here im gonna go ballistic
this is bernoulli right so
so 60/24
nah i dont have the slightest idea
this humbled me
bro
wait let me look at the
this was literally the exact translation of the problem
wtf
nah this doesnt make sense
i got another problem
so we got 180 minutes and 1 customer lasts 10 minutes so
yeah wtf man this is some bullshit too
24 minutes out of 60 minutes is 40% of the time=0.4 I guess
damn ok
I don't see how binomial distributions come into these problems but I can "solve" them if I just assume they are
wait so
we have 50 customer
and 5 technichans
so each techncian can have 10 customers
this is so weird
There is literally no way to calculate this, like if all the calls come at the start, all but 5 of them (45 of them) will be put on hold, but if the calls are perfectly spaced it would be 0 Nevermind, it says what's the probability a customer is put on hold I misread it
wait
let me look at the solution
Is the question what is the probability someone is put on hold or what is the expected number of people on hold
Questions that require looking at the answers to work them out are always fun

in what % of all cases are customers put on hold
whatever
this is the solution
the left is for the numbers cuz the translatiob bugging
This is just wrong, what if some technicians end up unluckily getting more customers
180 is from 180 minutes = 3 hours
10 minutes per customer / 180 minutes=10/180=1/18=0.05333...
but what does that 0.05333... mean
Yeah this question is weird so I don't really have a good answer
Oh
It's supposed to be the probability that a technician is on a call with a specific customer at a randomly chosen time (Given that technician helped that customer)
ohh
Since there are 10 customers per technician they just multiply by 10 to get 10/18=0.533....
Which is the probability that a technician is on a call with a customer
I mean it's not, but this question either becomes wrong when translated or it is poorly written
poorly written
So probability of technician being on a call is 0.53333
And then they use the binomial distribution to find the probability that all 5 technicians are in a call, but they don't need to calculate this way lol
The final answer is just 0.533333^5
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Hi sorry if its a stupid question but realistically aren't these two limit laws the same thing ?
you mean 8 and 9?
The laws themselves. Root and power
not if n is constrained to be an integer, as it is here
Like you can put a fraction for the power in the power law no ?
Why does it have to be root law
yes you can, but they've only stated (and i assume, only proved) the power law for positive integer n
Ig root means this
Hmm. I really cant get my head around why this works. Do you think I should worry about how it works or just acknowledge that this is just how it works.
well it depends on whether you're trying to understand why the results are true (i.e. how to prove them)
are you being asked to do exercise 1.8.69, where you have to prove the root law?
if not and you just want to use the results then it's another story
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Can someone point me in the right direction of what substitution to use? I really can't see it. Here is the question: Determine the sum function R(x) of the series by means of a suitable substitution and termwise differentiation and/or integration.
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hello for questions like this i can assume a value for example 100 when am i allowed to do that and when am i not?
When you have a question relating to ratios and no further knowledge, you can almost everytime do it
Still, you probably should get comfy with the idea of system of equations
do u need that
not really, no.
the spheres are unnecessary, its just if quantity Q is 50% more than quantity P...
(algebraically, i would express the volume of r in terms of q and q in terms of p)
then it's smooth sailing
is easier to use 100 tho but some questions im allowed and some are not how do i know if i can assume it as 100 or 10 etc
Whenever you are not given any specific sizes, and are give only ratios, you can use 100
mostly
you can use a value and it will get you the right answer but its generally good practice to understand the rule and use that to get the answer