#help-39
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or could you please give me a counterexample where 1/r goes to 0 but the rest of the function is unbounded so the whole limit doesn't go to 0?
then the limit would vary between r/r^2 and r^2/r^2 or something
a constant multiple of a limit to 0 is also a limit to 0
but not something like $\lim_{x \to \infty} x \cdot \frac{1}{x}$
south
cause x is unbounded
this is using that one thing that goes like
If $f$ is bounded, and $\lim_{x \to a} g(x) = 0$, then $\lim_{x \to a} f(x)g(x) = 0$
that?
Moonful
is this what's being used here
ahh of course
so the goal here is to show that $|\frac{\cos t + \sin t}{1 + \sin t \ cos t}| <= k$
Moonful
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yeah!
no worries
oh yeah it's one of the algebraic limit theorems, f(x) <= M and then you have lim M * f(x) = M * lim f(x)
and then M * 0 = 0 for any M
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∆ABC has circumcenter O, orthocenter H. M, N are midpoints of BC, OM, resp. The line through A perpendicular to BN intersects CH at P. E,F are the reflections of A through C,B resp. Prove that FP ⊥ HE.
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can someone remind me how this is supposed to be solved?
i dont remember any way to remove one of the variables
generally you want to isolate one variable
another option would be to add/subtract the equations
adding them just makes another double variable equasion
but a linear one
and i dont think theres any way to add to either or both of the lines to make them cancel something out
You just add up, you can replace one variable with an expression solely in another variable
adding them would make 2x + 8y = 2, or x + 4y = 1, if i represented x as x=1-4y, does that apply to the original 2 equasions?
yes
.....since when
-# forever
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A function is defined as e^{ 2|x|+x}. Let x1>0 and x2<0 be two points on the curve such that the tangents at these points is perpendicular.
The number of such pairs (x1,x2) are
(a)0
(b)1
(C)2
(D) More than 2
Rewrite the equation so that x2 is on one side
Then check whether the expression can ever be negative when x1 > 0
$f(x) = e^{2|x| + x} = \begin{cases} e^{3x} & x \geq 0 \ e^{-x} & x < 0\end{cases}$
Ann
consider the range of f'(x) and how it can overlap with the range of -1/f'(x)
3x1>0 -x2>0 so no such pairs?
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A school sells adult tickets at ₹65 and child tickets at ₹40. The number of child tickets sold was 15 more than adult tickets. Total collection was ₹3,025.
A) Let number of adult tickets be x. Form an equation.
B) Solve to find number of tickets sold.
C) If child ticket price increases by ₹7, what will be the new total collection?
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All
ok so let's start with A
the number of adult tickets is x as the question directly tells you.
then what's the number of child tickets?
(answer as an expression in terms of x)
40(x+15)
if you need help on questions like this then you should be going about this in a structured way
yes, x+15.
so
x adult tickets sold for Rs. 65 each
(x+15) child tickets sold for Rs. 40 each
can you tell me the total money collected in terms of x
40(x + 15)
no, that's from the child tickets only
i want you to tell me the total collection. from child and adult tickets, combined.
in terms of x.
Rs. 3025
no, not what i am asking
3025 will appear on the right side of your equation
i am asking about the left side
65+ 40
no, that's the cost of one adult and one child ticket.
40(x+15)
is the money collected from the sale of (x+15) child tickets
this is only "half" of what you need here.
the other "half" is the money collected from selling x adult tickets.
65x + 40×x+15
Oh
65x + 40(x+15) would've been correct.
so now, can you write the equation from this, now using the question's given value for the total collection?
65x+ 40x+ 600?
i said equation.
equations always have an equals sign.
it is even in the name.
you can expand 40(x+15) as 40x + 600 if you want but for part A this is optional.
no, because you did not actually write down the equation as i asked you to.
so we are not done with A.
65x+40(x+15)
the equation
please reread what i told you.
equations always have an equals sign.
using the question's given value for the total collection
65x+40(x+15)
there is no=here
65x+40(x+15)= ₹3025
the rupee symbol is going to get in the way a bit
but ok i'll take it
65x + 40(x+15) = 3025
NOW we are done with A, and NOW we can move on to B.
can you solve this equation and find the value of x?
a) "Yes. Let me go and do that."
b) "I am not sure. Let me try."
c) "No, I definitely can't."
d) "Something else."
Yes i can do it on my own
ok
do you need any more help from this point onward, or are you good on your own until the end?
No thank you!
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i took cases
7 even 0 odd--> 5^7
5 even 2 odd-->5^7
3 even 4 odd-->5^7
1 even 6 odd--->5^7
so 4 x 5^7
and then discount cases where 0 is the first digit
6 even 0 odd-->5^6
4 even 2 odd-->5^6
2 even 4 odd-->5^6
0 even 6 odd-->5^6
so 4x5^7 - 4x5^6 = 4 x 5^6 x 4
why is this wrong?
is 4 * 4 * 5^6 = 16 * 10^3? 
what is your actual final answer for m+n
oh hold on
they ask for m * n * 10^n?

impossible as written (if the exponent is INTENDED to be the same as the n factor)
yeah
the actual count seems to be 250000 and you calculated it correctly
is the answer listed as 10?
14

but i ignored their logic and wanted to correct mine
i just realized your mistake
sorry it took me so long
you did not account for where the digits go in the number
you're counting 2461111 and 1214161 as the same thing
huh meaning i need to multiply by 7!?
so you would need to multiply by some binomial coefficients
not by 7!, no
but by the number of ways to arrange the corresponding number of E's and O's in a string in each case
oh
so like for 2 even case
i multiply by 7 C 2?
<@&268886789983436800>
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lowkey lost for 67 d
i obvs change to dx dy
now for fixed y, i need bounds for x
in terms of y
BUT
when i draw the thing out
the curves are symmetric between the intersection
cuz yk how for x limits, we look at the leftmost curve going to the rightmost curve
that technique doesnt work
sure it does. you just need to work to find the functions of y
x = sqrt(y)
x = sqrt(2-y)
you might need to break it up into the sum of two integrals
what to do after that
one where y goes from 0 to 1 and the other when y goes from 1 to 2
x = -sqrt(y) to x = -sqrt(2-y) ?
then
x = sqrt(y) to x = sqrt(2-y)
im fine for the y bounds i think, its the x thats troubling me
i was thinking same as @lucid anvil
yep i get that, breaking it up seems good
i dont understand the x bounds
cuz how r u gonna create a function for your x
ok
then you have the same function
but negative
not quite
try fixing some y
oh
x=sqrt(2-y)
x=-sqrt(2-y)
^
wait how did you get this
that's one of the two double integrals
cuz like qian said
you should probably do one from 0 to 1 and another from 1 to 2 (for y)
for y = 0 to 1, you use the red curve as x bounds
and for y = 1 to 2, you use the blue curve as x bounds
wait ok
so when i do y = 0 to 1 i use the red curve
that would get me the area with the y-axis woulnd it
oh yea it would kk
ok i think i get what you mean
bet
oh shit ye i see it
i probably explained like shit
thanks guys
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i get +- but how do i know that its one of either
i.e. which one do i reject, or is my working out just flat out wrong
To check, plug both in into the equation of the derivative.
i see
and one of them gives 2 other gives -2, so i use theo ne that gave 2
for
wait so does this mean
if i h ave x^2 = a
and i do x = a^(1/2), the a^(1/2) has to be +-?
Are you really sure?
the rule where $\left(a^b\right)^{\frac1b} = a$ only applies for $a \geq 0$
Try to decompose it entirely and then solve.
im a bit confused
decompose?
yes, $x^{\frac23} = \sqrt[3]{x^2}$
Also, notation wise, you missed where the minus sign goes.
oh yeah, mb
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✅ Original question: #help-39 message
wait so is this wrong?
No, that is correct
Both the positive and negative solutions are valid
You can have more than 1 solution
Domain of $n$th roots: (For real numbers)
$$\text{If }n\text{ is even: }[0,\infty)\text{ (Postive numbers and zero)}$$
$$\text{If }n\text{ is odd: }\mathbb{R}\text{ (Every number)}$$
BBMaths
@swift spindle Has your question been resolved?
look at my working where did i go wrong
i found dy/dx of the negative version is -2
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✅ Original question: #help-39 message
@swift spindle Has your question been resolved?
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how to solve this type of limits?
What's ur status?
what is thisss bruh 😭
Yep
Start by solving the summation
alrightt
After that just take n common
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ok good
you should send your question(s) as the first message btw
Theorem 1.4.3. (Mader 1972):
$k\in\mathbb{N}$ (non-zero) and $G$ a graph with $d(G)\geq 4k$. Then there exists a k-connected subgraph H with $d(H)>d(G)-2k\geq 2k$
Affe
i know but i didnt want anyone to take this channel
question inc now
now diestel uses this theorem to deduce that given $d(G)\geq 10r^2$, then $\epsilon(H)>\epsilon(G)-r^2\geq 4r^2$ in his proof of theorem 7.2.3
Affe
Affe
shouldnt it be $\epsilon(H)>\epsilon(G)-r^2\geq r^2$?
Affe
havent read 7.2.3. completely yet
tired
Th 3.5.3 (Thomas&Wollan 2005) states that every 2k connected graph with $\epsilon(G)\geq 8k$ is k-linked
Affe
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Affe
which is equivalent to $\epsilon(G)\geq 5r^2$
Affe
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how to easily differentiate this ?
will any substitution work here?
i'd be tempted to just try taking d/dx of both sides and see where you end up
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bruh
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$Let $\pi$ be the plane given by the equation $x+2y+z=0$. Define $F:\mathbb{R}^3\to\mathbb{R}^3$ by
[
F(x)=\operatorname{proj}_{\pi} x,\qquad x\in\mathbb{R}^3.
]
Use the formula for the orthogonal projection onto a plane through the origin to show that $F$ is a linear transformation and to determine the standard matrix of $F$.$
Quantie
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dope
(capital Pi maybe?)
ive proven its a linear transformation by F(ax + by) = aF(x) + bF(y)
and to get the standard matrix for F i put in the base vectors e1 e2 e3 and i was done
but in my professors solution, he does a loot of stuff with orthonormal bases, and wrote "to determine F´s standard matrix we determine an explicit ortogonal base B to pi"
and gets this, which is easy steps
but he doesnt use it for anything and gets the standard matrix and just goes on
maybe he missed something in the exam problem? or am i missing something
id send the full solution but its in swedish
or no he uses the new base to calculate the F(e)
is it just a more rigorous method, rather than just
Quantie
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I mean yours is fine...what's your actual question though?
im just confused over his solution lol im trying to understand it
why is an orthogonal base so important that he highlighted it
ok i think its just
different solving methods
alr alr
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What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
2
all
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
nCr/nCr-1 is (n-r+1)/r
Why is part of this redacted?
Idk if this gonna help tho
Is this classified work for the government
Looks like it will
Bro can u help w my question
tried it
lol no
it was some random comment frm teach
which question we doing first
wht do i do with the n
1 feels weird, shouldnt the n.o. terms be always odd
idk trinomial expansion
nope, the n in first is 6
tht ik
yeah
,w expand (1-2/x+4/x^2)^6
thats 13 terms
Yo i think this is a hp in n
this is purely binomial ;-;
the number of terms is 2n+1
Binomial suck tbh
ik
what does $C_n$ even mean
south
idk
is it like $^{15}C_n$
MathIsAlwaysRight
like I've seen $C(n, r), ^nC_r, C^n_r$ for binomial coefficient
south
but the denominators are all $C_0, C_1, C_2 \cdots$ which doesn't make sense
south
so that's 2 vague questions... nice
do u have notes / textbook or anything where that notation is used?
Apply that formula n-r+1/r
Why don't u just write 1
wht do i put in place of n
doesnt it mean n * Cn
thts just for the sigma
yeess
Toh n and r are equal to n so it's basically sigma 1 to 15 1/n
Bro what
I thought
It was the standard
Notation
if it was that, what'd the denominators mean?
C_13? What does that mean?
poor us
no, C2 just means 15C2...
etc
yeah
okay, yeah, this matches my result
amazing how much clearer things are when you don't redact important information
Fr
$\frac{i \cdot ^iC_2}{^{15}C_{i-1}}$
random comment from teach 😭
MathIsAlwaysRight
daym
so this is how the terms actually look like
oh
try doing some algebra and simplifying that
i will
omg i hate these questions leave them ill go make ramen chill and then come back to them
divide and multiply with n! to start
It's so easy it's e^3
omg
shit
wht didnt i think of tht
wait
how
Am I correct?
damnnnn
Idk e^3 looked the best
how old are you ;-;
Im 41
cap
No cap gng
no 41 year old talks like tht
I got 2 kids
My kids taught me
cap ;-;
I only speak 📠 no 🧢
try simplifying the inner sum first
ogk
note that both n and r is fixed, so you can factor out the first 2 things and you're left with sum of rCt 4^t
nah, we dont hand out answers + im lazy to do it all
What are u even preparing for mate
Who tf is asking that shit
school?
what i mean is start by simplifying the red sum
and you can ignore the blue stuff, because it doesnt depend on t. So its just a constant
leave it;-; one question wont hurt me ;-;
ohh
Ts too much for high school exams
nope
It's gonna be on the exam
no its not like tht
i just doing previous year questions for practice
for the finals
and pre annuals
No I'm telling you the question u think won't hurt much to leave will show up
Ok the exam
they give ipad to first ranker
Crazy
i doing it off the web;-;
I mean u never know
What like a entrence typa shi
is the answer 5 btw?
yep
U didn't just solve it like in 5 minutes
JEE ;-;
legit
show wht u did
its not difficult, its tedious. Typical JEE. It only looks difficult
well once we ignore the blue sum, its just sum of rCt 4^t which is (1+4)^r by binomial, but the sum is only up to r-1, so we subtract 4^r (the last would-be term)
I just don't know where to begin
so the inner sum is just blue * (5^r - 4^r)
begin at the inner sum
shit
No in general i think jee math is too much
its literally the same trick applied 3 times
so u are a kid
go tit
got it
Nah this is my 32rn drop year
did it
uh sure
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$\int_{0}^{1} \frac{\sin(\arctan x + \pi)}{1 + x^2} , dx$
okay, this is a call for help too, i genuinely hate feeling like this, im forced into college against my will by my family and got threatened to keep studying while i wanted to pursue something else. i hate how i can understand basic intuition behind everything but whenever a curveball gets thrown at me in form of a problem i dont recognize i genuinely get stuck
i hate feeling behind so much, please throw whatever resources you have, books you have, hard problem sets, ill do whatever it takes to catch up and i want to fullclear all kind of exams, this is probably really easy to you guys but i genuinely dont know where to go from here, and im also scared ill forget this after a year
anyway, what i observed so far was sine shifting when its +π, making it int0,1 [ [-sin(arctan(x))]/1+x^2 ], thats as far as my intuition goes, and for i know i could be wrong too, im scared to push forward
Sylvaline
there, thanks everyone in advance
id advice you delete the previous image and simply put the text on its own
done, sorry
Well, to start with, you will prob want a trig identity table at hand at all times
got from google, good resource?
Apart from some basic knowledge on trig functions
I myself can only recommend wikipedia's list
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/List_of_trigonometric_identities
In trigonometry, trigonometric identities are equalities that involve trigonometric functions and are true for every value of the occurring variables for which both sides of the equality are defined. Geometrically, these are identities involving certain functions of one or more angles. They are distinct from triangle identities, which are identi...
there are some obscure identities that relatively frequently come at hand
you can usually find them on your own but make some things faster
wikipedia never crossed my mind because i always went to images but oh wow thats really useful
i might make a note compiling them
anyways, just to start, you should see a really easy simplification on sin( arctan x + \pi)
yes, i saw +pi shifting the function
it makes for a -sin(arctan x + \pi), for all i know, this could be wrong too
oh right, it has already shifted the function
you can go two ways from here.
The crazy way > Which is using the table for trig(inverse trig) identities.
Or theres a really easy sub.
kind of the reverse, but yeah
you prob want to learn the derivatives of all the main trig functions + arctan.
arcsin and arccos rarely appear too.
And honestly ive never seen arccsc, arcsec and arccot being used.
right, i only saw them in one problem
ever, or maybe my palette is small
In HS/Uni youll rarely see them, and depending on what kind of work youre doing, it becomes even rarer past that
by the way, what might this crazy inv trig table route be? would it help me bruteforce problems in exams?
Theres an identity for every composition of trig function and another inverse trig function
sin(arctan) is there
the problem would then become $-\int_0^1 \frac{x}{(1+x^2)^{\frac 32}}dx$
which you prob have seen already
its also a u sub, but it just requires for you to know off the top of your head the result of sin(arctan x)
oh my god
say u = 1+x^2
du = 2x
yep, you get 1/2du = x dx
oh mmyyy goddddd
and then you simply do 1/u^{3/2} which is just power rule.
i think youre the best
also, in the wikipedia page i sent you can check up on the forgotten trig functions
anyways, any other question?
not at the moment, so all is clear now
how may i close?
thank you so much im goonna cry
,.close when youre done
.close
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thank you
np
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Why is this like that?
If sqrt(2)^2 =4
Then why is that equation in the picture bigger than that if it’s just plus
what do you mean by this?
i think sqrt(2)^2=2
(√2)² ≠ 4, it equals 2
I mean sqrt(2) times sqrt(2)
yup it is equal to 2
You mean why is it not 2? And why 2root2
It’s like that because that’s they simplified using multiplication.
𝑎 + 𝑎 = 2𝑎
It would still equal 2.
sqrt(2) is basically 2 raised 1/2
so then when you multiply two same numbers with powers
their powers add up
therefore 1/2 plus 1/2 equals to 1
hence its 2
but this is addition
so this explanation makes sense the most

the thing is that you are not multiplying 2 sqrt(2)s, you are adding 2 sqrt(2)s
the operator is +, not *
yup but she said that sqrt(2)2^2 is equal to 4
hell naw
also $\sqrt{2}^2 = 2$
^
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
It isn’t…
…you proved that it is yourself. 😭
√2 • √2 = √(2•2) = √4 = 2
right here. (√2)² = √2 • √2
look at this explanation
Again, for the picture you attached, the answer is this. They have used the definition of multiplication to transform √2 + √2 into 2√2.
now tell us, if there's ANYTHING that you can't understand
please TELL us that EXACT confusion
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lmao
cooked
Ik these
it’s fine though
its ok, don't say that
Let’s not.
Im aware that root square is just number under the root
I needed help with the first one
squaring and square roots cancel each other
Ik that…
yeah its ok, you understood right
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,rccw
This ain't maths
is this a test
@fading ledge Has your question been resolved?
It is a reasoning question
ok well what do you think the answer is
we can't really say much without spoiling it
Provide a translation please
there's an English version there
My bad
This feels like social science
and op is gone
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I've no clue where to begin
M(T) is the matrix of the linear map T
well, what does dim range T = 1 mean?
a single basis vector of W can span the range
forward
so every output points in the same direction w_0, the whole problem becomes 1) choose a basis of W starting with that direction w_0 and 2) choose a basis of V so that the scalar multiplier of w_0 is 1 on every basis vector
Hi y'all
hi, welcome to the server! to chat, please head to #discussion or #chill.
welcome
for 1), we can extend w_0 to a basis, I'm not sure about 2) though
do i take a v_0 that is mapped to w_0 and then extend the basis?
you do take v_1 with T(v_1) = w_0, but instead of just extending it arbitrarily, you extend it by adding vectors from ker(T) to it.. (we know by rank nulity that dim ker(T) = dim V - 1)
wouldn't that force all coeffs to be zero
because if Tv_k=0,
=> 0=a_0 w_0+...+a_m w_m and it is linearly independent because it's a basis so each a_n = 0
where did that linear combination come from?
diamond$ds T\p(sum a_i v_i) = sum a_i T(v_i)$.
Oléagineux Distilliànus VIVII
I don't understand your confusion
rank 1 automatically forces all rows except the first to be zero once you pick the right basis of W
but the question says we need all entries as 1
oh I somehow misread that
my thinking is if Tv_k = 0,
0 = A_1,k * w_0 +..+ A_m,k w_(m-1)
but if this is 0, every A_p,q has to be zero
oh 😭
one sec
@still hamlet Has your question been resolved?
Choose u in V such that T(u) = w_0 and set u = v_1, then you let k_2,...,k_i be a basis of kerT and define v_i = v_1 + k_i then T(v_i) = w_0..
and (v_1,...,v_n) is a basis of V
how do u know every w_m apart from w_0 will also have coeff 1
choose a basis of W such that w_1 + ... + w_m = w_0

.close
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Problem. Determine $E(X + Y \mid X > Y)$ for $X,Y$ i.i.d. $N(0,1)$. \
I've read somewhere you can simply relabel $X, Y$ so that $X$ is almost surely greater than $Y$ without changing what you're taking the expectation of (and $P(X=Y) = 0$), so $$E(X + Y \mid X > Y) = E(X+Y) = E(X) + E(Y) = 0.$$ I don't understand this reasoning. $A={X>Y}$ is an event. So $$E(X + Y \mid X > Y)=\frac{E[(X+Y)\mathbf{1}_A]}{P(A)}.$$How do we go from here?
psie
@wind lagoon Has your question been resolved?
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how do I solve this?
i honestly havent a clue
Firstly, what can we find
We know it is a hemisphere and we know from the bottom centre of the cuboid to the top left corner is the radius of the hemisphere, right?
Now from here, what can you tell from these 2 lines?
hint: congruent triangles
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If $\phi$ is the standard normal density, i.e. $(2\pi)^{-1/2}\exp(-x^2/2)$, how can I compute $$\int_c^\infty x^2 \phi(x) , dx ?$$
psie
Here c >= 0.
yup
Ah, ok. Shame.
Can't you integrate by parts? With u = x and v' = x*psi?
smth prolly goes wrong in ur new integral
That's how you get the error function
erf(e) is oddly close to 1 but isn't expressible by standard functions
I didn't see the lower and upper bounds. 😂
!xy
Please show the original problem, exactly as it was stated to you, with the entire original context. A picture or screenshot is best. If the original problem is not in English, then post it anyway! The additional context might still be helpful. Do your best to provide a translation.
Will do, just have to find it. 🙂
yeah if it was -infty to infty it would be doable
Well, not 'oddly' close, since e is pretty big we approach 1
erf(infty) is 1
We know if $X$ and $Y$ are jointly normally distributed then they are independent iff they are uncorrelated. Now, let $X\sim N(0,1)$ and $c\geq0$. Define $Y_c$ as follows, $$Y_c=\begin{cases} X,&\text{for }|X|\leq c\ -X&\text{for }|X|> c\end{cases}.$$
(a) Show that $Y_c\sim N(0,1)$.\
(b) Show that $X$ ad $Y_c$ are not jointly normal.\
(c) Show that $\operatorname{Cov}(X,Y_0)=-1$ and that $\operatorname{Cov}(X,Y_c)\to 1$ as $c\to\infty$. Show that there exists $c_0$ such that $\operatorname{Cov}(X,Y_{c_0})=0$.\
(d) Show that $X$ and $Y_c$ are not independent (when $c=c_0$).
psie
I'm stuck on (c). Computing $\operatorname{Cov}(X, Y_c) = E[X Y_c]$ (since $E[X] = E[Y_c] = 0$), we have
\begin{align*}E[X Y_c] &= E[X Y_c \cdot \mathbf{1}{|X| \leq c}] + E[X Y_c \cdot \mathbf{1}{|X| > c}] \
&= E[X \cdot X \cdot \mathbf{1}{|X| \leq c}] + E[X \cdot (-X) \cdot \mathbf{1}{|X| > c}] \
&= E[X^2 \mathbf{1}{|X| \leq c}] - E[X^2 \mathbf{1}{|X| > c}] \
&= E[X^2] - 2 E[X^2 \mathbf{1}{|X| > c}] = 1 - 2 E[X^2 \mathbf{1}{|X| > c}].\end{align*}
Let $f(x) = x^2 \phi(x)$ where $\phi$ is the standard normal density. Then
$$E[X^2 \mathbf{1}_{|X| > c}] = 2 \int_c^\infty x^2 \phi(x) , dx.$$This is where I'm stuck.
psie
What happens as c approaches infty here ?
In the last few lines
I'd say the integral vanishes, or? But I can't prove it. After all, $x^2$ gets very large, though $\phi(x)$ gets very small.
psie
Yes it vanishes
Just need to show the integral is convergent (for every c>= 0)
Which is a lot more doable
Hmm, ok. How should one approach this if the integral can not be solved?
Hmm.
Have u never had to show a certain integral converges before?
Seems like a prerequisite for this problem
It was a long time ago. 😄 I'm a bit rusty with integral convergence. I'm better with series convergence.
We need to show perhaps that it is bounded above by something that does converge?
Mhm
I notice that the integrand is nonnegative.
Mhm
Also we can safely ignore most of the constants or factors
The meat of the integrand is x^2 e^(-x^2)
I mean
Yes this is a good observation
You can probably see the other more trivial approach to this
Yeah. Perhaps this would do it. $$\int_c^\infty x^2\phi(x),dx\leq \int_{-\infty}^\infty x^2\phi(x),dx=E[X^2].$$ Now, $\operatorname{Var}(X)=E[X^2]=0$, since $X\sim N(0,1)$. Is this correct?
psie
Var(X) is not 0, it is 1
Oops yeah but the main point is its finite
The argument is still valid
Yeah, typo. 😄
Ok. So we know $\int_{c}^\infty x^2\phi(x),dx$ is finite for all $c$. Why would it vanish for $c\to\infty$? Also, for $c=0$, why is the integral $-1$, and for which finite $c$ is the integral $0$?
psie
I'd expect the integral to equal 1/2 for c = 0. I'm mistaken here I think.
The last one follows by intermediate value theorem if im not missing anything
For c = 0, what have u tried?
The first one is almost by definition
Try for urself
Well, I was thinking $$1=\int_{-\infty}^\infty x^2\phi(x),dx=2\int_{0}^\infty x^2\phi(x)\implies I=\frac12$$where $I$ is the integral, isn't it?
psie
Mhm
Okay I think I see a mistake
Why simplify from X^2 1_{|X| <= c} to X^2?
If c = 0
Then this part must vanish
Hence you get -1
But the argument from before still works when we let c -> infty
It’s only then we can simplify it to X^2
Hmm, ok. I will look at my attempt again. Thanks for the comments. Will get back. 🙂
Ok. Yeah, I probably simplified too much. It's not necessary to do as much as I did. One can simply read off the case c = 0 implying -1 and c tending to infty implying 1 from the expressions earlier. But regarding there existing a c0 such that Cov(X, Y_c0) = 0, you mentioned the intermediate value theorem. Does this not apply to continuous functions on intervals [a,b]?
I'm looking at Theorem 4.23 in Rudin, and there he requires continuity and intervals of the form [a,b]. 🤓 I'm not sure which are the continuous functions we are looking at here.
Consider f(c) = Cov(X, Y_c) as a function of c
We can choice our own interval
Since we know f(c) > 0 for big enough c
And f(c) = -1 for c = 0
So an interval like [0, 1337]
Should work
Or at least we know there’s an endpoint that works
Only have to show f is continuous
Which I would say follows by elementary results from analysis
(Integral of continuous function is C^1 and so in particular continuous)
Ah ok. You mean the simplification I did way up above, where I expressed Cov(X,Y_c) as a constant minus an integral?
An application of the fundamental theorem of calculus
Yeah
Nice. Ok. 👍 Only (d) left then. 😄
I figured it out. 🤓 Thanks for your help above! Appreciate it.
I'm closing here.
.close
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Hi,guys I have statics problem
im not sure how to do this could someone help please
ok imma get on it rn
So,between the beam carries a uniformly distributed load, and the shear force diagram there is a straight sloping line.
betwenn b and c
shear at b is 19.8,at c is -10.2 and lenght bc is 6,so change in shear is shear at b - shear at c is30kn so uniformly distributed load is change in shear/length so answer to no 19 is 5.0KN/Mˆ-1
Then for 20
so for mamb it occurs where shear force is minimum or 0,so look for where that is,we can see that shear drops from 19.8 to -10.2,so distance from b to 0 shear is
$x=(19.8/30)*6=3.96m$
LUC1DV1B3S_010
then bending moment is area under the sfd from b to that point. that area is a triangle
and normal area is
isnt it s slope line between b and c
$A=1/219.83.96=39.2KNM$
LUC1DV1B3S_010
Yes it is
i dont understand this bit isnt moment = to area under SFD
i meant constant udl
but its in the option
yes its equal but that area rrly means the bending moment area under the shear force diagram from a reference point up to that point
you get?
anyways ive given you the answers and solutions
and it isnt statistics
its engineering/applied mechnics
in high school?
im assuming you used proportional triangles for this
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where do i even start 
i was thinking of differentiating but... can i even
Do you know the Maclaurin series for exp(z)
ive only learnt how it works for reals
tho i assume it generalises quite nicely
It does
same thing?
it is in fact the general definition of exp for complex numbers
huh neat
why shouldnt you be able to?
i have no experience with differentiating complex things
works the same as differentiating e^(2x)
Well it is a real variable
its the root of unity thats bugging me
omega^k is a constant like any other
sooo i can differentiate per se exp(ix) without something going wrong for smth like that?
and the derivative is iexp(ix)
yes
huh oke 
@rare field Has your question been resolved?
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So I’m taking another stab at trying to understand Axiom of Choice: #help-8 message
And my understanding is:
Why is AC is needed: ZF set theory alone does not allow us in general to somehow “choose” an element from each set of a collection of sets. That is in general there is no way to specify a “general rule” for choosing elements for any arbitrary collection of sets.
I.e. the statement “pick any element from each set in the collection all at once” is NOT allowed in ZF set theory since we cannot create such a set from the axioms alone and there is no deterministic/well defined function?
Well-ordering: Hence this is why we need well-ordering to be assumed. Since then it provides the necessary structure to create a choice function (based upon a well ordering)
Would this be correct? Are there any misunderstandings I have and/or missing pieces?
Why is AC is needed: ZF set theory alone does not allow us in general to somehow “choose” an element from each set of a collection of sets.
Yes
That is in general there is no way to specify a “general rule” for choosing elements for any arbitrary collection of sets.
In ZF without AC yes
I.e. the statement “pick any element from each set in the collection all at once” is NOT allowed in ZF set theory since we cannot create such a set from the axioms alone and there is no deterministic/well defined function?
Yes
Well-ordering: Hence this is why we need well-ordering to be assumed. Since then it provides the necessary structure to create a choice function (based upon a well ordering)
"Well ordering" (as in Well-ordering Theorem/axiom, stating that any set can be given a well-ordering) is equivalent to AC. So if you want to be able to use the axiom of choice, just assume AC directly, or the well-ordering theorem, given that when you assume one of them you immediately get the other as well
“Well ordering" (as in Well-ordering Theorem/axiom, stating that any set can be given a well-ordering) is equivalent to AC. So if you want to be able to use the axiom of choice, just assume AC directly, or the well-ordering theorem, given that when you assume one of them you immediately get the other as well
Yes sorry that is what I meant. The “Well Ordering” as an any non empty set X has a well ordering. And trying to show the equivalence between Well Ordering and AC.
I.e. the statement “pick any element from each set in the collection all at once” is NOT allowed in ZF set theory since we cannot create such a set from the axioms alone and there is no deterministic/well defined function?
Regarding this statement, I think I’m still kind of shaky as to why this cannot be proved using ZF alone. Since the definition of a “rule” seems a bit arbitrary and I’m not sure why “pick any element from each set” would not be a valid rule
Regarding this statement, I think I’m still kind of shaky as to why this cannot be proved using ZF alone. Since the definition of a “rule” seems a bit arbitrary and I’m not sure why “pick any element from each set” would not be a valid rule
I mean, it's been an axiomatic/philosophical question for a while whether you're allowed to 'pick any element from each set' for an infinite number of sets, and how big the infinity can be such that you can still choose. From a human perspective, we can only accomplish a finite amount of things because we need time to accomplish each thing, so the idea of "choosing randomly an element in this set" requires you to almost "physically" grab an element in each set, and that for an infinite number of sets, while you only have a finite amount of time.
Also, I'm sure you're aware of the kinds of things we can prove once we allow ourselves to magically use the axiom of choice (like the Banach Tarski paradox)
Have you seen the Veritasium video on the AC subject? It's very entertaining and I think is well written so you can learn a thing or two from it, at least I recommend it
How do you make infinite choices? 👉 To try everything Brilliant has to offer for free for a full 30 days, visit http://brilliant.org/veritasium. You’ll also get 20% off an annual premium subscription.
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I mean, it's been an axiomatic/philosophical question for a while whether you're allowed to 'pick any element from each set' for an infinite number of sets, and how big the infinity can be such that you can still choose. From a human perspective, we can only accomplish a finite amount of things because we need time to accomplish each thing, so the idea of "choosing randomly an element in this set" requires you to almost "physically" grab an element in each set, and that for an infinite number of sets, while you only have a finite amount of time.
Ah okay. So like “pick any element from each set” for an infinite number of sets is more philosophical than mathematical? As in we just define set theory as in saying that not a rule? Since then I’m not even sure what can be a rule then/why it’s not a rule
Also, I'm sure you're aware of the kinds of things we can prove once we allow ourselves to magically use the axiom of choice (like the Banach Tarski paradox)
Yeah I remember reading a proof (Hahn-Banach Extension Theorem) that used Zorn’s Lemma and then began down the rabbit hole 😭
Math axioms always have this philosophical aspect to it. The purpose of axioms is that you need to assume the most basic and fundamental things in order to build stuff on top of it that is less basic/fundamental. So an axiom will always be subject to questions like "Why do we need it?" or "Is it really needed?" all the way up to "Isn't that too strong of an axiom" and "Can't we assume a much weaker axiom instead?"
remember that the whole point of defining axioms in the first place is just establishing your avaliable "computer instructions"
and everything that isnt there, or isnt deduced from there, cant be used
maybe OP can think about axioms as being pre-defined rules of a game, and any theorems based on those axioms as 'strategies' that players develop using the axioms/rules
I see yeah. I’ve been going off of axioms are just rules I must play by/must be true and then theorems + lemmas etc build off from there
basically
in terms of programming languages, it would be the reserved keywords, for example
Yeah ig more so where in ZF does it disallow statements like “choose any element from each set”? I think that’s kinda my main question now, as this seems to be a valid rule
using the language above, you haven't defined that you can do that, “choose any element from each set”
well, i guess some do disallow things, like the collection of all sets not being a set
imagine two very basic programs in pseudocode:
Program 1:
ADD(2, 3)
error: ADD is not defined
Program 2:
#define ADD(a, b):
return a+b
ADD(2,3)
5
your axiom would be the #define here
you have defined a thing that you can do
Oh like here using the ZF axioms alone I can’t do that or
Yeah but I thought ZF allows us to use that statement to create a set
the axiom of choice is not needed for finite sets, it's just for allowing some stuff on infinite sets
I think am missing smthing you guys are saying but idk what
I don't think you need an axiom to create a set
Yeah
but you do need axioms to assume certain properties about the set you create
I just don’t really understand why the rule “choose any element from each set” can’t be used in ZF
Or like proven ig?
Idk how to say, like it seems I’m not allowed to do this in ZF alone (otherwise AC would be meaningless) but I’m not sure why
I guess the first instance of choosing you get is related to the quantifier $\exists$
Rafilouyear2026
to say I can choose something in set $A$ is "applying" the statement "$\exists x (x\in A)$"
You might want to realize that set theory (and in particular ZF) is built from first-order logic
Rafilouyear2026
from first order logic, the rule you have is that you can choose one element from one set
I recommend reading this: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/1083058
So of course, repeating this operation many times in a row, it's ok to choose one element each for a finite number of sets
But just like you can't give a computer an infinite amount of instructions
you can't, from this rule only, choose one element each for an infinite number of sets
maybe one close analogy is mathematical induction and how it works for any finite set, but does not imply the validity of the infinite case
Wait sorry, how is first order logic related to this/to the statement? I’m not too familiar with it
ZF and ZFC are defined after first order logic
All the axioms you see written here are using first order logic to be formulated
Rafilou hinted at it. ∃x, p(x) means you can choose an x such that p(x)
ooh wait. So are you saying my statement/rule "choose an element from each set from all sets in the collection" is the same as saying for all sets S in the collection, $\exists x(x \in S)$? But isn't this a valid rule? Like this is choosing one lement each for an infintie number of sets
LXDL
I think what Rafilout is saying is similar to what Nel shared here
but isn't for all set $S$ in the collection ... bascially syaing we can apply all at once?
LXDL
first-order logic cannot quantify over undefined sets, iirc
let alone an infinite number of them
Yes, and on top of that the resulting thing you would get from "choosing an element from each set in the collection" might not qualify to be a set
Like you can't tell unless you prove it's a valid set by some other means (see Russel's paradox for an example of an invalid set)
ohhh okay woudl you happen to know fo any resoruces that teach first order logic from basics? ngl i am kinda nooby at this
and pretty lacking in that department but woudl like a solid foundation in it
https://forallx.openlogicproject.org/
this is open-source (or rather, free to distribute).
forall x: Calgary is an open textbook on formal logic
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im trying partial fractions but i cant work it out or find a pattern
