#help-38
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Yep
Would it be 180
Yeah
What abt the tan one
Hmm
I don’t really remember my trig values but
I think it comes out to some nice value
How do I figure it out
If tan is y/x it doesn’t even show up on the unit circle
Like idk how to get it
Hmm
Well I’m not sure if you’re allowed to use a calculator but if you are
You could do that
Or maybe
Oh wait
-tan(-x) = tan(x)
So just find tan(x) = 1
That’s 45 right
Ok so that means -tan(-45) = 1
or tan(-45) =-1
Yeah
Or since tan is periodic you could shift it to the positives
Add 180 I think
But -45 should work I think
Ok so tangent can be
But sine cannot
Because of the range I mentioned earlier
-1 to 1, it can’t be any greater or any less
So the last one is one of the two that don’t work
Yes
Which one is the other one that doesn’t work sgain
I feel like we did all 3
Oh is it the first one
Well since we know 2 and 3 definitely work
Yeah
First one probably
Technically you can find a value for tangent but there isn’t a nice one
It’s transcendental
I think
Maybe possibly don’t quote me on that
But it’s definitely not an integer and definitely not a fraction
Okay so for my explanation
For the last one do I say this
Or do I need to expand on that
You can just say there is no value of sine that results in an undefined value
@wraith hinge Has your question been resolved?
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I'm trying to prove a) at the moment
the way I'm planning on doing this is going to be
a) use the fact that S is embedded to find a slice chart around each of its points
b) extend the function f to each of the slice chart seperately
c) glue them all together using a partition of unity
my trouble at the moment is with b)
here's everything I've written down so far
I need to define f_p to be an extension of f to U_p
but I'm struggling to figure out how to formally do this
if S and U_p were subsets of R^n, I could do this easily: set f_p(x_1, ..., x_k, x_k+1, ..., x_n) to be equal to f(x_1, ..., x_k)
for example, I could extend any function f defined on the x-axis of R^2 to all of R^2 by setting f_p(x, y) = f(x)
but we don't have coordinates on the manifold itself so I'm confused on how to do this now 
any suggestions?
@grim sparrow Has your question been resolved?
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why was x1 added
<@&286206848099549185>
we start from the point (x1, y1) and go from it by (x2-x1)/2 horizontally
@tired badger Has your question been resolved?
ohh ty
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you didnt use my advice from last time
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Did I make any mistakes?
It is a orthogonal matrix so the answer should be like this
The magnitude of vectors should be equal to 1
So there are 2×2×2 matrices
Did I make any kind of mistake?
1 or -1
the answer is ||16||
@marsh forum I don't really care about the answer
But where did I make a mistake?
1 or -1
It's 2×2×2 fundamental principles of counting
Understandable, yea
Right?
one minute
Ha
I think you should recheck your matrix multiplication
also, you get 2a_1=2a_1
Hmm, what matrix did you get
By checking by multiplication I got the same matrix 🥹
PQ and QP commute
So this must be valid
I think what you want to use is $P = Q^{-1} PQ$
What a wonderful world !
Also,why are you doing this at 11 pm 😭
There's one more jee advanced problem I solved and I got it right
That;s nice
No I'm going for jee advanced after a year
You do know the papers have been released?
Yes
Also notice $|det (Q)|=1$
What a wonderful world !
Holy
Moly
I knew this kind of shit can be done but I didn't do it ,it came into my mind at 1am but didn't apply it
Instead I chose to do wrong multiplication 💀🥹
Is this a different question
Yes
lemme check
give me 5 minutes to go though it
This is -2
Ok
How did you get Tr(Q)=5
You do realise Q^2-5Q+6I = (Q-2I)(Q-3I)=0
you can expand it to verify
where 0 is the null matrix
should have used O my bad
The determinant value of Q-2I is 0 and Q-3I is 0 so Q is not a null matrix but determinant value of Q-2I and Q-3I is 0
yes
Np=Not possible
And ignore the things written in a cloud shape
That's the same thing written in my language
Situation for AB=0
So it is not gonna affect anything I think
yea, it won't
Yes
Yes
that seems to check out
Ah okay
I think we're done, no?
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please let me know if this is correct
Is this a test
its a test review but if i get it wrong i have to do 3 more of the same questions and my hands hurttt 💀
it stacks up the more you get wrong so you practice but ive gotten 6 wrong and I dont think im getting it
if its wrong can you help me figure out where i went wrong I have my work but my handwriting sucks
ok thank you
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Number of ways to put things in a circle
Can someone help me figure that formula out
Like- number of ways to put 7 children in a circle
Pretty sure this has smth to do with permutations and combinations but idk where to start
@torn shale Has your question been resolved?
theres a simpler way of thinking about this ||cutting the circle into a line||
youre right it has to do with permutations
Oh so its seven factorial
This
almost.. keep in mind you can cut the same circle in seven different ways and get different lines
so you need to work backwards to account for how youve basically counted the same thing 7 times
But how does the order matter here
Its just seven children on a line
How can we get different lines from the same children (arguing that its a combination not a permutation)
i guess it depends on whether the direction of your circle matters
so if i have a circle of 4 things
b
a c
d
i can have abcd, bcda, etc depending on where i cut
Mhm
does that help? 
I dont think its relevant to the question im asking and its rather relevant to when order matters which i dont think it does when it comes to the children problem
The options are 1 , 7 , 720, and 5040
Its a choose question
Oh is it six factorial
Because for the first child it wouldnt matter where we put him at all. The order will only matter starting with the second kid
So it will be (n-1)!
yeah!
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Not sure where to start on this one, just need a little push, thanks.
$\frac{dv}{dx} = \frac{dv/dt}{dx/dt} = \frac{a}{v}$
south
I follow through and get -4v=dv/dx
yeah and you can check from the answer that dv/dx = -8e^(-4x), which is indeed -4v
great all that's left to do is to rearrange and integrate both sides
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We have f(x,a,b) = 9x^2 - 9(a+b)x + (2a^2 + 5ab + 2b^2)
If we are told that x = (2a+b)/3 is a root of this, that is, for any value of a and b, if x = (2a + b)/3 is put in the function, the output is 0, cannot we conclude immediately that (2b + a)/3 is also a root of this function?
yes
So, if f(x,a,b) = f(x,b,a) and f(g(a,b), a,b) = 0, does this imply that f(g(b,a), a, b) = 0?
yeah think so
f(g(a,b),a,b)=f(g(a,b),b,a)=f(g(b,a),a,b)
where the second equality is just because names dont matter
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Wait, isn't the second equality not always true?
.reopen
✅
I am switching the names
Are you saying that f(g(a,b),a,b) is always equal to f(g(b,a),a,b)?
lets do a middle step
you give me f(g(a,b),b,a) and I dont like your names so I switch them to f(g(x,s),s,x)
importantly, relative to each other the variables have the same names
its a,b,b,a in that order before and now its x,s,s,x
so now I give this to a friend again and he doesnt like my names either and renames it to f(g(b,a),a,b)
its still the same expression but with the names switched
anyway, I have to go
Okay, thank you for your time
Consider f(x,a,b) = x - a - b
Let g(a,b) = 2a + b
Then f(g(a,b),a,b) = (2a+b) - a - b = a
f(g(b,a),b,a) = (2b+a) - b - a = b
<@&286206848099549185>
well ok a key point is that it was zero so the resulting expression didnt depend on a and b anymore
so we were just allowrd to switch names
the name switching is a bit weird in that regard
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how do i solve for all x such cos(x) = 1/4
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i have been asked for my real analysis class to bring in an example of "A sequence of functions fn : [0, 1] → R which converge uniformly on [a, 1] for all a > 0, but do not converge uniformly on [0, 1].
Im gonna be honest i dont reall understand the topic and how i would i find an exampl eof this
to show this do i just need to find a f(n,x) that when i take the lim n appraoch infinite of x = 0 its different to every other limit from (0,1]
do you understand at least what uniform convergence means or is supposed to represent?
its like an epsilon band that all the fn(x) conervge inside?
it's kinda like that
just taking the example of uniform convergence to the 0 function
Imagine you have two straight horizontal bands below and above the functions f_n
yes
they rest precisely on the maximum and minimum value of f_n for every n
you have uniform convergence if both those horizontal bands manage to get to 0
what so the limit of each should be the same for all x values, when n appraches infintiy
it's not just every f_n(x) goes to 0 for every x
they all go to 0 at a "similar rate"
or at least they have a minimum required speed to converge to 0
they explanatnio they gave us was only 2 slides and didnt use the idea of rate i dont think
you've seen the sup norm for functions right
yeah ive seen the supreme of functions
$|f|\infty = \sup{x\in D} |f(x)|$
no i havent
rafilou is not not born in 2003
well that's weird but ok
basically that norm is "how far away can this function be from 0"
hmm ive seen supremumjust in the context of a max value
for continuous functions, it's kinda like the max
yeah okay
this "norm" stuff goes through all the points on the curve of f
okay
and it finds the point the furthest away from the x axis
yeah makes sense
and it gives its distance
yeah
so
if we can manage to get that "maximum distance" to converge to 0
then every point must converge to 0 AT LEAST at that speed
okay
because you can't be further than the furthest point
just one thing to know
is that when you look at multiple functions f_n(x)
even if for every fixed x, f_n(x) goes to 0
the maximum distance can sometimes not decrease at all
this can seem weird, because every point individually goes to 0
but if you think about the "point of maximum distance" changing for each function
it's kinda like a whack-a-mole
you try to make some point go to 0 because they're the furthest away
but then some other point becomes the furthest away
hmm okay
was what i was describing before converging pointwise
all good
back
we saw the example fn(x) = x^n on domain [0,1]
all we saw was that lim n appraoch infitnity fn(x) for [0,1) was 0 and 1 for x = 1
that's a very good example
now it's not exactly a whack-a-mole in this case
hmm
because the functions we deal with aren't continuous
and so the "point of maximum distance" doesn't really exist
but there are some points that are always above a certain distance
why arent the function contious
well the limit function to be precise
f(x) = 0 if x < 1 and f(1) = 1
hmm
that's not exactly continuous now, is it
oh okay yes
before that I talked about uniform convergence to 0
but in general
if f_n converges uniformly to f
that means f_n - f converges uniformly to 0
so now when we look at f_n - f
we're not exactly dealing with continuous functions
okay
so there's no exact "point of maximum distance"
but we can always find points above a certain distance
so if there are always points above a certain line
our "horizontal bands" can never hope to get to 0
yeah okay
but now, let's say we investigated those functions on [0,a] where a < 1
what happens now?
dont know if im getting this right but for my example to find a non unfirom conerging thing
i would need to find a functino that fn(x) - f(x) cant equal 0 at x= 0 but does equal 0 at (0,1]
what function are you reffering to?
sorry im pretty lost
those f_n(x) = x^n
oh okay
that we were investigating at [0,1]
yeah
what happens if we look at them on [0,a] instead
a < 1
like it seems the problem of uniform convergence was around 1
so what if we cut off a chunk next to 1
then it woudl be uniformly conervgent for [0,a]
alright, yes, it would be the case
can you prove it?
with the definition you have in your textbook
or your lessons
so i would need to find an M, such that N. > M, fn(x)-f(x) less than epsilon
yeah
and M doesn't depend on x
is the reason we look at n to infinitry because its the largest n can be so if it doesnt work then it wont ever work?
that constant M is "uniform" on the values of x
okay
uh I didn't get that
all good
nonsense
so uniform convergence is finding a M that works for all the pointwise versions of x?
yeah, that's what uniform means
okay
M doesn't depend on the "part of the space" chosen
makes sense
compared to pointwise
which is, for each point, I can find an M
that may depend on x
yeah okay
alright so notice that in our example, f should be 0
so we need |fn(x)| < ...
and now notice that the maximum f_n(x) can ever be is a^n
|fn(x)| <= a^n
yeah
and that doesn't depend on x
but a^n goes to 0
because a < 1
so using the definition of "a^n -> 0"
for every epsilon
yeah
that's why the proof we had for [0,a] doesn't work for [0,1]
yeah
so we choose to look at a because it would be the largest distance from 0? Then looked at its limit as n apporach infincity as see its 0
yeah, in that case
okay
x = a is always the point of maximum distance from 0
yeah, f_n(x) - f(x) must uniformly converge to 0
and since f(x) = 0 everywhere on [0,a]
okay
we're good
now, to show more rigorously why x^n doesn't converge uniformly to "f(x) = 0, f(1) = 1" on [0,1]
as stated
we would like to show "for all epsilon, there is M, for all n > M, ..." is false
so we could find an epsilon that doesn't verify that statement
so for example epsilon = 1/2
because
f_n(x) = x^n has f_n(0) = 0 and f_n(1) = 1
so I can find some point
where f_n(x) = 1/2 right?
since it's continuous
yeah
yeah
but now we have f_n(x_n) = 1/2
so we're NEVER gonna have "|f_n(x) - f(x)| < 1/2 for all x"
yeah makes sense
alright
so that was a very good example
of f_n converging uniformly to f on [0,a] for every a < 1
but not on [0,1]
we're not that far off from what you wanted right?
haha yeah
okay
can i just ask when trying to think of an example is there any easy way to tell if it will uniformly conervge
thank u
uh
there are a few tricks
ofc if you can't find the sup of |f_n - f| on the spot
there's this nice property:
"let f_n: I -> R and f:I -> R. If all f_n are continuous and f_n converges uniformly to f, then f is continuous"
okay
so "uniform convergence preserves continuity"
meaning
if you have a sequence of continuous functions
and the pointwise limit is not continuous
do you think it can converge uniformly?
no i hope
exactly, it is impossible
hooray
so use that check but then need to prove for the domains
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For 10 I am trying to make my inductive hypothesis. I assume that n=qb+r, 0≤r<b. Next I will make n+1= q'b+r' 0≤r'<b. How do I know that both q and r need to change. Couldn't it be only one to have a +1 increase in n?
You have $n=qb+r$
$n+1 = qb+(r+1)$, if 0≤r<b-1, you. have, r'=r+1
skye ( aka wai)
can you do it from here
Why b-1?
?
there are two cases
either the remainder is less than b-1 or the remainder just happens to equal b-1
what happens in each of those cases for n+1
I'm confused why we're doing b-1 in the first place
I thought the for the equation to be true r must always be less than b so if we make a new equation with r' then b still must be greater?
can you write down the q and r for all numbers up to 10 ?
1 = 0*5 + 1
2 = 0*5 + 2
and so on
How did you decide to keep q constant and increment r by 1 is that because of adding 1 to the original equation?
tell me other q's and r's which work
I didnt really decide to do anything
those are just the only q's and r's that work for these cases
Well that was my first part of the question do we need to change both q and r or can we only change one for the implication?
can you please write out the list I asked of you
Just want to make sure we're keeping q constant and just incrementing r by 1 correct?
Ok 3=05+3, 4=05+4 5=05+5, 6=05+6, 7=05+7 8=0 5+8, 9=05+9 10=05+10
So it breaks if you go past b
1=0×5+1, 2=0×5+2, 3=0×5+3, 4=0×5+4
whole list
But you said it is wrong to go after this since it breaks the inequality no?
Oh ok
the pattern breaks. but not the whole thing
Cant you do q for infinity then since r will always be less than b then?
Yes but if we are keeping r and b constant then we can just keep increasing q since it is not affected by the inequality
but the equality n=qb+r still has to be true
I do not understand what you mean
can you keep writing the list?
yes that is what I mean that we can keep writing our listed of numbers with changing q such as 15 = 3 * 5 + 0 , 20 = 4 * 5 + 0 ..... since q does not play a role in our inequality
woudln't this work for all q
also going back to my orignal question how can I make my inductive hypthesis with new q and r or is it new q or new r?
can you please just keep writing the list instead of trying to guess how it works abstractly
6=?
7=?
8=?
9=?
10=?
would you like me to do this changing q correct?
if you can manage it by changing q, sure
ok so 6 = 1*5 + 1 7 = 1 * 5 + 2, 8 = 1*5+3, 9 = 1*5+4, 10 = 2*5+0
yes
so
we can now look at the complete list
when did we change q? when did we change r? how did we change them?
we changed q when r was about to become equal to b
in other words when r was b-1
yes
and then we are back to this
ok, but I am still confused how this lets us figure out how we should write out our inductive hypothesis?
the induction hypothesis is just that for n there exist q,r with n=qb+r and 0<=r<b
in the induction step you have to do two cases
depending on r<b-1 or r=b-1
ins't that what we assume
the induction hypothesis is what we assume
don't we want to find it show that with that assumption we can find n+1 = qb+r
yes that my question when we write this out how do we know if it is both q' and r' because that would imply that they both change but from our list we see that only one changes at a time
just because its called q' does not mean that it cant equal q
oh ok
so we go back to our assumption which is n = qb+r such that 0<= r<b and now add 1 we have n+1 = qb+r+1. Can we now say that r' = r+1. But then how can we prove that r' <b?
.
so I would need to prove that r' is equal to b-1 or less than b-1
also for induction woulld't I need to transfomr my assumption into the n+1
you do two cases depending on this
so you are saying that after adding 1 to both sides I need to examine these both cases and show that r' can only fit into those two cases
r fits into only one of those two cases
but aren't we looking at r'?
and depending on the case you have to define r' differently
isn't r' just defined to be r+1 though?
not when r=b-1
since then r = b but how can we execute our inductive hypothesis then if we are adding 1 to our assumptino?>
q = 1 and r = 4
so n=9
yes
and for n+1=10 we have?
q =2 r = 0
yes
ok so I want to just make sure I am following everything. We will show that n = qb+r | 0<=r<b impliles n+1 = q'b+r' | 0<=r'<b. Now we add 1 to both sides of n= qb+r and then we have either r = b-1 or r < b- 1
yes
So if we prove that it is either case we have proven that our inductive hypothesis work
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If i had some polynomial degree 3 divided by another polynomial degree 3 but that polynomial is int eh form (x+2)(x²+1) where i cant simplify it more
If i wrote it as A + B/x+2. +(cx+d)/x²+1
And then cross multiplied
Sub valeus of x
And form 4 equations to solve a b c d
Would that be a correct method
@fierce rain Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
Just A/x+2 then the second fraction
Is A wrong?
No, the constant term still exists because the degrees of the numerator and denominator are equal
The form you put is valid, as you have first done polynomial division to get a remainder, then do partial fractions as normal
Yh i thought that
I just had a exam and i feel loke if i dod remainder theorem it would of been better
I learnt it a different way, where we subtract and then continue, my bad.
are you talking about fm?
Yh
ah
I did that method yh
this time
i got 2- A/x+2 and then bx-c
How'd you find it though?
Yeah same
@fierce rain Has your question been resolved?
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@fierce rain Has your question been resolved?
No
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how do i do the theorem
Do you know the conditions and the conclusion of the Intermediate Value Theorem?
If so, restate them here, and I'll help you apply it to this problem.
i dont really know the rules
Condition: $f(x)$ is continuous on $x \in [a, b]$. \
Conclusion: $f(x)$ takes on every value between $f(a)$ and $f(b)$ on $x \in [a, b]$.
@stoic garden
the IVT states for a continuous function on a closed interval ([a,b]) and let (N) be any real number such that (f(a)<N<f(b)) then there exists a point (c\in[a,b]) such that (f(c)=N)
PajamaMamaLlama
In this case, we're trying to prove that the function is equal to 0 at some point on the interval (-1, 0). This means that we want to prove f(x) crosses y = 0 between (-1, 0). Do you understand this?
so it has to be true for everything between -1 and 0
No, it has to be true for at least one point between -1 and 0.
but also continuous?
Sorry- can you explain what you mean by true?
f(x) being continuous is the condition we must satisfy.
ok
when i plug in the 0 and -1 i get -2 and 1 so that means there is at least one possible solution in between
is that right?
@stoic garden
You must explicitly state that this is partially because -2 < 0 < 1.
i knew it was between those numbers but i guess it wouldnt hurt to put that down
so it is true because -2 < 0 < 1
It’s not necessarily about what you know. All of this must be specified in order to get credit on a free-response question.
That tells that there is something between it, but it also has to be continuous?
How exactly do we tell its continuous
All polynomials are continuous
It is continuous if the graph can be drawn in one stroke
Did you get your answer? @lament rose
What would be an example of something that doesn't work
Wdym?
Like if there was no point in between
That's only possible if the function wasn't continuous
As long as they don't equal?
Oh you want example of a function that isn't continuous in that interval
Ye
f(x)=1/x
f(-2) = -0.5
f(1)=1
-0.5 < 0 < 1
So there should exists and x satisfying f(x)=0 if the function is continuous.
But try and you won't find any x for which 1/x = 0.
Because the function is discontinuous at 0.
You understand? @lament rose
Yes you can't use IVT if there is atleast a single discontinuity
Oh
But if you prove the function is continuous, you can use IVT
But if f(x) = x^2
F(1)=1
F(-1)=1
It won't work because there is nothing in between, so 1≠1
Correct?
well f(a) can't equal f(b) according to the definition
It doesn't work because f(a) = f(b)
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Basic question in probability theory about the expectation of discrete random variables. I simply don't get this equation in the book I'm reading.
It's part of a simple derivation for a variance expression
All I'm getting is that the expectation of a real number is the real number itself? Which doesn't make sense to me. Though I understand the rest of the basics like the linearity of expectations.
I'd also mention I understand the formal definition of a random variable and what a probability distribution is, etc etc
the expectation of a real number can be interpreted as the expectation of a "random variable" except it's not random at all it just always returns that number
How would that work with respect to this definition?
This does clarify a bit but I'm just curious
define the probability as 1 for that number and 0 for everything else, then it would just be summing up 0 + 0 + 0 + 0 + x + 0 + 0 + ...
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can someone please explain this to me?
@keen pewter Has your question been resolved?
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i think this problem has some sort of error because even the solution doesn't make complete sense
perhaps they meant AB = AC
because they said that angle B = angle C, but based on the way it should be drawn according to the prompt, angle A = angle C
@keen pewter
sup
my bad
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can I factor this x^2-x-6=0?
hello
yes
so what two number multiply to -6 and add to -1?
it's -3 and 2
$\left(x-3\right)\left(x+2\right)=0$
hello
oooh
okay
ah i wrote this out and still couldn't figure it out (x+a)(x+b)=x^2+x(a+b)+a*b
thx
$\left(x+a\right)\left(x+b\right)=x^2+\left(a+b\right)x+ab$
hello
yes
practice
type in the stuff here:https://www.desmos.com/calculator/ then copy it here
put it in dollar signs
$(x+a)(x+b)=x^{2}+x(a+b)+a*b$
hello
use dollar symbol
$(x+a)(x+b)=x^2+x(a+b)+ab$
Shubham1029
$(x+a)(x+b)=x^{2}+x(a+b)+a*b$
AllNamesAreTaken2342329
AllNamesAreTaken2342329
you could just ab
ab?
instead of a*b
if you want to test latex you could go to #latex-testing
and close this room if you are done
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can someone help me with this question?
why can i not leave it as squareroot 1/y the whole thing but have to turn it into 1/squareroot y?
okay
you actually dont really have to do that
as long as you can go to y^(-1/2), you should be fine
but if i did this, the answer would be different
$\sqrt{\frac{1}{y}}=\frac{\sqrt{1}}{\sqrt{y}}=\frac{1}{\sqrt{y}}$
hello
$\sqrt{\frac{1}{y}}=\sqrt{y^{-1}}=y^{-\frac{1}{2}}\$
$\frac{1}{\sqrt{y}}=\left(y^{\frac{1}{2}}\right)^{- 1}=y^{-\frac{1}{2}}$
MathIsAlwaysRight
so i just have to simplify it
so from this i have to simplify it into 1/rootY.
Yes. And you antiderivative doesn't work.
oh alright,
That's why you can't go the route you took.
im abit curious why do i have to simplify it for it to work though?
It's because it accounts for any negative exponents.
Allow me to write it out:
You solution can also be written as:
$\frac{2}{3}\left(y^{-1}\right)^{\frac{3}{2}}$
hello
Your antiderivative
oh so that would work too right?
But try deriving this:
You don't get $\sqrt{\frac{1}{y}}$ again.
hello
oh yeah right
So for that reason, it's best practice to always convert things to exponents.
okay, thank you
Otherwise you'd still have to account for the y^-1 somehow.
Is there any other questions you want help with?
no thats it thank you
Bye
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why did we square RHS?
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the figure shows the graf to a function f
determine then the function
i thought the answer was -3
(graph* in English)
But here you don't need to determine f
You're asked for a definite integral
i.e. the "area under the curve"
(where if the curve is below the x-axis we take the area as negative)
!occupied
Someone else is already using this help channel. If you need help with a question, please open your own help channel/thread (see #❓how-to-get-help for instructions).
Ask in #geometry-and-trigonometry, and don't just ping people you don't know
so calculate the negativa area from -3 to -2 then take that - the area from -2 to 0?
my phone is in swedish so it autocorrects when i type in english
yeah like i said well then i get it
thank you
have a nice day
np
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$f(x) = x^{l+1}\sum_{n=0}^{+\infty} c_{2n} (-k)^n x^{2n}$
Mr. Rotor
$c_{2(n+1)} = c_{2n} \frac{1}{(2n+l+3)(2n+l+2)-l(l+1)}$
Mr. Rotor
Mr. Rotor
But i just can't do the bridge
@wheat mango Has your question been resolved?
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Anyone have any advice for integrating this thing?
Try as I might, I cannot get it into a useful form
E is some arbitrary constant
Astute observation my good friend. This integral is hurting my feelings
yeah i thought about that
and then you'll end up with a quadratic in u under the root
yep
so maybe some trig sub will follow
been playing with that for a bit, wasn't able to get it into a recognizable form. close, but nothing i could find an established identity for
Sub e^ax = t it's solvable
A bit lengthy but definitely solvable
Factorise the denominator into a perfect square form
Tried that, but I'll give it another shot
you'll have uhh... -(t-1)^2 + E + 1 under the root if i didnt mess up arithmetic
so $t-1 = \sqrt{E+1} \sin(\theta)$ maybe
Ann
@urban grotto Has your question been resolved?
shoot me
ive been playing around with it and gotten it into the following form
I believe that the algebra to get here was fine, but that u in front of the square root is annoying me'
(I dropped some prefactors to focus on the form of the integral)
Here i have
-Done a u substitution as suggested earlier
-Completed the square
The square root seems like it boils down to a secant, but again, that u in front is killing me
That square should not be on the u, it should be on the u-1 term
You want the last bracket to be ()^2
Then you can make another substitution
I'm pretty sure the answer to this is gonna be truly horrible
But it's doable
Yeah I think we need a sin(θ) style sub
And then a tan(1/2 θ) sub
You know it's serious when the tan(1/2 θ) sub comes out
I haven't done all the working so this might not be exactly correct but I think you're aiming for something along the lines of √((E + 1) - (u - 1)^2)
Then sub u - 1 = √(E + 1) sin(θ)
That should simplify it quite a bit
i think this is the direction
im going to close this channel and think about this problem indepdently, see if there's other ways to go about it to avoid this integra
thankks
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Did I do this right
i probably did that very wroong
When you applied the Quotient Rule, you messed up what must be subtracted. Also, you didn't use the Product Rule properly for x g(x).
dont i need to do the product rule first
No. You should use the Quotient Rule. And within that, you should be using the Product Rule for d/dx (x g(x)).
so put in quotient rule form then inside use product rule
so for the quotient rule is (dirivitave of the numerator times denominator)-(numerator times dirivative of deniminator then divide by denominator squared
and when the numerator is prime do i write it like x'g'(x)?
or is it like xg'(x)
this one looks correct, right?
@stoic garden
I’m not sure what you mean, but I can definitely say you’re still not using the Product Rule.
@lament rose Has your question been resolved?
Until here, it’s correct. I can’t check the rest of it.
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This is probably just an open problem, but I couldn't find much online about it. But it is a reasonably well known fact that the (mn)th Fibonacci number $F_{mn}$ is divisible by both $F_n$ and $F_m$. (It is, however, not necessarily divisible by $F_m F_n$.) If we consider all of the factors of $k = (k_i)$ and take the LCM of $(F_{k_i})$, then this number divides $F_k$. If we perform this division, because the Fibonacci numbers are exponential, there will be other, leftover factors. We call this the "primative part" of $F_k$. We can notate this as $p(F_k)$. These are given by A061446.
Other than $p(F_6) = 4$, these values seem to be square free. Are they?
OmnipotentEntity
@simple haven Has your question been resolved?
@simple haven Has your question been resolved?
@simple haven Has your question been resolved?
Scrolling through some sources, your conjecture, if true, is at least as hard as proving the non-existence of Wall-Sun-Sun primes: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Wall–Sun–Sun_prime
In number theory, a Wall–Sun–Sun prime or Fibonacci–Wieferich prime is a certain kind of prime number which is conjectured to exist, although none are known.
but it looks like ppl are saying that from heuristic, it looks like there are infinitely many wall-sun-sun primes. Exhibiting any of those primes would be a counterexample to your conjecture (by the equivalent definition listed under the Wall-sun-sun prime wiki).
and that is at least as hard as proving fermat's last theorem as i just found out
What do you mean it looks like there are infinitely many wall-sun-sun primes?
I mean that using some sketchy probability calculation, assuming that primes are random.
you sort of assume that a number around N has a change of being prime with probability 1/log(N)
Well we've checked well over a dozen primes and none of them are wall-sun-sun primes so I think there's a pretty strong heuristic the other way.
but yeah, that's a fair point. I haven't run the numbers on that so I can't say
"checked finitely many primes" means basically nothing considering that primes are infinite though
.
its hard to quantify how strong of an evidence these finitary checks are
Either I'm too thick to understand it, or I simply missed it, but can you point out where the wiki says that these two things are related?
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pick F_{\alpha(p)}, where alpha(p) is the smallest number n such that p divides F_n, but we know that p^2|F_{alpha(p)} since it is a wall-sun-sun prime (listed in the wiki, it is equivalent), but this gives us that p(F_{alpha(p)}) divides p^2.
sry for the late response i had something going on
oh the stack post explains it exactly the same, lol
Thanks! @placid radish
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nonsense
it consists of every linear combination of the columns of A (or the span of the columns), not just the columns themselves
16b is also nonsense
yeah, I made that up