#help-27
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could you show your calculations
yes using desmos it shows one triangle has side 3 and 3/4
another triangle has 3 and 13
i even usd a calculator
then added up the area
should be 3.25 not 3
limit your bounds to 0 and 4
should be 2 triangles instead
oh that might be why
you should be inputting a and b
the legs of the triangle
not a and c
or just use a calculator, .5ab is simple enough
bad practice to rely on calculators
try calculating on paper instead
or use a calculator calculator, not an online formula calculator
yeah thats the mistake i found it
yeah true
😅
anyway
ty!
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@silk ridge Has your question been resolved?
@silk ridge Has your question been resolved?
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Is the answer to this just [f^(-1(x))h(x)] since p(x) is irreducible in F[x] we know F[x]/p(x) is a field and f(x) nonzero will have a multiplicative inverse
whats theorem 5.10
uh basically like TFAE if p(x) irreducible in F[x] then F[x]/p(x) is a field and an integral domain
if [f] isnt 0 it has an inverse in that quotient ring
yeah since it's a field
so yeah

they start them with rings and fields then move them to group theory ryb its wack
oh wow
youre gonna learn the galois correspondence and then learn the axioms for a group
galois theory would be the quarter after but the math dept is slow so they dont offer it
oh wow so they don't restrict the courses you can take
so I'll just take grad algebra next year
at my uni they require you to have prereqs to register online
if you don't have prereqs you can still register but you gotta inform the prof so they don't automatically boot you from the course
which i have
the advisors here disagree
idk man you seem to be handling it fine
I wish u were in charge of the courses I could take haha
I asked to enroll in this last quarter, so I could take galois theory in the spring like I said abve
LOL
but they told me no
no my university has pretty annoying rules about those too
luckily it's up to the prof
I've been lucky in getting waivers into courses I want to take so far
I asked the prof first cus I had already dealt with advising being stupid so many times
but there's no escaping the freshmen courses
and they forwarded my email straight to adviing

I got instrutor permission for both my courses last quarter cuase advising wouldnt let me take either of them
how it works here is one would first inform the prof of their missing prereqs and ask for a waiver
when the registrar's office sends them the list of students without necessary prereqs, the instructor will ignore your name when they start booting students
anyway
if only
just finished my algebra HW now have to do my linear algebra
what a joy
ty again
the irony
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"just finished my 4th year course homework time to do my 1st year course homework"
well it's abstract linear algebra
XD
I've been finding multiple ways to cheese doing any actual linear algebra
in linear algebra
too much algebra in my life
I would rather write a 3x longer proof that avoids linear systems
and matrices
than deal with any of those
i had something on a homework that would be solved by this
instead of dealing with matrices
I spent a large amount of time dealing with dual spaces
omg
maybe you can explain dual spaces to me then
because we just got to those and
I have no clue whats going on
hmm
okay I can try but this is gonna be like
not the best explanation
because I have bad cointuition
so basically dual spaces are dual objects
uh
yeah this is a cursed understanding
Hom(V, F)
where F is the underlying field
oh good
austin uses L
sure
ye
$\mc L(V, \mbb F)$
.reopen
✅
the dual space is "contravariantly isomorphic" to V
so
the intuition is
pick a basis of V
we'll assume it's finite for now to make life easy
say v1, thru vn
we can biject every vector in V with a linear transformation T: V \to F
elements of L(V, F) are called linear functionals btw
so
this is so refreshing from when I tried to watch a youtube video and all of the terminology was way different
the dual basis?
the standard dual basis
intuitively what are these guys doing
I assume you know about the standard dual basis?
if not I can define it
(duality is a very confusing thing)
I think I have it in my notes but maybe we could define it anyways because it hasn't really sank in yet
sure
$$\phi_j(v_k)=\begin{cases} 1 \quad \text{k=j} \ 0 \quad \text{else} \end{cases}$$
Austin
yes
thank you
so we're gonna see why this actually works
let $v = \sum_{i=1}^n a_i v_i$
suppose that is equal to 0
and let $T: V \to \mbb F$ be any linear transformation whatsoever
Then we have that $T(v) = \sum_{i=1}^n a_i T(v_i)$ by linearity
plugging in v_i gives just a_i
so a_i = 0 for all i
yeah so the standard dual basis just picks out the scalars
so clearly we only need to understand how T acts on our basis
the intuition behind the standard dual basis is the fact that those phi_i's are just "indicators"
they're picking out the scalars
now
it's helpful actually seeing an explicit bijection
so for every $v \in V$, write $v = \sum_{i=1}^n a_i v_i$, and send it to the linear functional given by $\sum_{i=1}^n a_i \phi_i$
this is certainly injective, since \phi_i is a basis
and every vector can be written as a unique linear combination of its basis elements
to help with the intuition
the REAL confusing part is dealing with the double dual
Hom(Hom(V, F), F)
is that the dual map
the dual of the dual
I want to introduce it just to make life less confusing ig
and so you can get a bit ahead
yk
if you're confused today
after a few days
it'll sink in
sure
and make sense
so basically this thing here is isomorphic to V
it's actually an example in category theory
of naturality
but obviously no category theory here
one day
now let's see why these guys are actually isomorphic
unironically i think the category theory intuitions will help
or shall I say "cointution"
Let T be a linear transformation from L(V, F) to F
we would like to pick out a vector in V that T goes to
so we're gonna cheat a little bit
doesn't T go to F
recall that for each $f \in \mc L(V, \mbb F)$, there is exactly one $v \in V$ such that $f$ is a linear combination of $\phi_i$'s with the same scalars as $v$ is a linear combination of the $v_i$'s
in V
so in other words we have
T((L(V,F), F)
$T: \mc L(V, \mbb F) \to \mbb F$
so again we just need to study how $T$ acts on our basis
now $T(f) = T(\sum_{i=1}^n a_i \phi_i) = \sum_{i=1}^n a_i T(\phi_i)$
okay so it stands to reason that we can pick a similar basis for $\mc L(\mc L(V, \mbb F), \mbb F)$. Define
[
\varphi_i (\phi_j) = \begin{cases}
1 &\text{if i=j} \
0 &\text{otherwise}
\end{cases}
]
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
but \varphi_i is representing v_i
yes
(this is the part that's hard to wrap your head around)
genuinely I do not know what a double dual is used for
no and I'm not saying like
but again my knowledge of linear algebra is limited
dual spaces are kind of important i think
why
they let you rigorously define higher dimensional tensors i suppose
because the idea is you can represent V with the space of linear maps from V to its underlying field
like in category theory if you can define the morphisms you can extract the objects
I see
I have a maybe unrelated maybe related question
also, i'd like to say that it is a disservice to give a good explanation of dual spaces without giving the naive intuition that V is F^n and V* is (F^n)^T
yeah this is what Snow was saying earlier
🤷♂️ idk though
it's natural in the literal categorical sense too
well ofc
what's U^0 lol
what's the prime here
right I see
yeah the dual space
draw a commutative diagram and then flip all the arrows 
😭
i wonder if the dual of the quotient map is actually an inclusion

or is it still a quotient map
try to mess around with V/U first
suppose phi is in (V/U)'
oh crap
we can't pick out a basis
because it could be inf dim...?
i think it could be
yes
yeah it's just injecting Hom(V/U, F) into Hom(V, F)
sorry I use hom too much
I was doing category theory before this because I am 1.5 weeks behind
wheeee
austin have you tried this problem yourself
if you consult the def of pi' it should be almost straightforward
yes
but
I can barely understand it
like the notation
so it is hardly much of an attmpt
i like to think about it by looking at the underlying set
little in the way of intuition
^, if you draw the arrows for the domains and codomains it should also make more sense
category theory helping me with freaking linear algebra
yeah look at this guy
also you know that if we have an f: V/U to F we have an \overline{f}: V to F, unique such that f = \pi \circ \overline{f}
😭
i messed up the composition order here
so what do we know now
this is true for every $f \in \mc L(V, \mbb F)$
look at the underlying sets
my professor who's teaching category theory now (topology last semester) always likes to expand out Hom sets
so you could write
{linear maps V/U, F} (relationship between these guys) {linear maps V to F}
and now stare at the kernel
austin can you write pi'(phi) in terms of pi and phi
specifically pi and phi
not pi'
Let me try
if not then consult the definition
pi'(phi)=phi composed with T
what is T
gonna go to sleep best of luck
right
like what you stated is the definition for T'(phi)
pi'(phi)=phi composed with pi
I want to say the field but our phi is like weirder here
oh pi
wait
I thought you said phi
pi(v) takes us to V/U
right
to F?
yes
ph is the quotient map
pi*
it maps to the set of all translates of your vector
but if your vector is already in U
the set of all translates is just U
so we've done nothing
right
pi'(phi)=phi composed with pi
so pi'(phi) takes
x in V, maps it to V/U, and then
phi acts on it somehow
which sends it to F?
yes
but we are interested in showing that pi'(phi) is in U^0
so we care about how pi'(phi) acts on the subspace U of V
i made you say all this to make sure the order of maps and the domains/codomains were clear
fwiw i think this is a good picture of what is happening
U^0 = { phi in V' : phi(u)=0 for all u in U}
wait
pi'(phi) in U0 means
pi'(phi(u)) = 0 for all u in U
so that's why we want to show that
hold on
it's pi'(phi)(u)
not pi'(phi(u))
:o
pi'(phi) we want to show is in U0
so we have to show that
pi'(phi) is a linear functional that maps to 0 for all inputs from U
pi'(phi)(u)
I see
inputs from U
👍
pi'(phi)(u) = phi(pi(u)) ?
yes by def
pi(u) = [0] yes
pi(u) is the zero in V/U
because its coset is 0 + U
yes
yeah looks good
Okay
In the last one
where did we even use that
phi was in
(V/U)'
I feel like all we used was that phi was linear
not that it mapped specifically that set
well pi : V -> V/U
pi' : L(V/U, F) -> L(V,F)
so pi' should take some element in L(V/U,F), which our phi was in
now the important part isn't that phi is in (V/U)', i guess
it's that U is a subset of ker(phi o pi)
I guess I'm still a bit confused about the 0 part aswell because pi(u) sure it is 0 in V/U but like that's an entire set of elements right
it's the whole space U
yes, but in V/U that's just a single element
Like
the naive argument is
pi'(phi)(u)=phi(pi(u))=phi(0) which since phi is linear = 0
but the 0's are like
not actually 0
so I'm getting al ittle confused
so writing this is just A okay
I feel like I am missing
something
i would write it as pi'(phi)(u) = phi(pi(u)) = phi([0]) = 0_F
but this is really it
[0] is the additive identity in V/U
0_F is the additive identity in F
this is all valid
yeah
also, this generalizes a little bit
if phi is in L(V/U, W), then pi'(phi)(u) = 0_W for any u in U, and it is the exact same argument
the takeaway is that if phi is injective, U contains the entire kernel of (phi o pi)
once you get to group theory you'll see why this is more relevant
it touches on the firs isomorphism theorem
that last one is confusing me
V/U = {v + U | v in V}
where v + U = { v + u | u in U}
alternatively, V/U = {[v] | v ~ w iff v - w is in U}
I'm trying to make the sets because I have to show V is isomorphic to U X (V/U)
but I don't know how to express U X (V/U)
what exactly confuses you abt it
I guess the step after the green
I'm trying to express it in terms of vectors from V and U
alone
but I can't get to what the purple set should actually be
you should see V/U as V with every vector in U sent to 0
the exact definitions i wrote above and you have as well
V/U = { v +U| v in V}
yes
now if v is in U, then v + U = 0 + U
so any vector in U is in the same coset/equivalence class as 0
im trying to see what the best way to define this isomorphism is, though i think showing existence is the best way funnily enough
is it like going to be taking a vector in V and splitting it into a component from U and a component not in U?
sort of yeah
oh we have finite dimension
i forgot
lol ignore that
yeah just show it is a linear bijection and you're done
that leaves me with just the counterexmaple one
(and show it doesn't depend on a representative)
a representative?
so phi(u + u') = (u, u' + U) = (u, \tilde{u} + U) for any other representative \tilde{u}
cause remember you can have multiple representatives for an equivalence class
if that isnt clear lmk
it isn't sorry
define it by phi(n) = 2n
this is "not well defined" in the sense that
phi(0) should be the same as, say, phi(2)
since 0 and 2 are the same mod 2
so which representative you use for the class makes the map change
oh that works
really well
nice
you can crank out the details but that should be good enough for any map coming from a nontrivial vector space
well just take 0 : V -> V
seems good
where V is not 0-dimensional
so ye like you said
dim range T = 0
now you want the annihilator of range T, so the set of linear maps T : V -> F that take 0 to 0
i think my sets were wrong thn earlier
but thats fine
should I know what the dimension is
I feel like I might've learned that before
the dimension of the set of linear maps from W->F

the set of linear maps is a vector space like any other
so you should think of it as F^n
recall that W* is isomorphic to W
so the dimensions should match
ah right
I’m not sure I’ve actually shown that last implication
Trying to prove injective Ty
u' + U = v' + U implies u' - v' is in U
I know that
but recall that we constructed our vectors in the form u + u' for a reason
u is in U
what is special about u'
it isn't (or is 0)
Yeah
Now is finite dimension going to allow me to be done here
Injective => invertible
Or is it not really finite
do you have equal dimension
i think it is from the question
Doesn’t matter
please elaborate
based
How to show surjective 😭
take (w, v + U) in the codomain
that v in the v + U can be written by our basis as (u + u')
so that v + U = u + u' + U = u' + U
yes
also i shouldnt be reusing the u
there
so now you have (w, u' + U)
whose preimage is obvious
if you look at your defn for the isomorphism
Literally love tou
You
I definitely would not have finished this without you 😭
I’m washed gotta study over the weekend
L
Bro this class it went from literally baby cakes
To now I don’t know anything
In like 2 days
dual n quotient spaces do be like that
also ive never done quotient spaces in linalg before but they are really similar to quotient spaces in group theory and topology
so it is very good that you are seeing them now and building experience w them
when you get to the group theory ones it'll be a breeze sorta
i hope so
also before we go, i wanted to say the important thing about the other thm we proved with the pi'(phi)
it tells you that any linear map L : V -> W can be turned into an isomorphism
phi : V/U -> L(V)
where U = ker L, and phi is defined by pi'(phi)(v) = phi([v]) = L(v)
we proved that this lets us get injectivity, and surjectivity comes from restricting to the image of L
this is similar to the first isomorphism theorem in algebra like i said, which is super important
yeah ryb sent a picture of this earlier
but like for our problem
I don't think I did the thing about
this
I didn't really get at what step that came in
so it's fine then to just prove injective, surjective, linear map?
ye should be
the representative part is actually important when going the other way, so quotient space -> some other space
my b
yes, but start the counterexample by T : W -> W, T(w) = 0, where dim W > 0
or if you want it simpler just say
T : R -> R, T(x) = 0
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Please help me understand how the 3 part piecewise function was derived from the interval table?
here?
Yes
@boreal vine Has your question been resolved?
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is this unsolvable
ez
try writing it out algebraically
let a be the first number, b the second
algebra = this is possible
x^2 + (x-3)^2 = 117, x^2 + (x+3)^2 = 117
in both equations either one of thee answers are negatibve
oh nvm im retarted
its a trinomial
there are 2 roots
I alr solved it
subsitute and expand the squares
but I didnt think properly
good job
then solve quadriatric expression
because I solved for x
the other number is x+3 or x-3
depending on the equation
mymistake
what
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hello
thanks for stealing the channel as im typing
I am new on this app I dont know how to exactly use it
sorry I don't get you sir
what is your question
tbh I do have questions but I dont know how to send
I am very noob on this app
just upload a picture or write it as text
ok wait
question number 17
what have you tried
Number of black cards remaining/ Total number of cards remaining
@restive river Has your question been resolved?
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Expand and simplify (a + b + c)(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 − ab − bc − ca).
Hence, show that if a + b + c = 0, then a^3 + b^3 + c^3 = 3abc.
Im not sure how to do the second one
did u do the first part
ye i did it with a calculato
what did u get
a^3 + b^3 + c^3 = 3abc.
u mean -3abc?
so now u have a^3 + b^3 + c^3 - 3abc = (a + b + c)(a^2 + b^2 + c^2 − ab − bc − ca)
what happens to the eqn when a+b+c = 0
yep
also note that the same thing happens when a=b=c
i wud leave it to u to prove that if u r interested
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Please help me understand how the 3 part piecewise function was derived from the interval table?
I would do it in another way:
Recall that:
$|x| = \begin{cases}
x & x\geq 0\
-x & x \leq 0\
\end{cases}
$
cristorenzo99
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Let $f: \mathbb C^{5} \to \mathbb C^{2 \times 3}$. Can this be injective, surjective or bijective?
what do you think
So for f: V -> W we have that dim V = dim Kern(f) + dim Image(f)
Also, f is injective iff Kern(f) = {0_V}
yes
So we have that dim V = 5
5 = dim Kern(f) + dim Image(f) and so 5 - dim Kern(f) = dim Image(f)
So dim Image(f) <= 5, right
Never 6
Which is dim C^(2 x 3)
So this is not surjective
And so not bijective
Now what about injective
Also, f is injective iff Kern(f) = {0_V}
I guess we have to use this
But how do we use that?
Are you saying dim Bild(f) = 0 if dim Kern(f) = 0
.close
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I need to prove that angle n is 90 degrees
Angle N being 90° is a given
Because LN is perpendicular to NP
Thanks, i somehow missed that
It happens, no worries
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I kind of understand why the Cauchy criterion is written like that in set logic, but I was wondering whether if it’s always the case that we can exchange for all as intersection, there exists as union?
@pulsar ermine Has your question been resolved?
@pulsar ermine Has your question been resolved?
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i have CDF, i found its PDF. I now need to find PDF of Y=ln(x). Do I need to start with CDF and go to PDF or can I just start at PDF and do transform there?
depends on which method you were taught
(in actuality the two "methods" are the same, just one uses the result of the other)
so i can just transform PDF f(x) into f(y)?
usually with transforms you are supposed to start with F(X) so that you can F(X) = P(X <= x) = P(Y <= x) etc
but i am missing on how to fro directly from f(x)->f(y)
if you apply this method on some general function g(X) you can figure out a way to go directly between pdfs
@burnt token Has your question been resolved?
.close
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can someone help me with this question pls
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
2
!show
Show your work, and if possible, explain where you are stuck.
@lapis pelican Has your question been resolved?
You know Ava's speed, and how long it took her to get from point G to point F. Can you find the distance between the points?
Bro calm down
t-16?
I thought it had been solved?
In another help room?
call ava's speed some $S_a$, and ben's speed some $S_b$
Dork9399
and same for their time, $T_a$, and $T_b$
Dork9399
that's what i did^^^
Dork9399
Assume that $T_a$ is the time taken to travel distance EG, and $T_b$ is time taken to travel GF
Dork9399
^^^
^^^
as long as T_a is measured in hours
would their time be equal?
<@&286206848099549185>
@lapis pelican Has your question been resolved?
i guess you need to use the same units
@lapis pelican Has your question been resolved?
@lapis pelican Has your question been resolved?
@lapis pelican Has your question been resolved?
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is there a some kind of "x cannot be 1" rule in these type of questions or what?
because i get two values for x
yeah they clearly both work
You need to see what happens if you stop the fraction at a certain point
For example, 4-3=1
4-(3/(4-3))=1
You can keep continuing this
And you will see it always equals 1
let me try it
So the correct value here should be 1
More formally, you are finding $\lim_{n \rightarrow \infty} (a_{n})$ where $a_{n} = 4-\frac{3}{4-a_{n-1}}$ with $a_{1}=1$ and $ n \geq 1$
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Last 2 digit of
$\lfloor \frac{2^0}{3} \rfloor + \lfloor \frac{2^1}{3} \rfloor + …. + \lfloor \frac{2^{1000}}{3} \rfloor$
r
!status
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
Why would you want to use 100?
Ah coz of the
Last 2 digits
You can calculate that value exactly actually, so you don’t need to use mod 100
geometric progression
Use $x=\lfloor x\rfloor + {x}$
kheerii
Yes and that
the decimal part is 1/3?
2^k/3 either leaves 1/3 or 2/3 decimal part and you can count how many instances of each show up among 2^0/3 through 2^1000/3
Yeah smth like this
For every even k, the decimal part is 1/3
For every odd k, the decimal part is 2/3
Can someone explain? I still dont understand
i think what was being suggested was computing 2^0/3 + ... + 2^1000/3 and then subtracting the decimal parts to get the sum in the question
then you can try to work it mod 100
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hey there! i'm trying out some of the IJMO questions to prepare for an upcoming exam, how would i begin thinking about this?
in my head, i'm imagining something like this, and i've noticed that if you split the triangle down the middle, you get a triangle with angles of 90, 60, & 30
but that's all i've got so far
join the 2 points B and C to the centre
and where would i go from there?
drop a perpendicular to the line BC from the centre of the circle
i'll have a little stare at this for now, thank you!
should i close this channel or keep it open while i stare, just in case i need to come back?
keep it open ig
i don't think i'm quite getting anywhere, what would be next?
@solar heron Has your question been resolved?
a perpendicular dropped from the centre of a circle to any chord, bisects the chord
use this and trigonometric ratios to find 1/2BC
also u can find angle BOC(O is the centre of the circle) using angle sum property of a quadrilateral on the KITE ACBO
ah, i got it
thank you!
how do you start thinking about getting to that point though, would it just be faffing around, seeing what points you can connect and what you get from those?
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@fluid axle Has your question been resolved?
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Whats the cube root, and fourth root and so on as exponents
?
,, \3[m]{x^n} = x^{\ff nm}
cbrt x = the number which must be cubed to get x
fourth root x = number which must be raised to an exponent of 4 to get x
so on
so [
\s[3]{x} = x^{\ff13}
]
and you can apply the same logic to the rest
let's say that $t = \sqrt[4]{x}$... then $t^4 = x$
Oh. And fifth root is x^0,2
yes
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ren
np
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i cant make out the faint writing
Is it possible to write a natural number at each vertex of the cube so that all eight numbers are different, but the product of the numbers at the vertices of each face is the same? If it is, give an example and if not, explain why.
i meant the numbers
I need to find the numbers
center: 3
down left front face: 4
top left front face: 2
down right front face: 1?
top right front face: 24
bottom side face: 16
top side face: 5
last one: 8
That's what I can make out
@high zephyr Has your question been resolved?
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Hello everyone, i need help with the Compound interest calculation. I havent figured it out how to calulate the beginning captial of 12500€ for the duration in 4 years, the interest rate is 2.2%, but i have to covert it to the interest factor. Idk what the interest factor on that is. It would be nice if i could get some help on this.
i got 13530€ on that one, but idk if thats correct
i used the formula
Kn: K0 •qn
K4=12500ۥ 2,02%=13.530,402 yeah
the sloution is different tho idk if I calculated it correctly
12500 x 2.02 cant be 13530... your writing differs from your calculation.
you are calculatiing 12500 x (1.0202)^4 = 13530.402
and yes, thats right (in my opinion).
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It looks like I made a mistake in that step



