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can someone give me a hint on how to do number 2.1?
mmm lemme think
I would recommend checking whether the terms converge to 0
1/n
for 2.1
Oh you asked 2.1 I thought you asked 2.2 oops
I dont think so, i think the sequence will just swing between -1 and 1
ohh
Same thing. Then can converge to 0. But still diverge
Right, and have you seen that for a convergent series, the terms must converge to 0?
ye
?
as far as i remembered the terms need to converges to 0 to be a convergent series
ohhhh
i see
If you're trying to show a series diverges it suffices to show the terms don't converge to 0
so i need to use the convergence test by taking the limit of sin(2n) as n approuch inf right?
1/n^2
though be careful, this is sin(2n), not sin(2pi n), so the terms never assume the values Β±1
and then show that since the limit doesnt approach 0 we can conclude that the series diverge
1/n they converge to 0
smth like that?
But diverges
Exactly!
ok? My claim was if the terms don't converge to 0, the series diverges
If im not wrong, for a series to converge the limit as n approach inf needs to be 0 but it doesnt neccesary mean that if the limit is 0 then the series will converge
thx
Yes
Yea, it's an and
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β Original question: #help-23 message
have you decided on any test?
yes, i used the convergence test
That's not a justification
No. 0 is in that bound
i think its called the divergence test. if a_n doesnt converge to 0, the series diverges.
i didnt understand ur justification either
all u need to show is the limit isnt 0
oh mb i think i remembered the name wrong
but if the series converges wont it be 0 <=lim sin(2n) <= 0?
yes
since -1 <= lim sin(2n) <= 1 doesnt that mean that the series doesnt converge to 0?
but is it true?
No
I can say for f(x) = 0, -1 <= f <= 1 but it does converge to 0
sin(2pi n) converges to 0
ohhh i see
do i do smth like lim sin( inf) != 0 to justified that?
or should i use smth else
I can have alternating terms and result into the series converging while terms don't converge to 0
no you can't
No that's nonsense
For what values of x does sin(x) = 0?
pi or 2pi
?
That's it?
n*pi if n is 0,1,2,3,4,...
damn
Use your words, what is n
integers?
Yes
So sin(x) = 0 if x = pi n for any integer n
And sin(x) =/= 0 otherwise
Do you agree?
yes
Now, can pi*n be an integer?
mmm at some point, but for most parts, no
Can you elaborate on that?
like if n is 7 or -7 for example. then we get (7)(22/7) = 22
the same goes for 14 21 ...
pi doesn't not equal 22/7 though
Just so we're clear, pi is an irrational number
then no
Tbh I don't think you're expected to justify than sin(2n) does not converge to 0
But anyway, pi*n is never an integer except when n=0
Simply because if it were, then pi could be written like a/n with a and n integers
pi being irrational makes that impossible
So now that you know pi*n cannot be an integer when n is large, you can argue that sin(2n) cannot equal 0
It could approach 0, but then sin(2n+1) would not
Hence sin(2n) does not converge to 0
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wait wdym by this btw?
why cant it converge to 0 just because it never = 0?
Well if sin(x) is very close to 0 then sin(x+1) is not
oh okay, fair enough. how would that show that sin2n doesnt converge tho, if it does then sin(2n+1) does not, wheres the issue?
Oh yeah I meant sin(2(n+1))
Same argument, if sin(x) is close to 0 then sin(x+2) is not
btw just an interesting fun fact, we dont even need irrationality of pi, we're essentially walking 2 units along the unit circle in each step, so we will always step in this region at least once per cycle (its length is 2, which is < pi). Hence the limit cant be 0. By drawing the same thing in the negative, we could prove that the limit doesnt exist at all, since therell be this oscillatory behaviour
Yeah true, I just think the process of showing that sin(2n) doesn't converge to 0 is more understandable if you first show sin(2n) can never be 0, and then show that even if a term approaches 0 the next one does not
But yours is a shorter proof 
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1
Why did you just repeat that
Also, sorry, but I will let someone else help because I gotta go
π€·ββοΈ
Best of luck
Ight he better explain good
reduced by 18.6% means it has now become 81.4% of the original
Bro why did it go lower
it has been decreased by 18.6%
And do u know what's the problem
So do I divide 78450 by 18,6
%
What do i do
find 81.4% of rhe x
if your quantity was x, ut says it has been reduced by 18.6%
so we subtract 18.6% of that x
to get the answer as x - (18.6%ofx)
This is grade 9 work bro
π₯
stick to this channel
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1 did this already
so ydk where to begin on which q
@sleek wagon Has your question been resolved?
So they've given by how much the price has decreased in percentage, first thing you can do is convert that to how much actual money is being reduced
do you know how to do that?
(ie converting from percentage to actual cost as they've given total cost)
@sleek wagon Has your question been resolved?
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How to solve this question ?I'm stuck,
I think I read that Baire's theorem is needed to solve this but I'm not sure
Do you have a guess?
I think it is false
Yeah! So I think a hint can be: obviously one disk won't work, and notice that R^2 minus an open disk is closed
So you can try to argue by contradiction
Ok i'm going to try, thank you
@mellow grove Has your question been resolved?
woody6978
juste one last question,for the first question I can apply Baire's theorem's only if the number of circles is countabble, how can I show this ?
I think you can use the fact that the intersection of a decreasing chain of non-empty closed sets is non-empty
This is what I had in mind!
to show the coutability ??
No, to directly show the statement
I'm not sure whether there is another way which involves Baire's category theorem
yes i do agree with you but I don't see how it can solve the problem
This is kinda the idea
If you try to cover R^2 with circles, you will always miss a point, which is the intersection of the disks delimited by the circles
At least if you assume the disks are in a decreasing sequence like shown
ooooooh I think I got it, i'm going to come back with a proof
I have to go, so I'll leave some extra hints
If you assume by contradiction that the statement is true, then you will always have such a configuration; to see this, you can start with a random circle, ||and notice that for the center of the circle to be covered, you need a circle inside it whose radius is less than half than that of the original circle. Repeat this and you get a decreasing chain of open disks whose radii tend to 0. For each of those open disks, you can take a closed disk with the same center and half the radius, to get a chain of decreasing closed disks whose radii tend to 0. The radii tends to 0 part allows you to say that any circle (more precisely, the open disk delimited by the circle) in your (falsely assumed) partition will either be disjoint with, or contain one of the closed disks from before, and so the intersection of the closed disks is not contained in your partition.||
Good luck!
Thank you π
woody6978
Last things remaining are to prove rigorously some assumptions I have made without proof , I will do them on my own.Baire was so useless. Thanks again for the help
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help
,rccw
thanks
anyway
can i have help with problem #3
im not understanding it
the stupid problem doesnt tell me if the decagon is regular or irregular
and i js set up a system
and is it not just 45,45,135
for all the measures of the angle?
i feel like it is but it probably isnt because why would it tell me that seven of the angles of a decagon have measures that have a sum of 1220 degrees
there are three unknown angles, so how do you only have two variables?
it doesn't matter, the angles add up to the same
so is it x+y=90,then x+z=180
shouldnt there be another equation then
bro this problem is so stupid
yes, the sum of internal angles
correct, you can't. but you don't need to
wth am i supposed to do then
you're given the sum of the seven other angles.
but its not 7x=1220
do you know the sum of internal angles in a 10-sided convex shape?
(tbh, you're not told it's convex which is a big assumption, but we'll roll with it)
so, you know the sum of all angles, and you know the sum of the seven other angles.
could it be 1440-x+y+z=1220 or is that dumb
pretty much. just be careful with which way around.
1220 + x + y + z = 1440
oh yeah
but
does it matter the order
as long as i solve it with the 3 variables
wait so could my3 equations be
x+y=90
x+z=180
or in your case - 1440-(x+y+z)=1220 (don't forget the parentheses)
the formula is true regardless
1440=1220+x+y+z
yep
move on, and come back to it when you've answered the ones you do know
answer what you can
what if i dont know the entire test
yeah, not quite right there
try substituting x+y=90 into 1220+x+y+z=1440
πbro what how am i supposed to do that
i thought i take 2 of the same variables
eliminate it
then use that
and take another variable
hint: 1220 + (x+y) + z = 1440
π
but fhat wouldnt work for all equations
whats the usual way to do a three variable system
I mean, you could have also rearanged to get x = 90-y and then substituted it into 1220+x+y+z=1440 and the ys will cancel
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best of luck with the exam
β Original question: #help-23 message
ignore my terrible lighting
but
for #4
shouldnt i have another equation
but i cant figure out what it could be
<@&286206848099549185>
what is the measure of the exterior angle of a hexagon
?
yes but we need that to solve problem 5
whats a pentagon?
no i know what a pentagon is
but like what do you mean by pentagon it never mentioned pentagon once
what r u saying dude
u told me i had to solve #5
when im asking for help on #4
i solved problem #5
its a pentagon
whats your question then
no i need help on #4
so i set up one equation
but im assuming i might need 2
to do a system
but i cant figure out wth the second one could be
so i can see you got the equation 180(n-2)=180x-720
So what is the problem, you are doing correct
isnt there multiple value of n
The equation then simplies to "n= x-2" which is answer
I don't think you have to find numeric value
oh
yea
so its literally just that?
Yeah, so why I think nyou just had to write n=x-2
Yeah
bro thisbis a stupid friggin packet yo
Btw which standard?
wdym which standard
yea i agree
the problem kinda sucks
Which class/standard you stufying
Are you a high schooler??
Oh ok
r u not from the us
yea
No
like i mean im not
sorry im slow
Whatt??
thanks for the help anyway
Really
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Can someone help with this? ill post my work in a minute i gotta take a photo
i keep getting this specific type of question incorrect so its definitely something im doing wrong
like the way im trying it is take both sides, ofc isolate y', etc etc. but im certainly making a mistake somewhere in the process bc yeah.
( i didnt write down the last step, but i did divide 5x^4 etc by (x-4y+4y (which i know cancels but whatever) and use that for my final answer)
(To isolate y'
Wait I suggest multiply the denominator on LHS to both side so terms with x can be clubbed and terms Γ½ can be clubbed too
wdym
Wait I show my work in some time
???
anyways im pretty sure the mistake im making is in differentiating y/ x-4y
but im not sure how
He meant multiplying (x-4y) on both sides
Ya that's why take the term x-4y to other side
You need to show how you evaluated at the point (1,1/3)
okay just a minute then
Hm i lowkey got a diff answer, but ill check if thats right and if it is then ill just take the l to my ego
damn ok doing it again gave me the right answer, i hate when that happens bc i then feel really awkward
thanks lol, i probably just input smthn in my calculator wrong
(the correct answer was 8/9)
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Can someone help me understand the concept here
What does it really mean to write them in Cartesian coordinates
Set x to be the stuff multiplying by i then solve for y in terms of x
e.g. x = 2t then y = t^2 = (2t^2) * some number= x^2 * some number
So solve for $f(x)$ in ${\mathbf r}(t)=(2t,t^2)=(x, f(x))$
flynger
??
I just donβt understand the point of all this
All Iβm seeing rn is a vector function that graphs vectors
What are you asking exactly
Well you should read a book then
instead of x and y depending on t they want you to eliminate the parameter t and have x and y depend on each other
i guess
yea it isnt really that interesting
Why are you presupposing I havenβt read bro
Do you think I wanna waste peoples time for no reason
Indeed
Lots of people do yes
Not me
I think its fair to ask what the point of something is
even if you understand it
Also I have tried looking for it in the book but it simply doesnβt talk about it or the **intuition behind it **
That's not what you were asking
Like for example I understand you fine here but Iβm having trouble understanding the why
Yes I wanna understand the concept not be told the concept
Explained here in the first few paragraphs
Anyway
Well just as an example, there are things like functions we can describe using x and y = f(x)
while things like circles are better off parameterized since there can be multiple values of y for each x
This is too vague to help you
Which concept? Parametric and Cartesian co-ordinate systems and how they relate to each other?
Pretty much yeah like how do we go vector coordinates to Cartesian coordinates with the substitution and everything like why is that the same thing
Why does it work out
because when you graph ${\mathbf r}(t)$, you graph the points as $(x(t),y(t))$ on the $xy$-plane
flynger
I mean all it is, is a way of assigning identifiers to points in an n-dim space, which we're atp applying to 2 dims right
So ${\mathbf r}(t)=(x(t),y(t))$ on our $xy$-plane
flynger
@honest idol we have y = f(x) where x is our independent variable, and y is the dependent variable. If we envision this as a pen drawing a graph, this means that we always continue moving our pen from the left to the right. There's no opportunity to double back on itself.
A perimetric equation instead makes both x and y dependent on another variable t, so this "unlocks" our pen movement, which had been confined to only moving from left to right. We can draw more complicated curves this way.
Hopefully, this gives you a bit of insight as to why we bother with this
good explanation! you can think of the third variable t here as time for example
and you can move your pen around anywhere in the 2d plane as time progresses
Can you please give an example of this
Also they called it βCartesian coordinates β
Cartesian coordinates are just the standard square coordinate system. It's named after some dude
Rene Descartes I believe
In your explanation, where is the Cartesian coordinates part?
This is in contrast to polar coordinates which is a different way of labeling the plane
Oh I see
But both systems I described can use either method of labeling the plane. Generally we refer to Cartesian coordinates with (x,y) and polar with (r, ΞΈ). But if we let r = f(ΞΈ) vs perimetric plots with (r(t), ΞΈ(t)) we can see it works both ways again
Just in this case your pen goes "around in a circle" vs "left to right" in the non-perimetric case
Algebraicly how does it look like
I'm not sure what you mean.
Like here for example
Can we just do this problem and see how it goes ?
Well, the hint tells you straightforwardly what to do, yes?
We have (x(t), y(t)) = (2t, t^2)
Yes but the problem is that itβs still not clicking for me what the point is π
Start with (x(t), y(t)) = (2t, t^2)
Now we know that x = 2t, so t = x/2
Then substitute into y = t^2
You should get (x, x^2 / 4)
Okay from here I get lost, why solve for t and substitute?
Which is just all points (x, f(x)) such that f(x) = x^2 / 4
Because the idea is we want to transform from r(t) = x(t) i + y(t) j into y = f(x)
In other words, eliminate t and solve for y
This step eliminates t
Okay so
Arenβt 2t and t^2 separate equations ?
Are they?
They are
So why is their t the same
Well, more specifically, they are expressions
The equations are x = 2t and y = t^2
Through t we can relate x and y
Does the above make sense?
So basically we want to express the curve made by the vector equation as a function on its own ?
The t is the same because these two equations were pulled from the single equation, r(t) = 2t i + t^2 j
So when we select any particular value of t we select it for both x and y
Yes, exactly
And is that function called a Cartesian coordinate or Cartesian equation?
The coordinates are called Cartesian coordinates. I've never personally heard of a Cartesian equation. Generally, I hear this referred to as parametric or standard.
Parametric being the vector valued equation as a function of time, vs standard as the y = f(x)
Perhaps they are using Cartesian equation to refer to what I know as standard, which is fair.
It would make sense
I get this, but thereβs something still not clicking about how this just magically works out this way
Theres a problem with your $t=\sqrt{y}$ technically
flynger
Is your doubt that you don't understand why the steps were taken or is it that you don't understand why the steps necessarily work?
I think both tbh π
Well, for the second, they don't necessarily work. There are some parametric equations that cannot be faithfully reproduced in the standard form, (recall the locked vs unlocked pen from earlier), you can often use a few different equations in the standard form to describe the curve, but in general you might lose some information.
But typically you will be given examples that do work to solve
For instance, the equation you posted earlier does work.
But at least one of the others you posted in your image will require a few equations in the standard form to describe completely
im gonna do my best here but sorry if this isnt the best way for you to understand
so you understand what functions are correct?
They are a relation where a set maps to another set
yes!
most important
every element of the input set maps to exactly one in the output
Yes
The special type of relation that does that
ok cool
then uh
You have that 2t = x
if you were to describe that using functions, do you see how it goes both ways?
like x is a function of t and vice versa
its bijective if you know what that is
Whatβs the vise versa
If you solve for t then yes
flynger
But if you were to try to relate t in terms of y
$t=\pm \sqrt{y}$
since the square rooting a square could lead to either pos or neg, we dont know
flynger
sorry typo
Yeah I agree you can solve for either variable and the output can map to the input right
thats not a function since two values of t per y
we have $t=\sqrt{y}$ and $t=-\sqrt{y}$ would have to be mapped to from y
flynger
In this case its much much easier to just leave it as $y=t^2=f(t)$
flynger
if $t=g(x)$
flynger
$y=f(t)=f(g(x))$
flynger
And now you have $x$ and $y=f(g(x))$ and no more t
flynger
so we tried to make one a function of t ($y=f(t)$ in our example)
and make the other $t = g(x)$
does that kinda make sense?
then $y=h(x)$
flynger
because we plugged t in
So youβre saying t canβt be a function of y here ?
exactly!
because there would be two values of t per y
thats why we avoid that and keep it as $y(t)$
flynger
Yes
remember that a function of y here would only have one value of t per y
flynger
$y=f(t)=t^2$
flynger
flynger
$y=f(t)=f(g(x))$ and the $t$ is completely gone
since $f(g(x))$ is only in terms of $x$
we're swapping out the input t for some expression of x
leaving no t once it evaluates the function
and x is just... well... x
Iβm having trouble because I imagine x = 2t and y = t^2 as two different functions
Like 2t is a line
thats completely fine!
but what happened if you paired the two graphs together
one as a the x coordinate and one as the y
you are not wrong at all!
its just that we're combining the two graphs by t
think of your pen
drawing on the paper
Ok
what if i only told you how much you're moving to the right and left?
maybe the graph looks like x=2t
in a diff scenario, i onlyt show you how much you're moving up and down
you can visualize that as y=t^2
but it turns out you were moving both vertically and horizontally at the same time
so if you combine those two graphs by the same scale (time) we can figure out the motion of your hand overall and not just up and down and left and right
I think maybe you're confused because you need to try visualizing graphs on a 1d scale
Wait so we have a line and a parabola right
what does the graph of a line look like in 1d? on a number line
Iβm confused on the following tbh:
We have a vector function with coordinates being literally two different curves..
But then each output of those curves generate a new curve for the vector function?
So then from there.. crashes
Instead of graphing a function in 2d, consider visualizing it like the above
as a point thats moving left and right
as t changes
does that make sense?
its the output
at a time t
Sort of like the frames of a video
the value of x at a given time t
Okay
But on two separate curves right
sure individually you could
So you could draw y like this
another number line
and a dot going across it in some pattern over time
going up and down in some pattern
Those number lines are supposed to resemble the functions right
Yes
yea
so what they're doing then
since these are two indeed DIFFERENT functions
theyre saying but what if they both were moving according to the same input (like time)
Yes
and the dot was the same dot
now since theyre different, we need TWO axes
one for the movement of the function x and one for y
Okay
but if its the SAME dot
moving according to the SAME time variable
we can track x and y at the same time
I guess
wait are you saying that
See how if you ignore y and go left to right its the same as the number line for x?
and if you ignore the left to right axis its the same as the number line for y
Yea?.
So we're creating a new trajectory using the trajectory in two independent directions (x and y)
by combining them
Thats it. thats your vector function of t
So are you saying that the line 2t and the parabola t^2 have outputs for t
The line output is a coordinate point and the parabola curve is the second coordinate of the vector function ?
yes thats one way to put it
And then what from here? My bad I donβt mean to make you explain too much itβs just Iβm trying to connect things
welp it looks like i failed...
If that isnt sufficient i have no idea
what is missing
I really appreciate your help man but for some reason itβs not clicking..
Iβm not not tracking because thereβs a lot of things Iβm not understanding yet
Can we start from the very beginning I guess
welp
i dont know how to explain it then...
i have a question though, has everything made sense until you arrived at this topic
in the math you've learned so far
https://www.desmos.com/calculator/it2coxxjiq
Does this help a little bit?
This is the second coordinate
Right
Second coordinate of the vector function
I changed it slightly
t^2
So the red line is the parametric function where t is allowed to vary from -3 to 3
The green dot is a specific value of t
The orange and black dots are just the x and y coordinates vs time
And finally, the dotted line is the standard form of the equation
@honest idol does the above make sense?
Due to technical limitations, I had to use "a" as the variable for the points instead of t.
It is!
Is that the combination of 2t and t^2
yes
Okay alright
Yes
Does the green vs orange and black points also make sense?
As one of the friction points seemed to be that you didn't understand why/how the two equations were combined to make a single curve
Sure
Alright, so can you do the next problem then?
I can but bro idk why Iβm still stuck on intuition
The problem is some things that I donβt understand are being explained
Wait can I tell you my thought process
We have a vector function r(t) = 2ti + t^2j
With coordinates (2t, t^2)
But I see this as just the normal plotting for the vector function
Not necessarily two separate functions
x = 2t and y = t^2
But we label them as such because they are the x and y coordinates on a Cartesian space
We have the same input t
So if t is the same
And t is = x/2
this β that x/2 is also the t in the other equation
Because t is the same
In both equations
Up to here it makes sense
I see why we can plug in x/2 in the other equation
But I donβt understand how it all of a sudden represents the curve created by the vector function
Like you just expressed the y coordinate in terms of the x coordinate
@covert yoke
I apologize, some mod shit needs my attention, I'll be gone for like 5-10 taking care of it
Itβs all good take your time
This is the key though
Any Cartesian equation is an equation in the form (x, y) and recall that y = f(x) so (x, f(x))
In this case y = x^2 / 4 is all points (x, y) such that y = x^2/4. In other words, it's all points (x, x^2/4)
You went from (2t, t^2) found a mapping t -> x/2 and wound up with (x, x^2/4)
can I ask something
Of course
So originally we had 2t = x
If we solve for t.. what does this mean in algebra? It might be a dumb question but there are some fundamentals I probably forgot
I'm not sure what you mean by "what does this mean in algebra?"
Because I see that we solved for t, which is 2/x then we plugged it for the t in the other equation , pre asserting the fact that the two ts are the same . So x/2 is t in both equations
t = x/2 not 2/x
Yes mb
Well, let's consider all pairs of numbers (x,t) such that 2t = x.
So we can start choosing values of t and then figuring out what x should be, so if we choose t = 1 we get 2, so (2, 1) is a point. If we choose t = 2 then we get (4, 2) in a point. If we choose t = 3/2, we get (3, 3/2). If we choose t = Ο we get (2Ο, Ο).
Does this make sense? Can you envision a bag where all of these points exist, and we can reach out and pick out a random point that fits the equation, (42, 21) for instance?
@honest idol
Sure yes
Ok. Now if we solve instead for t, we get t = x/2
Does our bag of points change when we do this?
@honest idol
Uh
Yeah thatβs what Iβm trying figure out
Would you like the answer to the riddle? Or would you like to reason it through?
I wouldn't want to deny you the joy of figuring it out, after all.
Reason it through
Ok, so if I pick a point (2, 1) this is in our original bag with the rule x = 2t.
We have 2 = 2(1)
What if the rule is t = x/2 does this point (x, t) = (2, 1) still follow this rule?
Ohhh wait no itβs the same points
Because the equation is still true
This is what defines a valid manipulation of an equation.
The set of all of the points satisfying the equation before the function manipulation takes place is the same as the set of all points after satisfying the equation after.
If the equation wasn't true, then we have made a mistake in our algebra
Okay let me ask this
Why is t = x/2 the same value as t in y = t^2
I explained it earlier, but here's another try:
Our original equation was a single equation: r(t) = 2t i + t^2 j. From this we extracted two separate equations, one for each vector component. x(t) = 2t, and y(t) = t^2.
Because they came from the same original equation, these two equations are linked together by the variable t. We don't just have two equations where t can be different between the two. We have two linked equations, and t is shared between them.
@honest idol ^ does that make sense?
Yes I get that part
Lemme ask it this way
If you solve for t in either equation
Will you get the value of t you first plugged in?
Or am I asking the wrong question
Ok, so let's do it this way. We have y = x^2 / 4, yes? We know that the point (x, y) = (2, 1) satisfies this equation.
Your question is, can we find a value t0, such that there is some (t, x, y) = (t0, 2, 1) that satisfies the equation r(t0) = 2 i + j, yes?
We know x = 2t and y = t^2, so we have 2t = 2, so t = 1. And we have 1 = t^2 so t = Β±1. Both equations must be true, so we find that such a t0 is 1.
@honest idol sorry if it's confusing
It seems as if you are running out of steam, that is ok. It is also late here as well
Yeah itβs alright I really appreciate your help tho
No worries, perhaps a good night's rest will help you see this with fresh eyes. The mind has a way of subconsciously working out things during a sleep
@honest idol Has your question been resolved?
Youβre right
Thanks again
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GMT doesn't work
This doesn't work
Diameter of the small white circle
The height of the vertical line of segment 8 is β2*8 =4. R=2, d=4
Diameter of the whole semicircle
8+4+2 = 14
Radius = 7
Area of large semicircle
oi(7^2) = 49pi
49pi/2 = 24.5pi
Area of the white circle = 4pi
24.5pi-4pi = 20.5pi
The difference of radius of bigger and smaller circle will be 5
Wait I'm sorry why
So
3^2 + r^2 = (R-r)^2
And R-r = 5
So r=4
Yup
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How to construct a Cantor-like set that has Lebesgue
measure zero, yet Hausdorff dimension 1
@tropic hatch Has your question been resolved?
Do you know what the hausdorff dimension of the cantor sets are
Yes log2/log3
Ah you mean generally
No i don't
Ok, so call K_epsilon the cantor set where, in the first step, you remove from [0,1] the central interval of length (1-epsilon)/2
So that we get [0,epsilon] U [1-epsilon, 1]
And so on...
0 < epsilon < 1/2
And when epsilon = 1/3, you get back the regular triadic cantor set
Now, to find its hausdorff dimension, you can do the naΓ―ve reasoning "If I multiply all lengths by X, I end up with Y times as much quantity"
So X^d = Y
And you find the hausdorff dimension d
@tropic hatch Has your question been resolved?
Well those sets arent the cantor sets with constant dissection? I know for those sets that dim=log2/log(2/1-Ξ΅)
So cant be 1
Yes, but you can have an idea of what you can do with it if you let epsilon -> 0 in the dim
Well this could make some problems
What if making a cantor-type set with a sequence?
The seq could be such that measure is 0 but i have always problem to show the Hausdorff meas is >0
The hausdorff dim can be 1 while the hausdorff measure is 0
As you know the 1-hausdorff measure in R is the lebesgue measure
And yes there's some idea in using a sequence of epsilons in each step of the creation of the cantor set
Such that epsilon_n -> 0
(Those epsilon_n are the relative sizes of the intervals you're removing)
Another idea is to just start with some pre-built cantor sets K_epsilon_n
And ||taking their union||
And then how can i find its dimension using its union? Shouldn't be the intersection? I cant handle this
It is union
If you take the union of two sets, do you have any idea of how the hausdorff dimension of their union is gonna be compared to their respective dims ?
And then same question for a countable union
Well, till now ive that if dimEkβ€a then dim of union β€a. I think that dim of union is generally the sup of dims, right?
Well for countable union yes
you just said dim(countable union) <= sup(dims)
The other way is true because of sigma-subadditivity of every hausdorff measure (and so a countable union of sets of alpha-measure 0 is still 0)
so
$dim\left(\bigcup_{n}K_{\varepsilon_n}\right) = ...$
Rafilouyear2026
while $\lambda\left(\bigcup_{n}K_{\varepsilon_n}\right) = ...$
Rafilouyear2026
@tropic hatch Has your question been resolved?
Ahhh now i got all of these. Yes, ur right. For a=sup etc with what u said we have that dimU=supdims and then for the union of cantor sets C_1/n we have what we need
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I need help understanding how to do these. I understand what the congruent theorems are but Iβm not sure how to tell which one it is when the congruent angles/sides arenβt already marked. I know this is easy but itβs one of those things where Iβm missing something lol
They are marked though? That's the point of the exercise
I mean not all 3 angles/sides are marked. for example the one marked SAS basically gives you the answer and I donβt understand this concept enough to get the answer unless itβs presented like that
okay so for example, #1
I canβt tell if itβs SAS or SSS or something else, I think it might be SSS but like Iβm not %100 sure
because idk if I can mark the angle as congruent between the two congruent sides
but they share the 3rd side so itβs probably SSS? Iβm just not confident
Yes, it is
You just need to see what the triangles have in common
In 1 they share a side, so of course that side is the same length for both
waiiiiit this is looking a lot easier then
could u check my answers after i do them rq?
Iβm not sure if theyβre right cus I kinda only used 3 different ones lelll
Looks good to me
o okay I think the next questions use the other ones
let me answer the next slide and then Iβll be good
Where are the two angles in (8)?
WAIT I think it would be sas
not asa
I was confused because ASS isnβt used so like I thought I could use the top angles instead
But SAS would make more sense maybe?
I mean
omg
SAS
I canβt type
Is the angle in between the two equal sides?
This was my thought process
I feel like it might actually be SAS though
hmmm I dunno
What do these triangles share?
A side
Yeah and what is marked?
a side and an angle?
Yeah, and so in what order do they come?
well the only possible order is SAS
Oh like in the options here?
Why is that AAS weird
cus there are multiple stacked lol
Of the same?
Itβs so u can use multiple if u feel like thatβs correct
yep
Itβs like that with all of them tho
Theyre just stacked better
Itβs a right triangle with like
a congruent hypotenuse or something
it has a right angle and 2 congruent lines
like that
Ok I found it, Hypotenuse-Leg
No, 8 is definitely ASS or SSA (same thing)
Either whoever set this up messed up or there's an option hidden somewhere idk
Or maybe SAS is considered the same thing
These names are kind of stupid anyway
ASS isnβt a thing Iβm pretty sure
like itβs not a valid thereom I think
neither is SSA
so itβs either not enough info or ASA
Oh ok I think I know why that is
Give me a minute I'll draw it out
alright
Right so these three angles I marked are equal
Additionally, BC = BD = AE
You can see that the triangles ABC and BAE are congruent, but not the triangle ABD
hmm okok I see
Yet AB = AB, BD = BC, and angle BDA = angle BCA
That's the reason SSA is not a valid rule
So in your exercise, 8 is "not enough info"
The issue I have with this is that the rule still works if the two triangles are either both acute or both obtuse
And they are clearly both drawn acute there
ASS or SSA definitely looks like it would work so that is weird
at least in this problem I mean
Because of that
But anyway, the idea is that you can't determine that they actually are acute because you are not given the other side or angles
the rest are correct though right?
u canβt do anything with ur eyes in geometry I swear ππ
10 doesn't look right to me
You can but I'm guessing they want to teach you not to rely too much on them
Like some angles can look right but aren't and so on
AAA isnβt a choice so I assumed since the angles were congruent the side between them would be as well
I suppose
No, that's the difference between congruent and similar
Iβm not familiar
we havenβt learned that yet
so Iβm not sure what the difference is
I'll draw it hold on
AB and ED are parallel, so angle CAB = angle CDE, and angle ABC = angle DEC
And of course angle BCA = angle ECD
Yet the two triangles are clearly not the same size
ooooohhhh I understand
that makes sense
ok well I have no idea what 10 would be then
Well they are not necessarily congruent, just similar
No, they are not marked as such
soooo not enough info?
Yes
because ASA an AAS are the only options that would include both marked angles
alright
AAA is sufficient for similarity, not for congruency
Does this look good?
(for congruency you need some kind of size, so a side length)
I have 5 slides of proving with statements after this πππ so fun
its ok its not THAT many right
Yes that's correct
okay thankyou!
okay well I have to go figure out the rest now
I really appreciate the help!! I understand it much much better now seriously
You're welcome 
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Show that $\cos(u)\cdot\cos(v) = \frac{1}{2}(\cos(u-v) + \cos(u+v))$ by using the formulas for $\cos (u+v)$ and $\cos(u-v)$.
dream
you're given the formulas for cos(u-v) and cos(u+v) right
But zero wouldnt remove anything
for nwo can you try just substituting the known formulae in the RHS
Oh okai
<@&268886789983436800>
<@&268886789983436800>
Ty
why would someone fall for this scam in a maths server lol
Ohh i got it
Thanks!
np
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hi
@glass talon Has your question been resolved?
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not understanding the last step
do you understand that cosy dy = dx
no