#help-23
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He said he got it and closed it. I thought he got it
Anyway, hope you don’t have to ask a third identical one
if they ask then there is some confusion with the concept
Okay. Whenever you see a_k multiplied by some r^k, consider f(r)
Ask for even or odd terms together consider f(r) and f(-r)
(only certain k mod m terms appear consider root of unity of order m)
@short dawn Has your question been resolved?
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Can I disprove transitivity without picking particular values?
Like I can take |x-y| < 1 and |y-z| < 1 as premise then I could add
both which gives |x-z| < 2
just because |x-z|<2, does not mean |x-z| couldn't also be <1
Is there another way
another way to do what
disprove transitivity
not really
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a.) is a partial order right?
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
.close
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So this question answer is (1,0) and (2,1) and i understand why but when i continued i faced another question with standard matrix as (2,1) (1,0) that produce the exact same shape so could the 2 answers be correct?
this is the question from the text book
and this is the 2 giving same points only difference is that the basis 1,0 is the same as 0,1 on the other one
ultimately my question is could these 2 standard matrices be considred an answer to 23b
2 1
1 0
is also perfectly fine for b) 
though the determinant would have a sign change :p
yea but in the end he is just asking for the standard matrix from what happened to the unit square from the picture no?
mhm
there're two possible answers
but the more "standard" one is probably the one they gave
since it doesn't cause the square to "flip over" during the transformation
could u explain this a bit more the square flipping over please
in the upper transformation, the red arrow stays to the left of the blue arrow and the green square stays the same orientation
in the lower transformation, the red arrow ends up to the right of the blue arrow and the green square is upside down
you can think about what happens when you pass the red arrow through the blue arrow as they swap positions from the upper right diagram to the lower right diagram
as they trade places, the square has to flip over
okkkk got it now kinda of spin around or flip yea
like if each face of the square had a letter and the original one facing us was lets say N now it wouldnt be N
yeah! it'd be a mirrored N
yea thanks thanks much apperciated for the help
both transformations are valid, but the one that doesn't mirror is probably more "standard"
so that's what I'd go with for your problem 
no problem, I'm happy to help
also, welcome to the mathcord 
happy to be here i hope i really get to the point where i just help people hopefully not too far in the future
you're probably able to do so already :p
there're plenty of foundational problems going around, so feel free to chime in and help others out c:
Alright thank you again for now i better continue studying my final is tmrw
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someone do this and solve it for me
what part are you struggling with?
!noans
The purpose of this server is to help you learn, not to hand out answers. Do not ask someone to give you the answer directly.
walk me through the whole question
do you know how to sketch log(x)?
no
Haven't you been taught it? 🤔
yeah but i didnt really get it
What of it didn't you get?
i wasnt paying attention in class
Alright... 😬
You probably then need to patiently review the definition of logarithm and it's graph once you'll be able to get it
Then I believe a video will help you more than anything
Look for "how to sketch logarithm function" on YouTube, I'd say
This algebra video tutorial explains how to graph logarithmic functions using transformations and a data table. It explains how to identify the vertical asymptote as well as the domain and range of the logarithmic function in interval notation.
Domain and Range - Free Formula Sheet:
https://www.video-tutor.net/precalculus-formula-sheets.ht...
Try this
If you still have a doubt after watching ask
Lol
my test is tomorrow man
That's why I am saying to not hurry and patiently review the stuff
Breakdown
its fine ill just skip the test
You have to give it time and effort
schools not that important anyways
okay give up
Do NOT skip the test thats a terrible idea
@last moth did you watch the video?
ye
did you get it?
nah

bro i need to releave the stress before i fail my test
sounds like your stress comes from a lack of effort
i hate english but i put the effort in to get a reasonable result in it
Everything is different with me I like physics and math and chem but little less and I put efforts in all and get poor scores
you'll get good at it if you learn to enjoy it
elijah
@last moth Has your question been resolved?
Sorry, this coming from someone who and I quote "wasn't paying attention in class" is, at best, a bit rich. Oppenheimer did suggest a video to watch because it already has the prerequisite information you need to understand how to draw the functions you're being asked to, and I recommend you do indeed watch it.
If you still have specific questions, feel more than free to ask them here, but don't simply go around insulting people.
@last moth you can voice distress and dislike without being overtly NSFW
Someone still needs to .close this channel
.close
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i need some help with the 2nd part of this question plz
ie showing the EL equations
i get this but this doesnt match
@kindred slate Has your question been resolved?
@kindred slate Has your question been resolved?
Are you used to index notation? It might be better to solve this problem
i suck at using index notation i always prefer things in matrix vector form
tbh i have got somewhere
i realised the gradient of A(q) is acc a matrix not a vector right?
so u cant really dot it
Yes, that's basically the problem, because in your notation you can't really distinguish between the expression that is given in the hint
If you are taking physics, I would suggest you getting used to it, trust me it's much better, I used to think matrix vector form was better too
i will try. tbh this is the only physics module im taking as im doing a maths degree
Oh, I don't know if it will be useful there so don't focus too much on it
its the only physics module i do
the EL equation naturally produces the antisymmetric part of the jacobian of A
which in $\mathbb{R}^3$ this skew symmetric matrix corresponds to the cross product with $\nabla \times A$
anflo
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Hi, guys. I'm studying and finding out this is confusing me. I have no idea how to switch from n to ∞. Can anybody explain it to me? Just a simple answer no problem, something like what theorem/etc I forget about.
Coolempire93
So all of the factors $x^k$ with $k > d$ (meaning they have too high a power to exist in the expansion in the first place) get cancelled out
Coolempire93
So we can let k go to infinity, but this sum will simplify to $\sum_{k=0}^\infty\binom{d}{k}x^k = \sum_{k=0}^d\binom{d}{k}x^k$
Coolempire93
Which is the original formula given at the top
Aaaa I see. Since the sum notation works using integers, so that when we use real instead, we might be facing a situation where k can't be equal to d so we just wrote it to ∞ with the main idea whenever k > d then the combination is equal to 0
Thanks, brother @cloud hound
Fiuh lucky me that fast
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No problem!
Yes 👍
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While playing around with random functions I stumbled across $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\prod_{n=1}^{\infty}\left(\cos\left(\frac{x}{2^{n}}\right)\right)^{n},\dd x$, which numerically seems to evaluate to $\pi$. How does one show this result?
Roy
which is equivalent to $\int_{-\infty}^{\infty}\prod_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\sin\left(x/2^{n}\right)}{x/2^{n}},\dd x$ by the infinite product of sinc
Roy
Hm
diamond For $a>0$ if $U sim Unif[-a,a] then$,
[
mbb E(e^{i t U}) = frac1{2a} int_{-a}^a e^{itu} dd u = sinc(at).
]
@clever gale Has your question been resolved?
Hmm, I haven't learnt fourier stuff yet
Could you perhaps explain it to me, or maybe redirect me to suitable resources that explain this
all good, take your time
for some reason this reminds me of the borwein integrals
@clever gale Has your question been resolved?
yeah this is just a borwein integral
@clever gale Has your question been resolved?
@clever gale Has your question been resolved?
wait deadass?
@clever gale Has your question been resolved?
it is the "Borwein" Pattern
$$\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \text{sinc}(x) \prod \text{sinc}(a_k x) , dx = \pi \quad \text{if} \quad \sum |a_k| \le 1$$
Shikhar
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Is it possible to determine a family of self referential functions using a specific alphabet set of symbols (e.g. the usual a, b, c, x, y, z, α, β, γ, +, =, () etc.) [using some arbitrary symbols and positioning] which plot their literal written form on the Cartesian plane within the bounds a </= x </= b and c </= y </= d [following a specific rule of symbol placement/size/etc.]?
Why or why not?
wtf
Oh yeah that's the one I was thinking about
@pine island Has your question been resolved?
Oh cool
But tupper's formula needs a bitmap seed (k) which is kinda like a parameter you can change willingly
I was talking abt literal symbols and necessary variables for plotting not parameters
@pine island Has your question been resolved?
So... any updates?
@pine island Has your question been resolved?
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Hello, i have a questión regarding a calculus 1 problem. The problem states that there are 2 functions, f(x) and g(x), which are continuous in the interval [a,b], and that f(a)<g(a) and f(b)>g(b). I have to prove that there is a value c belonging to the interval [a,b] such that f(c)=g(c).
Are you sure those inequalities are the right ones?
Uh this seems mighty sus
yea it was wronjg
anyway what is your question?
i dont know how to prove it,
➖
Define an alternative function h that is f-g is how i'd go by first thought
And then i think it fall from definition
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is this possible
As is it doesnt make much sense, no.
You can do dsin(x) tho.
But thats mostly reserved for evaluating definite integrals
And the process of evaluation
https://youtu.be/xrXejjEkMxk
This video explains how to evaluate this Impossible looking integral, Integral of sin(dx).
But I agree personally it's nonsensical
iirc it relies on the idea that sin(x) = x near 0.
Yes
so technically theres no solution or elementary antiderivative?
not really, its mostly an algebraic manipulation of the expression that hardly matches whatever it should mean.
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How does one show $\mathfrak{Re}\left(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n+1}}{\left(n+i+1\right)^{2}}\right)=\frac{1-\pi^{2}\coth\left(\pi\right)\operatorname{csch}\left(\pi\right)}{2}$
Roy
What step are you on?
1. I don't know where to begin.
2. I have begun but got stuck midway.
3. I got an answer but I was told that it's wrong.
4. I got an answer and would like my work checked.
5. I have a question about someone else's work/solution.
6. I have completed the problem and don't need help anymore. Thank you.
7. None of the above
I thought it looked similar to the trigamma series but it's alternating 🤔
@clever gale Has your question been resolved?
$S=\frac{1}{4} \left(\psi^{(1)} \left(\frac{i+2}{2} \right)-\psi^{(1)} \left(\frac{i+1}{2} \right) \right)$
Civil Service Pigeon
Oh this was it, smart idea
Then just reflection formula

where did this come from lol
I feel like I see you with these sums and integrals all the time
The original was $\int_{0}^{1}\frac{\cos\left(\ln\left(x\right)\right)\ln\left(x\right)}{x+1},\dd x$
Roy
Wrote cos(ln(x)) as Re(x^i) then geometric seriesed the denominator and subbed ln(x) -> -x to turn it into Laplace(x)(s = i + n + 1)
Which got me that series

@clever gale Has your question been resolved?
Note that: $$\psi_{1}\left(-\frac{i}{2}\right)=\psi_{1}\left(1-\frac{i}{2}\right)-4$$
$$\psi_{1}\left(1+\frac{i}{2}\right)+\psi_{1}\left(-\frac{i}{2}\right)=-\pi^{2}\operatorname{csch}^{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)$$
$$\implies \psi_{1}\left(1+\frac{i}{2}\right)+\psi_{1}\left(1-\frac{i}{2}\right)=-\pi^{2}\operatorname{csch}^{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)+4$$
$$\implies \mfk{Re}\left(\psi_{1}\left(1+\frac{i}{2}\right)\right)=-\frac{\pi^{2}}{2}\operatorname{csch}^{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)+2$$
Also:
\begin{align*}
\mfk{Re}\left(\psi_{1}\left(\frac{1+i}{2}\right)\right) &=\frac{1}{2}\left(\psi_{1}\left(\frac{1+i}{2}\right)+\psi_{1}\left(1-\frac{1+i}{2}\right)\right) \
&=\frac{\pi^{2}}{2}\csc^{2}\left(\frac{\left(1+i\right)\pi}{2}\right) \
&=\frac{\pi^{2}}{2}\sec^{2}\left(i\frac{\pi}{2}\right)=\frac{\pi^{2}}{2}\operatorname{sech}^{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)
\end{align*}
Hence:
\begin{align*}
\mfk{Re}\left(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n+1}}{\left(n+1+i\right)^{2}}\right)&=\mfk{Re}\left(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{\left(2n+2+i\right)^{2}}-\frac{1}{\left(2n+1+i\right)^{2}}\right)\right) \
&= \mfk{Re}\left(\frac{1}{4}\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\left(\frac{1}{\left(n+\frac{2+i}{2}\right)^{2}}-\frac{1}{\left(n+\frac{1+i}{2}\right)^{2}}\right)\right) \
&= \mfk{Re}\left(\frac{1}{4}\left(\psi_{1}\left(1+\frac{i}{2}\right)-\psi_{1}\left(\frac{1+i}{2}\right)\right)\right) \
&= \frac{1}{4}\left(\left(-\frac{\pi^{2}}{2}\operatorname{csch}^{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)+2\right)-\left(\frac{\pi^{2}}{2}\operatorname{sech}^{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)\right)\right) \
&= \frac{4-\pi^{2}\operatorname{csch}^{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)-\pi^{2}\operatorname{sech}^{2}\left(\frac{\pi}{2}\right)}{8} \
&\underset{\text{double angle biz}}{=} \frac{1-\pi^{2}\coth\left(\pi\right)\operatorname{csch}\left(\pi\right)}{2}
\end{align*}
Roy
is there a shorter way...
also used $\mfk{Re}\left(\psi_{1}\left(z\right)\right)=\frac{1}{2}\left(\psi_{1}\left(z\right)+\psi_{1}\left(\bar{z}\right)\right)$
Roy
in what math do you learn $cos(x)+isin(x)=e^(ix)$
Cowking
Uhhh... this channel is occupied. And you learn it in your average course with complex numbers / calc 2
it might be easier (not sure though) if you reindex the original sum as the sum from n = 1 to inf of (-1)^n / (n+i)^2, then interchange the real part operator and the infinite sum, you should get that Re( (-1)^n / (n+i)^2 ) = ((n^2 - 1) * cos(nπ) + 2n * sin(nπ)) / (n^2 + 1)^2
and if you sum this over n = 1 to inf, you'll notice that the term with sin(nπ) will always be 0, and cos(nπ) will be (-1)^n, so it comes down to computing the sum from n = 1 to inf of (-1)^n * (n^2 - 1) / (n^2 + 1)^2
that's of course still hard to find but at least it's much more concrete than the original sum and it's purely real
@clever gale Has your question been resolved?
That's very nice
I thiink you can use residue theorem to evaluate the series??
I believe we have $$\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} (-1)^n g(n) = -\sum_{\text{Poles of } g(z)} g(z) \pi \csc(\pi z)$$ which follows from integrating $g(z) , \pi \csc(\pi z)$ over a square contour with side lengths that tend to infinity, and also of course given that $g(z)$ decays quick enough, because then the entire contour integral is 0
Roy
\begin{align*}
I &= \mfk{Re}\left(\sum_{n=0}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n+1}}{\left(n+i+1\right)^{2}}\right) \
&=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{\left(n^{2}-1\right)\cdot\cos\left(n\pi\right)+2n\cdot\sin\left(n\pi\right)}{\left(n^{2}+1\right)^{2}} \
&=\sum_{n=1}^{\infty}\frac{n^{2}-1}{\left(n^{2}+1\right)^{2}}\left(-1\right)^{n} \
&\underset{\text{Symmetry}}{=} \frac{1}{2}\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{n^{2}-1}{\left(n^{2}+1\right)^{2}}\left(-1\right)^{n}+\frac{1}{2} \
&= \frac{1}{2}\left(-\sum_{z \notin \mbb{N}} \Res\left(\frac{z^{2}-1}{\left(z^{2}+1\right)^{2}}\cdot\pi\csc\left(\pi z\right)\right)\right)+\frac{1}{2} \
&= \frac{1}{2}\left(-\pi^{2}\operatorname{csch}\left(\pi\right)\coth\left(\pi\right)\right)+\frac{1}{2} \
&= \boxed{\frac{1-\pi^{2}\operatorname{csch}\left(\pi\right)\coth\left(\pi\right)}{2}}
\end{align*}
Roy
Thanks @gusty trench for your suggestion, it worked out perfectly
If nobody has any more comments I shall close this
You can actually differentiate the Mittag-leffler series of $$\pi\operatorname{csch}\left(\pi x\right)=i\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n}}{ix-n}$$ to get: $$-\pi^{2}\operatorname{csch}\left(\pi x\right)\coth\left(\pi x\right)=\sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\left(-1\right)^{n}\left(ix+n\right)^{2}}{\left(x^{2}+n^{2}\right)^{2}} = \sum_{n=-\infty}^{\infty}\frac{\left(n^{2}-x^{2}\right)}{\left(n^{2}+x^{2}\right)^{2}}\left(-1\right)^{n}$$ and it yields the answer pretty quick
Roy
@gusty trench this is pretty interesting so I thought you should know
that is pretty cool actually, thanks
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How do I do the challenge
have you done problems with rationalizing the denominator before
you can start by rationalizing the denominator
yea
okay give me two seconds
you should be able to notice a pattern after the first one
u may use part (a) to make it faster
I got root 2 - root 1
Root 3 - root 2
now lay it out
and notice any patterns
you have
sqrt(2) - sqrt(1) + sqrt(3) - sqrt(2) + ...
I'd write out more until you're sure
Can I do it without writing it out becuase I’ve noticed it’s just the second term inversed plus the first term
If you know the answer then yeah
well what would your answer be in the end then
thats a lot of effort
oh wow
also you are meant to ADD all of these
yes
also would you do the same thing if you had to write out 2029 of these
I thought i was meant to do this
u dont need to write it all out
No I was thinking that
.
don’t doubt the perseverance…
$\sqrt{2}-\sqrt{1}+\sqrt{3}-\sqrt{2}+\sqrt{4}-\sqrt{2}+\ldots+\sqrt{24}-\sqrt{23}+\sqrt{25}-\sqrt{24}$
Flatus
never doubt my dedication
I think he only meant like a couple more
and add little ticks on them to show you've crossed them out
to show how
they cancel out
now we just pray I never get a question that goes up to 8382928
shouldn’t we do this in a way where like
1/(rootn + rootn+1)
Have you encountered the sigma notation for sums
?
Nope
Well you can use dots
well then are we good
I think low-key you were fine dw
but perhaps it would in fact to just be easier to write out a few terms and use dots ^
try rewriting each fraction in a form of $\frac{1}{\sqrt{n} + \sqrt{n+1}}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
yeah I said that
everything over 1
and what happens if the denominator is 1
and hence its n + rootn+1
Stays the same
cool
then you should notice that each term is like this in the figure you made 
What
Ididnt get that tho
denominator wrong calculation
Why
denominator is $n - (n + 1) = n - n - 1 = -1$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
Why would this help tho
how about instead of multiplying by $\sqrt{n} - \sqrt{n + 1}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
why don't you multiply by $\sqrt{n + 1} - \sqrt{n}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
multiply what
multiply numerator and denominator by this
I did
you multiplied by $\sqrt{n} - \sqrt{n + 1}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
I feel like you can notice that any series of this form will leave you with $\sqrt{n+1}-\sqrt{1}$ since all middle terms will cancel out.
ch3rry
@steady yoke Has your question been resolved?
either conjugate will work
but you appear to have notation issues
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Hi, I was interested in getting some help. I tried some math books at the library, like calculus, geometry, algebra but they were way too easy to understand and werent too difficult like some problems feel. I know this is probably because its entry level math, but Is this how learning math feels the whole time? Just easy tidbits of learning all throughout the journey or can I make bigger steps that feel more challenging throughout? Thank you.
Im pretty sure this is everyone, but if you gave me a book that had a difficult problem and all the resources required to solve the problem and more of that difficult problem over time you can start to see paterns is there a book like that
i have a book for difficult problems..dont there it has the resources required to solve it tho..its a question book
cool cool
there are plently of difficult questions in most fields in math
Lol
I mean
Yea
But its more the roadmap too that Im looking for
to solve those problems
ohk then nvm
like a very direct one
that isnt broad
Ok can you teach me for instance a little bit of analytical geometry and how you would describe the creation of a square using numbers
describe the creation of a square using numbers
wdym?
what
that represents the creation of a square
nvm
Is math going to be easy and boring for some people?
I mean isnt there a saying that any good teacher can make any hard problem seem very easy or something
occupied
Sorry
just copying my msg 
thats very true in a lot of cases
apparently einstein said
“If you can’t explain it simply, you don’t understand it well enough.”
but a good teacher is not everything
The thing is I have a hard time trusting people online too
I want to go back to my orginal question which is, is learning math just a bunch of small easy steps?
Or is there a more challenging way to learn math that people are using that could suit me better
it's a bunch of small hard steps xD
i guess it depends
computational / algorithmic math problems like the ones you'd find in calculus and stuff are important for gaining familiarity and experience
but a lot of people would say "real" math is more about arguments and words, proofs and logic rather than numbers and derivative rules
that being said, OP
I'm glad you seem to have at least grown up since the last time I saw you in a help channel and are actively seeking books abt math to read
kudos
hahaha lol
Guys
Riemanns Hypothesis
Alright
And quantum mechanics
You know anything?
And the Evangelic
just as I give you the benefit of the doubt
values
Or eulers formula
I read about it
You guys want to talk about it
Honestly I still dont get how that equals 0
#math-discussion is that way if you're looking to discuss about math.
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✅ Original question: #help-23 message
that is probably not a question suited for the help channels
thats valid xD
I cant focus
Genuinly... why should I learn math
Theres a million reasons why
but not one that strikes a chord
sure, but this isn't exactly a math question per se, and more of an interest question
well I'm just telling you that those two highlighted channels are probably a better place for questions like what you're asking
if that fails #math-discussion is also open
!done
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is this right?
the working is very low visibility
i have a very bad phone
Is this algebra or set theory?
Group theory
I can't see anything
do you mind typing out the premise of your idea
the if side is trivial
the only if side
i supposed that H is not a subset of K then proved that K is a subset of H
supposed x in K then x in H\cup K and since H\cup K is a subgroup of G then it is closed under the operation of G
since H is not a subset of K then there exists some h in H such that h is not in K
and since h in H then it is in H\cup K which implies
xh in H\cup K so xh is either in H or in K, then i considered the cases
if xh in K we have x in K then the inverse of K is in K (since it is a group) then x^{-1}xh\in K and this gives us h in K which is impossible thus we remain with xh in H and using the same reasoning with h we get xhh^{-1} in H , x in H
the whole idea is that i think the closure is the problem so i worked on deriving my result from it
@verbal lily Has your question been resolved?
Your proof is correct
@verbal lily Has your question been resolved?
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can you think of a substitution that would make the inner roots go away?
uhh no
Complete the square lol,it's common trick
try x-1=u²
Easy substitute
Yeah i solve this but what is the motivation to use x-1=u^2
^^
||both of the radicands are actually perfect squares||
substituting x-1=u^2 is largely pointless imo
mb 😭
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any algebraic graph theory peeps willing to help me a little with something?
its to do with graph spectra
just ask directly, although if it's super advanced you might want to ask in #combinatorial-structures or something
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what have I done wrong here
(5x + 3)^2 = ?
$(a+b)^2=a^2+b^2+2ab$
ch3rry
ch3rry
Just expand this
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guys...

e^iπ + 1 = 0
e^iπ = -1
(e^iπ)^2 = (-1)^2
which gives:
e^2iπ = 1
so if we take
e^2iπ * e = 1 * e
it becomes:
e^2iπ + 1 = e
which is:
(e^2iπ + 1)^(2iπ + 1) = e
if we use the power rule (a^m)^n = a^(mn)
(e^2iπ + 1)^(2iπ + 1) = e
e^((2iπ + 1)(2iπ + 1)) = e
(2iπ + 1)(2iπ + 1) = (2iπ)^2 + 2iπ + 2iπ + 2iπ + 1
= -4π^2 + 4iπ + 1
(e^2iπ + 1)^(2iπ + 1) = e
e^(-4π^2 + 4iπ + 1) = e
if we use a^(m+n) = a^m * a^n
e^(-4π^2) * e^(4iπ) * e^1 = e
so e = e… but it doesn’t work like that
e^(-4π^2) * e^(4iπ) = 1
using Euler's formula
e^(4iπ) = cos(4π) + isin(4π) = 1 + i0
which means
e^(4iπ) = 1
then we get
e^(-4π^2) = 1
using ln(a^b) = b * ln(a) we do
ln(e^(-4π^2)) = ln(1)
-4π^2 * ln(e) = 0
using ln(e) = 1 we get
-4π^2 = 0
which is π^2 = 0
which means π = 0
because 0^2 = 0, so π equals 0
so does that mean pi is equal to... 0?
im not trolling
whatever u made seems nonsense
<@&268886789983436800> troll
(a^m)^n = a^(mn)
doesn't work in complex numbers
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A is given an ordered triple (1,1,1). Each step A can perform one of two operation to the current (x,y,z) triple:
i/ (x,y,z) → (y,z,x+z)
ii/ (x,y,z) → (x+z+1, x+y+z+1, x+y+2z+1)
a) Prove that A needs exactly 4 moves to get to (a,b,6)
b) Find the smallest natural number k such that after k steps, A can get to (c,d,129)
I got the a) part, which is quite simple
The last number of the triple always increases so you only need to check a few cases and see that applying the first operation four times is enough
I'm needing help with b)
(I'll define the functions f and g to be operation 1 and 2)
since the target is (c,d,129) first ignore x,y and track only how the third coordinate changes
what does the third coordinate become after one step of f(x,y,z) and after one step of g(x,y,z) ?
x+z and x+y+2z+1
now compare those two expressions carefully
starting from positive integers which operation makes the third coordinate grow much faster?
g grows much faster, i'm trying to see how many g's it takes to get close then work from there
It only takes 3 to get close
g_3 (1,1,1) = (37,54,78)
Btw i'm trying to find a clever way, instead of exhausting the cases
Though that is definitely possible by hand
applying g again would overshoot 129 so g can appear at most 3 times
ah i see
Maybe some arguments with the parity or some modular
you don’t need full case exhaustion
you can avoid parity/mod arguments
once you know g appears exactly 3 times the rest must be only f’s
But then you're still testing the cases by hand
not really 'cases' once g is fixed to appear exactly 3 times the order is essentially forced
under f the third coordinate follows a deterministic fibonacci type recursion
so you’re not branching anymore you just iterate a single recurrence until you hit 129
Yeah i see how that solves a problem, but this is an omlympiad question, i expected better
I guess it's just not a very good question
Unless there's a cleverer way, ofc
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✅ Original question: #help-23 message
I might be wrong but the g function might be a distraction?
I haven't checked but you can get there only using f
Idk if that's optimal, but if it is then there might be an argument
not really a distraction but it’s a filter
Maybe you could prove that g isn't used
the point of g is to show rigidity - it grows so fast that it can only appear a fixed number of time
if you want to code it try thinking of this as a shortest-path / BFS problem on states (x,y,z)?
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I don't get this
It's a question from a mock exam
I know normally you'd find the area for the 3 squares, the black part and then subtract the diamond
But I don't know how to find the area of the middle circle
I get it's 153 per circle but then what
@obsidian walrus Has your question been resolved?
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A quadrilateral has four vertices A,B,C ,D , we want to color each vertex from 4 colors (c1 ,c 2 , c3, c4) , such that every side of quad and diagonal AC , hve end points with different color
Now , if we assign 4colors to A
🔠
we may go to C nad say it's 3 and the rest have 2
(here numbers are choices)
In which case it would be 48
But if we do B or D after A you may get 4x3x3x2
So yea I need to hear ur thoughts
Lol do it
I don't know
What do you want me to do , lol Add the 2 ?
and what are the cases
ok lets see
if we go to b then d then a
we fixed a
we have 3 choicess for b
3 choices for d as well but they have different significances
if you choose same as b, we have two choices for c
but if you choose different from b, c is fixed
wait wait
ok
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which part?
then i guess clarify it with your prof
this is the 2nd time i told you the same thing lol
Yeah define modify. This graph certainly can’t be K3,2
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✅ Original question: #help-23 message
would it be okay if i tagged you for help? i'll be diving deeper into graph theory, this was just part 1.
yes please tag me
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- its gonna be a square matrix of order n with entries a_i_j where a_i_j = 0 whenever i = j and a_i_j = 1 otherwise
I should point out that this channel may close any moment.
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✅ Original question: #help-23 message
what
This is not seans channel.
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Just claim another one
complete bipartite means the neural network looking thingy?
please tag me as well if your doing graph theory
alright!
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for question f
answer: v5,v6,v10?
or answer: just v10?
@vocal badger @devout shale
hi
hi :)
define descendant vertex
iirc its the ones below( in the root)
but that seems like it is probably right
5,6,10
uh
i understand
ohk
:) thank you!
i didnt do anything tho
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Hi could I please have some help on this
okay
what does it mean to say that f is continuous at a point a∈R ? can you write the ε–δ definition explicitly
Alright. If f is continuous at a point a in R then for all eps >0 there exists a delta >0 such that for every x in R with |x-a| < delta we have |f(x) -f(a)| < eps
right
now fix an arbitrary point $a \in \mathbb{R}$ and fix an arbitrary $\varepsilon > 0$
anflo
the problem gives the inequality $\lvert f(x) - f(y) \rvert \le L \lvert x - y \rvert$
anflo
what happens if you choose y = a?
we have |f(x) - f(a)| <= L|x-a|
we want $\lvert f(x) - f(a) \rvert < \varepsilon$ right
anflo
what condition on $\lvert x - a \rvert$ would be sufficient to guarantee
$\lvert f(x) - f(a) \rvert < \varepsilon$?
anflo
eps/L?
An yes that works
Tysm
Wait so the general idea w these qs to prove continuity is that we have a fixed eps and a fixed a, then we want to choose a delta in terms of eps so that we can have that |f(x) - f(a)| < eps
Alright Ty
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one last check : in this problem, what feature of the inequality
$\lvert f(x) - f(y) \rvert \le L \lvert x - y \rvert$
made it especially easy to choose $\delta$ in terms of $\varepsilon$?
anflo
is it the fact that it already gives us |x-y| bounds |f(x) - f(y)|
almost? just flip it arounf
|f(x) - f(y)| bounds |x-y| ?
oh wait nvm i read that wrong 😭
this is correct
Oh yea I was wondering 😭
yeah sorry
No worries, thank you
no problem!
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Given positive integer $n$. Polynomial $P_n = x^{3n}-3.4^{n-1}x^n-2^{3n-3}$\
a) Prove $P_n$ has exactly one positive solution (denoted $a_n$)\
b) $b_n = \frac{2-a_n}{n}$ and $c_n = b_1 + b_2 + ... + b_n$. Prove that $(c_n)_{n=1}^{\inf}$ has a finite limit
Nerdyasianguy
For a), i let $t= \frac{x^n}{2^{n-1}}$, which turned $P_n$ into $t^3-3t-1=0$ (after dividing by $2^{3n-3}$) and it was easy from there
Nerdyasianguy
For b), i need help
what have you done so far
I got the bounds 0<a_n<2
So b_n and c_n > 0 for all positive integer n
But i honestly don't know what to do next
hmm.. you can actually reuse your substitution from part (a)
Sorry, i don't see how yet
I tried using the fact that a_n is a solution of P_n but couldn't
don’t go back to P_n directly
if t_0 is the solution to t^3-3t-1=0, what do you know about t_0
Uhm... t_0^3-3t_0-1=0

right.. and the important point is that t_0 is a fixed positive constant, independent of n
you should get from the first part that 1<t_0<2?
so in particular, $a_n^n = 2^{,n-1} t_0$ all the dependence on n is explicit
anflo
I'm merely expressing my agreement. You needn't cry.
haha fair dw
so $a_n$ is essentially controlled by $2^{(n-1)/n}$, and that tells you how fast $a_n \to 2$
anflo
Yes
Oh it's fixed, yeah
Make it tiny?
yeah
more precisely for a fixed $t_0 > 1$ we have $t_0^{1/n} \to 1$ very slowly as $n \to \infty$
(also sorry i took a bit for each response, i turned off the computer to try it myself)
anflo
so $a_n = 2^{(n-1)/n} t_0^{1/n}$ differs from $2$ by a term of order $1/n$
anflo
that’s why dividing by n makes b_n summable
Sorry i don't think i get this
What does "a term of order 1/n" means?
of order 1/n just means bounded by a constant times 1/n
Does that refer to the big O notation?
yeahh
So $a_n=2.\sqrt[n]{c}$ with $c$ being a constant in $(0,1)$
Nerdyasianguy
(because t_0 <2)
I think i could calculate c too, though it doesn't seem necessary
What do I do now though?
all that matters for (b) is that $0 < c < 1$ since then $c^{1/n} = 1 + O(1/n)$
anflo
Okay
ithis should be enough to control 2-a_n and conclude convergence of c_n
but do u understand
Using derivatives and limits and such?
yes but very basic ones
wou only need the standard limit $\lim_{n \to \infty} c^{1/n} = 1$ for $0 < c < 1$
anflo
and the fact that $c^{1/n} = e^{(\ln c)/n} = 1 + O(1/n)$
anflo
Why do we rewrite it with e?
because exponentials are easy to approximate when the exponent is small
that’s the cleanest way to see how fast c^(1/n) approaches 1
ln c is negative too i guess
yes exactly
mhm inequalities are exactly the right idea
you don’t need bernoulli specifically any inequality that gives this is enough
you can just send the picture yknow..
,tex
$1-c^(\frac{1}{n})=\frac{1-c}{\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} c^{\frac{k}{n}}} < \frac{1-c}{1+(n-1)c}$\ (Because 0<c<1)\
So $c_n < \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{2(1-c)}{(1-c)n+n^2c < n \frac{2(1-c)}{c} . \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n^2}.\
But i know that \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n^2} converges so i'm done.
Nerdyasianguy
$1-c^(\frac{1}{n})=\frac{1-c}{\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} c^{\frac{k}{n}}} < \frac{1-c}{1+(n-1)c}$\ (Because 0<c<1)\\
So $c_n < \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{2(1-c)}{(1-c)n+n^2c < n \frac{2(1-c)}{c} . \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n^2}.\\
But i know that \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n^2} converges so i'm done.
```Compilation error:```! File ended while scanning use of \frac .
<inserted text>
\par
<*> 934710587122913311.tex
I suspect you have forgotten a `}', causing me
to read past where you wanted me to stop.
I'll try to recover; but if the error is serious,
you'd better type `E' or `X' now and fix your file.```
..
Damn
,tex
$1-c^(\frac{1}{n})=\frac{1-c}{\sum_{k=0}^{n-1} c^{\frac{k}{n}}} < \frac{1-c}{1+(n-1)c}$\ (Because 0<c<1)\
So $c_n < \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{2(1-c)}{(1-c)n+n^2c} < n \frac{2(1-c)}{c} . \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n^2}.\
But i know that \sum_{k=1}^n \frac{1}{n^2} converges so i'm done.
slop
Oléagineux Distillièr IX
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
this is so sloppy
..
I forgot a }
Uhm... My bad?
you forgot many things
Sorry i have skill issues then
Oléagineux Distillièr IX
thiss looks basically right; its the right idea atleast
but i think it would be easier using inequalities
oh you're back again
also the indexing is wrong
i just fixed his latex
I agree
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a,b,p are odd numbers (p is prime). a+b ⋮ p, a-b ⋮ p-1
Prove a^b+b^a ⋮ 2p
Here's my approach:
a=2m+1
b=2n+1
Then a+b=2(m+n+1) ⋮ p
=> m+n+1 ⋮ p
And a-b = 2(m-n) ⋮ p-1
Then i look at a^b+b^a and hope to use a^n+b^n=(a+b)(a^(n-1)-...+b^(n-1)) for odd n somehow
But i am unable to continue here
yeah right?
I'm a bit surprised this notation isn't universal but ok
try to use fermat's little theorem
well there is no need if you have |, but it's okay
Hm...
So i need to get some stuff to the power of p somehow
you can do better
yeah
Oh
you can do it like this, almost
perhaps, think about flt like you said and rewriting your exponents in some way
Well if i want them to have the same odd exponent, i could just let d=(a,b) i guess
?
What?
i don't understand what you are trying to do
If you suggest i use this approach then a=dx, b=dy (d=(a,b)) would give me a^b+b^a = (a^y)^d+(b^x)^d
That's what i meant
i see, i don't think that's useful
Me too
rather, what i was going for is
of you find something that is a^n + b^n, then you are done since a+b is divisble by p and the sum is obviously even, okay
the problem is getting there
perhaps, look at your second thing where you know that p-1 | a-b
and stare at how this is useful keeping in mind flt
Wait i think this is quite simple
a ≡ -b (mod p)
a^b+b^a ≡ (-b)^b+b^{a-b}.b^b
≡ 0 (mod p)
a^b + b^a is also obviously even, so it's divisible by 2
And (2,p)=0 completes the proof
yeah
that's a nice way yeah
if you wanted to use your method from before, what i was getting is that seeing that this is equivalent to a^a + b^b, so if you added them together you could factor out (a+b) = 0 mod p
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im having trouble with the last question
oh gosh
which part are you having trouble with?
just calculate the estimated number of defective pieces per machine out of a total of 100 produced( 100 in whole factory)
hmm, i was wondering if i could do that but then i chatgpt it and then it broke my brain
thanks
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hi. so suppose im on a job, and i make x dollars per hour. if i work over 40 hours a week, every hour above 40 gets 160% more than the regular hourly. if for example, i clocked in 50 hours, that would mean that the 10 hours get 160% the normal rate. if the hourly is x, would i multiply it by 1.6 to find how much more i got, or is it 2x+0.6x? or neither? im so bad at this shit
your second guess is correct
ooo okeoke also hi lex
if the rule is strictly "160% MORE than the regular hourly"
i was rooting for the second too
hii fijoo
Good point
I missed that
yeye its a programming exercise so we keep it simple
thank you
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New one
Here for handwriting criticism as usual
your handwriting is medium
In all seriousness so the mods don't take me down, I'm looking for if the proof seems sound/applicable
does your procedure work for statements such as \ $\forall x: \red( P_1x \implies \blue(\exists y: P_2(x, y)\blue)\red)$?
boughs of hayley 🪷
this is more readable than 90% of what i see from my students in university by the way
I didn't think about generalizations to n-variable predicates, that's a great point
Where is this from?
I think technically this falls under case 1 and then case 2 (treating it as exists y P2(y) with x bound) but it should have been clearly established
i think the main thing is that you'll need to make your induction step a little clearer, or maybe i just didn't notice it
Rosen discrete I got it from @midnight sonnet
Just doing a quick runthrough
Thank you
Haha tbf I am a 3rd year student and I have just under 2 years of pure math research experience so although it many not be the best writing it's likely far from the worst :))


