#help-23
1 messages · Page 355 of 1
so what exactly do you think you're lacking?
can you express what you think you're misunderstanding?
this example but with permutation
how would that look like?
thats combination I am pretty sure
Combinations are easy to work out and understand using the right method. Combinations differ from permutations in that with combinations order does not matter....so take this into account and the answer is easy.
Part of the permutations and combinations playlist: https://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLjbxBzUM6SLnfCY-opFl5WOdRLVzNwyoI
To dona...
Im watching a combination vid
Well, permutations are used to explain combinations
That's why you have both
if that is confusing, you can think of permutations in terms of combinations
suppose you want to pick 3 books in a certain order out of 5.
then, first consider how many different combinations of 3 books you can get
then, each distinct set of 3 books can be arranged in 6 ways
so just mult the number of combinations by the number of arrangements per combination and you get the total number of arrangements
that's how 10 and 60 came about
so in this example, it would be 60 ways for permutation whereas for combinaion its only 1
No
10*
@hoary seal
then 1 combination only ofc
and why is there an additional r! in the denominator
there's only one way to select n items out of n, and that's to select all n items
notice that the formula contains nPr; in fact, nCr = (nPr)/r!
now if you think about it, this is just the other way around of viewing the relationship
earlier, we multiplied the number of combinations we got by the number of ways to arrange a set of r items to get the number of permutations
so to get the number of combinations from the number of permutations, we just divide by the number of ways to arrange a set of r items, which is r!
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I have question
You mean < to > or vice versa
?????
Symbol
Yes bruh
When u divide by -1 or carry the negative to the other side
Ummm ?
Can you solve it ?
eg
-x > 5
x < -5
Ohh ok
When u carry the minus From x to the other side
you change it
So it's just when we carry sign from variables to other side than. We gonna change ?
Yup
And it depend on variables just not on number right ?
We need only x at da side
So that's when the sign carry happens
Yup
Ok perfect bro !
Thank you so much!
Np ✨
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im gonna kms now i hate maths
Whats your doubt?
the help channels are not a place for you to rant
unless you have a problem, please close this channel
bro was offended
No need to ask “Can I ask…?” or “Does anyone know about…?”—it’s faster for everyone if you just ask your question!
why its like that
wait a sec
Do you have a question that you need help with?
@lunar basalt Has your question been resolved?
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Did you solve the previous problem?
are you allowed to use the fact that polynomial functions are always continuous
What have you learnt about how continuous functions behave under multiplication, division etc
i think i dont
its probably to check for avoidable/unavoidable discontinuity
what the fuck
you have to do epsilon delta bs from scratch???

fuck yes
Well it's not hard if you know these properties + identity(f(x)=x) is continuous
thats the fun
for a very strange definition of "fun"
i have to check f(x) at -4
What?
surely it doesnt get worse than this
for what i know, i have to check for points out of the domain
which
This
im not using that
i have to not use them
even if it was logic i have to follow procedures
I don't get it, why do you have to not use them
The question is not saying you cant
Is a teacher imposing this arbitrary condition on you or is it yourself
i vaguely remember this stuff
im gonna do what i have in my notes
and for continuity its using lim x-> -4 by left and right
and some other stuff im not sure about
Well il tell you that the result of this will not tell you anything about it's continuity
Those limits are completely irrelevant to determining the continuity
What does full analysis even mean here
if both limits tend to the same value its avoidable i think
$f$ is continuous at $a$ means $$\lim_{x\rightarrow a} f(x)= f(a)$$
Herzog
domain, continuity, asymptots, cuts on Y and X, symetry, critical points, max and min, point of inflexion, concavity and graph
You're supposed to use Epsilon Delta for continuity right?
thats it i think
I don't know what you are trying to avoid
Those limits are simply irrelavant for determining continuity
Not in this case very much no
never heard of it
how
What does continuity even mean for you then
What grade are you in
They don't tell you anything about continuity. They tell you something about asymptotes
F(Xa)=Lim x->xa
i know an asymptot is a kind of discontinuity
so ill end up doing it regardless
And what is xa
value where im checking for discontuinity
-4 for this
Why are you not checking other values
because i dont need to
domain of f(x) is all real numbers but -4
even if its out of the domain im required to check it
No you're not
What grade are you in, knowing that will help us know how much rigor you need to solve this in actually
i dont understand united states system of grades
Unless you're trying to check for removable discontinuities
i know its different
so that was the wors
What class are you in, wherever you're from
word
How old are you
High school?
im translating from spanish the best i can
I see
16
Send us the original ig
yea its removable discontinuity
Does the book ever explain what full analysis is
no book, its a homework
Well did your teacher ever explain what full analysis is
whatever
im solving A13 now
so i have to do F(Xa) and Lim x->xa?
i have to study for something else, when im done with that ill ask again
in around 2 hours or some
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need help with this problem, the closest i came to the solution is (5/3)^log_5/7 1/3 but im pretty sure the answer is supposed to be a whole number
Can you show us your work?
,rccw
what does this mean?
It just rotates your picture
So others wouldn't rotate the setup just to see your work
oh okay
how (5/3)^x at the end
5^x/3^x should be (5/3)^x
ah right i forgot they asked that
So you meant $\left( \frac53 \right)^{\log_{\frac57} \frac13}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
yeah thats the final i got
That's your answer?
What's $\log_m{\frac1a}$ equal to
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
-$\log_m{a}$
Jest
since 1/a = a^-1 and we take it to the left
Alr
How about $a^{\log_b c}$ where $a \ne c$?
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
Idk if that's useful
but i dont see how i can apply that here
Try applying for $\log_bc$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
1 sec
Using base $a$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
$\log_{3/5}{3}$ is irrational no?
Jest
💀
Wait
okay ima need vscode to type this out i keep getting lost with all the {}
You have vscode?
Me too
$\frac{3}{5}^\frac{\log{\frac{3}{5}}{\frac{5}{7}}}{-\log{\frac{3}{5}}{\frac{1}{3}}}$
Jest
add underscores after the logs
$\frac{3}{5}^\frac{\log_{\frac{3}{5}}{\frac{5}{7}}}{-\log_{\frac{3}{5}}{\frac{1}{3}}}$
1 divided by 0 equals Infinity
\frac{3}{5}^\frac{\log_{\frac{3}{5}}{\frac{5}{7}}}{-\log_{\frac{3}{5}}{\frac{1}{3}}}
yes
why are there negatives on the denominator 🙏
i just used my calculator
this guy is irrational
,w simplifty (5/3)^(log_5/7(1/3))
,w simplify (5/3)^(log_5/7 1/3)
,w simplify (5/3)^(log_(5/7) 1/3)
💀
,w simplify (5/3)^(log_(5/7) (1/3))
yeah
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is this a real proof or a joke
it's kiiiiiinda dodgy
but ig like, rearrangement on a convergent series where all terms are positive is fineish
and we assumed (towards a contradiction) that the series converges)
so is there anything wrong with it?
yes
oh
oh wait no it's fine
so we're allowed to rearrange terms like this because we assumed it converges with sum S?
no, not at all
well actually, you can start with the assumption this is absolutely convergent, then you would be allowed to rearrange the terms like that
so then the harmonic series is not absolutely convergent
so the proof is correct then right
do you understand the difference between absolutely convergent and conditionally convergent?
yes
what is conditional convergence then?
if it absolutely converges, then it will converge to a specific value no matter what order the terms are in
but if it's conditional, then you can rearrange it to make any sum you want
you're missing the definition that $\sum a_n$ is finite but $\sum |a_n|$ is infinite
south
I don't like this proof cause there's a lot of explanation missing
it's implicitly assumed that the harmonic series isn't finite
so okay, by contradiction we've shown that the series is not absolutely convergent
nor is it conditionally convergent
so it must diverge
the devil is in the details
I thought we assumed it was finite (converges with sum S)
and then we got a contradiction
that would be assuming the sum even exists
for example, the sum 1 - 2 + 3 - 4 + 5 - 6 + 7 - 8 + ... does not exist at all
the partial sums don't tend to any limit
like I think their logic works out fine but a lot is left unsaid
the harmonic sum doesn't either, right?
well you can argue the limit is +infinity
so that's a different case
Yeah, it's implicitly 'S converges => S coverges absolutely (since all terms +ve) => we can rearrange'
same, I arrived to that observation
but you've stated it more neatly
so we assumed it converges absolutely but we got a contradiction
so it diverges right?
because it can't be conditionally convergent
no, you have to check this
because all terms positive
then you can be satisfied yes
conditional and absolute convergence are equivalent when all terms are positive
it is, it's just that their explanation is terrible
you have to read between the lines to get at what they mean
normally this isn't an issue, but on Twitter the average maths background isn't great
I like the original/well-known proof more because you can continue the idea and get the proof of Cauchy's condensation test with it - I don't think it works out well with this one
it is a nice idea though
it just fails at its purpose of convincing the intended audience
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I know this group isn't for physics but this is the most active group
So I have attended two classes of two different teachers. Each of them showed how to derive the equation for standing wave.
One of them(approach 1) used cosine waves and told that standing wave and static waves r not same
The other one (approach 2) used sine waves and told that standing wave is a type of static wave.
So now I am confused as to which one should be followed,can anyone please check on these?
Hi
Hi
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Hello, to get the characteristic function of a matrix in order to calculate eigenvalues, which one is better? det(A-XI) or det(XI-A) where A is a n*n matrix
Both give same results tho i personally like 2nd one more
Since it makes x^n cooefficient 1
In my notebook the characteristic function f is det(XI-A) but I prefer det(A-XI). Do you think in my exam it will be penalized because i'm giving -f and not f?
In this particuliar context it does not change anything
it produces the same polynomialup to a factor of (-1)^n (where the matrix is size n x n). in my opinion, for theoretical purposes det(xI - A) is better since it makes the leading coefficient always 1, but for practical calculations det(A - xI) is better since there are less sign flips to keep track of
i can't really speak to whether your professor would penalize you for using one vs the other
Your teacher might find it confusing
Also do note the characsteric polynomial is always
det(A-xI)
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hi, id appreciate help with this expression. i know the final answer is -1. thanks!
Hi! It does look pretty complicated. I'd say the first step would be to get rid of the irrational denominators.
For example, how would you rationalise the last fraction?
You're good. Sweet! So what do you get when you simplify? Then repeat for the other fractions.
Hint:
sqrt(1 - x^2) - 1 + x is equal to sqrt(1 - x^2) - (1 - x)
Np :)
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how to simplify this
idk where to go from here
$x^2-y^2=(x+y)(x-y)$
ImOakley
b = (√b)²
a = (√a)²
(unless you want/need to use conjugates)
do i use the x^2 - y^2 = (x + y)(x - y) here
ah right
Using this
where should i go from here? my thought is maybe write the bottom of the fraction to this
and then cancel them out
if thats possible
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I'm having a good experience learning with chatgbt but some people here said don't use ai for learning math. Right now I'm just reviewing arithmetic but I was wondering what they saw when using ai.
Hi! The reason why we say not to use AI is because if the AI spits out garbage, you (as the learner) may not easily recognise that the information you are given is actually wrong. I wouldn't say don't use AI at all (because that may not necessarily be practical), but I would say to use another resource as a better primary resource. As mentioned above, using tools like Khan Academy or textbooks are much more reliable and more "human-friendly" to use.
Can you suggest books you like for arithmetic, algebra, logarithms and logic
I'm not sure what education system or grade you are in - it may be better to ask your school or to look for textbooks that are designed for your curriculum and your year level. If you can find any Cambridge books, those will be good since they usually offer a mix of theory and conceptual questions.
i don't see why a book would cover arithmetic and logarithms in the same book
you shouldn't need a book for arithmetic
Why
why would you need a book to learn how to add subtract multiply and divide
I'm 27 lol
if you can't do those things then im sure you'd learn quite quickly online
there isn't much to it
oh snap
That's not all arithmetic is. That's why
no by definition thats what it is
How old are you people
what are you thinking of when you say arithmetic?
im 19
khan academy covers the first 3.
Yeah but I don't always like Khan academy
why
and https://www.wikihow.com/Add and https://www.wikihow.com/Subtract for arithmetic
Addition is an essential skill in both math class and everyday life. It's normal to find addition to be challenging, but you can improve your math skills! If you're just learning how to add, start by practicing basic addition. Take...
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Carol is walking home from school along a path. She sees a dog that is 40 feet away, and her line of sight makes an angle of 20° with the sidewalk. The dog's leash is 25 feet long. What length of the sidewalk should Carol avoid to remain safe from the unknown dog?
I don’t understand how to sketch this
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If I wanted to find out whether a critical point is a minima or maxima do I plug it into the original function or the first derivative?
first derivative or second derivative test
You plug x into the second derivative. If f''(x) > 0 it's a local minimum (slope is increasing so it curves upwards), and if f''(x) < 0 it's a local maximum (vice versa).
You can also check to see if the sign of the first derivative around your x-value changes.
thx
Okay so, having a bit of trouble here. I'm not allowed to use any eigenvector theory here. What I tried to say was, if S is not 0 or I, then let there be some basis B = {(a,b), (c,d)}. I then did a change of basis to obtain [S]_B, where I used the matrix A to convert between them because it is the standard matrix of S. Then I realised that it won't work, because S is a general transformation, not the specific one defined by T
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I’m lost — where’d I go wrong??
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
Original problem:
Please stick to your channel.
Well I’ve got three problems I need help with
You should continue the previous problem you have first.
You might wanna close the previous one then.
Should be squared
Damn bro
Allat for nothing 😭
I would assume there is an easier solution nonetheless though? How would you solve it?
Heron's formula :)
We’re supposed to use previous knowledge from the course — haven’t learned that.
We learned Pythagorean, Sine Law and Cosine Law.
Use cosine law to get any of the interior angles, then use 1/2 ab sinC to get the area of the triangle
But I need the height of the triangle, no?
1/2 ab sinC, not 1/2 bh
Oh, we haven’t learned that yet I think
bruh
This course is so weird. Not even the 1/2bh formula is on the formula sheet
Which would insinuate that we don’t know that either
use cosine law to get the included angle between 12cm and 19cm, or between 16cm and 19cm, then find the height of the triangle using sine
Guess you learn something new everyday 😭
But we only know the base of the big triangle, not the small triangles?
the formula sheet is for stuff that they dont expect students to memorise, not a syllabus.
cosine?
i said sine
Elliot Pixel
There you go?
yeah
Ok thank you I don’t know how I didn’t realize that lol
you can get alpha by cosine rule, and then just solve for x which is the height
Have a good day
np
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How do i do this?
consider finding a bijection between (0, 5) and (1, 2) and find some way to stuff in the 2 endpoints
how do you find bijection between (0, 5) and (1,2)
becuase (1,2) is really restrictive
can you send 0 to 1 and 5 to 2
2x+3 sends 0 to 3 and 5 to 13, and it also sends (0, 5) to ...
(3,13) ?
Yeah can you modify this to make it map (0,5) to (1,2)?
so would -3x + 5 work?
or mb would x/5 + 1 work
@loud osprey Has your question been resolved?
yeah
now you have that bijection all you have to do is find some way to stuff in the 2 endpoints
if you recall hilbert's hotel you can try doing a trick similar to that
Hilberts hotel is like shifting it to the everything to the right to accomodate for the person in front
well, more like shifting countably infinitely many things
now we need to accomodate 2 more endpoints
so we need to find a hilbert's hotel inside (1, 2) to accomodate 0 and 5
I dont get how i would shift the equation tho
@loud osprey Has your question been resolved?
you don't have to change the equation
just choose countably infinitely things to follow some other relation than the x/5+1 you have selected earlier
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$\lim_{k\to\infty}\frac{k^k}{(k+1)^k} = \frac{1}{e}$
what is your question
I don't quite understand how this is the case.
$\frac{k}{k + 1} = \frac{k + 1 - 1}{k + 1} = 1 - \frac{1}{k + 1}$
Ok, so you've taken it to the limit definition of e?
$\lim_{k \to \infty} \left(1 - \frac{1}{k + 1}\right)^k$
knief
Ok! I think I am starting to understand. But why is it the reciprocal?
$e^a = \lim_{x \to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{a}{x}\right)^x$
knief
So essentially:
$e^-a = \lim_{x \to \infty} \left(1 + \frac{a}{x}\right)^-x = \lim_{k \to \infty} \left(1 - \frac{1}{k + 1}\right)^k$
NullSquare
i mean just take a = -1
e^-1 = 1/e
the difference of k + 1 vs k btw doesn’t matter here you can multiply and divide by 1 - 1/(k + 1). as k —> inf the extra factor goes to 1 anyway
Right! I think I understand! Thank you!
you’re welcome
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I dont really understand permutations with repetitions
if i have 3 shirts and 3 pants, how many combinations of dresses can i wear
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My teacher had an exercise on the board:
Given that f: A → B and g: B → C and they g(f(x)) is surjective, prove or disprove that:
A) g is surjective
B) f is surjective
The teacher only showed proof that A is correct and skipped B. Out of curiosity I checked online for an answer. I kept seeing f(x) = e^x and g(x) = lnx as a counterexample for B.
But you can also set f(x) = e^x and g(x) = lnx as a counterexample for A.
lnx is surjective
as a function R_>0 -> R
the problem here is what you choose as the set B
intuitively speaking, you can make B bigger and then define g on the "new" elements that you added to B arbitrarily, without changing that g(f(x)) is surjective
but by making B bigger you change whether f is surjective
@twin matrix Has your question been resolved?
I don't understand what you mean by that
And how it doesn't apply to the proof that statement B is incorrect
well, the counterexample is a little bit sloppy. if B is the codomain of f and the domain of g, and since g(x)=ln(x), B would be (0, inf), and f(x)=e^x is surjective for positive real numbers
f(x)=e^x is not surjective if you let the codomain B be the entire real line, but ln(x) is only defined for the positive reals
consider this picture
I can make B bigger without changing the fact that g(f(x)) is surjective, because all elements from C are already hit by a black arrow, so adding "random" red arrows is not gonna change that
but now f as a function f:A->B' is not surjective
because the new red elements arent hit
But here you claim you can extend lnx's domain from R+ to R, no?
I dont have to use the same "formula" for negative numbers
I could have g(x)=lnx for x>0 and g(x)=3 for x<=0
that would give me a valid function g:R->R
and that new function g still satisfies that g(e^x) is surjective
But this is not g(x) so how is that relevant
if f's codomain and g's domain have to be identical, then f(x)=e^x wouldn't be surjective for g:R->R bc e^x has a range of (0, inf)
But e^x is surjective for R+
yes it is
so it if you let the codomain of f be R+, f(x)=e^x would be surjective even under f(g(x)) where g(x)=ln(x)
bc g has a domain of R+
it depends on what the question means by surjective though, as in what is the codomain
some intro classes force the codomain to be full R, but in a strict sense, it doesn't have to be that way
surjectivity is relative to the codomain
The teacher said that A B C can be any group of numbers, not just the reals
great
Surjective in codomain D by the definition I was taught is that if d is in D, there is at least one solution for the equation f(x)=d
yeah that is correct
in other words, the range (image) of f is equal to the codomain D
Yes
consider an A with 3 elements, B with 4 elements, and C with 3 elements
f maps A to B, and g maps B to C
can you see an example where g(f(x)) is surjective and f is not?
maybe drawing it will help
hint: g doesn't have to be injective (one-to-one)
tbf denascite did provide a counterexample as a picture. just let B' be B
as in pretend B' was B to begin with
Not a concrete example, but I know that if a function that maps from A to B is surjective than the amount of terms in group B is smaller or equal to the amount of terms in group A.
So g is surjective and f(g) is surjective, no?
g and g°f are surjective
im assuming you're referring to g(f(x))?
g°f being surjective means that g has to be surjective too. in short, if only a subset of the domain of g meets surjectivity, then the full domain will meet surjectivity too
you brought up the correct intuition with the fact you brought up
Yea probably, I got confused
just a note, if your teacher is fine with sets being any collection of numbers, then you can just let A={2, 3, 4} B={4,6,7,8} and just let f(2)=4, f(3)=6 ... etc
no need for "formulas"
But the fact is true only for finite groups, so why it holds for infinite groups as well?
I'm pretty sure there are more, but yea, let's say the uncountable since we were using the real numbers
did you learn cardinality of sets? otherwise, it's going to be hard to explain quickly. also it's not necessary to answer your original question
The teacher did mention this concept and I'm also a bit familar with it without this course, so let's try
well, the simplest explanation is that each element in the domain must be paired with something in the codomain (in this case, inside the range). but if the range is equal to the codomain, everything in the codomain is paired with something in the domain. and since everything in the domain must be paired, for surjective functions, the codomain is at most the cardinality of the domain
it's actually agnostic of infinity or (un) countability
i can't offer a super rigorous proof bc there's probably some foundational framework for this
that I'm not familiar with
I get it
So can you explain again why the "counterexample" I provided for g has to be surjective if g(f(x)) is surjective?
so f:R->R+ f(x)=e^x and g:R+->R g(x)=ln(x). and e^x is surjective on R+ which is the domain of ln(x)
and g(f(x))=ln(e^x)=x is surjective on R
if you let the codomain of f be R+, then e^x is surjective on R+
that's the reason
and if you let f codomain be R, then it's not surjective bc e^x range is R+
but f codomain being R doesn't make sense for the domain of g bc it's ln(x) which is defined for only positive reals
Wait let me process it properly
There's too much g and f and e^x and lnx lmao
Wait again, if f(x)=lnx and g(x)=e^x, f maps from R+ to R, g maps from R to R+.
g(f(x))=x is surjective on R.
The domain of g is R, which makes sense.
But then I do not follow how to rest contradicts what I said
I noticed I formulated poorly my original question
I meant that setting g(x)=e^x and f(x) = lnx is a counterexample for g being surjective if g(f(x)) is surjective
g(f(x)) is surjective as a map R+ to R+
and g is surjective as a map R to R+
so works out
you are confusing the map g(f(x)) which is only defined R+ to R+ with the map h(x)=x which has the same "formula" but is defined on a bigger set, i.e. h:R->R
I am sorry, this is way too confusing for me right now
Maybe another day I will understand it
Thank you two so much for your help
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How do you make a canonical form of a matrix?
Please don't occupy multiple help channels.
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I don't quite get the convergent test
this looks evil
$$\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \left| \frac{4n^3+2}{n^4 \cdot \sin(n^2)} \right |$$
Nyxzore
I mean if a series is abosulately convergent then it is convergent no?
$$\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{4n^3+2}{n^4 \cdot |\sin(n^2)|} $$
right
Nyxzore
$$|sin(n^2)| \le 1$$
Nyxzore
good
$$\frac{1}{n^4|sin(n^2)|} \ge \frac{1}{n^4}$$
Nyxzore
right
$$\frac{4n^3+2}{n^4|sin(n^2)|} \ge \frac{4n^3+2}{n^4}$$
Nyxzore
surely it would be larger than 4/n
mb
Nyxzore
?
lim n-> infty of 4/n
that doesn't converge
=0
oh the series converges but the sum doesnt
so everything is divergent then?
the sum is called the series
the sequence doesn't converge
but the series (i.e. the sum) does
its confusing terminology
only absolutely
but something can absolutely diverge while still converging
everything is absoultely divergent so it could still be convergent
like
so we need to try a different approach?
yeah
idk what approach would work though
i'd look at it intuitively
the sum of 2/(n^4 * sin(n^2)) might be quite difficult as well
but the behavior is dominated by the 4n^3 part
and the 4 is irrelevant
so i'm gonna think about $\frac{1}{n\sin(n^2)}$
Dreyuk
yeah actually we can fully justify this
and how this wont converge because sin(n^2) just keeps bouncing ?
4n^3 < 4n^3+2 < 5n^3 comparison test stuff
that's kinda the idea
sin(n^2) is going to randomly bounce between positive and negative
so you could argue the series looks something like the sum of $\f{(-1)^n}{n}$
Dreyuk
which would converge
however sin(n^2) doesn't just switch between positive and negative, it also gets really close to 0
yep
when it gets really close to 0, you suddenly have a big term
so i keep getting small big small big?
so it's very possible that the sequence $\f{1}{n\sin(n^2)}$ doesn't converge to 0
yeah
Dreyuk
i would expect the value of sin(n^2) to be somewhat randomly sampled in [-1. 1]
not perfectly uniformly, but not super thin anywhere
so, getting |sin(n^2)| < 1/n should happen with probability proportional to 1/n
in this case we can kind of argue that we expect $\f{1}{n\sin(n^2)}$ to have a magnitude greater than 1 with probability around 1/n
Dreyuk
which means we would expect it to happen infinitely often and the sequence to not converge
😭
if it were $\f{1}{n\sin(n)}$, there would be some well-known approaches to proving that, by using the fact that pi has good rational approximations, and thus eventually n will be close to an integer multiple m*pi (where n/m is the good rational approximation)
Dreyuk
(all irrational numbers have rational approximations good enough for this to work btw)
(so we don't need any deep knowledge about pi)
bro is getting very practical implementation about this
I think just calling it abs divergent at my level is fine
ty
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rip
we'd need to find some good rational approximations to pi with square numerators
.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-23 message
@broken forum forgive me but i gotta show the results of my search 
Ah... does this work?
Showing sin(n^2) gets really close to 0 might be done by showing that the polynomial n^2/pi is something called "equidistributed"
Colorllary 2 in this paper gives that: https://mathweb.ucsd.edu/~jverstra/Weyl2.pdf
But I don't think the equidistribution condition is actually strong enough to resolve the question so never mind 
whaaaa
idk where you got this question from lmao
it was given to me in a lab as practice ...
my lecturer probs didnt think it through when she came up with ts
if i take the sequence
and show that it doesnt converge then doesnt the sum not converge?
yeah that would be sufficient
and it's hard to imagine another way
if the sequence did converge
you would somehow have to show that the positives and negatives weren't actually random
or
show that they're so random that you actually expect them to deviate from 50-50 as a random sequence will do sometimes
which is even harder
but yeah it's just not feasible to show the sequence doesn't converge sadly
eeek
@mortal sandal
$$[
\textbf{Theorem.}\quad
\text{The series } \displaystyle\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{4n^3+2}{n^4 \sin(n^2)} \text{ diverges.}
]
\textbf{Proof.}
Let
[
a_n = \frac{4n^3+2}{n^4 \sin(n^2)}.
]
We analyze the asymptotic behavior of $|a_n|$:
[
|a_n| = \frac{4 + 2/n^3}{n ,|\sin(n^2)|}.
]
For sufficiently large $n$, we have $4 + 2/n^3 > 4$, hence
[
|a_n| > \frac{4}{n,|\sin(n^2)|}.
]
We investigate the limit of $|a_n|$ as $n\to \infty$.
Consider the sequence $x_n = n^2 \pmod{\pi}$.
By Weyl's equidistribution theorem, the sequence $(n^2)$ is uniformly distributed modulo $\pi$.
Consequently, the values of $n^2$ are dense in the interval $[0,\pi]$.
This density implies that for any $\delta > 0$ there exist infinitely many integers $n$ such that the distance
from $n^2$ to the nearest multiple of $\pi$ is less than $\delta$:
[
\min_{k\in \mathbb{Z}} |n^2 - k\pi| < \delta .
]
Since $|\sin x| \le |x|$ for all $x$, and $\sin x \sim x$ near $0$, this implies that
$|\sin(n^2)|$ takes values arbitrarily close to $0$.
More precisely, by results from Diophantine approximation, there exists a subsequence
${n_k}$ such that
[
|\sin(n_k^2)| < \frac{1}{n_k}.
]
This estimate is quite weak; stronger bounds (e.g.\ $|\sin(n_k^2)| < n_k^{-2}$) are known.
Substituting the bound $|\sin(n_k^2)| < 1/n_k$ into our inequality for $|a_n|$ gives
[
|a_{n_k}| > \frac{4}{n_k (1/n_k)} = 4.
]
Using the stronger estimate $|\sin(n_k^2)| < n_k^{-2}$ yields
[
|a_{n_k}| > \frac{4}{n_k^{-1}} = 4n_k \longrightarrow \infty.
]
Thus the sequence ${a_n}$ contains a subsequence that diverges to infinity, and therefore
[
\lim_{n\to\infty} a_n \neq 0.
]
By the Divergence Test, the series
[
\sum_{n=2}^{\infty} \frac{4n^3+2}{n^4 \sin(n^2)}
]
diverges.
\qed$$
Nyxzore
Nyxzore
Compile Error! Click the
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(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Ah they probably chatGPT'd it 
looks similar to what I got when I tried
More precisely, by results from Diophantine approximation, there exists a subsequence
${n_k}$ such that
[
|\sin(n_k^2)| < \frac{1}{n_k}.
]
Dreyuk
this is the core of the proof and i was struggling to get it to actually tell me what those results were or where i could find them 
the stronger bound it gives right after this doesn't look right as well
Hurwit'z theorem tells us there are infinitely many n such that [ |\sin(n)|<\f{1}{n\sqrt{5}} ]
Dreyuk
It's probably very hard to do any better than that
silly fricking question
As far as I can tell this textbook doesn't exist lmfao
and it keeps referencing the "Weyl difference method" which also doesn't exist
welp you can close 
it's actually unbelievable that i can't find this problem anywhere
if pi has an irrationality measure greater than 3 then it should diverge, but this isn't helpful (pi probably has an irrationality measure of 2, and it probably diverges anyways)
@broken forum Has your question been resolved?
Oh people call it Weyl differencing
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help me ans no.12 pls
I fell asleepp
12?
I’m seeing 5 problems here. 😵💫
Or are they *1, 12., 23., 34. and 45.
what the hell 😭

a good first step is to find vectors AB, AC, and BC by subtracting the coordinates
Bro why we using vectors to solve the problem 😭
that's what the question wants
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?
What about (d)?
another way to think about this is to look at the limiting behaviour as the polynomial goes to infinity and negative infinity
an even degree polynomial exhibits the same limiting behaviour on both sides (both go to infinity or both go to negative infinity), while an odd degree polynomial exhibits opposing behaviour
here, the polynomial tends to negative infinity as x tends to negative infinity, while it tends to infinity as x does
that’s opposite behaviour, so it can’t be even degree, so d) is ruled out :p
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Would these two x’s cancel out?
No
The one in the numerator is multiplied with another expression. The one I. The denominator is added, it would’ve been only possible of both were multiplied
Kk ty
Do you actually understand? If not, I can try illustrating in which cases it can be cancelled
Will be a bit challenging as I’m on my phone but I can try
No I think I understand
Okay I hope
I feel like I did these wrong though
,rccw
You did these wrong indeed
I just never know how to start them
You factorized correctly the first time
Did I factor wrong here
You got a different answer so yes
That's a lot better 
Is it still wrong
No, -3/7 is correct
Yay
@soft lava Has your question been resolved?
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Can someone validate my answers?
I got, x = 1.5, y = -3
You can check by substitution
btw they are wrong
Are they valid for both equations?
*6
hey
ye 6
you can just multiply the second eqn by 3 to make the coefficients of y same
then just subtract eqn 1 from eqn 2 to get the value of x
Show your work
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i have to find the highlighted area
I know nothing about math💔
Please read the channel description before posting, and stay on topic.
That's right
You can also use this formula
$\frac{|a|}{6}\cdot(\beta-\alpha)^3$
오락악당
thank you so much
not familiar with the one you provided unfortunately, ill stick to mine since its more familiar
thank you again
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In a pyramid with a square base, two of the lateral faces are perpendicular to the base, and the other two lateral faces form a 45° angle with the base (see the figure). The edge connecting the apex to the midpoint of a base side is 2. Calculate the volume of the pyramid.
The edge connecting the apex to the midpoint of a base side is 2.
are the 45 degrees correct
i apologise if its wrongly translated, its originally in estonian
yes the 45° angles are okay
okay thats what i wanted to know, ill try to solve it and then send my solution
hm yeah that sounds like a translation issue but i dont speak estonian
hope its right
can you share the original anyway
if it really does mean "medium-sized edge" then yeah those are AE and CE
i would've really liked if the question just gave you the edges by name tbh, it's really annoying to have to piece things like this together
yeah unfortunately, i think i got the solution though so i'll send it in a minute
hopefully the handwriting is readable
i had to find the volume
h is height
a is the base edge
applying sine law to a right triangle is definitely something
we got taught this way like a month ago
is it wrong or
it's not WRONG mathematically but it's overkill!
weren't you taught basic trig ratios like...
okay let me make a picture real quick
sure thank you
oh right lol
this is what i was talking about
i think ANYWHERE in the world if you're gonna learn trig you'll begin with this
forgot about this tbh, i just do the overkill one cause ive been using a ton recently lol
muscle memory is quite strong eh
anyway, assuming you and i both understand the translation correctly, the volume 2 sqrt(2)/3 is correct
okay cool thank you so much
appreciate the help
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hi
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help me
help me understand the functions do 2 of the harder ones please
Which one are the "harder ones" to you?
the 2nd one and the 3rd one
Do you know the absolute value function?
It's shaped like the letter v
i just need to learn everything
Well, you know what x^2, |x|, and √x graphs look like right?
cubic absulute value and square root right?
Just normal absolute value
absulute value is the v right
I just need help with the transformations, like the formulas and how to plug them in.

@mighty totem Has your question been resolved?
no
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.reopen
✅ Original question: #help-23 message
For the 2nd one, the V is upside down right?
So it should be -|x|
Also, it's translated 4 units to the right
So -|x-4|
Also translated 2 units down
-|x-4|-2
Test a point on the graph




