#help-13
1 messages · Page 315 of 1
alr, no problem
it doesnt matter what the cards outside of the combo we want are right
correct
@vague valve Has your question been resolved?
I'm working on coding a solution to this, I just got distribution to work:
(1∪2∪3)∩4∩5∩6
(4∩5∩6∩1)∪(4∩5∩6∩2)∪(4∩5∩6∩3)
distribute test 2
(1∪2)∩(3∪4)
(1∩3)∪(1∩4)∪(2∩3)∪(2∩4)
distribute test 3
(1∪2)∩(3∪4)∩(5∪6)
(1∩3∩5)∪(1∩3∩6)∪(1∩4∩5)∪(1∩4∩6)∪(2∩3∩5)∪(2∩3∩6)∪(2∩4∩5)∪(2∩4∩6)
distribute test 4
((1∪2∪3)∩4∩5∩6)∩((1∪2)∩(3∪4))
(4∩5∩6∩1∩1∩3)∪(4∩5∩6∩1∩1∩4)∪(4∩5∩6∩1∩2∩3)∪(4∩5∩6∩1∩2∩4)∪(4∩5∩6∩2∩1∩3)∪(4∩5∩6∩2∩1∩4)∪(4∩5∩6∩2∩2∩3)∪(4∩5∩6∩2∩2∩4)∪(4∩5∩6∩3∩1∩3)∪(4∩5∩6∩3∩1∩4)∪(4∩5∩6∩3∩2∩3)∪(4∩5∩6∩3∩2∩4)```
it transforms an arbitrary algebraic set expression into a union of intersections so that inclusion-exclusion can be applied
thats great, whats left to do?
Fixing an edge case with empty sets
I have this so far, the results agree with my previous calculations:
hit_cards: [11, 3, 7], missed_cards: []
Draws with no missed cards: 91390
Draws with no missed cards and not all hit cards: 84922
Draws with no missed cards and all hit cards: 91390 - 84922 = 6468
Total draws: 91390
draw chance before mulligan: 6468/91390 = 3234/45695
hit_cards: [3, 7], missed_cards: [11]
Draws with no missed cards: 23751
Draws with no missed cards and not all hit cards: 22195
Draws with no missed cards and all hit cards: 23751 - 22195 = 1556
Total draws: 91390
draw chance before mulligan: 1556/91390 = 778/45695
hit_cards: [11, 7], missed_cards: [3]
Draws with no missed cards: 66045
Draws with no missed cards and not all hit cards: 40535
Draws with no missed cards and all hit cards: 66045 - 40535 = 25510
Total draws: 91390
draw chance before mulligan: 25510/91390 = 2551/9139
hit_cards: [11, 3], missed_cards: [7]
Draws with no missed cards: 40920
Draws with no missed cards and not all hit cards: 34225
Draws with no missed cards and all hit cards: 40920 - 34225 = 6695
Total draws: 91390
draw chance before mulligan: 6695/91390 = 103/1406
hit_cards: [7], missed_cards: [11, 3]
Draws with no missed cards: 14950
Draws with no missed cards and not all hit cards: 3876
Draws with no missed cards and all hit cards: 14950 - 3876 = 11074
Total draws: 91390
draw chance before mulligan: 11074/91390 = 5537/45695
hit_cards: [3], missed_cards: [11, 7]
Draws with no missed cards: 7315
Draws with no missed cards and not all hit cards: 3876
Draws with no missed cards and all hit cards: 7315 - 3876 = 3439
Total draws: 91390
draw chance before mulligan: 3439/91390 = 181/4810
hit_cards: [11], missed_cards: [3, 7]
Draws with no missed cards: 27405
Draws with no missed cards and not all hit cards: 3876
Draws with no missed cards and all hit cards: 27405 - 3876 = 23529
Total draws: 91390
draw chance before mulligan: 23529/91390 = 23529/91390
hit_cards: [], missed_cards: [11, 3, 7]
Draws with no missed cards: 3876
Draws with no missed cards and not all hit cards: 0
Draws with no missed cards and all hit cards: 3876 - 0 = 3876
Total draws: 91390
draw chance before mulligan: 3876/91390 = 102/2405
Process finished with exit code 0
for the original example?
yes
The inputs are deck_size, hand_size, and combo_counts
The only thing that doesn't work is if you need to draw duplicate cards for the combo
I used
DECK_SIZE = 40
HAND_SIZE = 4
COMBO_CARDS = [11, 3, 7]
as inputs
i see, whats the issue with duplicate cards? need a seperate case for those i assume
yeah
the issue is that if there are duplicates the results aren't independent
The other issue is that the code works by subtracting the combo cards we didn't draw from the deck size, so if we tried to use [10, 10, 10] to represent drawing 3 of the same card with 10 in the deck, it would subtract 30 from the deck size instead of 10
I can send you the code but it's in 3 separate files
I'm not sure if it would run in an online interpretter
would it be hard to get duplicates working? theres a 4 card combo im trying to calculate
alr, gl with that. could you run it for
DECK_SIZE = 40
HAND_SIZE = 4
COMBO_CARDS = [4, 4, 4, 4]
About 8.81%
wait
it's negative wtf
thats not supposed to happen i assume lol
ok I think I know how to fix it
the issue is it's calculating
|(A∩B)∪(A∩C)|
= |(A∩B)| + |(A∩C)| - |(A∩B)∩(A∩C)|
but it doesn't realize |(A∩B)∩(A∩C)| = |A∩B∩C|
It thinks the two A's are different sets
so I'll have to create an object to keep track of them so I can compare them
alr
did you get it working?
no not yet it might take a bit because I basically have to refactor everything
did you get around to doing this?
no sorry I should have time today though
@vague valve 48437824/2088033025 ~ 2.32% for
DECK_SIZE = 40
HAND_SIZE = 4
COMBO_CARD_COUNTS = [Card(4), Card(4), Card(4), Card(4)]
(assuming I did it right this time)
~~I was able to consolidate all the code into one file if you want to run it yourself here: https://www.online-python.com/~~ Edit: bugged, fixed version below
You can change the variables
DECK_SIZE = 40
HAND_SIZE = 4
COMBO_CARD_COUNTS = [Card(4), Card(4), Card(4), Card(4)]
at the top to test different results
oh I found a bug, the deck_size was incorrectly decreased for the mulligan, I fixed it now
here you go
Hopefully there's no more bugs 😅
Ideally we could test it against a simulation for accuracy, if we really wanted
how exactly does the "card combo count" variable work? how do i differentiate between different cards
so like
for the ace, queen, jack example
it would be
COMBO_CARD_COUNTS = [Card(7), Card(11), Card(3)]
7 Aces, 11 Jacks, 3 Queens
COMBO_CARD_COUNTS = [Card(4), Card(4), Card(4), Card(4)]
is for a 4-card combo with 4 copies of each card
yeah, but what about 2 of the same card for a combo?
oh it doesn't work for duplicates unfortunately
I'm not sure what the math for duplicates looks like
It might be worth asking in #combinatorial-structures , if someone could help me with the math I could try to code it depending on how difficult it is
you here?
yep im here
whats stopping you from just redrawing cards until you get the hand you want
you cant do it multiple times
you can only do it once per card you redraw?
i think yes
"i think"?
im not sure what you mean
so you need to edit your post to refer to the first 4 cards you pull out as "starting cards" instead of "any of the 4 cards you drew one time"
you can also edit the post to have the word mulligan in it
either way it needs to be changed
magic/hearthstone/LoR etc.
You can only redraw one time, is that not clear from the original question?
"you drew one time" is vague because it doesnt have a "that" or "the first time" or "starting time" or anything like that
fair
if the question is going to stay open for this long it should ideally have no catches, even minor ones
you draw 4 cards
axerity bear with me
cards 1 2 3 and 4
no no you dont have to say anything
you can edit your post by clicking the ... option in the right
then clicking "edit"
?
see here you chose to re-explain the same idea instead of agreeing to edit the post
sorry im gamer raging rn
I am simply telling you to not do that
we just want you to edit the original question lol
so someone who reads the pinned message can understand it better
yea the message gets pinned when you ask it, its been up there for a week
ok i labeled the 4 cards you draw at the start the starting cards
yea thats good
I found this https://deckulator.appspot.com/
card combination calculator multivariate hypergeometric distribution
doesn't work with mulligans though
that would have been too convenient to exist for sure
There is something that makes me very uneasy with these calculations...
say we have deck 5q 1k 1j 1a and
want to draw 3q 1k (and assume we have hand size of 4 and we can redraw any of cards exactly once)
after first draw we get: 2q 1j 1a
We have two strategies we can follow we can redraw 1j and 1a (only the cards we didn't draw correctly), and we will either end up with the 3q 1k or we might also end up with 4q
The other strategy is to redraw all the cards since there are only 4 cards in the deck left we are guaranteed to get exactly them, which would be 3q 1k.
So by discarding cards you wanted to get you can actually improve your chances
That's a good point, I was assuming the first strategy was always (at least weakly) dominant
so really I would have to calculate the probabilty for every possible mulligan
yeah i thought about that but i wasn't sure if it'd apply since i couldnt find a situation where it would, but it makes sense though
I would recommend asking this in #combinatorial-structures if you haven't already
alright
although i thought you first: mulligan all cards that aren't part of the combo,
then second: if you have more than enough of a card for the combo, mulligan those
doesn't that work?
should i just copy and paste the original message and explain where we're currently at?
I would rewrite to be a bit more concise and more general
you should edit the original problem to be how it is so far (and say you edited the message to be updated)
alright i posted it. not sure if its good but i tried
@vague valve Has your question been resolved?
trying to use this to calculate getting at least one specific card (4 copies) but i don't think the percentage is right, im doing something wrong
DECK_SIZE = 40
HAND_SIZE = 4
COMBO_CARD_COUNTS = [Card(4)]
I think that's right
it says 60% chance
thinking about it now i guess it does make since, its just unintuitive with the mulligans
unrelated but combinatorial structures hasn't made much progress regarding this, is there somewhere else where it would be better to ask?
not sure lol
@vague valve Has your question been resolved?
I don't know if it's been stated already, but are we assuming that discarding is done optimally? (i.e. always discard a card if it's not in the target hand and never discard otherwise?)
yes
This assumes that we can't make a decision after each redraw. If we can make a decision after each redraw then we can simply discard the 2 we don't want and then discard the other 2 one at a time if we still don't have our target hand
the deck can contain 40 of the same card, 1 of 40 different cards, and everything in between
I suspect that this means that the probability of drawing any given card is always just 1/40 if the deck has an equal probability of being any possible deck
If that's true then the question is easy
Do we have any constraints on how the deck is constructed?
im not sure what you mean
also yes, you can make a decision after each redraw
Does the deck have an equal probability of being any one of the 40^40 possible decks that we can construct in the obvious way? Is it that except without duplicates? Is it that but without duplicate sets but randomly shuffled?
If it's the first one then the next card in a deck always has a 1/40 chance of being any given card, so the question becomes easy. If it's one of the other two cases then I think the same still applies but I'd have to think about it more
$\oint\frac{1}{z}{d}z=i\tau$
its been a month since the original question has been asked lol
Maybe no one knows how to solve?

we need Albert Einstein to be resurrected from his grave for this one for sure
did he know probabalistic game theory or whatever this is?
im sure he could figure it out
I could probably solve this if I had someone else to collaborate with
so far my attempted solution failed because of a false assumption
@vale ore this channel is occupied, please look in #❓how-to-get-help
That's a IMC Question lol
For anyone trying to find the question
International Mathematics competition
Basically the IMO for university students
ik what it stands for i just didnt know that the question was from IMC
This doesn't seem too bad for each set of cards tbh
theres supposed to be 52 cards
Yeah 2024 IMC, literally released like 2 days ago?
oh i havent checked that one yet
The difficulty for the first 3 on both days was lower than previous years tbh
oh right
But the final 2 on both days were harder, good questions tho
10 questions in 2 days and 4 hours each? I think
Limit sum?
math collab?
@vague valve
The question is probably not easy to generalise into a nice form, like doing it for a regular deck of cards (excluding J,Q,K) it doesn't seem too bad but for generic cards it'll depend on many factors
This question
||Spam log rules to simplify as a sum minus a log||
Yea
I just mean if someone else could work with me on it
sorry that i cant be much of help
We don't need a nice form. We just need a form and an algorithm can compute it.
There is a very large amount of scroll back on this thread, making it extremely daunting and time consuming to jump in and help.
Can someone (@vague valve ?) give a summary of the work done so far and what open questions are lingering, and perhaps edit them (or a link to the post clarifying everything) into the pinned post? As well as any clarifications to the original question to make it better formed.
alr i did it
thanks chatgpt
well, i edited the original message
As in you used ChatGPT, or you're suggesting I used ChatGPT?
nah i used it
had some free time and tried your problem for a toy deck of numbers instead of cards. for clarity, i will state my comprehension of the problem statement. we have a shuffled deck of cards of size $n$ composed of $n_d$ distinct cards each of which appear $n_i$ times in the deck so $\sum_{i=1}^{n_d}n_i=n$. the player is aware of the $n_i$ i.e. the composition of the deck. the player gets a random sample without replacement of $k \leq n$ cards from the deck to form his hand. he can then choose to redraw or not redraw from the deck each card in his hand once one by one (this mean he can adapt his strategy after each single redrawn card). we want the probability of getting a certain desired hand after all the redraws have been done. the player is assumed to play optimally choosing the redrawing strategy that maximise the probability of obtaining his desired hand after each redraw. here is a table for the deck 122333 when the desired hand is 123. as existentialistic found, the distribution of the distinct hands before the redrawing process is a multivariate hypergeometric distribution. then i assumed the redraws were done simultaneously but as was clarified by troposphere and confirmed by axerity in #combinatorial-structures the redraws are made one card at a time making my little table obsolete or at best an underestimate of the probability. nonetheless here it is. feel free to verify it.
pola_touche
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
@vague valve To clarify we can mulligan cards one at a time right? And decide whether or not to discard based on what we redraw?
Your understanding seems correct, I have checked the picture yet
My thought was we could adapt the formula used on this website to account for redraws: https://deckulator.appspot.com/
card combination calculator multivariate hypergeometric distribution
Here's a sample calculation:
The bottom card should be called "card 4" but we get the same formula
yes
and when a redraw is done, is the replacement card and the rejected card drawn and put back in randomly or is replacement card drawm from the top of the remaining deck and the rejected card put at the bottom? this can complexify the problem even more because you could deduce information on the next drawn card if the cards are not redrawn and put back randomly from the remaining deck.
the cards you reject do not go back into the deck, and the redrawn cards are drawn from the top of the remaining deck
ultimate pain
why would that be an issue?
because i just did an example with a bad assumption again
These details are important man lol
i didnt know they would be lol, i was trying my best to keep it from being an essay
minor typo in there, try rewording the first two sentences to "In a randomly shuffled 40-card deck, you draw 4 cards at the top to be your starting cards. You have the option to use a mulligan, where you discard a starting card in your hand and redraw another card. Mulligans do not need to be done all at once."
that way you include the option to do another mulligan of a different starting card if your first mulligan fails to get the card you want
@remote nacelle I think this is the general formula. If someone could confirm and possibly help me type in LaTeX that would be great.
where
n = deck size
k = hand size
ni = #copies of card i
ki = #minimum desired copies of card i
(only copies with ki > 0 are indexed)
p = #distinct desired cards
Should be Cp = kp in the left sum
$\sum_{C_p = k_p}^{n_p}$...$\sum_{C_2 = k_2}^{min(n_2, k - \sum C_{i > 2})} \sum_{C_1 = k_1}^{min(n_1, k - \sum C_{i > 1})}$ $\frac{\binom{n_1}{C_1} \binom{n_2}{C_2} \dots \binom{n_p}{C_p} \binom{n - \sum n_i}{k - \sum C_i}}{\binom{n}{k}}$
Existentialistic
Could someone confirm whether this is the correct probability or not? (without mulligans)
n = deck size
k = hand size
ni = #copies of card i
ki = #minimum desired copies of card i
p = #distinct desired cards
I am probably missing something subtle, but if we are able to mulligan only a set number of times, and we do not need to mulligan if we do not want to, and the rules are accommodating enough that we don't ever need to make a suboptimal draw, and you draw n cards with m mulligans, then wouldn't the question reduce down to "do the top m+n cards contain a set of the desired cards?"
No
Do you know if my formula is correct?
Ah, the subtlety I was missing is the rule of the mulligan is you can only redraw a specific card in your hand only once. It's as if you have n slots for cards, and if you have m mulligans, m ≤ n, and once you replace a card in a slot via a mulligan that slot is now locked.
each mulligan is per-card, the instrctuions were subtly hinting to this by implying that mulligans only apply to starting cards
axerity has had to edit the question more times than there are valid approaches to the problem
Are you double counting here? For instance the hand 122 where the desired cards are 12 would be counted in two ways, first by counting the unitalicized 2 in the sum with C2, and the italicized 2 in the sum with the leftovers, and then vice versa?
If you aren't overcounting it though, then you might not be counting it at all. This seems like it needs inclusion exclusion.
what are n, k, ni, ki in this example?
what's the difference between 2 and 2 lol
n is larger than 3, k is 3, p is at least 2.
They're normally indistinguishable 2s that I made distinguishable for the purpose of talking about them individually
I think this term guarantees we don't overcount
it's basically how many different ways we can draw the cards we don't care about
where k - sum Ci is the remaining hand size
Yes but in the hand 122 where we need 12 then the extra 2 isn't really a number we don't care about
There will be separate cases where C2 = 1 and C2 = 2
I get that, what I'm fearing might happen is in the case C2 = 1, we will also count the second 2 in that final term
And I'm not seeing how that is avoided?
we won't, because we're doing n2 choose C2
for that card type
we're not doing n2 choose k2
we're doing n2 choose C2
Ok, I see it now
In that case I do not have a quibble
And I thought the use of min was clever. Though I probably would have ordered the summations the other way around
I stole it from the website to be fair
Just had to reverse engineer the formula and I changed the notation slightly
It's funny you mention inclusion-exclusion because that was my first approach and I think I significantly overcomplicated it
I'm happy to be wrong. I frequently overcomplicate things
I wrote code to put an arbitrary expression of unions and intersections into disjunctive normal form and then count the size via inclusion-exclusion 
@worldly chasm I think there is a problem with my formula though. It doesn't work when we care about all the cards and the combo size is less than our hand size. I think we need Cp = max(kp, k - sum(ki))
but we only need the max when we have no extra cards...
And I agree that's probably the most straightforward way to repair it
uhhh
or we might have some extra cards but not enough to fill the hand 😡
Cp = max(kp, k - sum(ki) - (n - sum(ni))
I think
So if we have 1, 2, 3 of cards of type a, b, and c, and we want 1 of each, and we have 1 card of type d, and our hand is 5 big, then we have a situation where C1 = C2 = 1, then when we get to C3 we will have max(1, 5 - 3 - (7 - 6)) = max(1, 1)
Instead of sum(ki) I think you mean sum(k(i<3))
@unborn cradle ^
yes I think so
that's right
k_(i < p)
or I could write it like this
Cp = kp + max(0, k - sum(ki) - (n - sum(ni))
@worldly chasm I think that's more clear, the second term is the correction term
That does make sense
$\sum_{C_p = k_p + max(0, k - \sum k_i - (n - \sum n_i))}^{n_p}$...$\sum_{C_2 = k_2}^{min(n_2, k - \sum C_{i > 2})} \sum_{C_1 = k_1}^{min(n_1, k - \sum C_{i > 1})}$ $\frac{\binom{n_1}{C_1} \binom{n_2}{C_2} \dots \binom{n_p}{C_p} \binom{n - \sum n_i}{k - \sum C_i}}{\binom{n}{k}}$
that's right but it doesn't fit on one line lmfao
Existentialistic
oh ye so like 1+1 squared is 4
im very smart
how do isolve this
Please use an unoccupied channel
oh yea my bad
idk if this is correct, i would need to parse it for longer, but from what i understand the complex sum on top of this expression is due to the case when the player want a certain combination of cards $\sum_{i=1}^p k_i$ in his hand less than the hand’s total size $k$. when i said that the distribution for the hands is a mvt hypergeometric distribution, i assumed that the player wants exactly $k$ cards i.e a specific hand not a certain subset of desired cards in the drawn hand.
pola_touche
my question is if this complexity is really required. what does the player really want. an exact 4 cards hand or certain desired multiset of cards in his hand? @vague valve
im not sure what you mean by certain desired multiset
well let’s say you have the hand 1223 from some deck containing the cards 1,2, and 3. does the player wants 4 specific cards with repeats or can he wants to have only subsets with repeats for example 122, 223, 123 or 111 in his 4 card hand. a multiset is a mathematical set with repeats basically.
so you want to calculate if a player has multiple desired hands?
no i want to clarify if the cards the player wants at the end of the mulligans are a subset with repeats of the full hand
like can the player want at the end to have the cards 1 2 2 in his hand when his hand will contain 4 cards
if im understanding it correctly then it depends on how many cards are in the combo
i think the answer is yes
like if a player wants 122 and they draw 1322 then the combo has been achieved
said another way, the player’s goal is to get a certain target “sub-hand” in his full 4 card hand after the mulligans
this makes the problem yet again more complex
if the hand is 4 cards and the combo is 4 cards then it wont matter right
yeah this extra complexity happens if the combo is less than 4 cards with the 4 card hand
We don’t need it to be simple, we just need it to be computable in a reasonable amount of time
then we could simulate it with a computer to estimate the probability like in R or python. that wouldn’t be a formula or the exact probability, but it could approach it to a given precision with enough simulations.
Yeah that might be good for verifying if we have the correct formula or not
Or even just a good approximation
though the simulation will probably assume the player is using a certain redrawing strategy, not THE optimal redrawing strategy. unless there is a way to computationally search for the optimal redrawing strat.
yeah i guess, my worry is that the optimal strategy might not be unique and that it will be something too complex (a lot of cases) for a normal monkey to execute. like something akin to a chess engine. it would be nice if a simple optimal strategy exist. for example something similar the one proposed by troposphere in combinatorial structure seem pretty good. only discard for redraw the cards that are not in your desired sub-hand or that are in your subhand but more than the number of times you want that card.
Yeah I suppose we don’t know which card to redraw first
Wait no it doesn’t matter
Just redraw what we don’t need
Until we can’t redraw anymore
i imagine it would get complicated if you had multiple desired hands though
we can test it out with a simation but we have no proof it’s optimal
Let x be the size of the desired multiset - the size of the largest subset of the multiset in our current hand. If there are multiple largest subsets, cards which cannot be discarded (i.e. were not in our starting hand) will be prioritized over ones that can. Clearly x ≥ 0, and our goal is to get x = 0. Discarding a card not in the subset can never increase x, so it will only benefit us. Discarding a card in the subset can never decrease x, so it will never benefit us. So the strategy is optimal.
can you apply this to the deck 122333 with target 123 when the hand that was drawn before the redraws was 223? i just want to see the proof’s logic in a concrete example.
We discard one of the 2's. If we get a 1 we're done. If we get a 2 we discard the other 2. If we ever get a 3 we discard the 3 in our starting hand.
It's important that cards not in our starting hand are prioritized in the largest subset
which frees up some cards to be discarded
Does that clear things up?
i’m unsure but yeah that seem to work you basically show you can’t do better than that strat
what was making me unsure is the fact that the strat can fail, but i guess it fail less time or as frequently as any other strat.
Isn't that the definition of "optimal"?
it made me think of an upper bound on the probability of getting the desired subhand. once you draw your hand, then you basically have to find the probability that the k top card of the remaining deck contains at least the card(s) you still need for your desired subhand.
then it’s only a matter of having a strategy that can always get these cards in your hand to show that it’s optimal but your proof seems better
or determining when an optimal strategy can get the remaining cards to compute the exact prob
Yeah I think this approach is backwards. Usually we need to know the optimal strategy to determine the probability of success.
axerity vs gwad 0 ravivar
the what now
they were making a joke
both you and the person they mentioned have help channels older than a month
oh lmao
this can go through smaller cases but is too slow to work for n=40 and k=4 above approximating
Guys
i have problem. I have 4 numbers 0,2,10,42. thats a series. what is a pattern here?
please open a new channel! #❓how-to-get-help
i’m guessing it’s that every term is an odd power of 2 plus the previous term. so:
0
2 = 0 + 2^1
10 = 2 + 2^3
42 = 10 + 2^5
and i guess that would make the next term
42 + 2^7 = 170
is there more context
if this is all the context they probably just set k_1 to be this constant
so plugging in gives $y=k_1x-k_1/2$ which is much simpler
buboblakistoni
I agree that more context is needed, but it looks like a derivative problem. The way I learned it is you kind of reduce the variables. -60/a x is actually -60/a x^1, and 30/a is actually 30/a x^0 (which is 1), it's just usually implied and written the way you've always seen for simplification. When taking a derivative the exponents get subtracted by 1, and I can't quite remember the reason why, but when you take the derivative of a variable that has an exponent of 0 it's like your multiplying the constant by 0. So 30/a (x^0 which is 1) turns into 30/a * 0, which effectively "cancels it out". Then -60/a x^1 becomes -60/a x^0 (again which is 1) therefore -60/a. Thinking about it like this usually works for simple problems like yours. Not sure why they changed y to k1 though, usually when doing derivatives it becomes "prime = ' " if I remember correctly, which would be written y' = -60/a
!occupied
Someone else is already using this help channel. If you need help with a question, please open your own help channel/thread (see #❓how-to-get-help for instructions).
yeah, if @vague valve agrees, this demo imitating the deck-o-lator site is an appropriate solution to the question. i just want more details on what’s happening in there. like do you check all possible redrawing strats for heach possible drawn hands?
how does this work
not sure how to use it
you open it on a browser on a computer, works for me
ok yeah i got that part but like the result isnt useful
3 desired cards 40 in deck no matter what i do it just gives me the max trial number/ max trial number
why dont peopleclose the chats
Maby so people can learn from others questions
Because bro isn't done yet💀
Yeah... Let them cook...
Hmmm... Is this meme correct?
💀
this is not a math help anymoree
.close
you sure you use it right like it works like the dec-o-lator website. you specify the composition of the desired hand and the composition of the deck. In mtt's implementation it look like this for a deck of 4 cards 10 each with a desired hand of 1 Q 1 j and 1 A
but you can't specify the number of card you draw so yeah it's still useless
in the general case but he can fix it easy i'm pretty sure
.done
has the original problem where youre looking for a specific hand instead of a specific subhand already answered
not exactly in that case, but we have a candidate optimal strategy for the redrawing and we can use simulations for estimating the prob. it’s a matter of implementation since the prob of a certain hand before the redraws is a multivariate hypergeometric dist if we are looking for a specific 4 cards hands with 4 cards drawn. it’s not a weird sum of probabilities from that dist as with the subhand version of the problem. from my perspective, what is left to do is to compute for each possible hand the prob that an optimal strat gets the hand you want.
i am hoping this is what you did with your html code, but i did not put the time in to understand/parse it. also i’m not familiar with html. a bit of explaining of the code would be appreciated.
you realize the code didnt fall out of the sky, right
I didnt intend to stay in this channel, so the code only answers the original question and nothing else specific to the latest axerity news (nor too close a resemblence to the other calculator website)
the code is only built to answer the original question where you draw your starter cards, take starter mulligans if you want, and ask for the specific probability that the entire hand you got is the hand you wanted
your hand size is from adding up the # desired
to test this, (hand size) cards are drawn for the initial starter deck, then another (hand size) cards are drawn to prepare for the possible mulligans
if the hand matches what's desired, or neither the hand or the mulligans contains enough cards for the desired hand, then the trial ends
if not, then the code brute-forces through all possible ways to mulligan the starting hand
when (hand size) = 4, there are 4 + 4 * 3 + 4 * 3 * 2 + 4 * 3 * 2 * 1 ways or in general < e * (hand size)! ways to go through
depending on how many trials you want, the code will either:
- randomly draw (hand size) * 2 cards to test as above, then give you an approximate number using that number of trials, or
- go through all possible cases and give you an exact fraction if you have enough trials to allow it
you need nPr(deck size, 2 * hand size) / (hand size)! trials to go through all possible cases
other than bounding the numbers, I didnt soup up the website to do much more than what it appears to do
it doesnt reduce its trials nor introduce any strategy to really help the original problem
for deck size = 40, hand size = 4, this is 129 billion cases
if the code ran through a million cases per second, it would take almost 36 hours to complete
but writing it off as useless without even reading the code? bold prediction, and its correct
Laplace's Law of Succession is a problem which is based on probability theory and relevant to JEE Advanced Level and similiar exams .
The problem states as follows -
Each of N + 1 identical urns marked 0, 1, 2, ..., N contains N balls so that the i-th urn contains i black and N - i white balls (0≤ i ≤N). An urn is chosen at random and n balls ...
Why are you spamming this everywhere??
wtf why are there so many hard coded values for n <= 40n
correction: those lists contain every hardcoded value for n! and nCr(n, k) so that theres at least one optimized part of the code, at negligible benefit
lmfao
I mean it's not the worst idea it's just funny to look at
funny to look at is sometimes why I write code that way
I had to generate that list with a separate js script
Could you give a brief overview on how it works?
on what?
it was already given here, this is the brief overview
do you want a detailed overview?
you didnt read it I gather
It's not general enough imo
you realize Im not going to work on the code? I just posted it to emulate the original question
just seems a bit off where I post the code and the first thing people say is "it needs to do more"
you gotta think through what this means in response to a post like that next time
🆗
not going to say sorry or anything?
are you alright buddy?
what is that question supposed to mean
you gotta go post in the available channel to get help, this one's dedicated to axerity's question
i appreciate your help and im assuming its not intentional but you're definitely straddling the line of being condescending
how so
its just that you come off condescending/combative in your messages sometimes
i can reference your messages if you think it would help illustrate my point but i'd rather not
go for it, youre repeating yourself
accidental reply hold on
not a big deal, keep going
#help-13 message
its pretty clear here that existentialistic was just trying to give feedback. i can understand being annoyed about people asking you to do more coding when you don't want to, but saying things along the lines of "you should've thought about what you were saying before you said this" / asking for an apology over something like this is an overreaction
#help-13 message
i misunderstood what you were asking of me here, but asking to "bear with me" when explaining to me how to edit a message (which is very simple, so saying this is implying i'm stupid), assuming i'm refusing to do what you're asking first instead of me just misunderstanding, just the general verbiage of the messages here convey that you don't respect me
neither does this convey respect
we agree that you should reword the message over the course of 5 minutes, so when you then say that, it conveys you didnt read it too closely
so when you say it like that, it sounds like you were getting cocky(?) as if I misunderstood what you were saying
so here I was thinking you were trying to justify your original post instead of agreeing to edit it, said in a cocky manner
thats why I respond back like that, its not meant for if you were just misunderstanding
that's fair enough as well, and i appreciate you being willing to listen to what i said
its also good that even though you said you were just having a Heated Gamer Moment, you still bothered to bring it up here to make sure its 100% resolved
Miracle this didn't escalate
@vague valve I wrote some code that approximates the probability via simulation. It won't give the exact answer but it should be close enough for practical purposes.
import random
DECK_SIZE = 40
HAND_SIZE = 4
COMBO_CARDS_TOTAL_COMMA_DESIRED = [(4, 1), (4, 1), (5, 2)]
SIMULATION_COUNT = 10**6
def main():
deck = create_deck()
success_count = 0
fail_count = 0
for simulation in range(SIMULATION_COUNT):
current_deck = deck.copy()
hand = []
for draw in range(HAND_SIZE):
draw_card(hand, current_deck)
if does_hand_contain_combo(hand):
success_count += 1
continue
for card in hand.copy():
if card >= len(COMBO_CARDS_TOTAL_COMMA_DESIRED) \
or hand.count(card) > COMBO_CARDS_TOTAL_COMMA_DESIRED[card][1]:
draw_card(hand, current_deck)
hand.remove(card)
if does_hand_contain_combo(hand):
success_count += 1
else:
fail_count += 1
print(f"Successes: {success_count}, Failures: {fail_count}")
print(f"Success rate {success_count/SIMULATION_COUNT:.4%}.")
print(f"Standard deviation: {math.sqrt(success_count*fail_count/(SIMULATION_COUNT ** 3)):.4%}")
def create_deck():
deck = [[index for _ in range(pair[0])]
for index, pair in enumerate(COMBO_CARDS_TOTAL_COMMA_DESIRED)]
deck = sum(deck, []) #flatten
non_combo_cards_label = deck[-1] + 1
for card in range(DECK_SIZE - len(deck)):
deck.append(non_combo_cards_label)
return deck
def draw_card(hand, deck):
choice = random.choice(deck)
hand.append(choice)
deck.remove(choice)
def does_hand_contain_combo(hand):
for index, pair in enumerate(COMBO_CARDS_TOTAL_COMMA_DESIRED):
if hand.count(index) < pair[1]:
return False
return True
if __name__ == '__main__':
main()```
Currently it runs a million simulations then finds the average success rate, you could lower it to 100,000 if you want it to run faster (replace the 10 ** 6 with 10 ** 5)
oh I made a mistake
ok fixed
.close
fr
thanks a bunch! just to confirm you put (number of cards in deck, card type) for the COMBO_CARDS_TOTAL_COMMA_DESIRED variable?
(number in deck, number you want)
ah ok
should i keep the channel up? it would be nice to get an actual formula for this instead of approximations but as you said this should be good enough for what i'll use it for
import random
from collections import namedtuple
DECK_SIZE = 40
HAND_SIZE = 4
COMBO_CARDS_TOTAL_COMMA_DESIRED = [(4, 1), (4, 1), (5, 2)]
SAMPLE_SIZE = 10**6
COMBO_CARD = namedtuple("COMBO_CARD", "total, desired")
COMBO_CARDS = [COMBO_CARD(total, desired) for total, desired in COMBO_CARDS_TOTAL_COMMA_DESIRED]
def main():
starting_deck = create_deck()
success_count = 0
fail_count = 0
for sample in range(SAMPLE_SIZE):
current_deck = starting_deck.copy()
hand = []
for draw in range(HAND_SIZE):
draw_card(hand, current_deck)
for card_number in hand.copy():
if card_number >= len(COMBO_CARDS) \
or hand.count(card_number) > COMBO_CARDS[card_number].desired:
hand.remove(card_number)
draw_card(hand, current_deck)
if hand_contains_combo(hand):
success_count += 1
else:
fail_count += 1
print(f"Successes: {success_count}, Failures: {fail_count}")
print(f"Success rate {success_count/SAMPLE_SIZE:.4%}.")
print(f"Standard deviation: {math.sqrt(success_count*fail_count/(SAMPLE_SIZE ** 3)):.4%}")
def create_deck():
deck = [[card_number for _ in range(combo_card.total)]
for card_number, combo_card in enumerate(COMBO_CARDS)]
deck = sum(deck, []) #flatten
non_combo_card_number = len(COMBO_CARDS)
for card in range(DECK_SIZE - len(deck)):
deck.append(non_combo_card_number)
return deck
def draw_card(hand, deck):
choice = random.choice(deck)
deck.remove(choice)
hand.append(choice)
def hand_contains_combo(hand):
for card_number, combo_card in enumerate(COMBO_CARDS):
if hand.count(card_number) < combo_card.desired:
return False
return True
if __name__ == '__main__':
main()
This is a slightly cleaner version
It should give the same output it's just organized a bit better
unrelated but i made some likely gut wrenching code in terms of readability but its the first time i coded anything if you want to see it
sure, for this problem?
no, for something else
?
Not sure
sure I can take a look
how has axerity come above palaeeudypte?
Do you have a specific problem you're stuck on?
One sec
k
collinear means that all the points are on the same line
we are given that PQ is congruent to RS which in simple terms just means they are the same
we also know that PS = 21 and PR = 17
my drawing is kinda bad but what additional information do you think u can figure out from the givens
what is the value of QR
i can help you figure it out but im not gonna give you the answer
what other line segments do you think you can solve for?
well if we have PS and PR we can probably figure out RS right
ok but we are looking for QR
we cant solve for QR quite yet
ok
if we know other lengths we can figure out QR
how do we start
can you agree that PQ + QR + RS = PS
yes
yes
ok
are you still with me
since PQ = RS we can just replace RS with PQ
ok
2PQ + QR = 21
and
2RS + QR = 21
both work
i just chose PQ cause why not
so if we can figure out PQ or RS then we can figure out QR right
right
do you have any ideas on how we can solve for PQ or RS?
No
well can you agree with me that PR + RS = PS
yes
No I dont get this im getting frustrated
what are you confused about
Idk I dont understand anything
you're fine up to here?
or are there previous steps you didnt quite understand
dont be afraid to ask questions even if they sound dumb
I understood for a sec and now I dont
how does PR+RS=PS
all of these points are collinear
which means that you can draw a line and it will pass through all of them
ok like a square with a x in the middle
based off my drawing R is clearly between points P and S
what do you mean by this
here i think this is a better visual representation
oh ok
So a straight line with multiple points
im not really sure what you're trying to say but i dont think its correct
yes
based on the drawing do you think you can find RS
yes
finally
4
so now do you think u can solve for QR?
13
nice
What about this
i gotta do my own homework man sorry
my poor channel

pinned
nah i ain't doing any more combi enough combi for 2 months already
@vague valve can you just move your question to stack exchange. Help channels aren't meant to be open for this long

hi
.close
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can someone walk me through this?
I know it’s simple but I’m getting hella brain fog and need some sense of direction
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Can someone help me with my assignment?
<@&286206848099549185>
cmon you could have waited for at least a few minutes
I'm sorry, it won't happen again.
Fear shall be known -hayley💀
Hello there Trash Boat!
Do you know how to start with Q1?
like have you done anything on the question?
(fire mordecai & rigby reference btw)
Yeah I did
Thank bro
reading
And I don't know how to go further
got it?
Like this? And continue it on the rest?
yea, and then the same problem with -3+(-5)
Ohhh alr alr ok brb
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why detA=-2
A is nxn, n is natural
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guys im not sure if this correct
chatgpt say 1 thing, textbook notes other thing
i guess its not and its actually 0/6
= 0
It is 0 yeah
Be careful when using ChatGPT, it is general not very good at this sort of stuff
Use WolframAlpha if you just need an answer
Eh I don't think it's AI
But it's useful
,w limit as x goes to infinity sqrt(6x^4 - 6x^2 + 2022)/(6x^4 + 6x^2 + 2022)
There might be some sort of clever factorisation that can solve this but what you can also do is simply analyze the dominant terms in all the polynomials
ananas
Some people aren't comfortable with it
But since you are that's the best way to solve this
Yeah it's more traditional, you can't really talk to it like a human
Try to be as simple and precise as possible
who can help to find the determinant?
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I'm not sure how this shows that Z[w] is an integral domain, could anyone help
no zero divisors so (a+bw)(c+dw)=0 implies one of them must be 0
as those are both also complex numbers what do we know
yes
Which imply integral domain
Ohh so they are really just trying to show closure under multiplication here?
yes. the other properties either follow from C or are trivial
like additive closure/inverse
Ahh okay get it get it, thanks alot
would be good to make a complete list
and check each of them of as trivial or following from C
just as an exercise
For subring part, I just have to show
Closure under subtraction, closure under multi and non-zero right
nonempty. yes
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THanks :D
Hello, my professor went really quick over this exercise and this is what I understood
I am not sure this is enough proof
can anyone explain why or why not this is enough?
roughly speaking that's the idea but the thing u've written in the middle doesn't make sense
(lim x->infinity of x)
ah right
I hope its supposed to be an intersection sign
you could write it like that but i wouldn't
It is :D
oh yeah whoops i just glanced over that lol
it's more that let's say there was a number x in our intersection
then -1/n <= x <= 1/n for all pos. ints. n
so we can take the limit of the LHS and RHS
(in some sense you could say we're taking the limit of x as n tends to infinity but this is kinda meaningless so i really wouldn't)
I would phrase it from the other perspective
-1/n <= x <= 1/n for all natural n
let x be nonzero. then there exists n with 1/n<|x|, so x is not in [-1/n,1/n]. and then also not in the intersection
we take limits and we arrive to the conclusion that 0 <= x <= 0 so the only x in the interval is 0
That's how I had done it, actually. She said it was too much work
lol
I have a slight problem with this
let's say x <= 1/n for every n>0
Are we sure we can keep the <= while doing the limit?
My intuition says we shouldn't, but 0 is a correct value of x
its the squeeze theorem
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✅
In this case, it's obvious that we can't use <=
how would I justify the fact that we can't use it here but we could previously?
(I understand this isn't the squeeze theorem since we aren't squeezing towards x)
I'm missing the big U before the intervals, its
$$ \bigcup_{n\ge 2} [1/n, 1 - 1/n] $$
dp
well the point was, before it needed to be in the interval for all n
now just for a single one
dp
@coarse blaze Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185>
(sorry for accidental ping, @ helper)
Hi, you have to use another channel
for example, #help-0
this one is still in use
no worries :D
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hello
yeah question?
Hi
Consider angles 🙂
sum of opp angles are 180 in cyclic quad
Now you will get sum of three angles of triangle 180 ° thing
So this way figure out , F, H,G,E
You could get the desired thing
Remember that the
is that ncert?
which class?
9
thankssss
yeah ni shit
u indian
yeah
:))
11th
niceee
not - so - nice
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Hi. Can someone please help me prove this?
This is what I've done so far.
Usually I'm able to find such N for a given epsilon, but I am a bit confused by r^n here.
what sorts of theorems do you know? for example, do you know that a_n --> 0 if and only if |a_n| --> 0? and do you know that a decreasing sequence of positive numbers has a limit?
Yeah, I would like to get rid of the absolute value signs, am I on the right track?
Yes, a decreasing sequence has a limit in R (if all the terms are positive of course).
I was thinking, maybe I can use the fact that r is less than 1 and more than 0
so like, its powers are going to be less than r for sure
ok
so |r|^n -> L
and |r|^(n+1) -> L
but notice that |r|^(n+1) = |r| |r|^n
so |r|^(n+1) also converges to |r| L
which shows that L = |r| L
see what you can do with that
Can we write this in epsilon notation? So , prove that r^n is convergent using epsilon, considering that it is in (-1, 1)
I understood the part where |r^n| and |r^(n+1)| converge to the same L))
Sorry if I am asking dumb questions I just got started with this topic
basically I would have to also prove this in that case
But intuitively I do get how it must have a limit, cuz r^n > r^(n+1) > r(n+1+1) ... etc.
is the limit 0 btw?
yeah it is
how do we prove it though? we need to find at least one natural N for every epsilon, am I right?
can I express N in terms of epsilon? if we do that the proof will be completed I think @flint plinth
<@&286206848099549185>
N must be more than log(r)(epsilon)?
and we need to ensure it is positive
sth like this?
so if I got * at least one N that works for all epsilon, the proof is complete right?
also idk to get the smallest possible natural N for which all a(n), n>=N are in the epsilon neighborhood, should I round it down? yeah I think I should
anyone?🥹
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dont redeem it
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my math teacher gave me the definition that "A cylinder is a surface that consists of all lines parallel to a given line and passing through a given plane curve". Does this mean that, if I say draw an "s" shape or some other squiggle on the xy-plane and extended that through the z-axis the resulting surface would be considered a cylinder?
under that definition something like this is considered a cylinder, yes
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Please help me to factor this polynomial.
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Im struggling with this notation problem, I know its (-inf,-1)U____ but I dont understand how to put the other part in
oh i should ping
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Help my teacher has created some concept on creating nth step diagrams for visual patterns and I'm so confused
i can't find any information on nth step diagrams online
would you mind showing an example
umm so basically he draws like the core of a pattern so like the constant
then he visually adds where the pattern adds from
i understand basic algebera with patterns and stuff but i dont understand the diagrams
!close
nvm
ill figure it out
/close
!end
.close
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$4x + y^2 = 12, x = y$ how do I set up the integral for the area between the curves?
wakamole
find their intercepts first
that gives you the bounds
as you can see here, the area highlighted here is exactly the area below curve 1 minus area under curve 2
this is true when (in the relevant interval), one function is always >= the other (which it is here)
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Can someone help me with this
@sudden mirage Has your question been resolved?
<@&286206848099549185> (sorry for the ping)
‼️
wdym you need help
vertical stretch multiply x values by recirpical of 3/2
then reflect and translate
bc its a vertical stretch
Uhh
Oh I see
wait just makung sure if the negative is attached to the number its reflect y right?
Yes
It’s reflected
If it’s attached to b value it’s a horizontal reflect and if it’s attached to the a value it’s a vertical one
If that was what you were confirming
Wait it’s
A verticle
Vertical.
Factor
Across the x axis
So it wouldn’t be reciprocaled
That’s only for horizontal
I cant spell
It’s okay, I think I got it tho! Thanks
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can anyone help me
Where is it wrong
y int
Yea should be -6
yessir
Good find
@vernal lichen Has your question been resolved?
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( 1 0 1 )
( 0 1 1 )
( 1 1 0 )
im going to find the inverse of this matrix
I get a good result of a 3x3 matrix
but the answe sheet multiply this 3x3 matrix by 1/2
and I dont know where they get 1/2 from
Determinant
Hmm you will have to learn determinant before inverse
Let's say A is a matrix the determinant of A is written as |A|
Have you seen something like this before
ive solved inverse of matrices without the determinant so far
why do I need it this time?
or has the determinant been 1 for the other examples?
Did you do inverse for 3x3
Probably
Because you multiply by 1/determinant
this is how I solved this one
isnt this inverse correct?
even though I dont have a determinant
What method is this
gaussjordan
trying to get the reduced echolon form
if thats what its called
the pyramid with zeros
This precalculus video tutorial explains how to find the determinant of 3x3 matrices and 2x2 matrices.
Introduction to Matrices: https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=yRwQ7A6jVLk
Adding and Subtracting Matrices:
https://www.youtube.com/watch?v=QXUbFzEd3Ww
Scalar Multiplication of Matrices: ...
I still get the wrong determinant
how do you get 1/2 with just 1's and 0's
@winter lynx Has your question been resolved?
If I'm not mistaking the determinant is -1 here
You don't need a determinant for the inverse
I see thanks
but the answe is 1/2 * [1 -1 1]
[-1 1 1]
[1 1 -1]
And that is not the determinant nor the adj matrix
its the inverse
right?
The whole thing yes
When you have a number * matrix
It just tells you that each element of the matrix is to be multiplied with that number
yeah but why would you need the 1/2
only the last row needs to be divied by 2
unless you multiply row 1 and 2 with 2, then it makes sense
@winter lynx Has your question been resolved?
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What does TrendLine mean in charts?
@pliant apex Has your question been resolved?
depends on context, but could be
https://www.mathsisfun.com/data/least-squares-regression.html
Math explained in easy language, plus puzzles, games, quizzes, videos and worksheets. For K-12 kids, teachers and parents.
?
what's your confusion about least squares
???
can't help if you don't use words. good luck
fuck you
um
he's
only trying to help
like he said, we can't exactly help if we don't know what your doubt is
<@&268886789983436800>
Why
please don't be rude to other users


