#linear-algebra
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$\forall \bm{x} = [x_1,x_2] \in \mathbb{R}^2 , \bm{y} = [y_1, y_2] \in \mathbb{R}^2
\\
\langle \bm{x}, \bm{y} \rangle = x_1y_1 - ( x_1y_2 + x_2y_1) + 2(x_2y_2)$
melling
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Exercise 3.1 from this book asks me to prove it: https://mml-book.github.io
Companion webpage to the book “Mathematics for Machine Learning”. Copyright 2020 by Marc Peter Deisenroth, A. Aldo Faisal, and Cheng Soon Ong. Published by Cambridge University Press.
Any suggestions on something that I can read that will explain why the second formula is an inner product? Do i need to prove that it’s bilinear?
try to prove all the axioms of an inner product
or you can show the bilinear form is symmetric and positive definite
@boreal wadi
Thanks
Can there be a Linear Transformation that goes from, for example R^6 to R^9?
yes i believe so
e.g. something like (x1,x2,x3,x4,x5,x6) |-> (x1, x2, x3, x4, x5, x6, 0, 0, 0)
you would just need to define a function which does so
I thougjt Linear Transformations dont increase dimensions
alternatively, something like f(x) = (x,x) will map from V to V^2
a linear functional does not increase dimension
a linear functional is a linear transformation which maps onto itself
e.g. T: V -> V
essentially the dimension of the codomain can be larger than the dim of the domain
but the dim of the image cannot be larger
In that case is the dim(Im) langer tho
Or is it because its not a Linear functional
in this case, dim(codomain) is larger
image =/= codomain
but dim(im) is not larger
Ah okay
Yes, in fact, the whole mathematical formulation of the standard model of particles is based on the representation theory of lie algebras. There's also a lot of lie theory machinery used in the study of quantization of classical systems. A good book to learn a bit about these topics after learning some linear algebra would be "Quantum Theory for Mathematicians" by Brian C. Hall.
this is so sexy. thank you so much
what timing too
i was just looking for a replacement for mcintyre
Wdym by timing?
Hmmm idk mcintyre

Yeah, idk I personally like Brian C. Hall tho
I do not like reading physics textbooks written with the physicist in mind 
agreed
well
taylor classical mechanics was an enjoyable read
mcintyre is a painful read
so i stopped
So Hall doss a nice thing by presenting a sort of exposition to QM is more friendly to the mathematician.
It in fact introduces a lot of the relevant notion from classical mechanics through the textbook.
Which is good
music to my ears
I've been trying to learn from that book. It seems good but be warned, if you're not up on your functional analysis, it will be hard
as soon as they start talking about domains of self adjoint bounded operators, which is early, it's rough going (for me anyway)
which book?
this one
@zinc timber
why are cyclic subspaces called cyclic
you're cycling through the powers of an operator acting on a vector
ah ok
How I tell if these have inverses? (And find them if they do)
not a place to ask but it has something to do with Bezout
where shall I ask it then? fwiw my linear algebra prof. is going into this stuff bcz he seems to think crypto falls under the same umbrella :P
,w is 1001 prime
yeah lol
thx! that's just the hint I needed ;)
Can someone tell me which types of matrices are corresponding to the case where the geometric multiplicities are not equal to the algebraic multiplicities for the matrix? I believe I heard something about Jordan normal form matrices displaying this behavior for example
Thats where you have eigenvalues on the diagonal and at least one 1 right above the diagonal I believe if I am not mistaken?
the geometric multiplicity of an eigenvalue is the number of jordan blocks corresponding to an eigenvalue, and so the geometric multiplicity equals the algebraic multiplicity for that eigenvalue if and only if the jordan blocks corresponding to the eigenvalue are all trivial (i.e. 1x1 jordan blocks consisting of just the eigenvalue). you should compare this with the statement "a matrix is diagonalizable if and only if its characteristic polynomial splits and all the geometric and algebraic multiplicities coincide")
so non-trivial jordan form matrices are exactly the matrices for which the geometric multiplicities do not agree with the algebraic multiplicities (at least for matrices with splitting characteristic polynomials - those which actually have jordan forms)
Hello everyone, i know the picture has german language in it but i will try to translate it, maybe someone can help our group
we need to find the matrix M of the projection on the line with and angle of 1.9696 [Rad] to the first axis (x-axis) using the mirror matrix for the x axis
@wintry steppe would the following matrix be such a case I presume $$\begin{equation*}
\begin{pmatrix}
2 & 1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 2 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 0 & 3 & 0 \
0 & 0 & 0 & 3 \
\end{pmatrix}
\end{equation*}$$
Fredrikpiano
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yeah
Here the eigenvalues give a algebrac multiplicity of 4
the geometric multiplicity of 2 is 1, but the algebraic multiplicity of 2 is 2
while the geometric multiplicity is not equal
be careful to say geometric/algebraic multiplicity of what eigenvalue
oh, right. What do you mean by splitting characteristic polynomials exactly?
you may write them as a product of linear factors
anyone know LA reading groups or sth like that
for example, x^2 + 1 does not split over R, but it does split over C as (x - i)(x + i)
every matrix whose characteristic polynomial splits has a jordan form
think of it as the next best thing after diagonalization (indeed, diagonalization is a special case of jcf)
@wintry steppe ok , I think I got that part thanks. Could you explain more what you mean by trivial Jordan blocks?
1 x 1 jordan blocks
I am stuck on proving that the algebraic multiplicity of an Markov matrix's eigenvalue 1 is one
Isnt that just the diagonal though if the dimension is 1?
if the dimension of what?
the Jordan blocks being 1x1
if you have a jordan block that's 1x1 it's a diagonal entry of the matrix (with no other entries in its row or column)
#chill
ah yes very cool matrix manipulation
yeah, thats what I thought. Like a 1x1 matrix if you will
"jordan form" means a block diagonal matrix consisting of jordan blocks
all matrices whose characteristic polynomials split are similar to jordan form matrices (which are unique up to permuting the blocks)
hmm, interesting
so although you may not be able to diagonalize a matrix whose characteristic polynomial splits, you can always put it into jordan form
And then the trivial form is just when you have the "regular" case if you will of diagonal eigenvalues on the diagonal meaning the alg. mul. = geo. mul
<@&268886789983436800>
banned
thanks metal
pretty much
but note that you could have a non-trivial jordan block and a trivial jordan block for the same eigenvalue, which still wouldn't be diagonalizable
also banned
for example, $$\begin{pmatrix} 2 & 1 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 2 & 0 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 2 & 0 \ 0 & 0 & 0 & 3 \end{pmatrix}$$ has two jordan blocks corresponding to the eigenvalue $2$, namely $$\begin{pmatrix} 2 & 1 \ 0 & 2 \end{pmatrix}, \begin{pmatrix} 2 \end{pmatrix}$$
TTerra
so although you have a 2 on the diagonal (being the only one in its row and column), you still aren't diagonalizable
So, its good to think almost diagonalizable for these Jordan forms
good , Im learning
the idea for constructing jordan forms follows that
a matrix fails to be diagonalizable because the eigenspaces are "too small" (captured by "diagonalizable if and only if algebraic, geometric multiplicities coincide"), so to get the jordan form we "enlarge" the eigenspaces to what are called "generalized eigenspaces"
What about this matrix where I have $$
\begin{equation*}
\begin{pmatrix}
0 & 1 & 0 & 0 \
0 & 0 & 1 & 0 \
0 & 0 & 0 & 1 \
0 & 0 & 0 & 0\
\end{pmatrix}
\end{equation*} $$
Fredrikpiano
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and those happen to be large enough, in the sense that our underlying vector space is a direct sum of them (and so we can get block diagonal matrix forms where the blocks come from bases for the generalized eigenspaces)
then one proves that generalized eigenspaces have nice bases in which you get the jordan blocks you see
that's the general story, at a basic level
I will pause and read slowly what you wrote thanks)
the more high-brow view is that it follows from the decomposition theorem for finitely-generated modules over principal ideal domain (if you have an operator T on a finite-dimensional vector space over a field k, then you get a f.g. k[x]-module to which the big theorem applies), but you don't need to think about this if it's your first time
this is a 4 x 4 jordan block with eigenvalue 0
we get a singular eigenvalue of 0 and if we calculate the null space we get a multiplicity of 4. How do you count the Jordan blocks?
Does someone have a nice set of theormes that discusses pivot rows and pivot columns regarding what it means about a linear system Ax=b, Ax=0, and maybe stuff regarding span and linear (in)dependennce of a set of vectors made up of the columns of A?
in general, a jordan block is a matrix of this form:
that's how to count it off of a matrix in jordan form
if you aren't in jordan form, then counting the jordan blocks is a little trickier
generally, you get the jordan blocks for a specific eigenvalue by constructing a certain kind of basis for the corresponding generalized eigenspace
So if there is a corresponding 1 above the diagonal we count it as a jordan block if it is in this form?
i should probably say now: if $T\colon V \to V$ is a linear operator on a finite dimensional vector space $V$ over a field $F$, then the generalized eigenspace corresponding to a $\lambda \in F$ is the subspace $$G_\lambda = {v \in V : (T - \lambda I)^k v = 0 \text{ for some } k \in \bZ_{\geq 0}}$$
TTerra
yes, we compute and evaluate the multplicity by finding the null space
this generalized eigenspace has dimension precisely the algebraic multiplicity of \lambda, and you can find a basis of it consisting of (geo. mult.) many distinct cycles {v, Tv, ..., T^{k-1}v}, where v is an eigenvector with eigenvalue \lambda. if you compute how the operator T looks in such a basis, you'll see that you get a block diagonal consisting of jordan blocks with eigenvalue \lambda
that's exactly how jordan form works
(proving you can actually do all this is the hard part)
it's not quite so simple, at least at first glance. G_\lambda looks instead like the union of a bunch of null spaces, right? and the union of subspaces need not be a subspace
but it does turn out that, if the algebraic multiplicity of \lambda is m, say, then G_\lambda is the kernel of (T - \lambda I)^m
which tells you how to find the generalized eigenspaces
Well I computed the kernel for the eigenvalues of 2 and 3 for the first matrix I posted.
$$\begin{equation*}
ker(\mathbf{A}- 2 \mathbf{I}) = \begin{pmatrix}
-1 \
0 \
0\
0
\end{pmatrix},
ker(\mathbf{A}- 3 \mathbf{I}) = \begin{pmatrix}
0 \
0 \
0 \
1 \
\end{pmatrix} , \begin{pmatrix}
0 \
0 \
1 \
0 \
\end{pmatrix}
\end{equation*}$$
Fredrikpiano
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so the first eigenvalue 2 has geometric multiplicity equal to 1 and eigenvalue 3 has geometric multiplicity equal to 2
yes
and note that there's one jordan block corresponding to 2, and two jordan blocks corresponding to 3
I have this exercise on bilinear/quadratic form and the Sylvester theorem. Q(u,v)=uˆ2-vˆ2 and g((u1,u2),(v1,v2)) = u1v1-u2v2. So that means that we have (p,q)=(1,1) but then my prof says that two vectors, a and b form a Sylvester basis for Q iff a1ˆ2-a2ˆ2=1 , b1ˆ2-b2ˆ2=-1 and (and this is the part i don't understand why) a1b1-a2b2=0.
So my question is why does a1b1 - a2b2 have to be equal to 0?
#calculus or #precalculus would probably be the channel you are looking for
more than likely #calculus
Thank you
,tex Why cant i replace here rk $(f \circ g) \le min(rk (f), rk (g))$ the less than equal with a = ?
Herakles
why does it have to be ≤
I assume rk is the rank of a linear map and f, g are linear maps?
let f, g be two linear maps such that f "eliminates half the space V and leaves the other half fixed" and g does the "opposite, ie leaves the stuff f eliminates and eliminates the rest". then fg is the 0 map but each has rank n/2
Let's say A and B are quadratic matrices such that AB=BA. Also there exist natural numbers m and k such that A^m=0 and B^k=0. prove that det(A+B)=0
Hello
how would you prove this?
Hint: calculate the determinant of (A+B)^s where s:=max{m,k}
Using the binomial expansion
ooof
also important to note is that det(Aˆk)=det(A)ˆk
but how do I find max m k?
this does not look like linear algebra
i think you're looking for #prealg-and-algebra
You cannot divide by A^i. First A is a matrix so you can't divide. And second A is not even invertible
Yes but A is a matrix, not a scalar
You could multiply by A^-1 if A was invertible. But it isn't
Also the whole proof is in that binomial expansion. In the expansion use the AB=BA to always get something in the form of A^mB^something to make that always equal to zero since A^m =0
yeah I get that
After that you will have that tou have a series of 0+0+...
But not every term will be of that form A^mB^something
(A+B)^2=A^2+2AB+B^2=2AB for m=k=2. But now?
Hey guys, any idea regarding this?
Can you explain the notation?
also why max?
here they are equal
k and m
So?
Need to prove that if S is none negative then Phi is also none Negative
I assume non negative means something like xSx>=0 ?
What is T*?
i assume the dual space of T
Ill try to find my proof, wait a min
Yes indeed
what does "non-negative" mean?
all eigenvalues are non negative i think
<TST^*w, w>=<S(T^*w),T^*w>=<Sv,v> >= 0 with the substitution T^*w=v. I assume probably like that
And with the inner product <,>. Or rather inner products as there are two different ones used here
First in W, the other ones in V
so instead of taking the maximum, we actually take the sum of the two orders
Thank you so much!
np, lmk if u dont understand sm
isnt $E_{rs} = I + I_{rs} +I_{sr}-I_{rr}-I_{ss}$
Jester
cant see shi
what is the q?
Nvm i got it
^
Its a seperate condition from what i've read, not something you dedjce from the fiest 2 because the first two can both be equal to + or - 1
from spivak's calculus on manifolds, 1-7... the solution i saw was much more complicated
am i missing something
are you proving (b)?
your argument looks fine. you might want to point out after the last line that every element of R^n is of the form Tv, which gives that T^{-1} is inner product preserving
Can anyone comment on my solution for the following question?
My attempted Solution:
B => A:
because if the columns of A only have the trivial solution for Ax=b (definition of linearly independent), then applying theorem 1.6 ("The structure of solution sets") would tell us that Ax=b has at most 1 solution because Ax=b is made up of a particular solution vector, p, plus any vector solution of the homogenous equation Ax=0, v_h. Since Ax = 0 only has the trivial solution and p + v_h = p+ 0 = p, then b only has at most one solution.
A =>B:
because if we let b = 0 and know that for any matrix A that A(0)= 0, then there can be no more solutions to Ax=0 given (a) is true that any b in R^m has at most one solution. Since Ax=0 has one solution, then by definition the columns of A are linearly independent.
C=>A:
because by theorem 1.2 (“Existence and Uniqueness Theorem”) if you have no free variables which is equivalent to saying there is a pivot in every column of A, then you have 1 unique solution if the system is consistent or no solution at all.
A => C:
because have having at most 1 of the equation Ax=b for each b in R^m, this means you would have no free variables in your columns of A and that means you have a pivot in each column of A.
Since B=>A, A=>B, C=>A, A=>C, then A <=> B <=> C
Question
2 theorems mentioned
definition from book
whats your definition of an affine subset?
uh huh
which direction are you struggling to prove in char 2?
alright, so take a nonempty set A in a space V over a field of characteristic 2
take an arbitrary point u ∈ A
we wish to show A-u is a subspace
that is, we wish to show that for every v, w ∈ A-u and λ ∈ F we have v + λw ∈ A - u
so we have v + u in A and w + u in A and our goal is v + λw + u in A
ok wait too many symbols lets prove closure under addition and closure under scaling separately
we want v+w+u in A
...hm

Can you assume that you could use the inner product?
I mean, I do understand why this - <TST^*w, w>=<S(T^*w),T^*w>=<Sv,v> >= 0 . is true considered you have a given inner product, but can you just define one?
or am I missing something else?
I assumed there was an inner product already defined on W. Not sure how you would define T^* in the first place otherwise
Sorry but I’m confused with this part, I know S(v) is non-negative but why the inner product is non-negative
I thought per assumption we have <Sv, v> >= 0 for all v
otherwise you have to say what S being non-negative means
Our definition for that was,
S=S^* , and S eigenvalues are real non-negative. also theres exist another transformation T where S = T*T
Yeah cuz from here, S is the 0 transformation
Sorry for didnt mentioning that earlier
well first $(TST^)^ = T^{**}S^* T^= T ST^$.
Denascite
let $S=V^V$. Then $TST^=TV^VT^=(VT^*)^VT^=Z^Z$ with $Z=VT^$
Denascite
not sure about the eigenvalues right now. the problem is that speaking about matrices, all eigenvalues positive does not mean that the matrix is positive definite in general
but well your definition for some reason includes S=S^* which in matrix terms would be called symmetric (at least over R) and which is enough for matrices
so you can work with that. not sure yet how tho
\begin{align*} \lambda ||v|| = \lambda \langle v, v\rangle = \langle v, \lambda v\rangle = \langle v, TST^* v\rangle = \langle v, Z^* Z v\rangle \= \langle Zv, Zv\rangle = ||Zv|| \geq 0 \end{align*} for an eigenvalue $\lambda$ with eigenvector $v$ of $TST^*$.
Denascite
you might need to worry about conjugation if you work over C. so first show that lambda is actually real
I'll dive deeper into that soon, sorry had a class
Thanks a lot 🙂
is a linear map from V to V always surjective? (so linear maps from a vectorspace to the same vectorspace)?
no
Hi I'll be in my freshman year (high school) next year and i was trying a couple of questions to get my basics sorted
There are around 45 questions and I doubt in most of em
Could anyone help me out?
I sorted my way out but still have doubt in 30 questions
So, if you could help me, I'd really be grateful 🙏
It's really important for me🙏
They're basic HS questions
I just wanna verify
Then I'm wondering, how the one before last equivalence holds. I know that if it's not injective then it's not an iso but I don't know why it doesn't hold to the other direction (this is a proof to show that you can compute eigenvalue calculating the determinant)
a map from a vector space to itself is either both inj and surj or neither
Ah yes now I get it, I found the theorem, thanks
ok, first thing I'm noticing is that you're proving more then you need: you only need to prove A=>B, B=>C, C=>A (can you see why?)
second, A=>B and B=>A and C=>A look fine to me but A=>C it seems to me you're just restating the problem
hmm
Thm 2 is written a bit vaguely: does "when there are no free variables" means "if and only if there are no free variables"?
why does it say "isomorfism" tho
is it not "isomorphism"
or is that also used
Nooo I'm sure you're right it's with ph, I just translated it quickly from my language where it is with f my bad
oh right i see
how do i find the base change matrix, when i am given B and C.
B is {u1 , u2, u3} and C is {v1, v2, v3}
from C to B or even the other way around
Follow the definition of change of basis
Write each vector in one basis as a linear combination of the others
So by this do you mean i should make a Matrix consisting of [u1|u2|u3] and then find the basis for that matrix
haha of course you meant, finding the basis of the space spanned by the set of vectors
so i found the basis {[1,0,1,1]', [0,1,1,2]', [0,0,-1,0]'}, what do you mean
by 'as a linear combination of the others'?
how do row operations preserve pivot columns
<@&286206848099549185>
google tridiagonal symmetrization
Thanks
what do you mean by that?
you mean they remain linearly independent?
for any matrix, the pivot columns remain unchanged when row operations are applied
each matrix has a unique reduced row echelon form
i was trying to understand why row equivalent row echelon forms have the same pivot columns
ig we should prove this first?
pivot columns for matrices that're not in echelon form are defined to be the pivot columns of their respective reduced row echelon form
there's nothing to prove, it's by definition
definition of what
pivot columns for matrices that're not in echelon form
i thought pivot columns are defined to be columns which contain a pivot (in ref)
oh, I think I get what you're asking now
row operations are reversible
yea
so there doesn’t exist a row operation that changes the pivot columns
idk what to do
contradiction?
so you can be sure that applying a row operation to a matrix doesn't change its rref
now that you put it that way, i can’t immediately see how ;-;
row equivalent matrices have the same rref
since the original matrix and the matrix with row operations on it have the same rref they then have the same pivotal columns
does that make sense now?
ye
this doesn’t really make sense still
suppose $M$ is a matrix, the columns which have a pivotal 1 in $rref(M)$ are the pivotal columns of $M$
DarQ
that's how we define pivotal columns for matrices that are not already in rref
i don’t understand how they remain unchanged through row operations then
let $M$ be a matrix and $M'$ be the $M$ matrix with some row operations applied to it. We know that $rref(M)=rref(M')$
DarQ
we know that because rref(M) is unique
no matter what row operations you apply to M the final result will always be rref(M)
are you asking why that is?
i’m still confused about why M, M’ have the same pivot columns 😦
please be more specific on which step you don't understand
(same rref) -> ??? -> (same pivot cols)
i don’t see how the uniqueness of rref is related
and by pivot cols, i admit to being a bit unclear
according to the definition you’ve given, the pivot columns of a non-ref matrix is the same as its rref form
.
i think i’m looking for justification in your definition
you're looking for justification for why they're defined like that?

this definition is mathematician's attempt for generalizing the idea of pivot columns
pivot columns don't really make sense for matrices that aren't in rref
it's justified because rref is unique
no matter what row operations you use you'll always arrive at the same pivotal columns
hm so let me rephrase
suppose M_1, …, M_n are row equivalent matrices in rref
according to your definition, they should have the same pivot columns
but pivot columns can already be seen from any ref matrix
yeah
like if M_1 follows from your definition, the columns that we can see are pivotal should match the columns that follow from the definition
i’m just looking to verify this for every ref matrix i guess
is M_1 in rref?
row echelon form
what's the difference between row reduced echelon form and row echelon form?
I'm sorry but I'm not really sure how to help you
lol darq
I tried, I swear 
i am dumb
question: how to verify all row-equivalent row echelon form matrices have the same pivot columns
yea this is what i’m stuck on lol
hint: row operation.
okay
you have three row operations
they all have extremely explicit forms
check that they don't change where the pivots are in a ref matrix
what part are you stuck on?
here
i don’t even know how to begin
why not try a few examples
mainly i don’t know how to represent a general ref matrix
fair
that's probably the hardest part
if you just want to convince yourself, try a few different examples
i’m fairly convinced
maybe a really careful proof would do something like induction on the size of the matrix or something
how to do ;-;
honestly
for something like this, just convincing yourself is enough. writing an actual, rigorous, full proof of this probably isn't gonna be very insightful
if you've convinced yourself with a few examples that you could do so, that's probably good enough
... unless this is homework
pivot of a matrix in ref form is the first non zero entry of a row
pivot column is a column containing a pivot
I have a generic question about orthogonality
In mathematics, an orthogonal polynomial sequence is a family of polynomials such that any two different polynomials in the sequence are orthogonal to each other under some inner product.
The most widely used orthogonal polynomials are the classical orthogonal polynomials, consisting of the Hermite polynomials, the Laguerre polynomials and the ...
"In mathematics, an orthogonal polynomial sequence is a family of polynomials such that any two different polynomials in the sequence are orthogonal to each other under some inner product."
At the moment I'm trying to understand legendre polynomials
so if I'm interpreting this correctly i could take the polynomial associated with n=2 and relate it to the polynomial associated with n = anything else by an inner product and it would be orthogonal?
The fundamental concepts of span, linear combinations, linear dependence, and bases.
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oh thanks
np
so if I'm interpreting this correctly i could take the polynomial associated with n=2 and relate it to the polynomial associated with n = anything else by an inner product and it would be orthogonal?
yes. but you have to use the correct inner product. this is not true for some arbitrary inner product, it's just true for the one used to construct these polynomials. or a multiple of that if you don't care if the polynomials have norm 1
i’m also concerned about the motivation of defining free/basic variables as those corresponding to non-pivot/pivot columns
like is there some sort of ‘proof’ behind this as well
in fact, it’s this that led to what i was asking
perhaps ‘for a system Ax = b, the i-th column of A is a non-pivot column iff there exists a solution with x_i = r for all r ∈ R’
(x = [x_1 … x_n]^T)
Gotcha, well at least my rough intution is pointed in the right direction. Thanks @wet stratus !
<@&286206848099549185>

Hey guys, any help regarding this?
is there a nxn matrix where AB=I but BA!=I?
no
it's a good exercise in basic linear algebra to figure out why
the only technical fact you need is rank-nullity
Any idea regarding this guy? 🙏🏻
do you know any way to show that operators have roots? i think there's a long list of equivalent statements in axler you could use
but i dont know what rank nullity is
Google it and see if the statement sounds like something you know with different words.
do you know at least that "injective" and "surjective" are the same for square matrices?
i know what injective/surjective functions are.
i asked if you knew this specific fact about them
if you know it, you can prove the thing you asked about
matricies can be injective?
i mean the matrices, thinking of them as linear maps R^n -> R^n (or replace R with whatever field)
you prove this fact (appropriately stated) by using the rank-nullity formula. if you're uncomfortable with that, see tropo's message
is there no easy way to prove it?
rank nullity is easy
but let me think
I need to find another operator with the sqrt of the same eigenvalue?
maybe a row reduction argument works
AB = I implies A has full rank, so you can do a bunch of row operations to A to get the identity I (why?). that is, there's a matrix E which is a product of elementary row matrices that gives EA = I. now show that AB = I and EA = I imply E = B
and then that proves what you want
not speaking to me, right?
i am not.
@wintry steppe is this okay? i'm willing to clarify anything written here
out of curiosity, any necessary/sufficient conditions for matrices A and B to commute?
why would AB=I and EA=I imply E=B
at least for diagonalizable matrices, commuting is equivalent to the matrices sharing a basis of eigenvectors. if your matrices have splitting characteristic polynomials, then you might be able to drop "diagonalizable" and put "generalized" before the word eigenvectors. only thing off the top of my head
E = EI = E(AB) = (EA)B = IB = B
ah
I see thank you
I guess I will fully understand when I learn ranks and stuff
any idea?
rank-nullity is usually how this is proved for linear operators on vector spaces, but it's nice that it wasn't really needed here
it's probably hiding behind the scenes somehow lol
looks good
just have to show au - v ≠ 0 with u, v being independent
shouldn’t be hard
True I was just thinking about that
the classic rubber duck moment
my problem set
umm so either from
or the prof made it up
or found it somewhere

everyone uses that book lmao
wait, you have the fifth edition pdf?
just googled [book name].pdf
not originally where I found it but seems someone posted it on github
seems to be complete
Can someome help me, can someone explain to me how spatial covariance matrix is made for 2D arrays
Like a gridded dataset plotted on world map
let f be an endomorphism from a vector space E of finite dimension such that f^(2) = -id; the second composition of f, assuming f has no real eigenvalues.
prove that the dimension of E is even
is this valid for an answer to this question ?
no, that is not the char poly
i picked for example dimE = 3
cubics always have a real root, so if lambda^3 + 1 is the char poly, then f has a real eigenvalue. Besides, since f^2 + id = 0, lambda^2 + 1 divides the char poly, but lambda^2 + 1 does not divide lambda^3 + 1
i don't understand
whats the charpoly then
also how does f² + id = 0 relate to the charpoly
its a 2n degree polynomial for some positive integer n
what?
that's basically what you have to prove. the degree of the char poly is equal to the dimension of E
do you know about the minimal polynomial?
yes i need to prove that
no
probably no need to worry about it actually. My reasoning there is slightly wrong
one way to do this is to show that such an f defines a complex vector space structure on E
i think you can guess how a complex scalar a + bi should act on a vector v in E
dont overcomplicate it
this is not overcomplicating it
it just means a vector space over C
ye still idk
on what?
f^2 = -id
how do u even do a determinant on that?
they're linear operators on finite dimensional vector spaces, so the determinants are defined
defined by picking a matrix representation and proving that determinant is preserved up to similarity, if you like
the specifics don't matter for this problem
all you need to know is that all of the properties of the determinant you know for matrices carry over to operators on finite dimensional vector spaces
how do u pick a matrix representing the operator?
also i'd like if u do the charpoly method
by choosing a basis. you don't need to for this problem
much better
we have that in the later question
they asked to prove that for any x in E, (x, f(x)) is stable by f
that has nothing to do with choosing a basis and taking matrix representations of operators on E
it does
it's not like it's the reason you can pick matrix representations of operators
since there exists (e_1, .., e_n) such that (e_1, f(e_1), ..., e_n, f(e_n)) forms a basis for E
that's not what i'm talking about
i'm talking about the fact that if you have a linear map T: V -> W of finite-dimensional vector spaces, and if you choose bases of V and W, then you can represent T by a matrix in terms of these bases
idk what u talkin about either tho
if you take V = W and you take the bases to be the same, then you get a square matrix. you can take the determinant of this, and this is how the determinant of an operator on a finite dimensional vector space is defined
allowing you to take determinants of both sides of f^2 = -id
you must have seen this if you've defined the characteristic polynomial of operators on vector spaces
no i haven't seen it
then how did you define the characteristic polynomial
det(A - lamda I_n)
but when i try to extract the A, the operator is already very explicitly expressed
so i can extract basis and stuff
but here its confusing for me
so if you want to use the characteristic polynomial of f (which is defined on an abstract vector space E, hence f is not necessarily a matrix), you need to know how the determinant of operators E -> E is defined
and it is defined how i wrote above
the determinant of an operator T: V -> V is defined, in general, by choosing a basis of V and taking the determinant of the corresponding matrix representation of T
you do not need to worry about finding a specific matrix representation. you only need to know that facts such as "det(AB) = det(A)det(B)" and "det (cA) = c^n det A" and "det I = 1" carry over
what basis do we take for E then
any
but you do not have to. you only need to use the properties of the determinant that i wrote
which
the ones that i wrote
on what f² = -id?
but f is an operator not a matrix
i've told you a few times now how to define the determinant of an operator
for all intents and purposes you may pretend that everything is a matrix
ok
but det(f^2) = det(f(f(v)) != det (f * f)
f^2 is the composition f o f, and composition corresponds to matrix multiplication
i see
det(f)^2 = - det(id) = -1 hm
det(-id) is not necessarily -det(id)
you need to be careful with pulling scalars out of the determinant
det(cA)
equals?
= c^n detA?
c^n det A
lol
how do we know the dimension when we are already looking for it
ofc
it's not like we know it, all we know is that it's an integer n that must satisfy det(cA) = c^n det(A)
yes
it is using this property that we can figure out that the dimension is even
back to the problem
hm
so det(f)^2 = det(-id), which equals...?
det(f)² = (-1)^n det(id) = (-1)^n
correct
now why should this imply that n is even?
hint: compare the signs of the two side. what if n is odd?
but det(f) can be complex?
can you post a screenshot of the original problem?
No i don't have the paper on me
i only remember the question
why
the determinants is always a real number?
@wintry steppe r u still here?
the field
which
is it the real numbers or something else?
i mean since f has no real eigenvalues
then it can't be over the real
every single version of this problem i've seen very explicitly states that E is a real vector space
and note that an operator f with f^2 = -id can't have real eigenvalues anyways, since if f(v) = cv for a non-zero v, then (c^2 + 1)v = 0, which implies that c^2 + 1 = 0, not true for any real number
so that assumption is redundant
yes i did this in the question before
which?
"f has no real eigenvalues"
yes but can be used ig
sure
i'm just wondering about the specific statement of the problem as it appeared on your question sheet
wym?
btw i have a question
i would like to compare
would you give me more time to type?
ye sure
the problem is false if you assume E is a complex vector space. take E = C^3 and T: E -> E given by T(x, y, z) = (ix, iy, iz). this satisfies T^2 = -id, but the dimension of E (as a complex vector space) is 3, which is odd. therefore, you need to ask that E is a real vector space.
i had assumed in the solution that i was guiding you through earlier with determinants that E was real. the determinant of an operator on real vector spaces is always real, but the determinant of an operator on a complex vector space may be a complex number (not real)
so now, if you assume E is a real vector space, you have det(f)^2 = (-1)^n, and you can actually talk about the sign of the left-hand side
dim_C (E) = 3 but also dim_R(E) = 6
sure, but if you assume E is a complex vector space, it having even real dimension is trivial
there is no problem to solve there
the interesting problem statement (and the one that's more likely to have been assigned to you) is the one that if E is a real vector space with an operator f with f^2 = -id, then E has even dimension
ye i see
E being attributed "real" wasn't mentioned
it should have been
it should have been
yes but u can't deduce that from f having no real eigenvalues?
did you read anything i wrote above?
yes
i deduced that from the problem being false (or trivial, if you ask for its real dimension) if E is complex
no im saying can't u deduce that E is a real vector space from the fact the f has no real eigenvalues?
from only that fact? no
Is there something else?
what do you mean?
yes
you must assume this at the start
and once you do this, you can extend the scalar multiplication action of R on E to one of C on E (i.e. giving E a complex vector space structure) by making i act by f. that's how you should think of this problem
so now that we have that E is a real vector space, we know that det(f) is a real number, and det(f)^2 = (-1)^n, where n is the dimension of E. what does this say about n?
this finishes the problme
yes i see so n must be even
exactly
determinant can be applied to vectors?
nope
unless you want to call endomorphisms vectors (since they're elements of a vector space)
assuming dimE = 2n , and there exist vectors (e_1, .., e_n) such that (e_1, f(e_1), ..., e_n, f(e_n)) forms a basis for E, what is the matrix representation of f in that basis
you tell me
we have M(f^2) = M(-id) = (-1 0 .. 0) / ( 0 -1 0 .. 0) / ... / (0 .. -1)
@wintry steppe is this correct tho ^
well sure, but this is the matrix representation of f^2, not of f
you should compute M(f) by seeing how f acts on (e_1, f(e_1), ..., e_n, f(e_n))
finding M(f) from a matrix equation sounds a little hard
f((e_1, f(e_1), ..., e_n, f(e_n))) = (f(e_1), -e_1, ..., f(e_n), -e_n)
right?
maybe i should have said "how f acts on the elements of (...)"
you have computed that correctly
i don't see how that first fact helps us and i don't see how the second follows
first fact : (x, f(x)) stable by f?
so you have the basis (e_1, f(e_1), ..., e_n, f(e_n)), and you know how f acts on its elements, which tells you what the columns of the matrix representation will be
that is what i meant. it's true, but i don't see how in particular it helps us find the matrix representation
i guess it gives you a hint as to what the representation will be, but you can just write it down
well M(f) = (1 0 .. 0) / (0 -1 0 .. 0) / .. / (0 .. 1 0) / (0 .. -1)
that doesn't even make sense, how are the entries of your matrix representation elements of E?
they need to be scalars
ye i was dazed
check again
it's not correct
for example the first column should be (0, 1, 0, 0, ..., 0, 0), since f acts on the first element of the basis by sending it to the second
what i don't get it
then you should review how matrix representations are defined
what about what i wrote was unclear?
i mean how did u even calculate the first column?
i calculated it using the definition of matrix representations
i don't understand what this picture means without further context
i still don't understand it, sorry
yeah i see what u mean
so M(f) = (0 1 0 .. 0) / (-1 0 ... 0) / .. / (0 .. 0 1) / (0 ... -1 0)
right?
are these the columns? because if so, that's correct
something like this
right?
same structure for other n-tuples
i don't understand the picture, but what you wrote just before it looked right
i just want to make sure this is listing the columns (in which case it is correct)
lemme draw it
you don't need to draw it, i understand what you are writing
that is not correct
why
because it's not
that would be the matrix with respect to the basis (f(e_1), e_1, ..., f(e_n), e_n)
@wintry steppe
that is correct
finally
sure
for which values a,b,c is A diagonalizable
so det(A - yI_3)
= (1 - y)² (c - y)
= 0 iff y = 1 or y = c
how would i extract the eigenspaces for these eigenvalues
for example y =1
(A-I_3)X = 0
X = (x,y,z) in R^3
i get
(ay +z) / (bz) / ((c-1)z) = 0
this gives a solution (1, 0 , 0) = x_1
is this right @wintry steppe ?
that is indeed an eigenvector
for y= c it gets complicated
that it does
So a matrix is diagonalizable iff it has a full basis of eigenvectors. As you already noticed the eigenvalues are 1 and c. Since we know eigenvectors of different eigenvalues are linearly independent so it makes sense to treat the case of c=1 and c≠1 differently. First if c=1 then to be diagonalizable you'd need 3 independent eigenvectors, meaning the null space of A-I must have 3 basis vectors (and you continue from here). For the case of c≠1, you're already guaranteed an eigenvector with eigenvalue c, so you need 2 eigenvectors with eigenvalue 1, meaning the null space of A-I must have 2 basis vectors and you continue from here
maybe use part a
Tried to. It didn't work.
Try to compute $A(x)^2$ with the formula given in a)
Twentycents
Okay. Did exactly that, and still scrambling at higher powers of $A$.
Jonathan Phan
Would appreciate any help with this 🙂
sorry but I have no idea what that means 
maybe if you showcase what you've tried and explain precisely what you don't get people will be more willing to help
well for starters, how did you define the sqrt operator on matrices. can you just check that P satisfies that condition?
We did that using eigenvalues
like sqrt(eigenvalue)
well sqrt(eigenvalue) would be a number
I assume here you still have a matrix
can you please work with us and give us the complete definitions of what you are working with
They just gave us an example of how to find S if we know S^2 = T
sorry
and for that we used eigenvalues
and e_i are eigenvectors of T which span V ?
e_i are the vectors for the some B orthonormal base, and the eigenvalues are lambda_i
was trying to work with inner product but maybe I did something wrong cuz didn't get the desired result
wait your definition of non-negative included P^*=P right?
so $T^T = (UP)^UP = P^ U^ U P = P^* P = P^2$
Denascite
if your course had defined the sqrt to just be a matrix which squares to what we want we would be done
now if $Pe_i = \sqrt{\lambda} e_i$, then clearly $T^*T e_i = P^2 e_i = \lambda e_i$ so if $\sqrt{\lambda}$ is an eigenvalue of $P$, then $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue of $T^*T$. Sadly that doesn't yet show the other direction
Denascite
we would be done if we could for example show that P has n eigenvalues
yeah
or that there are eigenvectors of P which span V
maybe you have shown something like that in the past in your course?
using your definition of non-negative?
our full definition was:
1. T=T* and T eigenvalues are real non-negative or
2. There's S which T = S*S or
3. T=T* and for each v in V, <Tv,v> >= 0
can't think of a case we used in the course anything from those
sorry
May I ask a question

Is my understanding of this text from the book correct?
yes
Thank you ^^
How does one show the following:
Given $T$ is a bounded linear operator, if $\innerproduct{\psi}{T\psi}=1$ for all $\norm{\psi}=1$ then $T=I$.
thestonethatrolled
is f linear map?
Don't know
I'm assuming it's not then
Ok
for simplicity, why don't you look in lR instead of lR^3
can you think of a function f such that |f(x)| = |x|
there are few obvious choices
Can u explain??
explain what?
I'm asking you to think of some function of R to R such that |f(x)| = |x|
which is not linear
(say f is linear then f(x) = cx, so |f(x)| = |x| = |cx| means |c| = 1 or c=+-1)
this is not the example I am interested in

@zinc timber if u have doubt in it I can send u my solution
Do anyone know how to check if two matrices are similar
Plz don't say just the definition ik that but it will be very lengthy
Then
compute their JNFs and see if they're the same 
Bruh
I think we have something to do with eigen values
Got it on Google @dusky epoch
Nvm got it
Is there anyone who is free tomorrow or today's night
I really need your help
Bruh I m just a beginner can u explain in simple language
hmm. where is my mistake then. consider f(x) on R such that f(x)=x if 2n+1 <= |x| <= 2n+2 and f(x) = -x if 2n < |x| < 2n+1 each for some n(so essentially we are either flipping or not flipping each interval (n, n+1) depending on which endpoint is even). f is not linear but preserves the absolute value
f(x) = |x|
it's not linear yet |f(x)| = |x|

Oh shit, yeah 
We have to impose restrictions in order for a norm preserving map in general to be affine
Damn
Ok, what I said before was pretty dumb 
But works for inner product preserving maps tho.
ye so affine map with the condition f(0) = 0
I assumed f=Ax to be true and got A to be orthogonal
everything is included except f linear
But don't know how to show first part
Anyone??
^^

🤣
👀
Where are you guys from??
Here's a sexy proof $\ip{x, \phi x} = 1 = \ip{x, x} \implies \ip{x, x-\phi(x)} = 0$ for all $|x|=1$
@torpid moat
try to show <x, x- \phi(x)> = 0 for all x
well that part is easy. but how do you show from that that this implies x=phi x
btw is there a list of commands we can use in this server? like the \ip ?
well but y depends on x
^ || just take x=y, then <y, y> = |y|^2=0 so y=0 ||
true
and it's only true for all x with norm 1
not a problem since you can always do x/|x|
gimme a minute
$\ip{Tx-x, Tx-x} = \ip{Tx, Tx} - 1 = \ip{Tx, Tx} - \ip{Tx, x} = \ip{Tx, Tx-x}$
ip is a custom command
oh
you can use $\innerproduct{a}{b}$
@torpid moat is our space real or complex?
it it's complex then <x, Tx-x> = 0 means Tx-x == 0 or Tx=x
don't think it's true for reals, T(x, y) = (x-y, x+y) then T(x, y) *(x, y) = x^2+y^2 = 1
dunno what kind of linear algebra calculation that is
that's not how you subtract two matrices
oh i think i got it lol , its matrix a - matrix b
yeee 😄
15min thinking got me nowhere, once i post it i see the mistake lol
start with {} and keep adding vectors to it
until you hit a point where you can't include any more linearly indep vectors to it
Can u send a picture??
no
You'll need to prove that the list stays linearly independent all the way and that you cannot continue adding vectors forever.
For the latter part, perhaps you already have a proof that a set of n+1 vectors in R^n is automatically linearly dependent.
I need some help with finding a solution to the matrix equation AX = B - 2X. I know how to do normal ones like AX = B, but when they throw more than 2X in I kinda get confused
First add 2X to both sides.
Then on the left you'll have AX+2X which is the same as AX+2IX which is the same as (A+2I)X.
Deadlines in 2 hours, just gimme the answers.. I'm exhausted from working whole day
And now the equation has the form you know, just with a slightly different matrix.
Deadlines in 2 hours, just gimme the answers..
We're not going to help you cheat.
I'm gonna process that one a bit. I understand kinda what you mean but I'm gonna write it down on paper quickly
(You didn't see my sign error!)
Broski then explain it idc tbh 🤕
7

just quickly so I understand. AX + 2X = B - 2X
and that can be written to (A+2I)X = B
Yes.
thanks for your help. Might be back in a few minutes haha, but gonna give it a try now
am I supposed to first calculate the matrix (A + 2I) and call it matrix d, am I supposed to get the inverse of this then and move it so X = (D^-1)B?
Yeah, that is one way that will work.
I got a question. I was looking over Determinants, and was wondering what they are. They give area of a parallelepiped figure, show if a matrix is invertible, and is the product of the eigenvalues, but i don't understand the idea of a determinant anyone got some input?
so first calculate 2 * identity matrice, then just add matrix A I guess?
how did you go from here to <x,x-Tx>?
yeah, it's complex
The determinant function has a lot of nice properties that can look quite different, and it's the combination of having all of them at once that makes it particularly useful. Until you've gotten a fair number of them internalized, it might be better just to think of it as "that one weird function that somehow does all the amazing things" than to try to stick to a single more concrete intuition for what it does.
well, i got through my linear algebra class, and now im trying to remember and understand that black box
Then my best advice is to think of the determinant as the thing that has all those properties.
whats the significance of parentheses around i in the superscript
it means you should treat it as an index instead of as an actual matrix power
(this isn't standard notation for "thing in brackets in superscript" it's just what it means here)
ty
is it true that $\langle x+y, x+y\rangle = \langle x, x\rangle + \langle x, y\rangle + \langle y, x\rangle + \langle y, y\rangle$? why?
mate
Hey guys I need help in vectors
here is my question
A small plane, A, flies at an azimuth of 283 at 200km/h: Another, B, flies at an azimuth of 071 at 140km/h. Determine the direction and magnitude of the vector speed of A relative to B.
It is, it follows from the bilinearity of <•,•>.
do you assume x and y are real numbers?
Uhhh, <•,•> is a bilinear form on a vector space V, right? So I am implicitly assuming x and y have to be vectors in V.
okay thank you. i believed only left-linearity holds.
With A = LU factorization, what is the relationship between L and U? The lower triangular and upper triangular
Like is one of them the inverse of the other, transposed?
can someone explain to me how what I did even shows that T is a linear transformation? I mean I found the mapping
shouldn't I need to check T(0) also?
I feel like I would have to use the definition of a linear transformation but I know this problem doesn't require that
also I notice the they just list entries so would it be wrong to say they are vectors?
like to say T(x) = T(x1, x2)
that wouldn't be correct, would it?
i guess my question is are n tuples and vectors interchangable?
I feel like
(x1, x2) != [x1 x2] but idk
any function R^n -> R^m given by matrix multiplication is linear
there's no point checking that T(0) = 0, that follows from the definition of "linear transformation"
sure but we don't know it is one
so I would assume I should check T(0)?
no
"T(0) = 0" is not part of the (standard) definition of a linear transformation
you do not need to check it
I suppose but what would I say if they had a constant in the T(x1,x2) = (..., ..., 1, ...)
then it wouldn't be linear
yeah
because all linear maps satisfy T(0) = 0 (as a corollary of the definition of "linear map") and that map does not
idk this question just seemed very "algorithmic" like I understand that the matrix itself would be linear transformation but whatever. But regarding the notation are the T(x1,x2) is that okay to just say T(x)?
like how they are just written as tuples
you can pretend tuples and column vectors are the same if it bothers you
many authors do
yeah i just didn't know because my other question seemed to wish between it
it's just easier to write tuples in-line rather than make the formatting ugly and write big ass column vectors each time

okay nvm
I checked back in the book
seem that is exactly what it means but just didn't know if such rules apply in general regarding tuples/points and vectors
how do i determine which columns -vectors- is linearly dependent?
i've done the reduce row method
on the rank of A
is this already reduced or do i need to go further?
i found that rank(A) = 2 already but idk which column i had in A -before being reduced- was linearly dependent.
the pivot columns give you the ones that are linearly independent. so since your rref matrix has pivots in the first and second column, then the first and second column of your original matrix forms a basis for the column space.
nonpivot columns are linearly dependent with the pivot columns. the third column of your rref matrix tells you that col3=-2col1-2col2 so its linearly dependent
can you tell me what are the pivot/nonpivot columns in myexample?
like i said, columns 1 and 2 are pivot columns
a pivot column is a column with a pivot in the rref form. and if it doesnt have a pivot when in rref then it's not a pivot column
id probably google "pivot column" if you're not sure what it is

