#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 260 of 1
i know you did, i had you blocked for like 4 days cuz you were asking annoying stuff without reading
and i see i should do it again

do it all over again
like i'm surprised you did anything at all there if you don't know how to write the equation for a plane

does anybody know for a website that will solve this problem? i am really stuck. wolfram gets everything expressed in terms of a and d but doesnt show steps (although i paid for a mobile version).
what?
i do
that is indeed the best you can do. it does not have a unique solution
just slight mistakes i think, ill go over them now and fix i guess 😂
you could technically pick any two variables as free parameters tho
i was reading, i just couldnt find what i was looking for, still didnt
regarding the transpose
yep but i dont know how to do it, cant express everything in terms of a and d
fr watch the MIT lectures on LA
@barren sentinel
did somebody say transpose
i asked u for one small thing and u gave me a whole book of equations and proof and went, just read the 1000 pages and find out what u need
like.. bruh
i saw what happened yesterday
oh my god beast, the thing has something called "index"
at worst you'd have to skim over like 20 pages of a chapter
yeah as if it was at all helpful
i went to the derivatives part and couldnt find what i needed
ok i'm just blocking you again, i give up on you entirely
ok bro do it
bruh💀
😌
well you can only fill a cup upto the level it's supposed be filled
now replace the cup with a strainer
omg u are such a dick
do i dare ask what you wanted to know about the transpose?
best not to probably
but basically when i was differentiating for ANN backprop
i needed to transpose sometimes
i still dont get why
i get that the dimensions dont line up, but i didnt find any proper proof for it
so i did basically what @lavish jewel did and cited matrix cookbook and told the people to just figure it out by themselves 😂
example?
i would literally rather do ryu’s test than try to read that stuff lmao
the answer to all of these questions is "write it as a sum and use the chain rule componentwise"
fair
just not fun at all
there's a part B left if you want to help


dude i have no idea how to do optimization problems 
i'm just gonna copy, thus is not even my field of interest 
would just be more fun to try that than whatever beast is doing
what u read here is optimisation

done*
i dont ever fucking want to do that shit again
i want no parts
u are using up arrow here as if u get it 😂 @teal grotto
integration by parts tho 💀
later on u gotta integrate this shit for baysian neural nets
rearrange some stuff and spam chain rule component wise seems like a reasonable answer lol
yeah pretty much
thats what matrix diff is in nutshell 
especially for neural nets
Edd I managed to solve the problem. Thanks
the thing crashes when i try to convert it to PDF 💀
cool
anyways imma go eat and then continue with 13
why are you doing it in word in the first place
exactly what i was thinking 💀
ala project
since we're looking at nasty derivatives of (multi)linear transformations
Why do it in latex when you can do it in word 😎
i did do it in word 
oh u are asking why in word
its better imo, more readable when requiring copy pastes
harder to copy paste code
but editing it is kind of glitchy
would be nice if u could just copy paste latex from its output
i imagine if someone were to read this aloud it would sound like something like “gugog fifu gougugu fufogugi…”
or if word wasnt as glitchy
sounds like a use case for macros
bruh
if you need to repeat stuff a lot, you usually just make a macro
like \myfunction{x}{y}{z}
what kind of model is this?
hmm might try that
stil easier to copy paste and work with word imo
it's a linearized version of the helmholtz equation in 2D
just as easy to cntrl v cntrl p in latex but macros are faster and there for that specific reason lol
i dont know anything about matrices so could someone tell me
if i have matrix
1 2
3 4
is that same as vector (1, 2, 3, 4) in R^4?
not as easy tbh
not the same, it under certain conditions, equivalent
not thermodynamics
comp sci major
the space of 2 by 2 matrices is isomorphic to R^4 but there is no one canonical isomorphism
bruh im gonna block u
never seen a bigger dick in my life
that's what s..
if i have to find intersection and sum of matrix subspaces can i translate matrices to "R^n vectors" to write down equations to find intersection?
i…
yes, you can
thanks!
it can make it easier to handle matrices when treating them as vectors in some vector space
edd did u write all of this? or are these just images from somewhere?
i wrote it
sheeesh
what's more
this can’t just be like, for hw right?
as part of taking derivatives later on, i literally do by hand the thing beast keeps complaining about 
i do lpp by hand 
the proof is in the annex
dude that’s hilarious
that's why i find them so annoying. i explained it like 3 times and they keep answering "i know, but..." and immediately showing that they in fact don't know
then providing references, but index too stronk
tho this looks like more differential geometry than optimization
me neither, that was the point
wb like inverse/implicit function theorems or basic manifold stuff?
not by that name
i see
whats ipp?
i can wave my hands and say "neumann series!" though
i’m gonna laugh and pretend ik what neumann series is
edit: i do know what this is after googling it lol
gonna take diff geo next sem i think
btw why us it $\pdv{x^T}$ and not $\pdv{x}$?
i use denominator layout
since these are vectors, the derivatives will add in extra columns
so as you follow the rows in the matrix, you get derivatives w.r.t. different variables
no reason other than i like it in that order, and for whatever reason i find the notation clear
yeah so it's for convenience? tbh now i also feel like using it
yeah it's clearer this way, nice!
this is also what keeps tripping beast over, but now they will never know 😌

does anybody know of any links to a constructive proof of spectral theorem? it feels way to important to application for people to just not have a constructive proof and only rely on EVT
for reals you can look into Jacobi's iteration, it's not a proof but numerical algorithm to compute EVD
there's also housholder reflection method
this sounds like a proof to me lol
it gives u a complete EVD of a real symmetric matrix?
yeah
basically it show that for any 2x2 block you can multiply with some orthogonal matrix and make the non-diagonals zero
if you apply it iteratively on each non diagonal element you get a diagonal matrix and the orthonormal basis
why would this not be the main proof of “every real symmetric matrix is diagonalizable”
because other one is easier
oh no
you looked it up?

btw edd, the normal vectors of the plane was not orthognal to column 1 of matrix in the first place
thank you for letting me know the names of the methods that exist for engineers to use so our buildings don’t topple over. i will not however be trying to become one of the 7 people in the world who understand it
givens rotations 😌
if you think about it, it just diagonalizes a 2x2 block at a time
isn't that what jacobi uses?
Guys how to find basis for vector space that contains even polynomials of degree 5 or less such that p(-1)=0?
example, take x, then x(-1)=-1, so you add +1 to it and you get one element x+1
do it with x² and xⁿ
eh i guess u could do that too
how do we know they are even? p(x)=p(-x)
its not asking for even functions i think
just even powers
no, i think it’s asking for even functions
but then i wonder if certain properties of vec space will be satisfied
sorry my bad, it says p(x)=p(-x) and i translated that as even
i guess its the same thing, my bad
yeah even powers and p(x) = p(-x) should be the same
so ur basis would be 0, x^2 +1, x^4 +1
(at least i think so)
0??
what basis do u know that has zero
a set of vectors containing the zero vector isn’t linearly independent
and this really depends on the field
the fuck do i write in C?
yeah even polynomial
like in the field with two elements, every polynomial is even
0 cannot be an element of a basis
why?
in any vector space
this
nah it can be cuz
bro
0 + x^2 is not 0
mate
fam
0 + 0x²
yeah but thats the condition of linearly independent, u cant just multiply all by 0
??
crucially: 1•0 + 0x^2
u gotta find non trivial solutions
150354090354095 * 0 + 0x² is a nontrivial solution
u don’t because the field is important here
but then p(-1) is not = 0
my b namington
anyways can someone explain what i should do here?
yeah that one makes sense
in part C?
just do it lol
do what tho?
like it is the range space, its right there
do i have to write some fundamental proof or something?
show that every vector in the range space can be written as a linear combination of those two vectors
how do you know that?
cuz those are the columns
column space = range space
not true
it probably wants you to just verify the claim then
so show that every element of A's range is a linear combination of those 2 vectors
it’s literally a two liner
so in such questions i just find polynomials degree 1 to 5 that satisfy conditions?
{x^2 + 1, x^4 +1}
is that my basis of polynomials degree 5 or less, p(x)=p(-x), p(-1)=0? 2D?
(and also that theyre linearly independent but thats obvious)
the fuck?
is what i said unclear
part c is literally saying here’s an “alternative way to say this if u didn’t notice already and here’s some easy points to grab”
it probably just wants to emphasize why column space = range space is true
bruh 😂
by making you work through a specific example
yeah probably
so like an elementary proof
why is it true btw?
because matrix multiplication nice
bruh
if i have Mx, then i can write is as
m1x1 + m2x2 + … + mnxn which literally follows from matrix multiplication, where n is the number of columns of M, mk is the kth column vector of M, and xi is the ith component of x
yeah got it thnx tho
sure
idk how i should write it exactly tho
but is the vector R2 column vec or row vec?
wot bruther
yeah
here, from 2 hours ago
any element y in the range space, by definition, comes from an element [x1 x2]^T so that M [x1 x2]^T = m1x1 + m2x2 = y
there’s not much else to it
m1 and m2 are the columns of M
yeah i get that, i just dk how to write it exactly
and don’t say “u got it” until u actually read it and tried to understand it
in the book
I JUST MFKN WROTE IT FOR U
but i cant write that on a peice of paper
can i?
i wrote it in two lines
this is definitely a troll
just now
should i ban them
like ill need to write the matrix A
and then apply it on that
anyways ill figure it out thnx
u just wrote the matrix A right here
no, just say a1 is the first column, a2 is the second column
alright fair 🤷♂️
could someone tell if that is correct?
seems like it
fair? have u never heard of the concept of abbreviation?
bruh chill
ill write it as that thnx
no it’s not correct. p(-1) != 0
for all of those basis elements
unless ur working over the field with two elements
so u do something like i said i guess?
{x^2-1, x^4 -1} is that basis?
i have to think about it for a minute before i give u a half ass answer lol
use an online calculator
😂
we’re trying to help mate bruh
(n x m) times (m x p) has dimension n x p
p(x) = p(-x) for all x in F. p(-1) = 0 = p(1), so -1 and 1 need to be roots of every polynomial in this space.
since p(x) - p(-x) for any polynomial in this space is identically the zero polynomial, u can’t have any odd degree terms popping up in p.
this leaves u with p having only x^0, x^2 and x^4 terms.
so p(x) = a_0 + a_2 x^2 + a_4 x^4.
p(-1) = a_0 + a_2 + a_4 = 0
so a_0 = -a_2 - a_4
now p(x) = a_2 x^2 - a_2 + a_4 x ^4 - a_4
what do i do in h) i)?
so p(x) = a_2(x^2 - 1) + a_4 (x^4 - 1)
all in all, yes this is a correct basis for the reasons above
Sigma is just the diagonal matrix of eigen values
yeah i got that
i think i understood
its asking Avi
so multiply A with each column in V
thank you!
the next question asks what is sufficient and necessary condition for natural number n so that Pn (polynomials degree n or less) and our subspace with basis (x^2 - 1, x^4 - 1) share same complement in P5 (polynomials degree 5 or less)
do you know how to approach that?
basis x^2 - 1 and x^4 - 1 right?
yes, sorry
do u have an inner product on Pn?
sorry dont know what is an inner product
like a dot product
one complement is span of {1, x, x^3, x^5}? right?
what does it mean when u say “Pn and our subspace with basis … share the same complement”
i get that this is a complent to our subspace with basis …
so vector space is P5
and we have subspace W (for which we found a basis) and Pn
we must find subspace X such that
W + X must me P5
and their intersection only zero vector
and
Pn + X must be P5
and their intersection 0
sorry no
i edited
okay thank you for clarifying
we try to find sufficient and necessary condition on number n so that such X exists
i think you want it to be n = 4 2 1 right
do you agree with this
with this
complement of P2 is {x^3, x^4, x^5}?
yes
sorry can you elaboeate why n = 2 i am confused
god damn zero indexing
Pn has dimension n + 1. u need n = 1. my bad
for the isomorphism to work out
complement of P1 is {x^2, x^3, x^4, x^5}?
sorry could you elaborate why n = 1
and we never mentioned isomorphism unfortunately
it’s the only choice that works
we have that
dim(W + X) = dim W + dim X = 6
dim(Pn + X) = dim Pn + dim X = 6
so 2 = dim W = dim Pn = n + 1
(+ here is of course a direct sum when “adding” vector spaces)
we also get that dim X = 4
thank you i get it
and what would be example of X?
i honestly don’t know. it’s making me think that there is either a problem with my understanding/explanation or there is a problem with the question
how do i show/prove this?
that singular values of A = sigular values of A transposed?
singular values of A are the square roots of the non-negative eigen values of A^TA
singular values of A^T are the square roots of the non-negative eigen values of
(A^T)^T A^T = AA^T = (A^TA)^T
u just showed that a matrix and it’s transpose have the same eigen values in ii.
apply that to A^TA
i copied proof here
but im not sure why determinant is invariant to matrix transpose
det(A) = det(A^T)
this is because of… some stuff
yeah i know, but thats the hard part 😂
lmfao
um. ugh, they didn’t just let u take this as a given?
lemme post my proof
it should be a known that det A = det A^T
no, it just asks for non-negativity or not non-negativity
(A^TA)^T = AA^T?
wdym?
no, this is wrong. should be (A^TA)^T = A^TA
thanks @teal grotto
my b was looking at 3
one way would be to recognize that A = R_n R_n-1 R_n-2 ... R_1 I, where R_i are elementary row operations. then using that det(AB) = det(A)det(B), and that (AB)^T = B^T A^T, it follows directly. the elementary row operation matrices all have nice properties, such as being diagonal/upper triangular in many cases, or equal to their own transpose, which simplifies all the intermediate dets to det(R_i) = det(R_i^T)
use what i found in i)?
A and B are subspaces of V, dim V = n, A is not a subset of B, B is not a subset of A. dim A = n - 1 = dim B. what is dimension of intersection of A and B?
but in i)
i didnt write any reasoning for it
i just did it for one and found it to be true
U^T S^T V?
V S^T U^T
what?
i just assumed whatever he wrote was going to be correct bruh. it shouldn’t be this difficult

the S needs the transpose if it's rectangular. not if ur doing economy size svd
sry for the mistakes. but whatever, this proves a, and hence proves iv
Let A be a 3x3 matrix, with det(A)!=0. Find all vectors v R3 that are orthogonal with all three column vectors of A.
yeah ok thnx
so if you do the dot product equals 0, i end up with
A^t *v=0 as the solution space
so this is same as 1 right?>
yea
k cool
but the solution to the question says that since A is invertible, so is A^t, and thus only the nullvector that fullfils it
but i dont see the connection, any help?
what do i argue here? 😂
akintos, you could alternatively ignore that and simply find the solution space through elimination
set up your augmented matrix [A^T | 0]
then when you do gaussian elimination, you will end up with [I | 0], meaning the only solution is the 0 vector
ah, then yes, it is simply a direct consequence of being invertible
that A is invertible means the columns are linearly independent
man this part is hard..
it doesn’t matter because u can row reduce any matrix, since it’s invertible, you will end up with the identity as rref just as edd pointed out the first time
because they are linearly independent, b a_1 + c a_2 + d a_3 = 0 by definition only has coefficient 0s as solution
and for the transpose as well
could someone take a look at this
i would guess it's asking for the coefficients of v1, v2 such that they sum to x
like
is that it?
ok so x = a1v1 + a2v2
a =2 and b = 3
ok so then it would be [2, 3]
do i write something more?
@teal grotto thanks!
i tried like this
dim(A+B)=n-1 + n-1 - dim intersection
how did you find dim of intersectionm
but vertical
it’s not zero, that’s what i want it to be but it’s not in all cases lol
u sure thats correct?
like what does the notation even mean?
for future reference?
what?
the vector expressed in those bases
im confused
wishful thinking
dim A+B = dim A + dim B - dim A&B
if neither is a subspace of the other, what can you say about dim A+B
id say its direct but dont understand why
oh sorry
ok if neither is a subset of the other, what can you say dim A+B isn't
sum A plus B isnt direct?
sorry i am confused
then?>
B?
which is?
dim B
which is?
n - 1
ok
and similarly if B was a subspace of A
then A+B would also have dimension n-1
so if neither A or B are a subspace of the other
then A+B does not have dimension n-1
what dimension must it have
n?
yes
because it has to be bigger than n-1, but the max is n since it's all in V
so dim A+B = dim A + dim B - dim A&B
so now you know enough
sorry i am not 100 percent sure why it has to be bigger than n-1
A is in A+B, so A+B has at least dimension n-1
but dim A+B can't be n-1, we just showed that
so it has at least dimension n
so dimension of sum is never smaller than dim A + dim B if A not subset of B or B of A?
wait
wrong
dimension of A+B is never smaller than dim A
thank you very much!!!!
we're talking sum of subspaces
aha,
i got dimension of intersection is n - 2
ye
great, thanks
Have to check when (0, 1, 1), (1, 0, 1), (x,x,1), (1,1,y) form a generating system for R^3.
I got that x!=0.5 or y!= 2
(then we have three linearly independent vectors and dim of R^3 is 3 so thats it)
for that values of x and y 3rd or 4th vector cant be expressed as a linear combination of 1st and 2nd vector
is there anything else i must check?
ho would i write integral on polynomial as a linear transformation?
if you know that any collection of 3 linearly independent vectors in R^3 is spanning then ur done. otherwise, i would show that this families of vectors is spanning
this seems incorrect
like, indefinite integral of p?
are u taking the +C from integration to be zero?
indefinite integral is not one-one because of the +c
assume so
this is the question
what you can do is define the transformation like this instead
$$
(Tp)(x) = \int_0^x p(t) \dd t
$$

idk man this is the question
it’s not well formed lol
yep
and then they fucking us over with it
anyways
assume it to be 0 for now
orr...
is that from a book or an assignment sheet
assginment sheet
yeah thought so, tell yr professor to make the modification I had mentioned
No
X = {(a+1, a+b+2, 2a-b+c+3, a+b+c+4)}
is X subspace of R4? i am completely confused. a b c are reals
why>?
C is arbitrary constant, not all C's are the same
ik
but just for representations sake
is it fine?
you can't treat is like a constant you add with every term
ok ill assume c to be 0?
already told you, it's mathematical gibberish
you can't assume that given the question specifically talks about indefinite integral
^^
i added a small note
c must be assume to be 0 or another constant, here c is assumed to be 0
forget about the constant thing i just realized it wouldn’t make T linear
what?
u have to do ryus way
yeah thats what i was confused by
the way that he just explained
and i cant scream at prof rn
i cant just change the fkin question
so just tell me what i should write for now, ill discuss with sir later
bruh doesnt matter
it's some random sequence of words
just don’t mention anything and make the constant zero if ur really that pressed
it’s the only way the question makes sense
or you can try one thing, show that T is not linear by taking
$p(x) =0$ and show that
$$T(p)=\int p(x)\dd x=\int 0 \dd x =C \overset{?}{\neq} 0$$
T isn’t even a function at this point
can you show the original problem, noname?
generalized function

9x1 + 6x2 − 12x3 + 6x4 = −3
6x1 + 4x2 − 8x3 + 2x4 = 6
2x2 + 4x3 + 6x4 = 0
−3x1 + 4x2 + 7x3 + 18x4 = −10.
That is the stuff given
all right. well, i think homogeneous is the wrong word, since homogeneous means that Ax = 0
and you don't have 0 on the right hand side
maybe you meant consistent?
i think they’re trying to determine whether or not it is a homogeneous system
i'm not sure what you mean, maybe you can help them out, then
Yes exactly or if it is inhomogenous and prove it then ...
edd u already helped them haha
i guess what was meant then was for them to write this as a matrix-vector equation and show that the rhs is nonzero?
Yes I also guess so, I simply thought that is way to easy 😂
homogeneous is just all the constants are zero
And that is why I tried to do it more complicated :D. Anyway thank you !!!
Got it, as I said I simply wanted to make it more complicated, because I thought, that can't be it 😂 , THANK YOU!!!
ig you can use a complicated argument by showing that (0,0,0,0) is not a solution of the system, so it can't be homogeneous

Yes, or you could try to show that it is not homogeneous, by setting up a homogeneous one 
proof by "lmao look at it"
if only this was a valid proof method
I would have written a 'obviously' argument
not very far off from "to begin, assume that 6 = 0. but this is a contradiction, as 6 \neq 0, and so the system is not homgeneous"
i’ve been doing this on my calc hw lately and just saying stuff like, “it’s way to squiggly over here to be continuous, look at this desmos plot”
lol
Thome's function is cont at irrationals 
Hi, guys, why if i take the projection map to the orthogonal complement of the subspace spanned by a,b,c, then i got F(a)=F(b)=F(c)=0?
yes, a field
i think they meant to say there exists a nonzero linear function F: k^3 -> k...
anyway
a, b and c are by construction orthogonal to the subspace being projected onto.
yes, i think that too. But does not orthogonal mean <a,F(a)>=0, how does this implies F(a)=0
<a, F(a)> does not even make sense
you cannot take the inner product of a vector and a number
oh yeah, so the function F is taking the bilinear form of a with vector in the orthogonal complementary subspace?
...you could say that
thanks!
yo guys i have a question about the annihilator. Im having trouble wrapping my head around the fact that the annihilator of a subspace can have more elements that just the 0 linear functional
why is this the case?
how do u solve for a transformation matrix?
The matrix would be 2x2, where the first column contains (0,1) and the second column contains (1,0) i think
because every vector in R^2 is written as a1(1,0) + a2(0,1)
and if we do this transformation
the basis vectors will just get flipped so we will have a1(0,1) + a2(1,0)
so u end up with this
annihilator of {0}
wdym
0 is annihilated by everything.
but its also a vector space right
but i thought all vector spaces only have 1 linear function which maps it to 0
recall the def of annihilator
set of linear functions belonging to a vector space V, that map every element in the subspace to 0
functionals*
functionals are in V*
ye sorry
in other words such functionals are 0 when restricted to that subspace
any functional is 0 when restricted to {0}
oh that makes sense
so V* is the annihilator of {0}
ok ty
np
is that right?
cuz thats what i did too
i think
the cool way is commutative diagrams
which is secretly what u guys are doing
exactly what it says. a basis of eigen vectors. an eigen basis.
so is it just the set consisting normalised eigenvectors?
that form a basis yea.
and how do i do h?
V ——> W
^ ^
| |
R^n ——> R^m
take the standard basis in R^n
map each e_i to ur new basis vector v_i in V by the map g. this goes up the left side. look at where T sends v_i and write in in terms of w_j, the basis in W. this goes across the top by T. the go down the right side by h, mapping each w_j to e_j. the matrix will be the composition h o T o g
Yeetus
can someone help with b)?
If A is a subspace of B, is dimension of A intersection B = dim B?
You can write $A$ in the form $$A = \mqty[-v_1^T- \ -v_2^T- \ \vdots \ - v_n^T - ]$$. So $x\in\mathfrak{N}(A)$ will look like $$
Ax = \mqty[-v_1^T- \ -v_2^T- \ \vdots \ - v_n^T - ] x = \mqty[v_1^Tx \ v_2^Tx \ \vdots \ v_n^T x ] = 0$$
but if want a more LA approach, there's one thing you can try
if dim A > dim B
is dim(A+B) >= dim A?
$\innerproduct{x}{ A^Ty} = \innerproduct{Ax}{y} = 0 \qquad\forall y\in \mathfrak{R}(A)$ and $x\in\mathfrak{N}(A)$, so $x\perp y \forall y\in \mathfrak{R}(A)$
obviously
Don't need the hypothesis lol
how would you prove that 3 dimensional vector space has infinitely many 2 dimensional subspaces?
sorry, we assume that
then yes
I'm working with the momentum and position operators $p_x$, $p_y$, $p_z$ and x,y,z. I'm wondering why
$$yp_{z}zp_{x}-zp_{x}yp_{z}=yp_{x}[p_{z},z]$$
is true, because if I expand out the RHS I get:
$$yp_{x}[p_{z},z]=yp_{x}p_{z}z-yp_{x}zp_{z}$$
And I didn't think I could just rearrange the order
june
do you know how to prove it?
think about the spaces $\cos(\theta)y+\sin(\theta)z=0$, for $-\pi \leq \theta \leq \pi$
probably a physics server question
Ah ok I'll move it there thanks!

do what?
this
mate was typing again
bruh
also fr any vector in 3D , u can look at the orthogonal complement
what if it’s Q^3
that's what I did here
hi could maybe someone help me with a math problem?
if u guys have the time would apreciate that so much
am at HELP-25 btw sorry for interrupting
epsilon trick
In R4
if subspace A is generated by (1,0,0,0), (0,1,0,0) and (0,0,1,0) and B generated by (1,0,0,0) and (0,1,0,0) is dimension of ther intersection = 2, and of sum equal 3?
And if A is generated by (1,0,0,0), (0,1,0,0) and (0,0,1,0) and B generated by (0,0,1,0) and (0,0,0,1), is dimension of intersection = 1 and dim of sum = 4?
span {(1,0,0) (0,1,\epsilon)}
ye
okay well those are all the fields. R C and Q lmao
sorry but im literally dying
i know i have too many questions but you are my last hope. sorry if i am boring and my questions stupid
nah never a bore lol
ngl you are literally asking the same question in different format
which one lol
dim A+B
LOL
thanks Ryu
why does the transpose notation come in here?
but i think i wrote that
hopefully its correct
i just wrote it as let rows of A be ai, ... an
then ai ... an * x = 0
but legit this guy made us prove that same thing 3 times
like b c and d is the same thing
what would i possibly write differently in b c and d
i think i did c wrong
it doesnt imply its in null space of A i guess
cuz if x is over a higher dimensional field as compared to rows in A,
then it can be orthoganal while not being in null space i guess
fyi
subspaces A and B
if vectors from basis of A cant be written as a lin combination of vectors from basis of B and vectors from basis of B cant be written as a lin comb of vectors from basis of A, what can we say about subspaces A and B?
guys how can i tell if {(0,1,1), (1,1,2)} and {(1,0,1), (0.5,0.5,1)} span the same subspace?
you can write each vector in the 1st as a linear combination of the vectors of the 2nd and vice versa
hi, so to calculate the eigenvectors, am i following the right steps? at the bottom here i did reduce row echelon, now all i have to do is find the four x values?
matrix A is in green with the corresponding eigenvalue which equals 1
or is there a faster way of calculating eigenvectors idk
thanks. so they do span the same subspace.
can someone help me with his proof?$$λ^mdet(λI_n + BA) = λ^ndet(λI_m + AB)$$ with dimension of A nxm and B mxn
centuryegg
with non zero λ
<@&286206848099549185> sorry to ping but do you think you can help with my eigenvector question?
not sure if you did the right row echelon as in your third matrix your row 1 and row 2 are multiples of each other?
but the procedure is fine, in the end you'd find vectors that are perpendicular to all rows
ahh ok thanks for the point about perpendicularity i didn't know that
this exact question has been posted at least 3 times in this server now
word for word
Yeetus
remind me what annihilator is again?
okay
and f^T is just the map that sends phi to phi circ T?
phi circ f, yea.
At least, I think it is.
Should be the only thing that makes sense.
yea
assuming it is, just evaluate f^T(phi) - phi at w for any arbitrary w in W
it should follow rather quickly from defs
nope that’s correct
you have just shown that for any w in W,
f^T(phi)(w) - phi(w) = 0
so f^T(phi) - phi is in the annihilator of W
yea haha
Hey so my shsat test is in 4 days and I am not too good in geometry
Can someone help me out
Thanks
so, just assuming finite dimensional stuff here, let w_1,…,w_m be a basis for W. extend this to a basis w_1,…,w_m,w_m+1,…,w_n of V.
let p_i be the i-th dual basis vector, which maps w_i to 1 and w_j to 0.
then look at f^T(p_i) - p_i. it says that p_i(f(w)) = p_i(w) for all i and for any vector w in W. the idea is that p_i picks out the ith coefficient of any vector when expressed in the basis we chosen
so yes. i think with this info, we should get that f(w) = w for all w in W
since x = y if and only if phi(x) = phi(y) for all phi in the dual space (and we just showed that phi(x) = phi(y) on a basis of V*, so the result should follow)
Kind of busy now, but look up Sylvester's determinant theorem.
If I have a cholesky decomposition A=(T')T
Would [(T')^-1]A(T^-1) = I?
As in, could the components of a cholesky decomposition's inverse be applied to the original matrix this way?
I have a similar question but with the cholesky components replaced with the inverse of the symmetric square root. That one I'm fairly sure is also true
it's unclear what u r trying to write, use latex
still need help?
It's not super time sensitive, I'll reword it later probably
it looks like you asking whether $(L^T)^{-1}AL^{-1}=I$ or not. answer is yes, and it's easy to verify
yep!
It's not something I need to verify strongly, but knowing it's true helps, thanks
Here's the proof if you are interested-
\begin{gather*}
A = L^TL\
\implies (L^T)^{-1}AL^{-1} = (L^T)^{-1} L^TLL^{-1} = [(L^T)^{-1} L^T][LL^{-1}]=I\cdot I = I\end{gather*}
a sufficient condition is I think U is a subspace of V, or V is a subspace of U
Hi guys
I have $F$ a Field, and i have to show that $M_{m \times n}(F) \simeq F^{m} \otimes F^{n}$
I try for $u=\left(u_{1}, \ldots, u_{m}\right) \in F^{m}$ and $w=\left(w_{1}, \ldots, w_{n}\right) \in F^{n}$ I defined $\psi: F^{m} \times F^{n} \rightarrow M_{m \times n}(F)$
such that $\psi(u, w)=\left(u_{i} w_{j}\right){m \times n}$
this is $\psi(u, w)=\left(\begin{array}{ccc}u{1} w_{1} & \ldots & u_{1} w_{n} \ \cdot & & \ \cdot & & \ u_{m} w_{1} & \ldots & u_{m} w_{n}\end{array}\right)$
SO $\psi$ is bilineal and then there is an unique lineal application $L: F^{m} \otimes F^{n} \rightarrow M_{m \times n}$ such that $L\left(t_{i j}\right)=\psi(u_i, w_i)$ where $u_i,w_j$ are elements of basis of $F^m$ and $F^n$ my question is how can i show that L maps a basis from $F^m \otimes F^n$ to a basis from $M_{m \times n} (F)$
alef0
looking at this, what is p2 ect? char(A) = λn − tr(A)λn−1 + p2(A)λn−2
- · · · + (−1)n−1pn−1(A)λ + (−1)n det(A)
sum or the eigen values taking 2 at a time
or just look up sylvester determinant identity
thanks
why are u using tensor product instead of direct sum.
$e_i\otimes e_j$ should map to a matrix with only one nonzero entry
Icy001
there’s quite a few ways to do this one
its an excersive from a book 😄
and im trying to do it
@gleaming knot this entrie will be $(a_{ij})$ right?
alef0
ya
does anybody understand the passage from the first equation to the second one?
as i'm sure c squared can tell you, the transpose of a matrix can be defined elementwise as A^T_i,j = A_j,i
i.e., by swapping the indices
so what they did was swap indices AND transpose, which is the same as transposing twice
i.e. doing nothing
so the two expression are equivalent
the reason they swap the order when multiplying is twofold
first, it's valid because multiplication of scalars does not depend on the order of the multiplicands
second, by putting the C term first and the A term second, you'll recognize that the sum is of the form of the definition of matrix multiplication
2D?
ye
and i got u and v
but the solution says that its v and w
so i wonder if eigenvectors can be like "rotated" to the other side?
or is the solution just wrong?
like im supposed to find eigenvectos for this matrix
and i got
{(1,2),(-2,1)}
but the solution says its
{(1,2),(2,-1)}
is eigenvector the same if i just scale the eigenvector with a negative scalar?
or cant i
If $v$ is an eigen vector, then so is $-v$, in general the vectors of the subspace spanned by $S(v) = {\alpha v| \alpha\in \mbb{K} }$ are also eigen vectors.
except zero
can someone help me with this pls?
like i know that U has eigenvectors as columns but idk how to argue that or anything
l
can i scale orthagonal diagonoalized matrix too?
im supposed to find basis for R5, that contains 3 given vectors
Channel busy
????
Ask somewhere else
you cant have the whole channel for ursellf get off ur high horse
im supposed to find basis for R5, that contains 3 given vectors
so basicially how do i find 2 vectors that are linearly independant to the given 3 vectors?
lol
they just rearrange for v, move everything over to the right that isn't v and divide through by the coefficient
nvm i found the anwser myself
good for you
No i got that .but they said s is linearly independent and one of u is equal to v .i didnt get this
that's not the last sentence lol
Yeah sry 😅
i don't understand what you're confused about
so it's like
S is linearly independent
so none of u1, u2, etc. are the same as each other
it's v and something else
v and one of the u's
Since S U {v} is linearly dependent so there is at least one a_i so that a_i != 0. So we dont know which a_i exactly . So how can we multiply by its multiplicative inverse(of v)
WLOG we can let it be a_1
here they're indistinguishable, more or less, so we might as well name them conveniently so that the i where a_i !=0 is 1
My que is how do u know that coefficient of v is non zero ?
Oh wait they mentioned that all a_1,a_2,.....a_n are non zero
nah, some of them can be 0
it's just that not all of them can be 0
anyway yeah
so
basically i misread it
they're taking S union {v}
ok wait
ok so basically yeah so if coefficient of v is 0 then you have all the other summing to 0 by themselves
so they would be linearly dependent
but S by itself is linearly independent
so v must be involved, it must have a non-zero coefficient
that's it
i coulda done this 10x faster if my brain was working ngl
😂
can you diagonalize non symetric matricies?
yes, sometimes
to get an example, start with, a 2 by 2 or a 3 by 3 diagonal matrix, then do change of basis with some random basis. it’ll probably end up being a non-symmetric matrix afterwards that you then know is similar to a diagonal matrix
find all a b c d such that A is diagonalizable
this is the one im struggling with
i tried showing that
|lambda I - A| = 0
but im kinda stuck
nice problem
well the char poly is straightforward, since it's a triangular matrix
the eigenvalues should be 1, 1, and d
so it's more about finding what the eigenvectors look like, and find the cases where they become linearly (in)dependent
that gave me an idea
looking at the null space of A-I
it has to be 2 for A to be diagonalizable
no
or dim 3 if d = 1
btw what language is that? i can almost recognize some germanic stuff
norwegian
i.e. the dimension of the eigenspaces
yeah and that's still 2
if d =/= 1, yes
d = 0 here
oh specifically for that case
the nullity of A-I=2
what does it have to be
everything
so it has nothing to do with it
you must have geometric multiplicity of the eigen values = algebraic multiplicity
for A to be diagonalizable
wait what was that
what was what
algebraic multiplicity
here, for instance, you have two eigenvalues that are 1
so their algebraic multiplicity is 2
this means that, for the matrix to be diagonalizable, there need to be 2 linearly independent eigenvectors corresponding to this eigenvalue
idk, repeated eigenvalue?
algebraic multiplicity is kinda standard
i prolly just didnt know the english word lol
no?
nopp
well, i wrote geometric there, shoulda been algebraic, but still
"numerosity"
algebraischen Vielfachheit
wait
so a matrix is diagnolizable if its vector space has nullility 2?
3x3 this case
no
it is diagonalizable if the geometric multiplicity matches the algebraic one for all eigenspaces
in this case, when d is not 1, you have an eigenvalue with algebraic mult 2, and so the corresponding eigenvectors must have a corresponding geometric mult
in simpler words, for a matrix of size nxn, you need to have n linearly independent eigenvectors
ryu is suggesting one method. you could also just straight up find the eigenvectors of the original matrix instead
no
they end up in terms of all the varaibles
yes, the eigenvalues are 1 or d, i wrote that in my first message
yea
so if there is a non 0 number above 2nd leading 1, the eigenspace doesnt have 3 linearly independant vectors
that is true

