#linear-algebra
2 messages · Page 243 of 1
Just compute the product LU and verify yourself if this gives A
Where'd I go wrong. Answer in the back of the book given on the right
It's the setup, not my computation:
i don't know where to begin with this
the only thing i'm able to do is distribute the a,b, and c and having it equal to t(x) but i'm lost on solving for the individual variables
t(x) is also equal to -20x^2 + 8
use gaussian elimination to find a, b, and c
make into a matrix equation
you can determine if a vector b is a linear combination of some column vectors by solving the matrix equation Ax = b where A is the matrix of column vectors a1, a2, ...
and you can "vectorify" the polynomials by taking the coefficient of increasing degree terms as each component
ex: 1 + 3x + 23x^2 could be written as the vector (1, 3, 23) (where its understood that the nth entry has degree n-1)
so you can boil that problem down to a 3x3 matrix * (a, b, c) = (8, 0, -20)
okay that makes sense now including the 0 coefficients on the variables missing
ty to the both of you
When can we view polynomials as vectors?
what?
Typo
ok, then the answer to your question appears to be "When we have a vector space whose elements happen to be polynomials."
How can polynomials be elements of a vector space?
very easily
for example, take the set $V$ consisting of all polynomial functions from $\bR$ to $\bR$ with degree at most 4, with addition and scaling operations defined in the obvious manner.
Ann
this is a vector space.
we can even calculate its dimension (5) and find a basis for it (one possible basis would be {1, x, x^2, x^3, x^4})
@wintry steppe does this answer your question?
i have more examples of vector spaces where the vectors are polynomials.
Sort of
like, just for the simplest stuff --- there's a whole family of \textbf{named} vector spaces, typically denoted $\mathcal{P}_n(\bR)$, which are defined as consisting of polynomials of degree at most $n$ for some fixed $n$. what i showed there is $\mathcal{P}_4(\bR)$.
Ann
but it seems you still have your doubts?
if you do have some doubts, i'd like you to voice them now.
I think I understand
Hi, how to prove that a positive defined symmetric matrice is invertible and that its inverse is also symmetric? Thanks in advance
positive definite has all eigenvalues > 0 by definition
Thanks! how to prove that its inverse is also symmetric?
c squared
Great thanks!!
Hi, I see people here asking questions; is it okay to ask a question in here?
Or do I need to relegate it to the Math Help
if ur question has to do with lin alg then go ahead and ask
thanks ^_^
So a question similar to this was given to me last week on a quiz, and the prof never mentioned it to me, ignored my request to know the answer and all. I know it's going to be on my final next week; and I'm unsure as to how to get to any answer, just the process of getting there even
Sorry for the bad handwriting, I'm writing on a track pad
i think there should be a way to write B as the product of some invertible matrices with A.
this is sort of like row reduction, just transform A into B with some elementary matrices
^
the you use the fact that det(EF) = det(E) det(F)
Sorry. I forgot to kinda write the question. It was given the determinant of A, what would the determinant of B be equal to
They don't give us our quizzes or the answers to the quiz
what c squared said still stands
so perform a row reduction?
it’s similar to the idea of row reduction. it is not however row reduction.
Do you have a resource I could look at to better understand it?
Right, but I don't have a C, right? Or are you talking about the variable inside the matrix?
OH
I'm going to ask a student to see if they have a copy of the question asked.
notice that stuff is happing to the matrix A row-wise in order to yield B
e.g. the whole row 2 is scaled by 5
this type of operation can be written as a matrix multiplying from the left
so it'd rather be CA = B
e.g. if C = [[1,0,0],[0,5,0],[0,1,0]], you'd get the desired effect of keeping the first row the same, and the second row scaled by 5
what would the 3rd row need to be?
then find det C
does it matter?
you will not find C s.t. AC=B here
Hey can someone explain this to me please?
i get hpw you expand the barackets
but what is A' and B'???
like its diffrernt to A and B but i dont get it is it like a transpose of a or b??
they're just distinct matrices
you could call them A, B, C, D if you wanted
it's just that A and A' have the same dimensions, and B and B' have the same dimensions
but otherwise they can be completely different
oooh okk lol i was tryna find the answer everywhere but couldntt
thanksss
that actually makes sense
yeah just meme notation
If i have 3 matrices, A B and C
If i Know what B^TB is can i substitute it in this equation?
can i do something like this:
C * B^T * B * A
let D matrix = B^TB
C * D * A
does this break any rules or is this a valid equation?
It depends, you are substituiting B^t B into what????
What exactly do you want to do?
I mean, sure you can let D = B^tB and compute C*D*A
because I know what B^TB is equal but both B^T and B by themselves are not very simple matrices so it is much harder for me to do C*B^T than to do C * D
matrix multiplication is associative
you could put parenthesis anywhere in that expression
including C (B^T B) A, as you wanted
so like A(BC) = (AB)C
mhm
or (AB)(CD) = A(BC)D?
mhm
yeah this helps so much, this way its so much more simpler
I realized where I was being dumb earlier
When you're given something like
[a b c]
[d e f] det = 4
[g h i]
[a b c ]
[3d 3e 3f ] =?
[3g+3d 3h+3e 3i+3f]
I'm supposed to manipulate the top one to make it look like the bottom, and what I do to the elements of the matrix, I do to the determinant as well, correct?
so i'd be r2 = r2*3, then the determinant = 12
That's not linear algebra.
Can someone help me with c and d or at least explain how to solve them also a and b are correct right? I would have to use the aximos to solve them
i'm not sure this is the right channel but, you can just test all the properties of a field one by one
for example Z is not a field because multiplicative inverses are rational
so think about each of the properties separately and see if you can come up with counterexamples or explain why the do work
Wait isn’t the multiplicative inverse 1
for 1, sure
or did you mean an element of the field times its multiplicative inverse is 1 (or rather the multiplicative identity)?
sure
now take 2
2 * x = 1 makes x be the mult inverse of 2
is x an element of Z?
Is this reasonable?
\Given invertible matrix with real entries $A$ prove that $A^ku_0=\lambda_0^ku_0$ for any integer $k$
\Begin by recalling that any invertible real matrix is at the very least diagonalizable such that:
[A^k=PD^kP^{-1}]
Furthermore recall that the matrices $P$ are generated through the eigenvectors $u_j$ such that:
[P=[u_0,u_1,...u_n]\iff P^{-1}=\begin{bmatrix}v_0\v_1\...\v_n\end{bmatrix},]
[ u_j v_j=e_j,\ v_ju_j=1,\ u_jv_i=\vec{0},\ v_iu_j=0,\ i\not=j ]
for the $j$th unit vectors $e_j$ where the $j$th position is the only non-zero value, which is equal to 1
Take $A^ku_0\Rightarrow PD^kP^{-1}u_0$:
[(PD^k)(P^{-1}u_0)=([\lambda_0^ku_0,\lambda_1^ku_1,...\lambda_n^ku_n])(\begin{bmatrix}v_0\v_1\...\v_n\end{bmatrix}u_0)]
However by above we get that:
[([\lambda_0^ku_0,\lambda_1^ku_1,...\lambda_n^ku_n])(\begin{bmatrix}1\0\...\0\end{bmatrix})=\lambda_0^ku_0]
Manzareh
Wait, not every real invertible matrix is diagonalizable...
Consider the following matrix
\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 1 \
0 & 1
\end{bmatrix}
woops you're right
MisterSystem
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
And I suppose you are misinterpreting the question a little bit
I suppose the question is concerned with the following
don't worry, i've already done the question in a 'valid' way, i just wanted to see if this was correct and you've reminded me why it wouldn't be correct for every invertible matrix
Suppose that you have a real matrix A, such that $\lambda_{0}$ is an eigenvalue of $A$ and $u_{0}$ is an eigenvector associated to $\lambda_{0}$. Then, $\forall k \in \mathbb{N}$ we have $A^{k} u_{0} = \lambda_{0}^{k} u_{0}$
MisterSystem
This is true
And in fact, the only eigenvalues of A^k would be the k-th powers of the eigenvalues of A
This is known as the spectral mapping theorem (for polynomials)
You can prove this using Jordan Canonical Form.
you forgot to say that u_0 was an eigenvect earlier
Me?
Oh, alright.
that is how the question is stated, that you're given A invertible with real entries and lambda 0 and u0 as eigenvalue and eigenvector
so wait
ok, then yeah
This would be valid then?
i mean, you don't even need anything fancy
just associate from the right
A^k u_0 = AAAA...Au_0
now make parentheses from right to left
and repeatedly exploit A u_0 = lambda_0 u_0
With Jordan Canonical Form you can also see that the only eigenvalues of A^k are in fact the powers of the eigenvalues of A
that is quite a bit easier actually, the way i did it before was pretty messy
Which is kinda nice
regardless, so with the conditions shown, the thing i brought up earlier would be valid? It would just be invalid if there wasn't an assumed eigenvalue and eigenvector?
for diagonalizable matrices and an eigenvector u_0, sure
Well hold on, if I substitute PDP^{-1} with the SVD factorization USV It DOES work then
right?
only if the left and right singular vectors are mutually orthonormal
i.e. when the SVD equals the EVD 😛
but it's not hard to construct a matrix like that when you're given the eigenvectors and eigenvalues, no?
hmm, and here i thought i had an umbral calculus moment
looks like wrong channel
Sorry about the quality but can someone explain how to find the inverse of square root 2 like they are asking us in question 3 I’m gonna be honest I don’t understand the Q square root 2 which is why I’m asking 😅
The inverse of √2 in the field Q[√2] would be √2/2
Why?
Well
If we think about it we have "intuitively" that the inverse of √2 should be 1/√2
Now we can multiply this one out by 1
Which is the same as multiplying by √2/√2
Alright perfect
Notice that we have to do this rationalization
Otherwise
We don't even know what "1/√2" means in Q[√2]
I thought it was harder lmao
√2/2 makes sense in Q[√2] because it is a rational multiple of √2
Np
In any case
These questions feel more like intro to number theory
Or introductory algebra
Rather than linear algebra
It is
I know that your professor is prolly introducing you to fields
Mhm mhm
And introducing them via linear algebra makes perfect sense
But this is exactly what linear algebra is concerned with
Oh yeah we wont see fields in the exams right ?
Like I checked some linear algebra and calculus 1 exams and I didn’t see any fields
Only in discreet math
It depends on the way your professor handles the course man
For instance
I would say fields rather than R or C wouldn't come up in an engineering oriented course
Maybe in a CS oriented course they would talk about finite fields.
But I wouldn't bet it
The reals or the complex numbers
Most intro to linear algebra courses care mostly about doing things over R or C.
The nice thing is that
Most stuff generalizes to any field almost trivially
Except stuff that explicitly uses some properties of R, say it being an ordered field
Which comes up some times, say with Silvester's Law of Inertia
Or the fact that C is algebraically closed
Say with Jordan Canonical Form
These are particular properties of these fields
And we explicitly use them to prove these results
But again
We don't need C explicitly in order to prove Jordan Canonical Form, only the fact that it is algebraically closed
So we might as well talk about algebraically closed fields instead
Yeah, this is what happens with most linear algebra. Most courses deal with R or C for pedagogical reasons
But most stuff can be generalized to arbitrary fields, modulo some other hypothesis.
They are quite nice 
Hi could somebody explain how to prove that u dot v is equal to u norm times v norm times cosine theta given the cauchy shwarz inequality?
Super nice
:)
Tbh I feel like medicine would have been easier than engineering ngl
Oh, you do engineering 
given only cauchy schwarz, that's not enough info. you'd rather need to do some shenanigans projecting onto the canonical basis
Uh, idk how to prove it via Cauchy Schwarz tbh. But it is possible to do via the parallelogram law/polarization identities.
Then you apply the law of cosines
I remember doing it this way
Well it just says the inequality and then it says that theta is defined as follows
Ignore the other writing
can you show the full question?
It’s not a question it’s just telling me that
Like it’s part of the notes
And it was the very first part of the notes too
and you want a proof that the sum of the products of the vector elements is the same as the product of the norms times the cos of the angle?
Oh yeah I have another question what does
Field R/ field Q mean
Only irrational numbers ?
Sadly
Started last week
R \ Q is the set of irrational numbers, yes.
that was my original question. But just based off of the notes, how do you get from that inequality to the inverse cosine expression
Can rational numbers be in it
Oh, it should be R \ Q btw
Yeah
R / Q would be interpreted as R quotient by Q.
Which is a totally different things
Oh
yeah that's what i was thinking
Thank you for mentioning it
ok mumu, so it goes something like this
Damn
the dot product of p and q is geometrically given as the length of q times the length of the bottom leg of that triangle
Sorry cause my question are too stupid but can someone explain d 😅
Like the circle and the plus inside
You are defining a new operation on R.
it's telling you to forget what you know about addition
addition is a whole new thing
Hmm
And you are interpreting this as the new operation sum. And this new operation of sum + standard multiplication makes R into a field.
Oh I see
In fact, you have to verify if this is indeed true or false.
Thanks!
@meager steppe look at this image, the vectors p and q have associated lengths $\Vert p \Vert$ and $\Vert q \Vert$
Edd
and from them, the dot product is geometrically defined as the length of the bottom leg times the length of q
you can do some basic trig to find that $\cos(\theta) = \text{leg} / \Vert p \Vert$
Edd
and so $\text{leg} = \Vert p \Vert \cos(\theta)$
Edd
Edd
now we wanna get from here to the other definition
we note that a vector $p = [p_1 p_2 p_3 \dots]$ can be decomposed as $p = p_1 e_1 + p_2 e_2 + \dots$
Edd
where the e_i are the canonical basis, which is orthonormal
e.g. [1,0,0], [0,1,0], [0,0,1]
geometrically, these vectors are orthogonal to each other
this means e_i dot e_j = 0 if i is different from j
now we want to take p dot q again
$p \cdot q = p \cdot \sum_i^N q_i e_i$
p does not depend on i and we can bring it into the sum
so that
Edd
$p \cdot q = p \cdot \sum_i^N q_i e_i = \sum_i^N q_i (p \cdot e_i)$, where we moved the q_i to the left as it's just a scalar
Edd
$p \cdot q = p \cdot \sum_i^N q_i e_i = \sum_i^N q_i (p \cdot e_i)$, where we moved the q_i to the left as it's just a scalar
```Compilation error:```! Missing $ inserted.
<inserted text>
$
l.55 ... q_i (p \cdot e_i)$, where we moved the q_
i to the left as it's just...
I've inserted a begin-math/end-math symbol since I think
you left one out. Proceed, with fingers crossed.```
i don't see the mistake :x
anywho
it still looks ok
now, we expand p in the same cursed way
It doesn’t like that q_i isn’t in math mode I think
$\sum_i^N q_i (p \cdot e_i) = \sum_i^N q_i \left( \sum_j^N (p_j e_j ) \cdot e_i \right)$
and now we exploit the orthonormality of the basis
Edd
due to orthonormality of the e_i, the inner sum is equal to p_i, since all the other terms are multiplied by 0
leaving us with $\sum_i^N q_i p_i = p \cdot q$
Edd
which we knew to be equal to $\Vert p \Vert \Vert q \Vert \cos(\theta)$ from the geometric def using a triangle
Edd
and finally, from this same equation, just solve for theta to get the expression with the inverse cosine
that should've covered all your questions, i think @meager steppe
is this free now :p

im trying to prove this and i just want some leads to go off :/
1st of all how do i define the space L(V, W)
it's just the set of linear maps from V to W
the idea is that, if you choose a basis of V and a basis of W, then you can associate a unique matrix to each operator T by which matrix multiplication in coordinates is just application of T
so you should try to prove that L(V, W) is isomorphic to M(m by n, field)
read a different book then
/s
lol
which statement did you want me to clarify
^
give me a moment
you don't actually have to prove that it's isomorphic to some matrix space, it's just more intuitive that way imo
decompose the vectors in some basis and then play around with sums
my bathroom is leaking i need a minute

tyt ile look and try to start the proof
here you go
Is this some kind of euphemism or is your bathroom like literally leaking 
water was dripping from the ceiling and is all over the floor

when im done cleaning it ill type some linear algebra
from the ceiling? shit
nvm i figured it out
took a hint from the proof but worked out
proof by reading the proof
Sorry, I promise this is the last thing about this type of solution. So when I have something like 3h+4e, and my original matrix is just h. Do I multiply my determinant by 3 and add 4
solving the image above using this
𝑥[𝑛] = 𝑢[𝑛 + 2], 𝑎𝑡 − 5 ≤ 𝑛 ≤ 10
can someone help me with this
<@&286206848099549185>
Let $V,W$ have bases $\beta={v_1,\dots,v_n}$ and $\gamma={w_1,\dots,w_m}$. Every vector $v \in V$ can be uniquely expressed in the form $$v = c_1v_1 + \cdots + c_nv_n$$ for some $c_1,\dots,c_n\in F$, so we get a coordinate vector $$[v]\beta = \begin{pmatrix}c_1 \ \vdots \ c_n\end{pmatrix} \in F^n,$$ and similarly a $[w]\gamma \in F^m$ for $w\in W$. Also, for each $i = 1, \dots, n$, $$Tv_i= \sum_{j=1}^m a_{ji}w_j$$ for some scalars $a_{ij} \in F$. Then we have
\begin{align*}
Tv &= T\left(\sum_{i=1}^n c_iv_i \right) \
&= \sum_{i=1}^n c_iTv_i \
&= \sum_{i=1}^n \sum_{j=1}^m c_ia_{ji}w_j \
&= \sum_{j=1}^m \left(\sum_{i=1}^n c_ia_{ji}\right)w_j.
\end{align*}
If we take coordinate vectors with respect to the basis $\gamma$, then we obtain
$$
[Tv]\gamma = \begin{pmatrix}
c_1a{11} + \cdots + c_na_{1n} \
\vdots \
c_1a_{m1} + \cdots + c_na_{mn}
\end{pmatrix} = \underbrace{\begin{pmatrix}
a_{11} & \cdots & a_{1n} \
\vdots & \ddots & \vdots \
a_{m1} & \cdots & a_{mn}
\end{pmatrix}}{:=[T]\beta^\gamma}[v]\beta.
$$
So $T$ in the coordinates given by $\beta$ and $\gamma$ corresponds to exactly multiplication by this matrix $[T]\beta^\gamma$. The map $$L(V,W) \to M(m\times n, F), \qquad T \mapsto [T]\beta^\gamma$$ is an isomorphism of vector spaces (an invertible linear map). Showing linearity is just a computation. For injectivity, if this matrix is zero, then it's clear that $T$ is zero from $[Tv]\gamma = [T]\beta^\gamma[v]\beta = 0$. For surjectivity, define $T$ by the equation $[Tv]\gamma = [T]\beta^\gamma[v]_\beta$.
nuked
TTerra

the indices might have some typos
im used to using einstein notation whereever possible
can you help me with this?
😌
what's u here
aight
i just dont get how to solve it
just substitute the stuff you know
$E_x = \sum_{n=-5}^{10} \vert x[n] \vert ^2 = \sum_{n=-5}^{10} \vert u[n +2] \vert^2$
Edd
the abs isn't needed and you can do a change of vars
can you guide me
since im just trying to find the answer since im coding this into matlab to see if the answer is similar
bruh just do it
the unit step func is 1, so you can remove the abs and the square
and if you like you can substitute w = n + 2
$E_x = \sum_{w = -3} ^{12} u[w]$
Edd
idk, 13?
im trying to solve it on paper
ile understand this approach better when i learn isomorphism :3
i taught you what an isomorphism is right there 😉
it's something you should know the moment you learn what a vector space is

it's just a formal way of saying that, after choosing bases, linear operators and matrices are the same
Possible dumb question:
If I have a plane, and all the info defining it (i.e 3 points on it, equation, normal vector) how do I determine the change of basis matrix to transform a point into a point relative to the plane (if that makes sense?)
I think if I take the normal and normalize it, does that by itself (or perhaps along with the centroid of the plane) define a CoB onto the plane?
Hopefully that makes sense..
well
you have a point in 3D space, for example, in the canonical basis
and you want to represent it presumably in the bases of 2 vectors on the plane and the plane's normal
so put those 3 vectors in a matrix
as its columns
and you get that known point = matrix * coordinates in the new basis
you know the point and the matrix, not the coords
so you can do matrix^-1 * known point = coords you want
and that's all
a nice choice is two mutually orthogonal vectors on the plane, since you get an orthonormal basis and the inverse is simply the transpose
holy fking shit
it all makes sense now
all transformations are determined by what they do to a the basis of V as it maps to W and all of them can be repsented as a matrix between 2 finite dimensional spaces
add and multiply too stronk
@lavish jewel Thanks!
👍
bruh who even cares at this point 😭
How do you find 4 unknown coefficients with 4 (x,y) points?
I've been given a curve, and I need the points to match
can u post the entire problem?
It's a written problem
I have points on a graph and I need to find coefficients
basically I have a polynomial and I need to find certain points on the graph
Should a Simplex / Big M question get asked here? Even though it has nothing to do with Early University?
Thank you. This wasn’t even on my test but I understand it now
👍
yup
the matrix encodes exactly what the transformation does to your basis of V
you got it
yo im not sure which type of math this is
so ima ask here but you guys lemme know if im wrong
so this is a real-world thing, not a hw question or anything
im building an aquarium and the sheets of glass come in panels 48x60", so i want to know what most optimal layout it to get the most gallons
i think mayb its calc?
idk
from one panel. ik that cubic inch/231 is gal
Single-Variable Calculus: Optimization
hi i really dont get this
how do i find k??
basically if i multiplied it correctly i got [ k^2 +2k k+2 -1]= 0
but i dunno what to do after like make each induvidual eqal zero or what?
You should get a single number instead of vector as the answer
huh how?
Well
The dimension of the left multiplication will give you a row vector of length 3
Then multiplied with the column vector will give you a scalar
sorry i dont really get that?
$\begin{bmatrix}k&1&1\end{bmatrix}\begin{bmatrix}1&1&0\1&0&2\0&2&-3\end{bmatrix}$ should be a row vector with three numbers
Whoever
Right?
so a 1 by 3 matrix?
Yes
ok yh
Now if you multiply this 1 by 3 matrix by the 3 by 1 matrix, you get a single number
ooh okk
lemme try that again then gimme a min
if u dont mind
ooh okk i think i got it.... k squared plus 2k+1= 0
so k is -1?
Damn TTerra, that's unironically cursed 
Diff geo does this to your brain
okk i substituted it back in and it worked so thank you!!
All good
I'm having a hard converting "What I want to optimise" in a properly Big M expressed problem. It's not for school or work.
Here is what I got:
ProductA takes 3 seconds to make and require 2 ProductB and 3 ProductC.
It takes 5 seconds to make a batch of 2 ProductB.
It takes 2 seconds to make a batch of 1 ProductC.
I want to make at least 2 ProductA per seconds.
No left-over byproducts of ProductB and ProductC. (aka perfect ratios)
Optimization function: How many machines X, Y and Z, (making A, B and C respectively) should I have if I want to minimize the number of machines used.
The way I see it is I could express it in this way:
Max: P = -x -y -z
Constraints:
ProductB used and created = 0: -2/3x + 2/5y = 0
ProductC used and created = 0: -x + 1/2z = 0
At least 2 ProductA /seconds: 1/3x >= 2
But it doesn't seem like I can solve that. What am I expressing the wrong way? Is the Big M method even appropriate for that?
<@&286206848099549185>
Where'd I go wrong? Answer in the back of the book given on the right.
$A^T*A$ is incrct
lil_giant
What's the canonical notation and name for the following mathematical object
Give an example of a 2 x 2 matrix with no inverse ( singular).
Give an example of a matrix which is its own inverse ( that is , where A−1=A)
$\begin{bmatrix}6 & 4\3 & 2\end{bmatrix} $ has no inverse.
Euclid31415
${\begin{bmatrix}0 & 1\1 & 0\end{bmatrix}}^{-1}= \begin{bmatrix}0 & 1\1 & 0\end{bmatrix}$
Euclid31415
By rotation group I suppose you mean $\text{SO}(3)$, right?
MisterSystem
yes the set of real orthogonal 3x3 matrices with det = 1
SO(n) for any n is by definition the set of n×n matrices A for which AA^t = A^t A = I and det(A) = 1.
Ok
So
is how rotation groups are defined
First of all
Do you know that the determinant satisfies $\text{det}(AB) = \text{det}(A) \text{det}(B)$.
MisterSystem
I.e, the determinant of the product of two matrices is the product of the determinants
i'm thinking det(A) = 1 and det(B) = 1
Yup
because i am assuming both A and B are part of the rotation group
So if we have C = AB, then det(C) = det(AB) = det(A) det(B) = 1 * 1 = 1
So C has determinant 1
Now
We need to check that CC^t = C^t C = I
For this
yeah that proves it's orthogonal
We are going to use some properties of the transpose
Are you familiar with the fact that (AB)^t = B^t A^t ?
yes
Nice
So CC^t = (AB)(AB)^t = (AB)(B^tA^t) = A(BB^t) A^t
Now do we see what we have to do?
B is, by hypothesis, an orthogonal matrix
So BB^t = I
And we have CC^t = A(BB^t)A^t = A(I)A^t = AA^t
In the same way, AA^t = I
So CC^t = AA^t = I
And we are done with the first part
Now we need to check C^t C = I
And I will leave this to you
alright, thanks!
No, it is not.
Then how to do
There's standard approaches to this kind of problem in general
Like, finding square roots of semidefinite matrices with real coefficients
You don't need anything fancy like this
But think about it
What could possibly be the simplest form matrix B could have?
For me, it seems that a matrix with equal entries would do the job
So I will try to find a matrix with equal entries
Whose square is A
Say B has all entries equal to a certain number "a"
Then, if we compute B^2
We will find that we want 2 a^2 = 2, so a^2 = 1 and this implies a=1 or a=-1.
And you can try this out by yourself
Let B_1 be the matrix whose entries are all equal to 1
And let B_2 be the matrix whose entries are all equal to -1
B_1 ^ 2 = A
And B_2 ^ 2 = A too
Yeah
No
Because C and its transpose might not commute
oh
Well
I am going to say we don't need exactly to prove CC^t = I too
But for a totally different reason
Namely because if a square matrix has a left inverse, then it has a right inverse
yeah
and 3x3 matrices are square, right
This is also a corollary of the more general fact about monoids, i.e if in a monoid every element has a left inverse, then they also have a right inverse and these coincide and etc...
You definitely don't need this too
But just commenting
In any case
I would say that it would be good if you explicitly showed CC^t = I
Instead of relying on any of these facts
i'm wondering if i can just cite the textbook
Because you want to practice dealing with these properties.
rather than doing separate proof
So it’s 1?
$$
B_{1}
\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 1 \
1 & 1 \
\end{bmatrix}
$$
MisterSystem
And you can take B_{2} = - B_{1} ofc
$A, B \in M_n(\mathbb{C})$ then if $B$ is invertible, then there exists a scalar $c$ s.t. $|A+cB|=0$
Ryuzaki
any other method other than using the continuity of det,
description of ker(T).```
i've algebraically determined that dim(ker(T)) = 2, but don't really understand why
any help is appreciated 🙂
what do u need? a proof of dim=2 or geometrical interp
rank=2 means it's a plane in R³
it gets mapped to 0 means the entire plane gets squished to the point 0
because R³ has a dimension 3 and R has 1, so a vague analogy is that if u have a bag that can only fit one object but u have 3, u can fit one of them and 2 will be left outside,
hm
you can do this by picking a basis and writing the functional as a matrix
the matrix would be a 3 x 1 row vector
if you then look for the null space, you get 2 basis vectors for it
and then for an inhomogeneous problem c = v^T x (where c is a constant in the field and v^T is the 3x1 matrix)
then having found a basis of the null space, say vectors a and b, v^T a = 0 and v^T b = 0, you find that if there is a particular solution c = v^T p, then c = v^T (p + s a + t b), where s and t are scalars also in the field
due to linearly and a and b being in the null space
you can then geometrically interpret this
s a + t b is just a linear combination, and if a and b are linearly independent, then this is a plane
so this tells you that for every particular solution p, there is a whole plane containing it that also yields the same value c
Got it thank you
Which answer is wrong
the steps you took make sense; could you walk me through an example? say T(x, y, z) = x + y + z; what would a basis for ker(T) look like then
so, x + y + z can be written as [1,1,1] [x,y,z]^T, yeah?
a row and a column vector
so we look for these x,y,z that yield zero
off the top of my head, one of them is 1, 0, -1
another could be 1, -2, 1
and i chose those so that they are mutually ortho... i think?
so now if you find one particular solution for x + y + z = c, for a fixed c
then you can construct infinitely many solutions by adding scaled versions of [1,0,-1] and [1,-2,1]
for example
let c = 3
then we want [1,1,1] v = 3, where v = [x,y,z]^T
and the claim would be we can arbitrarily add scaled versions of the other vectors and still get 0
let's test it out
,w {1,1,1} dot {1,1,1}
i just made up some scalars
wait i'm utterly mindgamed
this is a consequence of the linear functional being, well, linear
you could replace that 5 and 38.2 by anything you want
and it'll still work
cuz [1,1,1] dot [1,0,-1] = 0
and [1,1,1] dot (x + [1,0,-1]) = [1,1,1] dot x + [1,1,1] dot [1,-2,1] = [1,1,1] dot x + 0
that's easy to see algebraically, simply with linearity
and then you notice that it's a linear combination of vectors in the null space
and since we could build 2 linearly independent ones, they span a plane
which tells you there's a whole plane that your functional maps to 0
i see now; i think i was tunnel visioning on the idea that dim(ker(T)) = 3 bc it's elements are contained in R^3
the kernet is a subspace, it need not be equal to the whole space
and it can be trivial too, i.e. contain only the 0 vector
might wanna look at the rank nullity theorem
just multiply
I did but something is wrong
The system says 8/10
Can u please check it
send, someone will ig
this is what i used to algebraically determine that dim(ker(T)) was indeed equal to 2, but my brain refused to accept this fact since i thought i had a basis for ker(T) that had 3 elements
send the product you calculated, AxB and BxA
I did it on white board and erased already
well if you don't show or even keep your work then how do you expect to learn from your mistakes?
okay, now that i have done the multiplication
it looks like you misread part D
it asks for the second column of AB but you wrote the second row
MrFlaze20MS
If $F^{S}$ denotes the set of functions from S to F where F is a field, why does considering $F^{S}$ to be a vector space over F require S to be a non empty set?.
unchained
look at the axiomatic conditions for something to be a vector space
Wait a additive element must exist so therefore they must be a element of S such that f(x) = 0. is that it?
yes
thanks.
Hi there, so I've solved this linear system of equations, but the question is, "how many solutions are there?", how do I figure that out? (a^2-5a+8≠0, a^3-9a^2+23a-15≠0)
that's a solution?
a is just some arbitrarily fixed number
It doesn't vary though. So for a given a, you have found one solution.
yeah
wouldnt it be infinite solutions then cause a can be any number
assuming a fulfils the requirements on the right
yep
but for any given a, you have one solution, assuming it satisfies the conditions on the right
ty, as a last question then, for some reason this calculator wants to put in the zeros?
whats this for?
Suppose a $\in$ F, v $\in V$, and av = 0. Prove a = 0 or v = 0.
unchained
Should I treat this in a case like?. For example I prove it by assuming a or b is equal to show then show the equality holds. I feel like it something else.
well, av is a vector, right?
yeah
do you know anything about V?
shit sorry I copied my problem, ok V is a vector space over a field F.
i guess that doesn't matter much. for two vectors to be equal, they must be everywhere equal
so since av is a vector, it must equal the zero vector
then you use the definition of scalar mult
ok thanks.
after that you can do case work
e.g. if a is nonzero, you can divide both sides of the eq and you get v = 0
and go from there
Yup, just look at the spectrum of both A and B.
Since B is invertible, its spectrum does not contain 0.
And then you do some more memes.
And it is done.

The idea here is using the fact that the determinant is the product of the eigenvalues of a matrix.
There's another way to do it
Using the fact that C is algebraically closed
Notice that since B is invertible, then we have:
$$
\text{det}(A+cB) = 0 \iff \text{det}(AB^{-1}+c I) = 0
$$
MisterSystem
But C is algebraically closed
And so the characteristic polynomial of AB^-1 has a root for some c
And we are done
yeah nice
I was using continuity, which kind of has the same spirit but it requires more work
this one's nice
I agree
bad tex 
That's not linear algebra tho
Check out #prealg-and-algebra or #precalculus
You definitely did something, but it is incomplete.
In order to prove something is a commutative/abelian group you have to check out 4 axioms
Namely, that the operation is associative, there's an Identity element, every element has an inverse and moreover the operation is commutative.
You didn't check, for example, if R × R {0,0} has an identity
And if each element in here has an inverse
You need to do more work
Moreover
Be more explicitly about what you are trying to check.
It is always good.
Like "Now we are checking the commutative property, and now the associative property and etc..."
Ok, thanks for response. I will try to make an improvements
Can someone help me with this? I have to find for which values of k the matrix is diagonalizable
I tried something but it's very much a mess, I found the eigenvalues which should be 3, k+3 and k-3
but i have trouble with the eigenvectors, especially with those that depend on the value k
Gaarco
I think it is better to think about this in terms of the minimal polynomial.
You have the characteristic polynomial
We know that the minimal polynomial has the same irreducible factors as the characteristic polynomial
And a matrix is diagonalizable iff its minimal polynomial splits into distinct linear factors / has no repeated roots.
So think about what the minimal polynomial of this matrix should be
In terms of k
And for which values of k it has no repeated roots.
You can also think about this in terms of the Jordan blocks of its jordan canonical form.
Thanks, that helped 🙂
not sure where this goes but
are there any solutions to
$A^2 = \begin{pmatrix}
cos(a) & sin(a)\
sin(a) & -cos(a)
\end{pmatrix}$ if A can have complex entries
Kaisheng21
my guess rn is no
can't you rotate twice by half the angle?
idk that method
for a fixed value of a
you can diagonalize both AA^T and A^TA and use that to build the svd
just really annoying to do in the general case rather than numerically
yeah again i don't actually know what that method is
what i've tried is
let H be the usual half-angle rotation matrix, and let M be such that M^2 = (1, 0; 0, -1), as then (H^2)(M^2) is the original matrix we're trying to square root, as (1, 0; 0, -1) will flip the second column's signs
then, if (H^2)(M^2) = (HM)^2, we're done.
the above is true if HM = MH. however, i brute-forced it a bit by literally multiplying entries and i think there's no M where M both commutes with H and can be squared to give (1, 0; 0 -1)
right
checking that last part rn just in case
i'd say if the matrix isn't diagonalizable in general, it doesn't have a square root
so if you can come up with any case where it isn't, then that's that
otherwise idk
right, since diagonal matrices commute
it doesn't generalize to all a
yeah i know
to be clear
i'm saying it only works if sin(a) = 0
the condition seems to be that isin(a) = sin(a)
but the way i got there wasn't nice
i just want a nice proof 😔
??
eigenvalue decomposition?
oh
i mean, if i have to
... not experienced with the implications of eigenvalues tho
then that's it
it's real symmetric -> it's diagonalizable by an orthonormal matrix
i.e. it has a square root for any a
but if you don't like EVDs and SVDs, big oof
i mean i can find eigenvalues and eigenvectors
i just don't really know how they fit into the grander scope of LA, if ykwim
how they connect, how to use them in proofs properly...
diagonalization is one of the most powerful results of linalg
if you do an eigenvalue decomposition of a matrix, you express it as some QDQ^-1, where D is diagonal
and Q may or may not have a nice structure
the important thing to notice is that a matrix inverse is equivalent to a change of basis transformation
for example
>> [V,E]=eig([cos(a) sin(a);sin(a) -cos(a)]);
>> V
V =
[cos(a)/sin(a) + (cos(a)^2 + sin(a)^2)^(1/2)/sin(a), cos(a)/sin(a) - (cos(a)^2 + sin(a)^2)^(1/2)/sin(a)]
[ 1, 1]
>> diag(E)
ans =
(cos(a)^2 + sin(a)^2)^(1/2)
-(cos(a)^2 + sin(a)^2)^(1/2)
no i think i see that
i give you a vector y, and i want you to represent it in a new basis
you just swap the two pairs of sets of basis vectors?
yes
yeah
if A is invertible, which it should be if its columns are a basis, cuz they have to be linearly independent
now let's look at an eigenvalue decomp
let's say A = QDQ^-1
and we multiply A by some vector x
yes
so Ax = QDQ^-1 x
and we associate from the right
step one: change x into the eigenbasis by doing Q^-1 x
step two: take the transformed x into the eigenbasis and apply a transformation
but since we're in the eigenbasis of the matrix, the linear transformation is simply a scaling of coordinates
this is given by the diag matrix D
step three: take the scaled coordinates in the eigenbasis and transform back into the original basis by multiplying the coordinates with the matrix Q
if a matrix is diagonalizable and you know its eigenvectors, you can instead just see how each eigenvector is scaled, and then add them up (take their linear combination)
this can be done for any kind of diagonalizable linear operator, not just matrices
pops up all the time in differential equations, for example
hmm
where one uses the fourier method to solve the diff eq for one complex exponential at a time instead of looking at crazy signals
then you add them up
anyway
if A is symmetric, it's diagonalizable
so A = QDQ^-1
oh wait
yep
ok wild
symmetric matrices behave super nicely
the proof that symmetric matrices (with distinct eigvals) are diagonalizable is also pretty straightforward
fuck
these eigenvectors are awful
i got eigenvalues 1 and -1
and the x-value of the eigenvector for eigenvalue = 1 is (cos(a)+1)/0??
not sure if i've done something wrong or this is intended lol
Help with b pls!
divided by 0? wth
idk, i'm bad
what is the matrix?
$\begin{pmatrix}
cos(a) & sin(a)\
sin(a) & -cos(a)
\end{pmatrix}$
Kaisheng21
i get eigenvalues are 1 and -1
,,
\begin{pmatrix}
\cos a & \sin a \
\sin a & -\cos a \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix}x \ y\end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix}x \ y\end{pmatrix}
ricey
,align
x \cos a + y \sin a &= x \
x \sin a - y \cos a &= y
ricey
This is note necessarily the case!
Consider the following matrices
$A
\begin{bmatrix}
0 & -1 \
0 & 0
\end{bmatrix}
$
\
\
And
$
B
\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 0 \
1 & 1 \
\end{bmatrix}
$
MisterSystem
you're nilpotent
But how would that prove that B-A is invertible?
But we have
$
B - A
\begin{bmatrix}
1 & 1 \
1 & 1
\end{bmatrix}
$
It is a counterexample...
MisterSystem
Notice A is nilpotent
B is invertible
But B-A doesn't have full rank
So it can't be invertible
could u explain what nilpotent means? Sryy we havent learned that yet
A nilpotent matrix just means that there exists some natural number k for which A^k = 0
So the matrix of your example is nilpotent
In particular, if A is an n×n matrix
We have that if A is nilpotent, then A^n = 0
so since a^31 is 0; Matrix A is nilpotent
Yup
and if it nilpotent does it also mean that it is not invertible?
consider determinants
Yeah, a nilpotent matrix can't be invertible because it has non trivial kernel
By definition
The image of A^k-1 is in the kernel of A (we also have to make sure we pick k to be the smallest natural number for which A^k = 0, so we can guarantee A^k-1 ≠ 0)
But yeah, looking at determinants may be easier.
yea is it possible to prove that Matrix A is not invertible using determiants?
Yeah, a matrix is invertible iff its determinant is non zero.
The idea is that determinants encode multiplicative information about matrices.
yes I was trying to figure out how to prove that det(A) = 0
to show that its not invertible
but I wasnt sure how to prove that
you can help yourself with det(AB) = det(A)det(B)
wait
det(A^k) = det(A)^k
i've had a brainwave
you mean det(A)^k
yo is it okay if I ask a question or should I wait? I just want something verified real quick
FartSystem
Thanks lmao
probably better to wait til this question is done
It’s true in characteric 1
soo det(A^k) = det(A)^k right?
yes
Yeah
what did they say originally
kdetA
lmao
so now I essentailly need to prove that a invertible matrix - noninvertible matrix is not invertible
bruh
No
oof
they asked you to prove the opposite, so it suffices to give one counter example to show it's not true in general
no they said that if B-A is invertible then prove that it is invertible... if its not then prove that it is not invertible using a counter example
yes
note that erik gave you the answer like 1 hr ago
here
hey, I answered the question on the other channel

but if it helps, the steps are these
oh i'm a fool
figure out what properties A needs to have so A^31 = 0
figure out what properties B needs to have to B is invertable
figure out if B-A can become non invertable
if I've given too much away I can delet
okay so if A and B are n x n matricies then AB = I implies that A is invertible, right? This comes from the fact that if you have a linear transformation from R^n to R^n that is surjective then it must be invective. Is this right or am I having a brain fart?
so that I don't need to check that BA = I too
technically you need to show that BA = I
yeah I thought so too
That is correct
it works
is there a case where A and B are nn and AB = I but B*A =/= I?
if it's not surjective, then determinant is 0 so it can't multiply to give I
okay good I thought that I was on to something very wqeird lmao
ez
for rectangular matrices, but not square, yea
If you have a monoid where every element has a left inverse, then every element has also a right inverse and these coincide.
oof okay I see
well this isn't a monoid where every element has a left inverse, surely
Okay great, thanks to both of you! 
don't think so
wait
hmm
You also don't need any of this and only use properties of matrices too lol.
In any case, a totally algebraic proof is possible.
that was actually simple enough that i understood it without knowing what a monoid is
but yeah, same as saying a matrix A has left and right inverses L and R
so LA = I
LAR = R
noone needs to know monoids
not enough structure
Yup, the proof goes the same.
I mean, Eckmann-Hilton is nice :(
Probably the nicest result about monoids tho 
Or maybe I am just too damn ignorant
eckmann sounds like a reaction to a nasty food
that's like the best of the worst
minmax moment
monoids are cool
i think if you take like groups or vector spaces or whatever
with the operation of the cartesian product/direct sum/whatever you call it
they're a monoid
which is just really neat