#linear-algebra
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,w inverse of {{1,2},{1,1}}
You don't have the correct inverse matrix. It looks like you put A inverse in there insead
@wintry steppe
Np. Feel free to ask if you have any others!
How would I go about finding the intersection for 2 subspaces?
I've found a couple of resolutions online]
for small subspaces
I have a subspace of 3 vectors and one of 2
they're R4, if that's relevant
what form are the subspaces given in?
what's p(x), can it be smth like 1/x ?
convert it to column vectors first (to make it easier), e.g., where coordinate 0 is coefficient of x^0, ... , coord. 3 is coef. of x^3
then you have two linear combinations, one of vectors from A and one from B
set them equal to each other and solve to coefficients in front of vectors of one of the sets
how come they're equal to each other?
because you're looking for intersection
i.e. all points that can be expressed as both linear combinations
A * v1 + B * v2 + C *v3 + D * v4 - E * v5 - F * v6 - G * v7 - H * v8 = 0
is that it?
you set them equal to each other, then when you move those columns from B to the left, (negating them) and you get 4x8 matrix to solve
A * v1 + B * v2 + C *v3 + D * v4 = E * v5 + F * v6 + G * v7 + H * v8
right
now pass them to the left like I did
A * v1 + B * v2 + C *v3 + D * v4 - E * v5 - F * v6 - G * v7 - H * v8 = 0
yes, now solve for either ABCD or EFGH
yes, I meant, you only need one of two, sorry
just to make sure I'm getting the idea here, doing for the first row I would have that either a=-1 or h=-1, yes?
the bottom letters being the coefficients multiplying the entire vector
the equation for the first row being: a * -1 = 1 * h
rather
-a=h
wait, i thought botton letters just labels
I meant them as coefficients multiplying the entire vectors
that's why I wrote this equation out
ah yes
I ust never bothered myself to write them out, always had to remember where's what
unless they span the same space (or one is a subset of another), there should appear a restriction on coefficients
it should
every equation is a restriction
it seems both A and B(the sets) span the entire space of cubics?
I mean, they seem to be the same subspace already, just expressed differently
it is possible that that is the case, but I can't tell
I mean, when you find intersection, you will probably end up back where you started, not because something's wrong, but just because intersection of a space with itself, is that space again
so I just started reading about this group theory stuff
so XOR is considered an "abelian" or commutative group in the boolean space, but this link also brings up the concept of a "boolean ring" in contrast to a "boolean algebra" structure
The answer is that it is equivalent to the structure of a Boolean algebra (using AND, OR, and NOT) or equivalently a Boolean ring (using XOR, NOT, and AND). Specializations of this structure include
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/2599027/is-there-a-logic-gate-nand-or-etc-which-forms-a-group-under-the-set-0-1
but are all of these rings considered abelian, and why are they called "rings"?
I think you should ask in #groups-rings-fields
a ring is a different object than a group
both are studied in abstract algebra
rings come with 2 operations, not 1
hmm
ok...
which two operations are in XOR then
XOR is a single operation
the other operation in a boolean ring is AND
(to use ring theory jargon, XOR is the addition operator and AND the multiplication operator)
so the ring consists of {0,1} and the operations XOR and AND?
basically those operations are our defined allowed operations?
ok...
the boolean ring consists of {0, 1} with the operations XOR and AND
this ring goes by other names
so there is only one boolean ring?
like "The integers modulo 2" or "the field of 2 elements"
no, its just the most common example of a boolean ring
oh ok
so here
Boolean algebra (using AND, OR, and NOT) or equivalently a Boolean ring (using XOR, NOT, and AND).
what is the difference
it uses XOR instead of OR but...
your "default operations" are OR and AND
instead of XOR and AND
now, as it turns out
you can write XOR purely in terms of OR and AND
oh
and similarly, you can write OR in terms of XOR and AND
so these end up being equivalent structures
I see...
but at their "core" theyre defined using different operations
and you need to do a bit of work to show you can go from one to another
i mean the operations that make it a boolean algebra/a ring, respectively
this would perhaps be more clear if youre more familiar with other examples of rings
what's another example
well, i said that you can think of a boolean algebra as arithmetic modulo 2
oh right
arithmetic modulo n forms a ring
for any integer n โฅ 2
it wont be a boolean ring unless n = 2, though.
another example of a ring is all the integers under the operations + and *
*?
or you can replace "integers" with "rationals" or "real numbers" or "complex numbers"
there's a video by michael penn about types of rings where he shows some simple examples
these are fairly familiar examples
integers when multiplied or added will always yield other integers so this is what is meant by a ring?
but there are some weirder rings out there
but you can't include division
you define A/B as A x (B^-1) where B^-1 is multiplicative inverse, not all rings have multiplicative inverse so not all rings have division
basically a ring is a set two operations, commonly denoted + and *.
- (AKA "addition", though it doesnt always act like standard addition) makes the set an abelian group, so its associative, commutative, has identity, and has inverses.
- (AKA "multiplication", though it doesnt always act like standard multiplication) is associative and has an identity, but may not be commutative, and may not have inverses.
- and * are related by the property of distributivity: a*(b+c) = a*b + a*c, and (a+b)*c = a*c + b*c
if * is commutative, we call it a "commutative ring". if, furthermore, * has inverses as well, we call it a "field"
these are still rings
just specific types of rings
so essentially these properties
associative, commutative, has identity, and has inverses.
are dependent upon whether or not the result is also within the defined set
as an example, โ (the rationals under standard + and *) is a field, but โค (the integers under standard + and *) is not - its just a commutative ring
because we can "divide by rationals" and get another rational
but we cant "divide by integers" and get another integer
what are inverses
ah, i thought you were familiar with groups
nope, I literally just started
an inverse is an element that you can add/multiply by to get your identity
oh
in this case, something you multiply by to get 1
to get your identity element
so the inverse of the rational number 5 is 1/5
under standard multiplication
and the inverse of -11/3 is -3/11
so in addition the identity element is 0 if we use our integer example
to use a slightly more esoteric field
right
and the multiplicative identity is 1
now lets take a slightly weirder example
to demonstrate this
the integers {0, 1, 2, 3, 4} modulo 5
hmm
sure
huh
the only element without an inverse is 0
in general, 0 (the additive identity) will never have a multiplicative inverse
so in that ring(?) 2 and 3 are inverses
2 is an inverse of 3
3 is an inverse of 2
4 is an inverse of 4
1 is always the inverse of 1
nice
but to take another example
lets say instead we were working mod 4
so {0, 1, 2, 3} modulo 4
as it turns out, 2 lacks a multiplicative inverse here
we can check:
so back to the field definition
2 * 0 = 0
2 * 1 = 2
2 * 2 = 4 = 0
2 * 3 = 6 = 2
what makes it a field
because they have inverses such as 2 and 3?
EVERY element in the integers modulo 5 (except 0) has an inverse
which makes it a field
even though there is an EXCEPTION?
by convention?
0 * anything = 0 in any ring
ok
in the case of the integers modulo 4, 1 and 3 actually have inverses
1 * 1 = 1 and 3 * 3 = 9 = 1
but 2 doesnt have an inverse
so it's not a field
so the integers modulo 4 arent a field
wow
(in fact, one can prove that "the integers modulo n" is a field precisely when n is prime)
(5 is prime, but 4 isnt)
ok, thanks for your help, I gtg, we can talk here later
see ya.
howcome when they were finding the determinant they just got rid of the first column and the first row
i dont understand
Same thing here
expanding along the first column
if we expand this along the first column
it becomes: (will take a min to type)
Namington
but 0 times anything is 0
Ohhhh
a similar thing is done in your second image
using a row/column with lots of 0s makes the laplace expansion easy to compute
so they looked for a row/column they could fill with a lot of 0s
the first column was convenient for this
in theory they couldve chosen another instead
doesnt make much difference.
expanding on rows or columns doesn't make a different in the end right?
like if you chose the first row to compute
it doesnt
okay, thank you!
whats naive gauss elimination?
i believe thats the term for gaussian elimination implemented with a fixed order, usually something like:
- divide the first row by its first entry to make that entry equal to 1
- for each other row, if denotes is the first entry of that row, subtract x * (the first row) from that row
- repeat the above steps, replacing
first row/entrywith the next row/column in your matrix, until you reach the end of your matrix
im not addressing potential division by 0 because theres no standard way to handle it
its "naive" because its typically not the most efficient order to do gaussian elimination in
since you just apply the algorithm in the same order every time, without using any shortcuts
(the standard version doesnt even swap rows!)
but it ALWAYS works
itll always get you a row reduced matrix
so you can implement it in a computer without worrying
(just add some handling for division by 0 - say moving a pivot row to the bottom if its pivot entry is 0)
@wintry steppe
Does this proof work?
n/c
Suppose V is finite dim and T in L(V,W). Prove that there exists a subspace U of V such that U cap null T = {0} and range T = {Tu : u in U}
Can someone give me a hint for this problem?
fix a basis of null(T), then extend to a basis of V?
Wouldn't that mean that the basis of null T would intersect everywhere with the subspace?
??
let me clarify
for ease of notation, let n = dim(V) and k = dim(null(T))
take a basis v_1, v_2, ..., v_k of null(T)
extend it to a basis v_1, v_2, ..., v_n of V
and take U = span(v_{k+1}, ..., v_n)
this is what i meant.
But then we don't have that range T = {Tv : v in V}
For example Tv_k is undefind
But Tv_k in range T
Never mind sorr
v_k is the last vector in null(T), so Tv_k = 0
just wanna know if there's a flaw with my proof
what is E(z)
ez pz
E(z) is this
looks like the vector [a11, a12, a13] is an eigenvector of the matrix with eigenvalue 0.521
meaning 0.521 is a root of the characteristic polynomial, as confirmed in the line below
that's about as much as i can say from a random image with no explanation
and that the eigenvector is in the kernel of the bottom matrix
that's why i said it's a root of the characteristic poly
what they did is take the matrix from above, call it M, and take M - lambda I
where I is a 3x3 identity matrix
or at least that's what i'm guessing, i didn't actually subtract the numbers. let's see
,w 0.35 - 0.521
yeah
oh they just made the A-tI matrix
do u know how to get the principal components?
I thought thats the way but i may be wrong
for data arranged in a matrix M, you can get the sample covariance as 1/N M M^T
the matrix given is already the logs of the covariances
if the data was zero-centered, all you need after that is an SVD or EVD
idk if it is zer-centered
so you already start with a symmetric mat of log covariances?
Thats my matrix
and those are the eigenvalues and eigenvectores, respectively
shity maple has to write 0i xd
so i thought the principal components were calculated like here
where 0.521 is an eigenvalue
i'm not sure S is a covariance mat
well, assume it is. Maybe it is wrong but thats what teacher gave us
it is not symetric tho, as u pointed
maybe she confused, but
anyway
my understanding is that, given a covariance matrix, the PCA is the same as the EVD, which for symmetric matrices is the same as the SVD
but since this isn't symmetric, idk
isnt this the algorithm to calculate the principal components?
that's an EVD of a symmetric matrix, as i said
the other 2x2 matrix you gave isn't so nice
do you have the original task so that i can read it?
screenie
me da la impresion que ese es el problema
dejame probar en octave
logaritmo en cual base?
D:
so the matrix is bad
sec , ill fix it
also...
wait
why u have 0.35
and teacher 0.06
she used other base?
i have no idea wtf they did to get the third matrix
i found the cov mat of the log data
which SEEMS to be want they want to do
but they don't say
what they have is definitely wrong tho
sec, lets find the base
maybe they subtracted the mean?
by basic maths XD
the base is 10
i mean the base she used
can u, on octave, get the eigenvalues and eigenvectors easily?
yep
could u?
of which matrix?
yes, ' is transpose. complex conjugate transpose, to be fair, but these are real numbers, so it's just transpose
here, this e-18 number is actually 0. it's just a numerical precision issue
the vectors might be backwards
since you said you got 0 first
swap the columns in Q and the diagonal elements in D
ooooh wait
i made a small mistake
or did i? one sec
i forgot to divide by 6 earlier
this is my cov mat
why divide by 6 lel
in the EVD i sent earlier, i used the S matrix as your teacher gave it
ye i know, i noticed
give me one sec to do something else
yeah no, i still don't know what your teacher did
anyway
this is the covariance
i divided by 6 cuz of the 1/n
we have n = 6 samples
and got this
now i am supposed to get the principal components. But i need an algorithm, so i am doing (S - eigenvalue1 * Identity) = 0
is this correct?
i would just follow the procedure as done in wikipedia
could u take a look at some example?
what do you get out of doing that though?
mmm, i am just following the example she gave on a pdf, since what i saw on the wiki is more complicated
i would either just do an EVD, or do it as on wiki
i'm not sure where you're going by taking S - eigenvalue1 * identity = 0
do you wanna solve for the eigenvalue?
thats what the pdf sais to get the principal component
^
ah, so find the roots of the char poly and then find the eigenvectors
this is just an EVD

S - eigenvalue1 * identity = 0 this resulting matrix has det = 0
yes
well, thanks anyway, i wrote her
I need help in matrices and vector subspace question but for some reason I am not able to send it here. Someone who can help me? Please dm
<@&681260374879633482>
anybody help me with this question
<@&286206848099549185>
that's not abstract algebra or linear algebra
- you're in the wrong channel
- you're using the pings wrong
- read #โhow-to-get-help
why didn't it link
there
none cuz real numbers don't exist
@lavish jewel I tag you, because you're the only one who knows German, hope that's not a problem.
May I do such a thing?
i'm not sure what exactly R[x]<=1 is
All functions whose degree <= 1
ah
at maximum 1.
not sure why exactly you did it like that tho
lemme see
what i would've done is take f( 3(x+2) - 6(1) )
then you get 3f(x+2) - 6f(1) = 3(-2x+1) - 6(x+3)
Okay. So we just used what we have.
that's what i would say. maybe someone else has another idea tho
Why am I not allowed to this?
It's strange.
But just came to my mind.
hmm
the thing is the addition is an affine transformation
maybe i'm overthinking it
no, saying f( (3x-2)+2 ) = -2(3x-2)+1 is just blatantly wrong
f doesnt take real numbers as input, f takes polynomials as input
yes, but you cannot just substitute polynomials into other polynomials and expect that to factor through f like you just did
you're overthinking it and getting distracted by extra structure present on your vector space
f(x+2) = f(x) + f(2) = f(x) + 2f(1)
-2x+1 = f(x) + 2(x+3)
f(x) = -2x + 1 - 2(x+3) = -4x - 5
f(3x) = 3f(x) = -12x - 15
that's it
it's no different than if you were given a linear map g from R^2 to R^2 about which you are told that g(1,2) = (-2,1) and g(0,1) = (1,3) and asked to find the value of g(3,0)
hmm yeah, what you had done was kinda like... trying to put polynomials in a straight line
which doesn't make sense
yeah as i said, they were getting distracted by things other than the vector space structure of R[x]_\leq1
thanks for the help
Really thanks for the help.
what we did here is pretty much the trick of figuring out what a transformation is doing by feeding it vectors in a basis
one normally does this, e.g. using the canonical basis
here, they gave you examples with an order 1 poly and a constant, but it works the same way
you then try to express all the polys as a linear comb. of those "vectors" in the basis, and use all the nice properties of linearity
mathben
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Let $A \in SO(n)$ and denote the corresponding linear transformation on $R^n$ by
$L_A$. Show that if $L_A$ preserves a subspace $V \subset R^n$, then it also preserves its
orthogonal complement $V^{\bot}$ .
ไบๅๆจ ๅคขๅถ
what did you try @latent ledge
i don't have anything so far
hmm, well we are talking about orthogonal right
so i say consider the inner product, and how an orthogonal matrix interects with it
<u,v>=<Au,Av>
mhm try using this to prove the statement
i don't see how that connects to the orthogonal complement
well whats somethings orthogonal complement
$V^{\perp}={v\in R^n,|,<u,v>=0, u\in V}$
ไบๅๆจ ๅคขๅถ
yeah
0=<u,v>=<Au,Av>
yeah and now try reasoning out the statement from this
thank you for the help
can someone help me out with this one?
I need to find the intersection
I've been knocking my head against the wall for hours now
does the notation [blah] mean subvector space gerated by blah?
what did you try
I've transformed it to echelon form
and tried figuring out the equations from there
not only have I got nowhere, I'm not even sure of what I'm looking for
I suppose another, smaller (or at most equal), subspace
equations might help
if you have equations for U and other for W then joining them together is for intersection
well, I have the equations for both of them
I suppose that, since I have both of them
intersecting
it would be
W=U
v1 * c1 + v2 * c2 + v3 * c3 = v4* c4 + v5 * c5
right?
v1 * c1 + v2 * c2 + v3 * c3 - v4* c4 - v5 * c5 = 0
alternatively
well, I'm just saying that to illustrate that, the way I see it, there shouldn't be equations for either, but rather for both
those at the bottom are c1/c2/c3/c4/c5 which multiply each of the vertically alligned vectors up at the top
my camerawork needs a wee more practice, I'm afraid
c4 gets cut out cause it equals 0
I just don't know where to go from now
sry i cant see well but if you get a system of equations for U and another for W
then join the equations
you should be done
cuz if u have x belongs to U iff p(x) and x belongs to W iff q(x) then x belongs to intersection iff p(x) and q(x)
I've got a system of equations for both
since they're intersected
I suppose that the system on the left equates the system on the right?
like, I have that:
c1 + c2 + 2c3 = 0
and c1= -c2 -2c3
I can't really get anywhere from here
um
systems dont equal things (at least in the sense youre thinking)
each system is a bunch of equations
| 1 3/2 3/2 | | 1/4 -1 |
| 0 1 -1 | und | 1/4 -2 |
| 0 0 0 | | 1 0 |
this is the echelon form*
well
of both combined
feck
forget about it, I give up
I'll just hope this doesn't show up on the test
don't worry about it
Can anyone help me with this? I'm so lost ๐ญ
try doing substitutions with what you're given
What I'm given is b (rref A), but it asks about A column
no, youre given A and its columns as well
it is the first matrix that appears
the rref is the second one
i hope im not misreading something
2questions: 1. is dual problem equivalent to finding KKT pts or is there some difference and 2. can the lambda and v here be complex
the dual problem is related to maximizing wrt the lambdas and vs in what you have written
iirc they can indeed be complex, but depending on whether x is also complex, one has to be careful with differentiation
the lagrangian may not actually be differentiable, but one can use wirtinger calculus
what?
(left null space)
lol
if you did the previous one, you should have that x is in the null space of T
should be due to the definition of the (hermitian) transpose of T
I thought it just represented the possible values of T*
the upside down "T" there means orthogonal complement
the * should be the conjugate transpose
but are they both finding possible minimizers?
of the original constrained opt problem
yeah
iirc the dual problem with the lagrangian is to maximize wrt the extra variables that incorporate the constraints, followed by minimization wrt the original variable
finding a saddle point of the unconstrained lagrangian
thanks
and yea i think the intuition may be the maximum of the infimum being the exact minizer
Let A be complex n x n matrix and โจ , โฉ be a standard scalar product of complex vectors. Let $F(A) = {โจAx, xโฉ; x \in \mathbb{C}^n, ||x|| = 1 }$. What does F(A) look like if A is hermitian? Also, show that all eigenvalues of A are included in F(A) (even if A isn't hermitian).
does anyone have an idea how to approach this
Matejp1
wait which x do you take
do I have to take x to be a normed eigenvector?
@dire thunder
well yes
ok thanks how about the other part where i need to describe F(A) for hermitian matrices?
prolly a way to go is just first constructing a couple of examples
like trivially for identity matrix F(A)={1}
ok, i have an intuition that F(A) has to be connected with eigenvalues of A
but not sure how to prove it
hmm okay thanks for help
the eigenvalues part should be straightforward
not sure what they meam by what it looks like
it says I need to describe it
I suppose there is an elegant way to write what it looks like idk
I have absolutely no idea how to approach those problems from the last chapter
Can you help me with this one: Let A be a real symmetrix n x n matrix. Show that complex matrices $I - iA$ and $I + iA$ are invertible. Also show that matrix $(I-iA)(I+iA)^{-1}$ is unitary.
Matejp1
i think they might want something more elegant, but
spec(A) โ R lol
let's say we have this symmetric A. its eigenvalues are real, and so when we multiply by i, we get imaginary eig vals
then it's simple to show that eigenvectors of A are also eigenvectors of Ai + I
where the eigenvalues are 1 + i*(whatever eigenvalue A had, which are real, and so they only modify the imaginary part of the eigenvalue that always has a nonzero real part)
or -, if the iA matrix is subtracted
(this is the same as ann pointed out)
why do we get imaginary eig vals if we multiply A by i
because of this
symmetric matrices are also hermitian, and then it's straightforward to show that they have real eigenvalues
I don't see why multiplying A by i gives us eigenvalues multiplied by i
and a real number times i is imaginary, with real part necessarily 0
well, just use the properties of multiplication
namely, associativity
we have iAx
imaginary numbers are complex
just do i(Ax) = i(lambda x) = i lambda x
ok I see it now
ok I get the first part now
but how does that imply invertibility
all the eigenvalues are nonzero
oh i didn't know that implies invertibility
the determinant is the product of all the eigenvalues
oh and if determinant is nonzero it is invertible +
i can't see the second part off the top of my head
is it the determinant of A or B that i am trying to find thats equal to 0
A?
can u find determinants of nxm matrices or does it need to be n x n
det is a strictly square matrix property
if Ax=b doesnt have a unique x, then det(A)=0, and A is 3x3
alright thx :)
How do i know which row operations is the best to do to achieve row echelon form using gaussian elimination?
Is it just trial and error?
You can always do it by
- choosing the leftmost column
- Dividing everything to get 1s and 0s on the column
- Subtracting rows from eachother to have exactly one 1 left
- Rearrange the rows to put it in the correct spot
- Repeat for next column
your goal is to make every entry below your pivot variable 0
so for each column
identify your pivot
find the easiest way to do that
move to the next column
repeat
is that the easiest way of doing it? It seems as tho it is
but u can only do operations for the whole row
You can likely do it faster if you're willing to take advantage of 0s and stuff
That comes with practice
afaik i only need to make the 4 in row 3 a zero as well for it to be in normal row echelon form right?
I suggest swapping row 2 and row 3, as you don't want a 0 in the middle there
Then divide that by 4, you can put a 1 in the middle
Then finally divide the last row by -3
ahh yeah because if theres a zero in the middle it would have to be in the bottom right?
because that row has the most zeros
or idk
1 1 1 | 1
0 1 2 | 1/4
0 0 1 | 2/3
the row with most zeros have to be at the bottom right
or is it only if the row is all zeros
If there's a 0 where you think you can put a 1, swap it out
You'll be bringing empty rows down
why cant there a be zero in the middle?
Because you can't get rid of that 1, and you don't want that 0 above it
1 1 1 | 1
0 0 1 | 2/3
0 1 2 | 1/4
Like, you could get this if you don't rearrange, not row echelon
what do you mean?
oh im just trying to do regular row echelon form, it says i dont have to have the 1's
is there a requirement for the second pivot in the second row to be the next element of the column or not?
if u understand what i mean
like the picture above, the second pivot is in the third column not in the second
does that matter?
A pivot is always to the right of the pivot above it
cause as far as i can see there is no pivot in the second column
1 1 1 | 1
0 0 1 | 2/3
0 1 2 | 1/4
Breaks that rule, and is not row echelon form
A row swap fixes it:
1 1 1 | 1
0 1 2 | 1/4
0 0 1 | 2/3
If you don't need 1s for pivots, then you don't have to divide like I did. But you still do need the row swap
okay but does the second column always need a pivot thats nonzero?
cause i understand that the pivot is always to the right of the pivot above it
but is it one element to the right or just to the right in general?
This is also echelon form
1 1 1
0 0 1
0 0 0
ah so it doesnt matter where to the right the next pivot is
as long as its to the right of the one above it
Yaya
i see, i thought they had to be like
pivot 1 1
0 pivot 1
0 0 0
They often will be, but not always
okay thanks man
In a sense,yes
can anyone suggest me a good playlist on linear algebra ?
i really need that plz
gilbert strang's content
- From the Axe man himself:
http://www.youtube.com/playlist?list=PLGAnmvB9m7zOBVCZBUUmSinFV0wEir2Vw
- Robert Won, University of Washington:
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLoxJTbDttvt7ny0WEJHWw6-0Sjx7EImIQ
- Erin Pearse, Cal Poly SLO:
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLBUiHiRFQhsI--yc2PoCcK17fUR_mNJNH
3.a. Part 2, continuation of the above:
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLBUiHiRFQhsJg3fWe17OBx-PZYOKasoSA
- Aviv Censor, Technion University, Israel:
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLW3u28VuDAHJNrf3JCgT0GG_rjFVz0-j9
- I donโt know the dude, nor the institution. My best guess is Berkeley. From LADR 2nd Ed.
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLflMyS1QOtxwiN5oOuyY4W_8fZlTTnRcF
- For something different: Math the Beautiful. Itโs more โslice of life.โ
https://youtube.com/playlist?list=PLlXfTHzgMRUKXD88IdzS14F4NxAZudSmv
of course has a legendary playlist. I myself have found it useful for building intuition.
Enjoy!!! Most of these are lecture series based off of Axler.
2, 3, 4, 5, are really enjoyable and in my opinion very useful.
1 is added for completeness (but not recommend).
6 and 7 are fun.
@ mods, I think that set of playlists is sufficiently useful to merit being pinned. I hope yโall agree.
@dreamy iron
thank thank you so much
it's mean a lot to me
again thank you
I'm agree
Are you going through LA as a first pass, or as a second pass?
second pass
hola
I've got a rotation matrix that needs to be offset (it's object movement, the offset is for transferring it into a software with different coordinates), yet applying this offset through Matrix.Rotation(radians(-90.0), 4, 'Y') @ Matrix.Rotation(radians(-90.0), 4, 'Z') results in a value jump (as seen on the second pic). Is there a name for it? I'd like to avoid its occurence
it is correct to say, that the reason a vector space can have multiple basis, is because you can find multiple sets of linearly independent vectors that spans the whole space?
it's tautological
so calling something a 'reason' for itself is a bit... eccentric at best
thats all it came to mind haha, maybe theres a proof or something but idk
aside from some edge cases, it's very easy to construct two different bases for the same vector space
take one basis, and then construct another by taking the same basis and doubling one of the vectors
or just multiplying it by any scalar, so many options!
I'd try and reconstruct v1, v2 and v3 from linear combinations of v1+v2, v2+v3 and v3
b-but what about the vector space {0}!!!!!
?!?!???????!!!!!
i said
aside from some edge cases
i didn't feel like covering every single one, but {0} is one of those edge cases
even zero scalar?

What does it mean exactly when a systems of equations have solutions?
it means it was possible to solve it exactly
like using gauss jordan for example
i mean how would i find out how many solutions a systems of equatiosn have when its in matrix form?
find rref of matrix
rref is unique right so that means one solution exactly?
rref is unique
and if rref is identity matrix then exactly one solution
if you arrive at zero row in rref of matrix and nonzero corresponding entry in b vector then no solution
otherwise infinitely many solutions
you could also find it has no solutions
if a row has all 0s but ends in something nonzero
tha is what i said
but to know how many solutions then i would have to find rref ? It is not substantial to just find ref?
i read too fast, oops
well there are cases when you can find set of solutions' size w/o rref
but in general approach is find rref and it says you the number of solutions
or you can use determinant
So i have an example here of a systems of equations, there is a question that says "show that the systems of equations doesnt have a solution for a = 1/4"
So i would find the rref given that a = 1/4 and so i would apply the rules that you wrote before right
?
yes, but it seems for me that in that particular case it may be possible to avoid rref
i am not sure
but like your second and third equations should be equal then
is solutions also what we find when just doing row echelon form and then doing back substitution?
regular gauss elimination
they should be equivalent
you'll run into any inconsistencies eventually when back substituting
so the best way is to just do rref right
whatever you find easiest. and vimes said, in some cases it's pretty to just "see it" without even doing anything
in others, you need something that reveals the "rank"
okay thanks
whats a free variable exactly?
Is that like the variable "a" in the picture above?
it's a variable that always ends up multiplied by 0
so its value does not change whether the solution is reached
when is that the case?
when you get a row of all zeros
ah
is there any reason to know which variable is free and which is basic? As in why would i need to know that when performing gauss elimination
or whats the importance of it
not reasons, but rather, doing those operations will tell you which variables are free
so it's backwards
and yeah maybe it's columns, i'm eating and probably making many mistakes
yea i misworded myself, but whats the importance of knowing it after doing rref?
when constructing the solution to some system free variables are given as arbitrary constants
if variables are free, you have infinitely many solutions (if the system is solvable)
knowing which variables are free lets you express the general form of ALL the solutions
ye, it is columns
row would mean just that codomain has dimension larger than domain
but say you have a 4x4 mat with 2 rows 0, and 2 lin indep rows
you have infinitely many parameterized sols
well prolly me also picked wrong words
but point was that zero row does not guarantee by itself free variable
3x2 matrix is an example
i did put that it was in the case you already know it has sols, then 0 rows blah blah
some details missing ๐
i was never a mod
does leading 1's in every row mean one solution?
for square matrices, yes
and a complete zero row with the b also being 0 is infinite solutions
not necesarily
2x+3y=1
x+y=0
has a solution (-1,1)
and if we extend this system to be
2x+3y=1
x+y=0
x-y=-2
then it would still have exactly one solution tho there will be zero row
how can i idenfity an infinite solution matrice then?
Are variables that represent unknown matrices usually capital?
yur...
Thanks - is this by convention?
yes, usually
similar to side lengths being lowercase, angles being greek letters
$A=[a_{ij}]$
Mosh
๐
makes sense to me
sometimes with the law of sines, i remember angles being represented as uppercase letters
and the sides being lowercase letters
yeah, the vertices are capital letters
RIGHT
the points are
given that in geometry, a triangle is labeled โABC
using capital letters
you also sometimes get capital greek letters for matrices in some factorizations
Don't think I'm there yet, but I'll cross that bridge when I get there.
$M=P\Sigma Q^*$
Appreciate the help - respect ๐
Mosh
sanity check: i have a problem that says the 3x3 matrix
0 1 1
1 0 1
1 1 0
has 1 as an eigenvalue.
this is incorrect, and probably shouldve been -1, right???
yeah
If a $n$ by $n$ real matrix $A$ is diagonalizable and has eigenvalues $a_1 \leq a_2 \leq ... \leq a_n$. It's not hard to show that $||A||_2 \leq \rho \sqrt n $ where $\rho = a_n$ is the spectral radius of $A$ (assuming I haven't made any mistakes here). Is this true in the case $A$ is like the above, but possibly not diagonalizable?
phao
$||A||_2$ in there is the induced operator norm from the usual Euclidean vector 2-norm in $R^n$.
phao
To show that inequality, I used $||Ax||_1 \leq \rho$ for $x \in R^n$ with $||x||_1 = 1$. Then I used that $||x||_1 \leq \sqrt n ||x||_2$.
phao
So that $||Ax||_2 \leq ||Ax||_1 \leq \rho ||x||_1 \leq \rho \sqrt n ||x||_2$.
phao
The issue is that the way to show $||Ax||_1 \leq \rho||x||_1$ relies on $A$ being diagonalizable.
phao
And... $||A||_1 \leq \rho$ isn't true in general...
phao
Btw... $a_1$, above, is positive. Forgot to say that.
phao
(not sure if this is the right place to ask though)
Is there a professor Leonard YouTube series equivalent for linear anyone recommends?
3B1B's essence is a good series
certainly not like Leonard's stuff
Will i get different results for changing the order by which i multiply the matrices ?
like for example if i have 2 3x3 matrices A and B
Is AB not equal BA ?
in general yes
Alright thanks
Yes, matrix multiplication is not commutative
does free variables always mean infinite solutions?
yes, if your system results in free variables you have infinitely many solutions
unless working in finite field
would this matrix be considered in row echelon form ?
so when theres free variables it also means that you cant put the matrix into reduced row echelon form
because the answer has one solution only
Yes
You can convert it to RREF ,tho
Do R_1-R_2->R_1
isnt that reduced row echelon form
Yes
oh u answered the picture question
but wouldnt the third column be a free variable
columns that dont have a leading value right they must have a free variable
or am i wrong
No idea what to do here
I think that matrix im solving for is going to be D*R
okay I get it now actually, the rotation part confused me. I didn't get what it meant by rotating A into B. It just meant rotate A toward B
but reduced row echelon form seems to be able to have free variables as well, isnt that contradicting, cause that would mean that there is infinite solutions. Does that mean i intepreted it wrong and RREF there can be infinite solutions as well?
I don't think you need choice at all. The span of the v_i's has the v_i's as a basis. Then you can get such a map on that span, and extend this map to the whole V by setting everything outside to 0
It does need choice to expand viโs to a basis
You canโt set outside things to zero exactly, you have to set outside basis elts to 0
Oh you're right 
Things outside will still be nonzero, (v0+b) for some b in the basis
Also if raghuram still cares, I found out you do need some choice to do this but iโm not sure how much. There is a construction of vector space that has a dual equal to 0 in a different system (has no choice obviously)

Nice
Apparently you need the full strength
What I was saying gives you an equivalence between existence of such a function on (V,{v_i},v_0) to extendibility of a function from span({v_i}) to V. This thing is implied by the existence of a complementary subspace of span({v_i}), because if such a space exists then you could define an extension to be f(v+w) = f(v) where v is in the span and w in the complementary space. Also if such an extension exists then it gives a complementary subspace of span(v_0) by taking the set of zeroes. The existence of a complementary subspace of the span of a singleton for any singleton gives existence of complementary subspace of any subspace by taking intersections of [nvm this part doesn't work as I thought it would]
But we do get that the existence of such a function is equivalent to the existence of a complementary subspace for any singleton
Existence of complementary subspace for any given subspace is known to be equivalent and I feel that the singleton case could somehow be reduced to that
rref does not mean that solution is unique
rref may have free variables
{{1,0,0},{0,1,1}} is in RREF
yes
to turn it into rref i would just have the subtract row 1 and row 2 so i get a zero in the middle top row but why is it favorable to have it in rref form?
well
for ref you would have to do backwards substitution
for rref there is no need
as far as yesterday's discussion goes, btw, this will have no columns with all zeros, but it's equivalent to a square matrix with a row of zeros
is it true that a set of n vectors in R^m are linearly independent if n > m?
also if I have V and U subspaces of R^4 with dim(V) = 3 and dim(U) = 1, if U and V are disjoint then V+U = R^4?
I think so because if they are disjoint then the vectors of its basis would be all linearly independent after grouping them right?
Hi all. I can't seem to remember what taking a matrix $A^{25}$ even means.
Yes
you need to find the diagonal matrix using those eigenvectors, and then A^25 will be elevating the elements of the diagonal
Thanks for the hint @crude falcon. Let me work off of that
@hushed grove A^25 means multiplying together twenty-five copies of A
mind you, "what it means" != "how to find it", and jackieto answered the latter question instead of the former
true, also one silly question about diagonalization: why do I need to compute D = P^-1AP? I mean, when you compute the eigenvalues and its eigenvectors, you can check if the matrix will be diagonalizable or not, and if so, why can't you just find D? I mean you already know how it looks like already right?
you don't "need" to do anything
but if you wish to find a power of A then you will need the eigenvectors (and hence P) anyway
yeah I'm talking just in general, I've been taught to find the diagonal matrix that way, but just realised I know what D is before using that formula
the diagonal matrix holds the eigenvalues
i guess you could do P^-1 AP as a way to check yourself
Quick question, if we know that S is nilpotent where $S^{6}=0$, then how does it imply that $S^{3}=0$. Is it because $S^{6}=(S^{3})^{2}$.
Otoro
S^6 = 0 does not imply S^3 = 0, what are you talking about?
Oh so we're trying to prove that $T(z_1,z_2,z_3)=(z_2,z_3,0)$ does not have a square root. So we assume that there is $S^{2}=T$
Otoro
So I found that $T^{3}=0$, so we know that T is nilpotent
Otoro
Sorry about that
so what you really have is a 3 by 3 nilpotent matrix
any 3 by 3 nilpotent matrix has nilpotence index at most 3
while your sqrt(T) would have nilpotence index 6
Wait why is it 6 ?
okay i mean maybe that's a bold statement
it'd be better to say that (sqrt(T))^4 = T^2 != 0
and sqrt(T)^3 must be 0 by virtue of sqrt(T) being a nilpotent operator on a space of dimension 3
a nilpotent operator on a space of dimension 3, raised to the power of 3, must necessarily become 0
So you're saying since T has at most nilpotence of 3, sqrtT also has at most 3 ?
Ahhhhhhh okay, yup, N^{dim V}=0, for N being nilpotent
Gotcha thanks
Suppose V and W are finite-dimensional and that U is a subspace of V. Prove that there exists T in L(V,W) such that null T = U if and only if dim U โฅ dim V - dim W.
If we first assume that it does exist, then just note that by the fundamental theorem of linear maps: dim ker T + dim img T = dim V, so dim U = dim V - dim img T โฅ dim V - dim W, since img T is a space of W.
Now if we assume that U is a subspace of V such that dim U โฅ dim V - dim W, then let T in L(V,W) be defined by Tu1 = 0, Tu2 = 0, ..., Tun = 0, where u1,...,un is a basis of U, and define Tvi = w1 if vi not in {u1,...,un}
Then dim U โฅ dim V - dim W implies dim null T โฅ dim V - dim W, and again by theorem of linear maps: dim null T โฅ dim null T + dim img T - dim W gives us dim W โฅ dim img T, which is clearly true since img T is a subspace of W
Is this proof valid?
Wow so I didn't need to lose hope on getting an answer
oof
IDT the existence of the extension implies the existence of the complementary subspace. Aren't you just stuck with finding a complementary subspace of span(v_i) in ker(functional)?
Yes. I realised you can first take the quotient by span(v_i) and so assume there are no v_i, only v_0.
Maybe if any singleton has a complementary subspace we can prove Choice?
Are there any sources which derive the formula for elements of the inverse of the Hilbert matrix in a elementary way?
I was asked to compute elements in the exam but I couldn't figure out a general formula
Yeah thats what I reduced to
But not sure if thats possible, maybe I will go over the usual proof and see if it can be modified for singletons only
Can anyone comment on the proof I gave above?
the second direction looks a bit shady to me
lemme read it again
yeah it looks like you assumed both that U is the null space and that dim U >= dim V - dim W
@lavish jewel What do you mean?
Wait what's the usual proof?
Does it not need Choice even with complementary subspaces?
I think Edd meant you assumed U was the nullspace/kernel, as opposed to a general subspace
@nocturne jewel Null space of what?
Im just explaining what Edd said.
of T
someone please correct me if i'm wrong, as i often am. saying dim U >= dim V - dim W means also that dim V >= dim W. then in the worst case, dim U = 0 (i.e. when dim V = dim W) and an invertible (full rank, with im(T) = W) linear transformation T can be constructed, so that only T(0) = 0. otherwise, dim V > dim W, and then we can construct U' so that U dir. sum. U' = V, and a T can be constructed so that T(u'_i) maps to w_i in W and T(u_j) maps to 0. maybe something like that?
But I'm defining T @lavish jewel
i guess my issue was mainly with the wording
Which part?
idk if implies is the right word there
more like you defined T so that U = null(T)
i think i'm just nitpicking
@lavish jewel Implies where?
Then dim U โฅ dim V - dim W implies dim null T โฅ dim V - dim W,
the way you defined T, dim (U = null T) >= dim V - dim W
i think you should just ignore my comments ๐ everything else looks ok to me
as i said, it was a nitpick on the wording
Hello. The range of $T-\lambda I$, where $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue, is $T$-invariant?
MathPhysics
Suppose f and g are linear maps from V to F that have the same null space. Show that there exists a constant c in F such that f = c*g
I need a hint for this problem please
<@&286206848099549185>
?
Hello. The range of $T-\lambda I$, where $\lambda$ is an eigenvalue, is $T$-invariant?
MathPhysics
V is a vector space over F? is that all you're given?
Yeah lol
that doesn't look true to me in general, i think i'm missing something
It's easy to prove that there exists a constant c dependent on v
But I don't know how to show that there's a constant that works for all v
right
So I am stuck
it could be useful to write a basis of V, what happens to this basis under the transformations f and g?
I tried that
