#linear-algebra
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usernamephobic
@jovial furnace yeah since multiplying any row by c multiplies the determinant by c, and since multiplying an nxn matrix by c multiplies n rows by c which equates to multiply by c n times, ie times c^n
also @trail dirge could you define hadamard matrix for me
hmmmmmMMMM
man idk this is a hard question lol iโd have to think about it some more
yep it's hard.
But also consider that if $H$ is a Hadamard matrix then $H^T$ is also a Hadamard matrix.
usernamephobic
But I don't know if changing the rows and columns might or might not do the work
Also, I noticed something, in the second row, I think it will be 2*2! choices since you can order them any way you want
DAMN
๐ญ
But, I don't know if they satisfy $H.H^T=nI$
usernamephobic
<@&286206848099549185>
hmmm what is F?
a Field of Scalars
Shall i be trying for a linear map from V to L(F V) or the other way around?
you should first make the following observation and understand it :
ok
it is the key
but
arnt we looking for a linear map that maps a linear map from F -> V to V ?
that is injective and surjective
i dont see how that helps
An element of F->V f will be defined by where it maps 1
Yes, so we must for each linear map f, associate an element of V.
this is true, when we see F as a F-vector space, but it does not help.
when you have f, what is the most natural vector of V you can associate with ? (look at the observation)
v1 ?
i don't understand what you mean by v1
if v1..vm is a basis of V ig
No (and 1) as you define it the application will not be linear! 2) V does not necessarily have a basis...)
f(1) is an element of V do you agree?
yes
then you just have to define f --> f(1), verify it is an isomorphism
It is not magical when you consider V=R and F=R for example. all elements in L(R,R) are x->a*x for some a. So when someone tells you the real number "a", you can associate without any ambiguity "x->ax"
tip: work with the standard basis in both spaces and construct a fairly easy isomorphism
Just construct the inverse
after all what u want to show is that ur linear map maps a basis of V to a basis of L(F,V)
V is not necessarily finite dimensional
and when we can prove things without any choice of basis it's better
$T1: (T2:F -> V) -> f(1), f1\in V$
Yes
you guys are suggesting something like this?
Your notations are weird.
Well,it's T(f)=f(1)
Ok,why does that look similar to a dual functional?
so the end goal is to prove that F is injective and surjective?
You can show by constructing an inverse explicitly
wdym
- it's linear
oh right yea whoops
im quite confused actually
well in any case coupains approach works
can we take f1 in L(F,V) and map all the elements in F to 1 specific vector in V
why not
ok
yes
a constant function f is linear if and only if f = 0!
why is f a constant function
what you've just propose (map all the elements to 1 specific vector in V) is constant....
How do you show there is no natural isomorphism between a vector space and it's dual?
(For fin dim case)
i don't know why you are talking about duality since the dual of V is L(V,F), not L(F,V)
That's a different question
$T: f \in L(F,V) \rightarrow V$ we are considering this right ?
oh ok
Yes
T is a linear map that is supposed to map a linear map from F to V to V ?
for finite dimensions this is the case though right?
is T linear that way?
from (F to V) to V : yes
nvm
yes look at the definition of linear map, and check every requirement.
yep, its linear
so thats it then?
when f = 0 T(0) = 0 and T(f) = f(1) where f(1) is a vector in V and f is a linearmap from F to V ?
if its injective and surjective its invertible right?
oh
have i not shown that its surjective?
T(f) = f(1) where f(1) is a vector in V and f is a linearmap from F to V ?
er
What is the definition of a surjective map
You don't seem to know your definitions!
i know what surjective is
Or to understand them
everything in V needs to have something mapped to it
ok.
For all v in V there exists an f that is a linearmap from F to V such that T(f) = v
yeah
so thats done?
oh
lol
lmao yeh
T is the linearmap that will map a linearmap $f \in L(F,V)$ to a vector in V such that $T(f) = f(1)$ when T(0) = 0 (f = 0). T is surjective cuz f is an arbitrary linearmap from F to V hence f(1) is an arbitrary v in V ... so surjective ?
@wintry steppe
ok
you have v in R
ok
can you find a linear function f : R -> R such that f(1)=v ?
how do you define f(x) for any x in R ?
f(x) = xv
when someone tell you to find a function f : A -> B, you should give f(x) for any x in A, not just samples
yes ok
ok
you have just showed that if V=R and F=R, then T is surjective
because for each v in V you have CONSTRUCTED an example of f which works (f(1) = v)
ok
yes
If you take any v in V, if you define f(x)=xv, what is T(f) ?
T(f) = v ?
yes
"for any v in V, if I define f(x)=xv, then T(f)=v" isn't that exactly the definition of surjectivity?
yes
thanks
when we say the commutator is zero, i.e. $[A,B]=0$, do we mean 0 as number, or $0$ as $\mathcal{O}_{n}$?
Jonas~
as u might realize, the product of two operators is still an operator so formally what we get out of the commutator is usually an operator too
I for my part am just too lazy to explicitally write that down
Jonas~
why ppl denote it with 0 as number 0
the same reason why people write $[\hat{q}, \hat{p}] = i \hbar$ instead of $i \hbar \hat{I}$
Nabil
laziness
yea it's right
but $\left[\hat{q},\hat{p} \right ]= i \hbar$ can't even be written afaik
Jonas~
cause $\hat{q}$ and $\hat{p}$ are unbounded operators and for unbounded operators the commutator does not even exist
Jonas~
hey team, I know that row reduction preserves linear indepencece/depencdence relationships between the columns
but why does it also end up forming a basis?
I'm not sure if we're talking about the same thing but if you go through each one
- Row swapping - would not change lin. dep.
- Row scaling would not change dep.
- Row addition is a bit harder but I don't think that would change it either
mb,just ignore
what are you asking @limpid fiber ?
the basis is just the linear independent columns right
the operations preserve the determinant
er scaling yea
Oh I see @void relic I guess that is just the definition
I'm still unsure why if you row reduce A to B, they have the same linear dependence relations, but you cannot use the pivot columns of B as a basis for A
you have to use the columns of A
@limpid fiber when you say a "basis for A" do you mean a basis for the range of A?
You should be able to yea?
I think I mean "basis for the columns of A"
"Basis for the range of A" would be the same thing as that?
I think so
If you have a basis for the columns of A , then you have a basis for the range of A certainly.
nice
And if you have a basis for the range of A, then you certainly can express any of the columns of A as a linear combination of that basis.
So I'm pretty sure they are the same thing.
That makes sense
And the represenation is unique for any of those column vectors of A since its a basis.
I have high degree of confidence that it's o.k. but someone may know better.
Are you talking about this
oh that might be a different question I guess but follows from the previous discussion. So the pivot columns of a matrix definitely form a basis for the space, so I feel that it should follow.
cool cool, I feel like maybe I need to understand more about row reduction so I'm trying to find a good proof of the uniqueness of RREF
@limpid fiber On more thought, I think there might be a big assumption that I'm making that is possibly wrong and that is that the range of the A is equal to the range of B after row reduction.
and that might be the reason why you can't use the pivots of B as a basis for A.
hmmm interesting, maybe I am making that assumption implicitly as well, but it seems like it is true and not an assumption lol
because of what we said about lin. depence being preserved
That's what i thought too but now I'm trying to undersand whether preserving linear dependence implies preservation of the range.
preservation of linear dependence implies the preservation of rank (the number of linear indepedent columns) but do those new columns that have been transformed actually map to the same space.
that's the next question.
I see what you mean now, that's a good question
From that stackexchange answer,only the dimension is preserved
Not necessarily the space
interesting
So that seems to be the answer to your question
There is probably a special condition that needs to be satisfied by A and that has to be that it's invertible, I think.
would you mind expanding on that @native rampart sorry I am still getting familiar with terminology
dim of row space =dim of column space
Where row space is the vector space spanned by the row vectors
And col space is same except with col vectors
So if y is a vector such that $Ax = y$ and why can be transformed into B via elementary row operations, then you have that $Ax = y \implies EAx = Ey \implies Bx = Ey$ where E is an elementary matrix. The question about preserving range would be:
"Does there exist a z such that $Bz = y$"?
And maybe you can show that this is not true in general.
TheDon
Maybe just make a simple counter example.
I'm still trying to understand this, any tips/ resources (is this the rank-nullity theorem)
Not exactly
$\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 5 \ 2 & 5 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x_1 \ x_2 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 7 \ 7 \end{bmatrix} $ has a solution $\begin{bmatrix} x_1 \ x_2 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 1 \ 1 \end{bmatrix}$
maybe change this to a non invertible matrix...
TheDon
but if you subtract the first row from the second one, this corresponds to an elementary row operation where you end up with the matrix $\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 5 \ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix}$ and you definitely can't find a vector where you $\begin{bmatrix} 2 & 5 \ 0 & 0 \end{bmatrix} \begin{bmatrix} x_1 \ x_2 \end{bmatrix} = \begin{bmatrix} 7 \ 7 \end{bmatrix}$
TheDon
Yea
V_i are not necessarily finite dimensional, so no.
hmm i thought the were
and even if they are, it's more interesting to give an example of isomorphism that makes sense (like the one from the former exercise)
The question begins by "suppose V1...Vm are vector spaces" so they are no the same as those of the other question you mention
oh nvm then
ill see if i can do it
so uh
something like this works?
$T: (f_1(v_1), \dots , f_m(v_m)) = f_1(v_1,...,0) + \dots + f_m(v_m,...,0) \newline f_i \in L(V_i,W) v_i \in V_i$
@bright vapor
Yes
You are trying to find a function L(V1,W) x ... x L(Vm,W) -> L(V1x...Vm,W) ?
yes
at first glance i'd say it's a good idea but you really need to write down things correctly
oh whats wrong with it
when you define a function you should write something as :
T : A -> B
x -> T(x)
where x is in A
ok
here (f1(v1),...fm(vm)) is not an element of L(V1)x...xL(Vm)
in you picture
so it is confusing to read
Because we are looking for a function that takes as an input (f1,...,fm) elements of L(V1)x...xL(Vm)
the candidate isomorphism
Yes
is this ok?
Yes ๐
one sec
$T: L(F^n,V) \rightarrow V\
f\in L(F^n,V) ~st~ f(c_1,\dots,c_n) = (c_1+\dots + c_n)v ~for~some~v\in V ~and~ c_1,\dots,c_n\in F\
T \in V ~st~ T(f(c_1,\dots,c_n)) = (c_1v,\dots,c_nv) ~\forall v\in V~and~c_1,\dots,c_n\in F\
~It ~follows ~that ~T ~is ~an ~isomorphism$
Yes
okke
@wintry steppe how about now
er
V^n means just putting n vectors in a list right?
idk
doesnt say in question
ok
T(f)(c1,...,cn) = (c1+...+cn)v
i think this is what you wanted to say @thorny hemlock
slimvesus
sorry, yes that's it
oh, thats what i meant
@thorny hemlock it's the same as the first exercise you presented today
the same idea I mean
yes
i did not
S(v,...,v) = f where f(c1,...,cn) = v
not really familiar with constructing inverses
yh
:o
i understand the definition of inverse but never done an example with it
If we have like T: V -> W then the inverse is S:W -> V such that ST = I and TS = I , apply the function and inverse and always get back with what you started with
STv = v and TSw = w
ok
f(c1) = v1 ... f(cn) = vn where c1...cn is basis of F^n
yes
i think
ST(f) = S(f(c1),...,f(cn)) = S(v1,...,vn) = f
TS(v1,...,vn) = T(f) = (v1,...,vn)
@wintry steppe
ok
lol
thank you
is there a typo here?
should the nonstandard basis have n vectors instead of m?
am i missing something?
Yea
lmao
The standard scalar product is bilinear but not linear right? Does bilinear mean it's linear for the separate inputs of the scalar product but not overall, so we cant say it's linear?
Bilinear functions can't be linear
Yeah but for my undestanding it's not linear overall, but it still is linear for the separate inputs
if g is my scalar product g(x,Ry)=Rg(x,y)=g(Rx,y)
with x,y vectors and R a real number
If R is a scalar,yes
perfect
thank you
so a trilinear function is kinda the same thing just with 3 inputs?
cool
An example of a multilinear function is the determinant
Does the determinant change is "linear cardinality" based on the number of rows=columns of the matrix?
So if I have a 2x2 matrix the determinant is bilinear
Yes
1x1 determinants is literally just F
yeah
That statement implies v+u is always an element of w+U for any u
Which is same as saying v+U is a subset of w+U
Is this a test?
but if you are asking I guess you mean am I in a test rn and to that the answer is no
ok, then
Basically just check if T(cx+y)=cT(x)+T(y) to show T is linear
Then compute the dimension of null space
You find which elements get mapped to zero
*identity element
The zero element in P_2 is 0+0t+0t^2
Yes
So the element which gets mapped to zero, should be of the form a(1,1,1) for some a
okok got it now but couldn't all the ts be equal to 0 giving it like a rank 3
okok I see now
you have to see that this is a polynomial and not a function, t's are just placeholders here, only their coefficients matter
i have a 4x4 matrix, if it has 4 Linearly independent eigenvectors, then does it mean it has 4 different eigenvalues? or it could be different but repeating eigenvalues and so on?
So if I want to label out all the possible cases of having 4 LI eigenvectors, i will have eigenvalue a and b and one of them appear three times, then another possible case is a and b both appear two times and so on?
I could also have 4 distinct eigenvalues as this is one of the case?
Thank you
I am still not sure why this is true
does the matrix actually change under change of basis, it does, but its eigenvalues remain the same, they are similar matrices
so c is true
@hollow wren do you understand now?
Ok, I did not now know that similar matrices had same eigeinvalues. I also tried looking it up and some person did this: $|BAB^{-1}-(\lambda I)|=|A-\lambda I|$. And I do not understand why that is true could you pls help me understand why?
Owhenthesaints
because similar matrices represent the same linear map, just that they are in different basis , so they look different
okok thanks I sort of see it now
\begin{align*}
\det(A-\lambda I) &= \det(B)\det(A-\lambda I)\det(B)^{-1}, \
&= \det(B[A-\lambda I]B^{-1}), \
&= \det(BAB^{-1}-\lambda I).
\end{align*}
derivada.schwarziana
Hi guys. I have a couple of questions regarding Groebner basis
- can it consist of 1 polynomial?
- is { 1 } a valid Groebner basis (for some ideal I) ?
i still remain confused on how to prove whether a subset is a subspace of F^3. i know the subspace has to be a vector space, and it also needs to satisfy three main rules, but how do you prove it follows those rules.
this wording kinda sucks
Well,Those three rules exist to help you show the subset is a vector space
what i meant was,
So, You need to show 1)The set is a subset 2)The set is a vector space
yeah the question holds. how do i prove that
It's not a subspace
because it equals 4?
I mean (x1+y1,x2+y2,x3+y3)
(x1+y1)+2(x2+y2)+3(x3+y3)=
(x1+2x2+3x3)+(y1+2y2+3y3)=4+4=8
In general, You need to show a+b is in the set and ca is in the set for any 2 vectors a,b in the set and any scalar c
yeah i get those rules,
but i just dont know how to show, say, that a subspace does not follow one of them
Find vectors a and b such that a+b is not in the set
Or find a scalar c such that ca is not in the set
Yes
"There exists elements a,b and scalar c such that either a+b is not in the set or ca is not in the set"
got it, thank you very much
i feel like its a bit easier working with existence statements
Btw,what were the 3 rules?
if it has the 0 vector closed under vector addition and scalar multiplication
everyone just ignores the 0 part tho cuz like its pretty obv to check
Existence of 0 vector comes under scalar multiplication
na the scalar gotta be nonzero tho
That's arbitrary
nvm as long as its real
but like if the vectors are not defined when you set them equal to zero
thats a rule too
Anyway, You can reduce it to "A subset is not a subspace if there exists scalar c, elements x,y in the subset such that cx+y is not in the subset"
@pliant latch
Better ask in #groups-rings-fields
Could we say a linear transformation is always "odd" (the way it's defined in calculus) , because by linearity (f being a generic linear transformation) f(-x)=-f(x) ?
but if your field is not like R or C, what if I take the field as F_2 ? @winged axle
How are you defining affine subset?
The idea is to fix a vector a in that set and to show the set {v-a|v belongs to A} is a subspace
You know A={a+U:for all u in U} so A-a should be U
Which is the set {v-a: v belongs to A}
ok, thanks
Yes
this works right
u_1 is a vector in U
No
one sec lemme recheck
idk, i just put the same subscript lmao
why do they need to be related
How are you defining T(v1) without defining what u1 is
Is u1 some random fixed vector?
u1 is just some vector in U
If I take T(v1) and T(v2) do I get (u1,v1+U) and (u1,v2+U) respectively?
Yes
how is u_i defined given a random v_i?
sps u1 ... um .... are vectors in U u_i are non zero
im just mapping v1 to u1 etc
is that incorrect?
@native rampart
That's not very well defined
Let V=U' โ U. So,v=u'+u where u' is in U' and u is in U.(This representation is unique)
Define T(v)=(u,v+U)
i see
if A and B are symetrical matrices so AB is symetrical as well?
i know that A = A^T B = B^T and I gotta proof that AB=(AB)^T
(AB)^T = B^T * A^T
its not, if im not wrong
gotcha thanks
@thorny hemlock
Since $V/U$ is finite dimension, say of dimension $n$, it has a basis of cardinality $n$. That is to say, there are vectors $v_1,...,v_n\in V$ such that ${v_1+U,...,v_n+U}$ is a basis for $V/U$
skrub tub
if you agree with this, then the way to define T:V -> U x V/U precisely is as follows:
Let $v\in V$. Then $v+U\in V/U$ and by our basis there are UNIQUE scalars $c^v_1,...,c^v_n$ [the superscript $v$ is there to emphasize that these scalars depend on $v$] such that $v+U=c^v_1(v_1+U)+...+c^v_n(v_n+U)=(c^v_1v_1+...+c^v_nv_n)+U$. Thus $v-(c^v_1v_1+...+c^v_nv_n)\in U$. Thus if we let $u_v=v-(c^v_1v_1+...+c^v_nv_n)$ then $u_v\in U$. Hence we may define $T:V\to U\times V/U$ by, $\forall v\in V$, $T(v)=(u_v, v+U)$.
skrub tub
so if thats too arbitary, i can give some intuition
no its fine
yes
now you have to prove that T is linear, injective, and surjective
yep
How do we find out eigen vectors?
(and to find the eigenvalues, you'd find the roots of the polynomial det(T - lambda I), but axler being axler...)
lol
you didn't have to delete 
i had to get up for a moment
ya the eigenvalues are i and -i
(i'm assuming that F is the complex numbers here)
then the idea is to assume that (T - lambda)(w, z) = (0, 0), and then solve for w and z
substituting i and -i for lambda
(if however F is supposed to be the reals then you'd say this thing doesn't even have eigenvalues lol)
might be a stupid question, but does a plane need to pass through the origin in order to be considered a subspace?
yes, a subspace has to contain the zero element of the larger space
a plane not passing through the origin would probably be called an affine subspace
since it differs from a subspace by an additive constant vector
i'm probably overthinking this, but how would i go about doing this question?
since row and nullspace are orthogonal would i just set up a system of equations of dot products between z1, z2, z3, and x?
Yes
hello, ive got a quick question
what exactly are null spaces, i understand how to calculate them, i j dont get what they are
Do you know what a vector space is?
yep
The set of elements which get mapped to the zero vector is the null space
(ok,The fact that it's a vector space is irrelevant )
to expand on this, in mathematics, it's often useful to study when a given function maps something to the zero vector
in linear algebra, the set of all such vectors is known as the "null space" of the function
but you may encounter the term "kernel" in other mathematical contexts
which is just a more general term for the same idea
when dealing specifically with linear maps, knowing information about the null space/kernel actually tells us a lot about the matrix
perhaps the most immediate one is that a matrix has null space {0} if and only if it is invertible
so if you compute the null space and its trivial (only contains the zero vector), you immediately know the matrix is invertible; and if its nontrivial (has some other vector), it cant be invertible
in practice this makes for a very handy way to quickly justify why a given matrix isnt invertible
just show that you can find a nonzero vector that it maps to 0
because there's a bunch of other conditions which are also equivalent to invertibility, this gives us a lot of other properties too
the reason why it's often useful to look at the null space/kernel of a given function is that it basically tells us when a function becomes "degenerate"
if a function is well-behaved (such as linear functions obeying linearity), if they map anything to 0, that suggests a lot about when the function "collapses"
obviously we expect 0 to be mapped to 0
but if anything else gets mapped to 0, that suggests there's some "part" of the function's domain that "breaks down"
in the case of linear maps, this is why we lose invertibility: it means the function is no longer injective
and because of linearity, this is a very "concise" way to state that the function must be injective everywhere
since if it isnt injective at some point, say T(v) = T(w) for some distinct v, w
then certainly T(v-w) = T(v) - T(w) = 0 by linearity
but v and w are distinct, so v-w is not 0
hence if a function is noninjective "somewhere", it must fail the "null space is only the zero vector" condition
this is what i mean by saying the domain "breaks down"
i'm using very informal terms here since this is kind of a conceptual "feeling" that's hard to describe
but in general, knowing the null space of a matrix (or more generally, kernel of a well-behaved funciton) is one of the most powerful things you can know about it
since it tends to be very suggestive of the rest of its behaviour in that "part" of its domain
again, you can see that link i gave for a bunch of examples of just what knowing the null space is trivial gets you
o wow thanks!
a slightly more general property (which is the REAL reason we care about kernels) is that, given a linear function T: V -> W, image(T) is isomorphic to the quotient V/ker(T)
this is a bit more technical though if you havent seen quotient spaces before
but its very important
so important, in fact, that it pops up in many other areas of mathematics too (group theory, ring theory, category theory, etc) and goes by the same name in each of these areas
the "first isomorphism theorem"
[or sometimes just "the isomorphism theorem"]
anyway, i digress
just know that theres a lot of "deep" behaviour going on which you might explore later
i think i shouldve asked this before but how does a vector map to a zero vector?
well when we say a matrix "maps" a vector to a zero vector
we mean that, if the matrix is M and the vector is v
Mv = 0
ahhhhhhhh
so left-multiplying the vector by M gives us the zero vector
if you're familiar with the association between matrices and linear transformations
this is the same thing as saying T(v) = 0
where T is the linear transformation associated with M
hence why i use those terms interchangably in my wall of text
yeah, its kind of conceptual/theoretical and hard to realize while youre doing the computations
but it's a handy thing to know about
Another stupid question here
But is it true that $\forall A \in \mathscr{B}(\mathbb{R}^{n})$, is it true that $T : \mathbb{R}^{n} \rightarrow \mathbb{R}^{n}$ is linear iff there exists $k \in \mathbb{R}$ such that $\int_{T(A)} dx = k \cdot \int_{A} dx$?
MisterSystem
I was thinking about this
Linear transformations are exactly only those who uniformly scale area.
Idk if this is true
Proving that linear => uniformly scales area is easy
But I just can't find a counterexample to the converse statement, neither can I prove it.
The Borel Sigma Algebra generated by the open sets of R^n
That is
I'm considering only lebesgue-measurable subsets of R^n of course.
In that case I should write it as dฮผ instead
To make things more clear.
the statement they gave is very precise
and it isn't that.
[replying to deleted message]
Yes, thank you Namington, that was error on my part
thats an interesting question though, i see where it comes from intuitively but i wouldnt know an approach off-hand
Really ? I thought it was all about manipulating that integral in a smart way, it's just that I feel too uncomfortable to do this kind of manipulation in abstract yet.
For example, I didn't even know the formula for the change of coordinates back then.
Sometimes I just think about these problems without even knowing the proper tools to deal with them lmao
I'm not completely certain this works, but if you consider
$T: \mathbb{R}^2 \to \mathbb{R}^2$
$T\binom{x}{y} = \binom{\frac{x^2}{2}+y}{x}$
It's certainly not a linear map, but the jacobian matrix is
$$\begin{bmatrix}x & 1 \ 1 & 0\end{bmatrix}$$
so $\int_{T(A)}dx = 1\int_Adx$
~S^1
If I want to compute the eigenvalues of a matrix, I cant reduce the matrix and then compute the eigenvalues, I need to use the initial matrix right?
But there is a way to use gaussian elimination too, but in a different way , not full gaussian, to compute eigenvalues
that is you make one row of A- kI "0", by which you will get a characteristic polynomial p(k)
@winged axle but it is really time consuming if you have more than 3X3 matrix, and finding a determinant is often a quicker approach
still it is useful to know and use
why does this work? think about it , follows from the definition of eigenvector/eigenvalue
hey guys... anyone here familiar with linear algebra and principal component analysis? im writing a high school essay and i had a few doubts, mainly to do with the covariance matrix and final projection of data
if anyone is willing to help out, id appreciate it
Hello all, Quick question about Eigen-stuff
I understand the process of finding eigenvalues, but I can't quite intuit eigenvectors
pancakehammer
My understanding is that when you subtract lambda from the main diagonal each eigenvalue makes the det = 0, in other words, the columns linearly dependent.
However, how is it then that the corresponding eigenvector is the vector from this NEW transformation that is mapped to zero?
Hope this makes sense, thank you
the justification is just algebra btw
$Av = \lambda v$ rearranges to $Av - \lambda v = 0$, and since $\lambda v = (\lambda I) v$, we can factor out $v$ to get $(A - \lambda I)v = 0$
Namington
and of course your``subtract lambda from the main diagonal" is just what you're doing when you subtract $\lambda I$ from $A$
Namington
(here "I" denotes the identity matrix of the appropriate size BTW)
Indeed, but can't algebra also be intuitive ๐ข
Maybe i am missing something looking over again
well i'm honestly not aware of a more "intuitive" explanation
check the definition: does T(0,x_2,...,(n-1)x_n) = 1 * (0,x_2,...,(n-1)x_n)?
[hint: no.]
well it doesnt
right, so that doesnt work
what i did was
Tv - 1 * v = 0 and let v be a general vector (x1,...,xn) (as its defined on)
whats wrong with this?
okay, so solve for v
hm solving for v led to me what i sent above
you should have $(x_1, 2x_2, \dots, nx_n) - (x_1, x_2, \dots, x_n) = 0$, right?
Namington
after simplifying
ye
so $(0, x_2, 2x_3, \dots, (n-1)x_n) = 0$
Namington
yes
solving each equation gives $x_2 = 0, x_3 = 0, \dots, x_n = 0$
Namington
ok i forogt to set it to zero lol
which is... a problem
right
x_2, x_3, .... x_n all need to be 0
but x_1 doesnt have to be
x_1 can be whatever
ye
now the zero vector can never be an eigenvector
yep
but fortunately we can change x_1 as we need
yep
ye
It's impossible for a real matrix to have an odd number of complex eigenvalues/eigenvectors right? since they always have to come in conjugate pairs?
Eigenvalues are roots of the characteristic polynomial, and complex roots come in pairs
okay cool
one more question: if A is diagonalizable, then is rank(A) equal to the number of nonzero eigenvalues?
yes, as when you change basis to diagonal form, the rank is preserved
and the rank of a diagonal matrix is precisely that
very bodacious

thank you both ๐
it's important to read the form of these subspaces, not the actual letters
let S be the rhs of the eqn in the 1st pic. it consists of vectors of the form '(smth, smth else, 0)'. take any vector in U+W, it has a form (x,0,0)+(y,y,0) with x,y in F. by usual defn of addition this is (x+y,y,0) which does have the form (smth, smth else, 0), and so it's in S
yeah but why is it y
and not x + y
im still confused on that part
oh wait
could you explain that
what
You could just do a substitution of X+Y to X
recall what i said at first
it's important to read the form of these subspaces, not the actual letters
S={(x,y,0): x,y in F}. you should read it as
S consists of vectors of the form '(smth, smth else, 0)'
likewise you should read U as the set of vectors of the form (smth, 0, 0), and (smth, smth, 0) for W
i'm not done
to show U+W=S, we must show U+W is a subset of S and S is a subset of U+W
i just showed U+W is a subset of S by taking an arbitrary vector in U+W then showing it's in S
i leave it to you to show S is a subset of U+W. you do it by taking an arbitrary vector in S then showing it's in U+W
i did half. you do the other. you're welcome
is there a way to do this without literally just computing it
i got it w/ computation but it just seems like that's not the intended way
the angle is arccos of that
$\angle(x,y) = arccos\left(\frac{\langle x, y \rangle}{|x|\cdot|y|}\right)$
jesse
well it's intuitively true
let me try to think of a less computational way to prove it
Note T is unitary and unitary matrices preserve angle?

oh i mean the angle preserving part is easy
that follows from the previous question
cuz all o/g matrices are angle preserving and yeah T is orthog
i just mean angle(x,Tx) = theta
i can't immediately think of a way to prove that $\angle(x,Tx)=\theta$ that isn't just writing out the left hand side
TTerra
ยฏ_(ใ)_/ยฏ
i'll get back to you in a few years when i am done this lie groups problem
hint: ||use cauchy schwarz||

you can show as a corollary to that problem that linear transformations are continuous everywhere
since that one shows that they're continuous at 0
corr. to 1-9?
1-10
o

interesting
i convinced a friend to work thru this book with me

he's way better at math than me tho lol

$$ |T| = \sup\left{ \frac{|Tx|}{|x|} : x \neq 0 \right} $$
TTerra
problem 1-10 shows that the supremum exists
and then this thing defines a norm on the space of linear maps $\bR^n \to \bR^m$
TTerra
and it generalizes to normed vector spaces!

of possibly infinite dimension
possibly
possibly 
anyways that's just a tiny little aside for why that problem's nice
a lot of problems in spivak are like this btw 
(the supremum exists whenever the map is between finite-dimensional spaces, but if you try to generalize to infinite dimensions it may not)
is this an open problem
(thus one must distinguish bounded linear operators, those whose operator norm is finite, from the unbounded ones, defined accordingly)
or
here's an example
well
differentiation is an example
what else...
well there are at least two pretty obvious examples of maps for which the supremum exists, namely the zero operator, and if the codomain and domain are the same, the identity map
as for an example of one for which the supremum is infinite, some kind of differentiation operator, say
differentiation is LT is always cool fact
for example, differentiation on the space of continuously differentiable real-valued functions defined on [0, 1], with the supremum norm, is unbounded.
something along those lines, maybe?
in chapter 4 there's an exercise called "a first course in complex variables"
and it has you prove the cauchy integral formula


I'm trying to teach these people in #chill how to flirt I will come back and read after
sounds painful
wait maybe this example fails
let me think more
ugh
let me replace it with a safer example
๐

because the previous space was finite-dimensional and i don't think that's a great setting for an example of an unbounded linear operator...

me, who just took a course titled "linear operators," forgetting how linear operators work
linearity is a lie
so lets say $v_i$ is a generalized eigenvector of $A$ with rank $i$ ($i\geq 1)$ associated with eigenvalue $\lambda$.
Is it true that
$$Av_i=\lambda v_i+v_{i-1}$$
?
nix
yeah
has to be, look at the definition
Yes, This follows from all matrices being upper triangulizable
just clarifying so that i'm 100% sure im doing my proof right. everything i know about them is from wikipedia ๐ฆ
$(A-\lambda I)^{i-1} (A-\lambda I)v_i =(A-\lambda I)^{i-1}v_{i-1}$
Merosity
so it would follow then that $$A^2v_2=\lambda^2v_2+2\lambda v_1+v_0$$
right?
where $v_0$ is a regular eigenvectors $Av_0=\lambda v_0$
nix
rero rero rero
i'm having some trouble understanding what this question is even asking, our teacher taught this today but i don't get it at all.
what exactly is I?
I is the identity matrix, the one shown here
ohhhh
wait so what's the eigenvalue?
that's what you multiply by the vector
ok so from what i've understood you have an equation Ax = lamba*x where x is a vector
Yes
what are lambda and A in the equation then?
Given matrix A, ฮป would be an eigenvalue
You can't cancel them out
oh
You can use properties of the identity matrix
i see
i think i get what the question is asking now
thank you for the clarification
Np
They're not equal but you're hitting upon the main idea. An eigenvector is one which is only scaled when multiplied by a matrix. So When you have Ax=lambda x that is telling you that multiplying x by A is exactly the same as just multiplying the vector by lambda. The reason this is extremely useful is that multiplying a vector by a scalar is much easier than multiplying it by a matrix.
thank you, makes a lot of sense now
Hi I have a problem where I have to construct a 2x2 matrix that itself is no diagonal, but if you square it, it becomes diagonal. I was able to find one :
[1 1]
[1 -1]
but I'm having trouble putting into words why it works. Like I get the order of how we multiply the matrix leads to it, but I feel like there's a bigger pattern I'm missing
I'd say in this case the eigenvalues were complex and when you squared it the eigenvalues became real
or maybe not I didn't actually see what you did heh
alright thank you both so much
idk if that works here, I think the eigenvalues are +-sqrt(2) lol
also any matrix which only has eigenvalues 1,-1. then it is its own inverse
dont necessarily have to be distinct do they?
take any 2x2 skew symmetric matrix
idk can you, I think it would only guarantee that it's symmetric not necessarily diagonal
for 2x2s you can since theres only one skew symmetric matrix really ๐
I had wrongly assumed that they originally put the 90 degree rotation matrix cause I know that squares to diag(-1,-1)
but I jumped ahead of myself there
yep. and the 90 degree rotation and its scalar multiples are the only skew symmetric 2x2s
right, but that's not the matrix they put
good point though haha
yeah theirs is not similar to any 90 degree rotation either since the determinant is negative
oh it think i see it
how to prove that for every matrix A , A*A^T is symetrical?
if a 2x2 has eigenvalues k and -k then it should square to a scalar matrix
so that means a trace of zero and a negative determinant should always do it
scratch that it looks like a trace of zero is a sufficient condition
makes sense
for a matrix B to be symmetric it needs to satisfy B^T = B
so AA^T = A^TA?
no that's not how the defn is applied
for a matrix B to be symmetric it needs to satisfy B^T = B
plug AA^T as B in the defn. we must show (AA^T)^T=AA^T
yea i just got rid of the brackets
@gray dust but how do u keep on from there
use what we know of transpose
you should know (XY)^T = Y^T X^T
it flips the order of them it doesn't distribute or something
oh right
@quartz compass so thats all?
lol yea i just realized by looking on it
how is this
its works for matrix from any order right?
or i need to prroof it?
yea sr
yes
so like A is assuemd to be any nxm
got it, thanks
Is proving the law of cosines with the dot product a valid way to go about it? My friend says no because the dot product is defined by the law of cosines, but someone else said yes because you can assume the dot product as true
Heres the proof https://youtu.be/yALhe0XyA28
For Guidance Contact : anil.anilkhandelwal@gmail.com
It's good to understand the algebra they're doing, but every proof that vโw (defined algebraically as a sum of products) is equal to โvโ*โwโ*cosฮธ either uses the law of cosines or (extremely rarely) basically does all the work of a geometric proof of the law of cosines anyway. So you could make a non-circular argument by proving the fact about the dot product by doing all the geometric work for the law of cosines, and then do the proof in the video, but that would not be common.
I recommend you don't worry about whether something like this is circular, because they can often be made noncircular by someone rephrasing a proof somewhere else.
I see, thanks!
@wintry steppe what's up w/ the notation in 1-12? Like why does he write $\varphi_x \in R^*$ but then defines $\varphi_x(y)$?
jesse
Where does y come from 
$(\mathbb{R}^n)^*$ is the space of functions $\bR^n \to \bR$
TTerra
hahaha that makes more sense now I thought he was giving us the definition of a dual space here
yeah
lol
dual space is always just linear maps to the base field
TTerra
will do
show that the map $V \to (V^)^$ defined by $v \mapsto (\varphi \mapsto \varphi(v))$ is an isomorphism if $V$ is of finite dimension
TTerra

then you can understand this
It's invfact not tricky
is it 
i guess?
yes
now
it means that the function R^n -> (R^n)^* is also surjective
(the "unique" part follows from injectivity)

