#discrete-math
1 messages · Page 178 of 1
is there a room for real analysis ?
the degree of a vertex is the number of adjacent vertices
yes
thats the same thing
two vertices are adjacent if they are connected by an edge
oh yeah, mb
your second picture is a multigraph
there you have to define degree via edges i guess
anyways, the image still has two vertices of odd degree (1 and 5)
you can prove it by induction, imagine starting with a graph of all vertices, then each is of degree 0 which is even, then every time you add an edge you're changing (even, even) to (odd, odd) or (odd,even) to (even,odd) so the total odd degree is always even
the e is the number of edges
imagine the graph having no edges and then think about what changes when you add just one edge at a time
the idea of the handshaking lemma is that if you sum up the degrees of the vertices its the same as counting every edge twice, since every edge connects two vertices and thus contributes +2 to the sum of the degrees
then you can deduce (c) since the right hand side of the equation is even, so the left hand side must be even as well, so every odd summand must be "cancelled" by another odd summand
(or you can think about it like mero suggested)
well
the sum of an even and an odd number is odd
odd and odd is even
etc
so if there were an odd number of vertices with odd degree
the LHS would be odd
you cannot have an odd number of vertices with odd degrees
it means there is an odd number of edges connected to that vertex
yes
no, this is a graph
but there are 2 (even number) vertices with odd degree
you cannot draw a graph with an odd number of vertices with odd degree
(try doing it and observe how the degrees of vertices change when you add an edge)
(this is what meros idea boils down to)
i dont think so
at least nothing similar
this might depend a lot on how this was presented to you
but basically if you ignore the backtracking and make all the edges undirected, you get a tree (forest)
you can also define that via discovery/finishing times
Does anyone know how to prove that 3|(x−y) defined on Z(Integers) is a symmetric relation?
I need to prove that it's an equivalency wich means I have to prove that it is reflexive,symmetric and transitive
what does it mean to be symmetric?
what DFS returns exactly depends on your implementation
if it returns a directed graph, you can turn that into a tree/forest if you only consider the forward edges (i.e. ignore back-/sidetracking) and make them undirected
alternatively DFS may return discovery times of vertices
i.e. when was a vertex first discovered and when was it finished (all children have been found as well)
you can use this data to construct a tree
ah yes, those
there are like 4 types of edges and i dont know all the names from the top of my head
makes sense to call them tree edges i guess
since they give you a spanning tree
is anyone here good at induction or discrete math in general
Yes
Yes
no :(
dpends
^
I'm definitely missing something fundamental but
for (c)(i) I said if we assume the function is part comp then there exists N such that f_N,1=g and hence g(N)=f_N,1(N)=f_N,1(N)+1 which is a contradiction
I'm assuming (c)(ii) is a part comp function but why does this exact same idea not work
I really have no clue to be honest,idk how to approach the problem.
in the example they show they give = which is symmetric, all it really means is x=y is the same as y=x
so try to write the same thing with x and y flipped and see if that holds
Hey guys any hints on how to approach this; trying to prove a graph with minimum degree of 3 has a cycle thats length is not divisible by 3
what was the exact wording?
u can make a line graph for example with degree > 3, no cycles
Cant you make an infinite ternary tree with no cycles
typically degree refers to the degree of the vertices, and graph means finite simple graph
Uh i got a hint from someone who said let say a,b,c be the adjacent vertices to an end point say x on the largest path of the graph
yea every vertex in simple graph is at least degree 3
is what it means
and if cycle1 = (x,a,...b,x) and cycle2 = (x,b,...c,x)
if either isnt length divis by 3 we done
otherwise assume both are length divis by 3
would this imply (x,a,....b,....c,x) is length not divis by 3?
nevermind i think i got it haha
@spark silo all trees are circuit free
with purple example it means that it is not circuit free
at least you remove red edge
yes
how could I go about proving this? I was thinking I could prove that a cycle exists since the graph effectively only has a "starting node" and no "ending node" but I'm not sure how to mathematically word that
you could prove that a tree on n>=2 nodes has at least two leaves
(leaf = node of degree 1)
to mathematically word what you want, you may want to show that if G has n vertices, then G has n+1 vertices, then use induction to conclude for all k, G has more than k vertices.
By has i mean has atleast
@ember saffron
hi:)
Are you familiar with the fact that if a tree has n vertices then it has n-1 edges or not yet?
yeah I am
Use that to prove what Ann said
Also recall that sum of degrees = 2 * number of edges
so I've got the sum of "all the unknown degrees" (i.e. taking out the known degree 1) to be 2n-3, I think I wanna say "looking at this new graph without the first leaf, 2n-3 = 2(n-1) -1 i.e. the extra -1 shows there's a leaf in this new graph, therefore in the whole graph there are 2 leaves"?
I'm imagining this graph as just a straight line of nodes of order 2 with obvious leaves at either end, my explanation makes sense in that case but there's probably other shapes that make it a bit less rigorous
Suppose a graph has exactly one leaf and is a tree.
Then one vertex has degree = 1, and all other vertices have degree >= 2.
What does that say about the sum of the degrees?
the sum's odd
We don't know the degrees of the other vertices
yeyeye brain missed >
Okay, so?
well
if you take out the d=1 vertex you've got a sum of 2(n-2), put it back in you have 2(n-2)+1 which is basically what I said earlier, not entirely sure what mathematically that tells us
Well
You don't have a sum of 2(n-2)
That would be assuming every other vertex has degree 2 and not >= 2
Well, yes, but I want you to add the degrees not the edges
Sum of degrees >= 1 + 2(n-1)
Can you see that?
ah ok ye
Since the one vertex has degree 1, and the other n-1 vertices have degree >= 2
since the formula I keep using is basically the minimum
So sum of degrees >= 2n - 1
Now remember that sum of degrees = 2 * number of edges
So what is 2 * number of edges?
if it's a tree that's 2n-2 which is obviously less than the minimum
Yes
So you get 2n-2 >= 2n - 1 which is a contradiction
So your assumption was wrong
not bad 😄
I think I was too stuck on using the degree formula, wasn't really thinking about how I could work towards a contradiction
proofs are probably my weakest area of any maths so makes sense
Practice will make you better, dw
hopefully lol
speaking of practice, I have another one that's slightly harder if you're up for it
it's an extra exercise so it's intended to be quite bad
I'm thinking that like, if you remove a vertex you remove at least one edge, whereas if you remove an edge you remove at most one vertex, but actually that kinda makes no sense
Have to have lunch now. And this one is not immediately obvious to me anyway. Woukd have to think.
sure no worries, I'm gonna work on it for a bit
@stray reef / @red nest you guys able to help with this one? thinking I could actually use some kind of cycles idea buut not sure how I'd start it
assume k > l for the sake of contradiction
highlight a set of l edges whose removal disconnects G
for each highlighted edge, highlight a vertex incident to it
cut out all l highlighted vertices
the l edges must also go, so G will wind up disconnected
but then we have disconnected G by removing less than k vertices
by incident do you mean connected?
(I call vertices nodes, degree order, hate how many ways there are to say the same thing in graph theory lol)
two vertices are adjacent if they are connected by an edge
two edges are incident if they share a vertex
a node is incident to an edge if the node is one of the edge's endpoints
I see, I hadn't come across that term
thanks both 😄
honestly graph theory makes me wish I'd been able to do more of it in earlier years, I'm effectively doing an intro module in my final year 😦
Quick question, in a digraph if u_(i+1), u_(i+2)......,u_(k) is a walk, is it correct that the number of its arcs is k-(i+1)?
Oh nvm, I figured its k-i arcs
No
"In general, two edges are “incident” if they share a common vertex. Not only edges, but vertices can also be incident with an edge. A vertex is incident with an edge if the vertex is one of the endpoints of that edge."
Quoting from a discrete maths textbook
Very weird where are you from?
France
Im surprised terminology varies this much.
I have 4+ combinatorics/graph theory books and they all use incident differently.
From most English textbook, you're completely right that the second terminology is much more frequently used
If we're given a digraph on n vertices and some walk of length n (that is the number of arcs involved in that walk), can we conclude that there is some repeated vertex on that walk? If it had been a path on n vertices, it would've been a directed tree, and we know any tree on n vertices contains n-1 edges (arcs).
You've got p vertices, of which you supposed at most 1 has degree 1 so at least p-1 are of degree 2
So sum of degrees is at least twice the number of vertices of degree two which are at least p-1 plus the sole vertex of degree 1
The reason for the weak inequality is precisely the assumption that you have at most one vertex of degree 1
in the case where all vertices are of degree two you get: sum of degrees = 2*p and that is greater than than the other case where you get exactly one leaf (vertex of degree 1)
yup, is it not what we assume at the start?
"Suppose there is at most one vertex of degree 1"
at most 1 means 0 or 1
if you want to find "at least one" in a venn diagram, is that Card(AUBUC)?
Wdym?
Can you be more precise
at least 1 = no. total possibilities - no. of cases with no one
And what do you call by at least 1?
nvm, it would be the sum of all
a practical example, if these sets represent some newspaper and the cardinality is the number of people that read each newspaper, and I wanted to know the number of people that "at least read one newspaper"
is O(n) the same as O(f(n))?
No
oh ok, i gotcha
if you want to know the cardinality of the resulting set, look up the principle of inclusion-exclusion
if you just want the set, then the set is just A union B union C
this is the formula on the cardinality of the union of 3 sets, look at the wiki page if you want more info on it
so for a, why is O(f(n)) + O(f(n)) = O(f(n))?
Just apply the definition of O(f(n))

Are you familiar with real analysis?
thats what im studying rn
oh, im not sure what real analysis is, its the o notation theorems right?
Ok,nvm
Let's say a(n)<=c_1 f(n) for n>=n_0 and b(n)<=c_2 f(n) for n>=n'_0
Then a(n)+b(n)<=(c_1+c_2) f(n) for all n>=max{n_0,n'_0}
what is max in this case?
maximum
ill have to study more but thanks!
@olive hamlet wondering if this can be answered by looking at eigenvalues with spectral graph theory
hmm characterizing cycles with matrices is pretty hard, remember when we tried to do that
(as far as i have studied so far)
yeah, somewhat, at least I was thinking we could think of the trace of powers being related, not sure
So I've come across some algorithm analysis in which I had a some line taking constant running time O(1) and a loop taking time O(n). So the running time is O(1) + O(n) = O(n+1) = O(n). So essentially, O(n+c) for any constant c is O(n) because if f(n) <= K(n+c)= Kn+Kc then making n sufficiently large we get that f(n) <= Kn right ? So that's how we can disregard constants in big-oh notation
Is my reasoning correct?
@stray reef you seem like you know you’re stuff
uh
i... am stuff?
what?
if you wanted to ask me personally for help, i would've probably been snarky since i don't like being pinged out of the blue
but right now, i just cannot
too busy
this is a bit divorced from the formal definition of Big-O but in this case you should conceptualize Big-O more as a model that represents the growth of a function as its input gets very large
we can discard the constant because it doesn't affect the growth rate of our function. O(n + c) regardless of what the constant is is still going to have the same growth rate as an O(n) function regardless of c
the formal definition I have is f(n) is in O(g(n)) if there exists a constant C and a rank N beyond which f(n) is bounded above by C*g(n)
But I get you
O(g(n)) captures the asymptotic growth so constants can be disregarded
In view of the asymptotic behaviour
yeah i know the formal definition but i'm saying if you're looking for intuitive reasoning as to why that's the case you don't need to look at that necessarily
although if you are saying that your reasoning is more of a proof then yeah you're correct
Thanks !
Hi, I have a quick hw question in discrete math. I've been trying to solve these two sub-problems in problem 1 and I got different answers which I'm not sure if they're exactly right. Can anyone please help me out with these two questions:
for prob (a), I said 28 choose 15 [or] nCr = (28, 15) = 37,442,160
for prob (b), I said 7 choose 4 [aka, nCr = (7, 4)] or 7 choose 3 [aka, nCr = (7, 3)]
can anyone lmk if these are right or point out my mistakes please?
i'm very rusty on my counting so somebody please lmk if i'm wrong on this one but i believe (a) should be (28 choose 5) * (23 choose 5) * (18 choose 5)
i believe (b) would be 5^3
hm, ok, (a) makes sense! I get it now! But could u please explain why (b) is 5^3?
i broke it down into three steps where each step has 5 outcomes (one outcome for each truffle picked) and by the basic principle of counting there should be 5 * 5 * 5 or 5^3 total combinations but i am slightly suspect on that answer because it doesn't intuitively seem correct
let me work through it a little bit more
oh ok, sure! Idk I first though about it as 5! (aka 5 factorial) but I don't its right either
5! wouldn't work because 5! is the number of permutations of a set of 5 distinct truffles
i first thought about it as 5! (im just exited)
oh sorry lol, I'm sometimes bad at counting lmao
after looking over it again i believe (b) would be 7 choose 3
oh, so the answer I originally had then?
yeah
I thought about it like this: 4 internal "boxes" + 3 chosen truffles is 7 per permutation
so, 7 choose 4?
or 7 choose 3?
oh ok, gotcha, cool, tysm!
if converse is Q -> P is that also Q ∪ ~P
anyone available at 4 or 5 to help me with discrete math couple of questions
i jsut don’t know how to do them
you can post them on here
like me
so i have a question about this inductive proof,
how did (n+1)! become n!(n+1)?
How do you define n!
its a factorial
I know that
But ill just spell it out
(n+1)! = (n+1)n(n-1)...2
Now note that n! = n(n-1)...2
So (n+1)! = (n+1)n!
hello
so this is the question and
lemme send my answer
Is this correct answer ?
,rotate
no because your FSM will accept any non empty string since once it has 0 or 1 it moves from a_0 to a_1 and stays there in the accepting state
you need it to move out if it has an odd number of 0s or 1s
I'd recommend you label your states more clearly instead of a_0 and a_1 you write something like "even number of 0s and odd number of 1s" that would be one state
@obtuse lance i think i need more help sorry :( this time i did three horizontal state , i am going to send the pic but the more i think the more it becomes stupid machine
you should have 4 states
depending on if 0 or 1 appears an even or odd amount of times
,rotate
ok first problem is the start state has too many arrows coming in and out of it
each state should have exactly 2 going out of it
remove the self arrow with 0,1
since if you gain a 0 or 1 you're no longer both even or odd
your arrows are not right but you have the right number of states
try to pick random examples to run through like 11 and see where you end up, since that should be accepted
also you should label your states like I described
you shouldn't try to be fancy and do q_even
there's nothing holy about writing it that way lol
say 'even 0, even 1' for the start state
'even 0, odd 1'
teacher asks this way im sorry :Sob:
relabel it after you work it out
your teacher doesn't control your scratch work, that's a bogus excuse lol
omg i like label it this way maybe i am fancy -,-
lemme try again thanks for help
does the answer have more than one finish state ? @obtuse lance
nope, only one
try to make examples to test yourself with, that will make guiding where to place arrows easier, one of the main things is knowing those 4 states we have
you scared me with those dots..thanks a lot for helppp
what's () mean here
I'm only familiar with * to mean any number, possibly none, of the symbol
Actually i am not sure too , it could be for just seperate them
well you don't need them then in that case
0*11*0
so then start looking for counterexamples
so it should accept any number of ending 0s
yours looks like it must be only one ending 0
so that's not right
you can use parenthesis like (a*b)*
so in my example this means any number of strings with any number of a before b
like aaababb would work
since aaab, ab and b all are described by a*b
and I can have any number of them concatenated
put ` before and after lol
0*11*0*
ah that can't work because that doesn't necessarily end in 0
also it forces you to have a 1, and you don't necessarily need 1 either
examples: 00001 is accepted by your regex but is not by the FSM
0000 is accepted by the FSM but not by your regex
empty U 0* U 0*11*0*
wait I'm writing my strings left to right
I think I might be causing confusion if you're reading them right to left or
maybe I've confused you by saying that haha
Okay yes left to right haha
you still have the 00001 example
also we can do much worse
0101010101010 is also accepted by the FSM
How can it end with 1 ?
1* and 0* means you can have no 1 or 0
0*1 is contained in this language
which is words like 1, 01, 001, 0001, ...
just choosing to remove the last 1*0* bit
gotta eat dinner I'm starving so gonna be gone for a while, if you got a question ask real quick
Isn ' t the FSM ends with zero ? When you gave 001 example i confused
Umm okay im gonna think for a while thanks and bon apetit
the FSM does
your regex doesn't
0*11*0* means some 0s, a 1, some 1s, some 0s in that order
but the 'some 0s' means we could have no 0s at all
so it accepts just plain 1
Oooh i didn't know that
there's also the notation (not completely standard) 0+ that means 'at least one'
so 00* and 0+ are equivalent according to my notation here
but maybe your book/teacher has some different way
anyways good luck keep at it, you'll need to use parenthesis cause remember your FSM accepts stuff like 001100001011100
Uhh if that teacher had any way,i would not be here...thank you a lot
empty U 0* U 0(0)*1(1)*0(0)* this is my final decision if it is not true just kill me
not gonna work cause you have 1s in one island between 0s
I think of it this way, we start out in q1 and can have any number of 0s, so we start with 0*
then once we get a 1, we can have any number of them and we are stuck not being accepted
until we get a 0
but we can repeat this cycle over and over again
(0*1*)*00* would be one way to write it
since everything in the parenthesis can happen, but we must always end in at least one 0
unless of course we just accept the empty string
what did you try
all integers are within the rational numbers, but the set of integers is not within the rational numbers
the rational numbers is a set, but does not contain sets within it
only numbers
is this right? so
conditional: ~p v q
converse: ~q v p
contrapositive: q v ~p
inverse: p v ~p
no
the contrapositive of p implies q is q AND ~p not q OR ~p (alternatively it is ~q -> ~p)
similarly the inverse is p AND ~q
Not certain what I'm looking at haha
A symmetric relation? What's the set? What's the relation?
Is the set {a,b} and everything is related to everything?
Cause yeah that's symmetric
So you the domain is just {a,b}
The question is whether a domain for S
that is symmetric
it's composite is also symmetric
And it tests whether you can find a case where this is not true
Previously before it was twio sets R and S
on the same domain
Lets say {a, b, c}
They have a binary relationship on the same domain
R and S
is it true that SoR is going to also be symmetric
But I found that its not true, with this example
Both R and S map a binary relationship over the same domain
But there composite does not maek it symmetric, so its anti-symmetric
Therefore the statement is false
Just basically, find a way to break the statement
Whilst you're here, the transitive definition applies if and only if three elements are related therefore the first relationship relates to the last
is this graph considered transitive?
Since aRb and bRc, therefore aRc which it does
And transitive for any binary relationship is if three elements satisfy the first condition
(xRy and yRz)
Therefore we can determine if its transitive or not, so for this example we can't do
bRc since cRelates to nothing else
So we break the first condition and continue along to any three elements that do relate? right
Composite? Do you mean complement?
no i mean composite
Oh lol I'm understanding what SoS is now haha
You're looking for a symmetric relation, that when composed with itself, is also symmetric
In your example, S is symmetric because ASB implies BSA
And SoS is also symmetric because ASA implies ASA, and BSB implies BSB
Yeah bec I used this as an example
Whether if its reflective its also symmetric
For that SoS
Since its symmetric if neither A nor B are related to each other* is true
Also for this example or what I tried to mention about about transitive
R and S are both transitive, but is SoR transitive also* in this case
Since the definition is if any three elmenets who are releated to each other , have some relationship towards them
So, aRb and bRc, then aRc
And thats IF and ONLY IF aRb and bRc
Is my proof that countable union of a chain of sigma-algebras might not be a sigma-algebra correct?
i constructed the following sequence of sigma-algebras over the ordinal ω+1: for each natural n, An is the sigma algebra generated by {0, ..., n}. Then the union of all those is not a sigma algebra cuz ω is not element of any of those sigma algebras but ω is the union of all naturals.
This might draw response in #foundations I guess.
it's not really foundational stuff i think
is the question just to show that the countable unionof sigma algebras is not a sigma algebra?
isn't that already wrong in the finite case
hello
my question is
for example
Can we use A or B more than once
we can not right ?
what do you mean?
are you asking whether or not the rules A -> 0A1 | 2 and B -> 1B | 3A are one-use-only?
yes exactly
@stray reef
I mean it should be s -> AB -> etc
not S -> ABA or ABB an so on
right?
ı just wanted to be sure because the questions teacher gave us almost all of them not in the L (G)
how do u answer this then
i wrote this string is can not be in L(G)
@stray reef
do you have a proof for that?
wait a sec
photo is coming
I couldn't find the string with these rules so i figured it is not in L(G) @stray reef
well just because you couldn't derive it with those rules does not by itself mean it's not in L(G)
maybe you just overlooked something
i think u can consider the necessary ratio of num 0s to num 1s
to prove a string is not generated by a cfg, the usual method (iirc) is to find some property shared by all strings in L(G) which your target string does not have
i can think of the following:
the only way to get zeros at the beginning is to apply the rule A -> 0A1
and to get four zeros at the beginning we would have to apply it four times
meaning we would have four 1s in a row somewhere in the string
but we don't have that
so it is not in the Lg?
are you more concerned about getting an answer than about being sure your answer is the right answer?
i mean, yes, that's what i demonstrated: our string is not in L(G)
For graph powers, would this mean that
If I want to find a graph of a power lets say R^4
I would do R composite R ^3
L = {w | w is of the form x01y for some strings, x and y consisting of 0's and 1's only}
Are the following strings accepted by this language, if not then explain why the string is not accepted:
- 01
Hi. What should i write for the first question ? Teacher didn't give us examples so i do not have any idea
@stray reef
is there a name for nlogn?
i think i saw that nlogn can be shortened to logn instead so itll just be part of logarithmic?
i don't think there is a special name and no it cannot
its either like
linear-logarithmetic
or something of the sort
yeah lol
its "linearithmic"
and it can't be shortened bc O(lgn) < O(n) and it isn't multiplied by a constant, instead something that increases as N increases (b/c it is literally N)
so you can't get rid of the constant b/c there is no constant
Thank you all for the help!
hello again
Design a deterministic FSM (transition diagram) over the alphabet {0, 1} that recognizes the regular
language of all strings that contain the string 001 as a substring. For example, 0010, 1001, 11111001111
are all in the language, but 11 and 0000 are not.
does this look correct
omg no
how about now
photo is coming
this is fine as long as you're allowed to make a nondeterministic finite state machine
fortunately if you need to be deterministic, there's a way to turn every nondeterministic finite state machine into a deterministic one
what i did was non - deterministic right? and how can i turn it to deterministic i don't know @obtuse lance
yeah you can tell because your start state has two choices for 0
deterministic means only one choice for 0 and 1 leaving
ooh okay let me try
sure, might help if you read about it first
also you need some more states because those middle states need to go to a dead state
cause as it's written it doesn't say what happens when you're in that 001 if you get something different
which is fine for nondeterministic btw
@obtuse lance
looks good to me, tho maybe u should label your initial and terminal states?
can't rely on drawing it left to right since this is no more than a labeled digraph
Oh yes i will label it thank you @tight lotus
can anyone please help me out with this:
I got this but I'm not so sure if this is right:
so would this be bipartite?
Bipartite means you split the set of vertices into two disjoint sets such that every edge has exactly one vertex in the first set and the other in the second set
this is bipartite
{a,c} is the first set and {b,d,e} is the second
ohhh, ok, gotcha, makes sense! Yeah, I drew this diagram based on the def of bipartite but wasn't completely sure if it was bipartite lmao
Another way you could justify bipartition of a graph is through a proper 2-colouring
oh yeah, ik that way! Thx!
g(N) = N1.5, then to decide which of f(N) and g(N) grows faster, one really needs to
determine which of log N and N0.5 grows faster. This is like determining which of log2 N
or N grows faster. This is a simple problem, because it is already known that N grows faster
than any power of a log. Thus, g(N) grows faster than f(N).```
when theyre talking about which function grows faster, does that mean which one takes the most amount of time to finish?
no
wait, im stupid, i guess its growth is talking the speed of which it takes to finish right?
finish?
it's about which function's cost scales faster as the number of inputs grows
there is no "unit" for big-O, it's just an asymptotic growth model
it "grows" faster because the output of the function becomes large more quickly as its input becomes larger
ok, so the green line grows faster then?
no, the purple line does
notice how you're approaching higer output values even with a smaller input
SLOPE
then that means i did this wrong, it should be the other way around
no you don't have it reversed, the order is just generally out of wack
the hierarchy for big o is as follows:
constant: O(c) where c is a constant
logarithmic: O(log n)
linear: O(n)
semi-logarithmic: O(n log n)
algebraic: O(n^c)
non-polynomial with a base of 2: O(2^n)
factorial: O(n!)
there are others not mentioned
notably algebraic functions can technically be variable growth depending on the value of c
feels like itll be hard to find the growth rate of these functions without plugging them into desmos
i mean on face the question is just a bad question and doesn't really properly get at what the point of big-O is
but either way you should be able to rank most of these without external graphing help
@hardy remnant we used to do l'hospital to compare them.
i do not remember my l'hospitals rule
The rule is very simpel. One yt video should explain how to use it. You know it must account that f(n) < c * g(n) <=> c > f(n) / g(n) for n > n0. Using l'hospital you know which function goes faster, and can rank those two functions by this.
And you know if a(n) < b(n) and c(n) < d(n) => a(n) < d(n) for n>n0
so you need less comparisons in total, but for so many terms I think you are allowed to rank some by intuition.
;_; its 19
19=20
Any hints how to show that in any convex polyhedron sum of triangle faces and vertices of degree 3 is greater or equal 8?
wat
can anyone please help me out with this proof problem:
I wrote half of it but I'm not sure if I'm heading in the right direction
I'm trying to solve step 4 of the problem and I'm stuck the number of vertices of and edges of T1 union T2 in my graph. The number of vertices & edges seem to be different for G, T1, T2
anyone have an idea please on how to solve this or if I'm drawing the graphs correctly?
oh I'm so sorry! I'm new, so I didn't know about that rule
read #❓how-to-get-help for further reference
ok, tysm!
Not sure where to put this really but I guess here is as good as anywhere
We know that computable numbers can be put in correspondance with Turing machines which in turn are countable, and because the reals are uncountable that leaves most reals as uncomputable
Is there another important or interesting class of uncomputable numbers that is countable? One so that it would be very nice to say that "actually, that's countable too, so most reals are uncomputable AND [property X]"
Hint:Infinite sets
Well, for your original question just consider f(n)=2n
That grid shows there is a Bijection between N and Q
a counterexample to your thing would consist of two sets
On N to N
i dont get how f(n) = 2n
isnt onto for every one-one
you're getting things mixed up.
you want to show that the claim "every one-one function from A to B is onto" is false
yes?
@spark silo
and to show that it is false
we need a pair of infinite sets, A and B
and a function which is one-one but not onto
just one function that is one-one but not onto
yes?
do you understand this?
okay let's tackle these one by one
the function f: N -> N defined by f(n) = 2n is not onto because its range does not include the number 19.
to say the doubling function is onto is to say every natural number is even.
which is clearly not the case.
as for how one would know to use infinite sets:
looking at finite sets alone, one would be left with the impression that the claim is true
and in fact, if you replace the "sets" with "finite sets", it is true
but not all properties of finite sets carry over to infinite sets.
if you did f: {0, 1, 2, 3,} -> {0, 1, 2, 3} f(n) = 2n
this wouldn't be a function at all
what do you think f(3) would be? 6?
6 ∉ {0, 1, 2, 3} yknow
how would i go about proving the set Z+ * Z+ * Z+ * Z+ is countable with a grid?
you would need a four-dimensional grid
i mean, yeah, you could do it via (Z+)^2 i guess
@spark silo just usual diagonal approach
or
if you wish
and you have proved that countable union of countable sets is countable you may even not to construct bijection
i suggest using x for cartesian product
this was fine though
the image i mean
except that Z^+ probably does not include 0?
as in that it depicts Z+ x Z+
i see
your second image is something called a group table
just a depiction of Z+ x Z+
as a set
you used the group table to argue about the group operation (in this case addition)
if you want to talk about things like cardinality of the set
then the group operation does not matter
you can for example see that the second table includes every element multiple times
just noticed a mistake in the first pic though
one of the (1, 0) should be a (0, 1)
then it includes every element just once
and that is better suited to argue about cardinality
its a bit hand-wavey
and it would prove $\abs*{\bZ^+ \times \bZ^+} = \abs*{\bZ^+}$
Lochverstärker
you have to be careful where you place your | |
but this is the standard argument
Z+ * Z+ = Z+ is not true
(1, 1) is an element of the LHS but not of the RHS
you can apply the same diagonalization argument 3 times to show that the cardinalities of your sets are the same
more formally you have a bijective function $f\colon\bZ^+\to\bZ^+\times\bZ^+$ and then you can use the same grid method but label the rows with $f(1), f(2), f(3), \dots$ and the columns with $1, 2, 3, \dots$
Lochverstärker
but this quickly becomes a typographical nightmare
well
with an inductive argument you can show that this is true more generally
the key thing that is happening here is that the composition of bijections is bijective
like, that argument gives a bijection $\bZ_+^4 \to \bZ_+^3$
Lochverstärker
and then you just apply it multiple times
until you get what you want
but nobody thinks of it that way
whats the exact question?
ok
this works too and is more concrete
but imo your grid method is fine
you would just do it to show |Z+ x Z+| = |Z+|
and then say "do it two more times"
well, not sure i can help you understand it better
the idea is that the line you draw through that grid gives you an order
because you want to show |Z^4| = |Z| and not |Z^2| = |Z|
but you need to apply it twice more
no my point is
you want to work with |Z+ x Z+ x Z+ x Z+|
and each application of this "grid argument" gets rid of one copy of Z+
has loch explained to you diagonal approach?
yes
yes
honestly try to understand that first
the yellow zig zag line gives you an order in which you can enumerate all the elements of Z+ x Z+
may i suggest a certain way to biject (Z+)^4 with Z+ without having to apply the grid argument three times
(unless you have proved that countable union of countable sets is countable which i assume you have not)
would it be polynomial in 4 variables?
no
they posted a different proof above ann
i was going to suggest ||total-first lexicographic ordering||
but like
i think you should first try to get the grid argument @spark silo
there is probably good video about that
also there is good combinatorial approach which is essentially similar
actually now i have my own question but im gonna wait until homeyworkey is done
i also think this is a good approach to the question (better than the argument in your screenshot and the diagonalization one)
but getting the diagonal argument is benefical still
sadly im not equipped to explain it better over text
do you have a book?
i mean gimme a sec
ah
i forgot where i saw brilliant visualization of cantor diagonal argument
anyway
not necessarily pattern
any bijection works
patterns just are easy
so ok @spark silo imagine grid Z+ \times Z+
you want to enumerate its elements
so to construct bijection
you cant just enumerate row by row
since each row is infinite
similar with columns
can y'all ping me when this is done?
this discussion made me come up with a seemingly fun problem but i dont wanna interrupt
so what you do is that you first enumerate first element of first row, i.e, (1,1), then you move to an element from right
(1,2)
yes
yes
sorry i will be slow since have other doings
but anyway
from (1,2) yo go to (2,1)
so ok
what i am going to suggest now
is that you from (2,1) would go not to (3,1) as picture suggests
but to (1,3)
that is we enumerate like (1,1)->(1,2)->(2,1)->(1,3)
is that clear? @spark silo
i hope yes, otherwise say
so from (1,3) we again move to (2,2) and then to (3,1)
because i can suggest you pattern now
i wanna suggest you procedure which is the following
each time we enumerate point of the form (1,n) we are then going to (2,n-1), (3, n-2),...(n, 1)
@spark silo is that clear?
and after we finish it we are moving to point (1, n+1) and then repeat
so this is basically algorithm by which we do enumeration
i can form it in some form of pseudocode if you wish
but the point is that actually it allows us recursively to find formula
so consider we are at point (n,m)
we have come to it from (n-1, m+1)
and to it from (n-2, m+2)
by construction of our algorithm
so actually we have came to (n,m) from point (1, n+m-1)
hmm
oh ye
look
point (n,m) is m-th in enumeration along line (1, n+m-1), ..., (n, m) if i am not wrong
(2,1) is second in (1,2+1-1) and
(3,1) is third in (1,3+1-1)
ye seems correct
@spark silo so here we go
(n,m) is has m-th number in enumeration from (1, n+m-1)
so do you agree that its total number in our enumeration for Z+ times Z+ is m + number of points enumerated in lines (1,1), ..., (1, n+m-2)?
by line (1,k) i mean sequence (1,k)->(2,k-1)-> as defined before
geometrically it would be triangle which is important
forget this triangle argument lol
anyway
@spark silo this important
let us count how much points in total we cover in line (1,k)
you would be surprised
but this number is exactly k
(1,k)->(2,k-1)->...->(j, k-j+1)->..->(k, 1)
so each line covered before has k points
thus
number of points enumerated in lines (1,1), ..., (1, n+m-2) equals
1+2+...+(n+m-2)
would you find this sum by urself?
no i mean it is just sum of first n+m-2 natural numbers
,w 1+2+...+n
plugging n+m-2 gives
(n+m-2)(n+m-1)/2
and adding m which we forgot gives
(n+m-2)(n+m-1)/2+m
that is
f(n,m)=(n+m-2)(n+m-1)/2+m is enumeration for positive integers
voila
@stray reef ig we are dome here
btw @stray reef how was defense?
was it good?
yes
nice
anyway ok this problem that i came up with
Let C be a set equipped with a strict total order <, and suppose there exists an element in C called 0. Assume that the following properties hold:
1. For every x in C, there exists an element s in C such that x < s but no other s' satisfies x < s' < s. This s is called the successor of x, and is denoted S(x).
2. For every x in C \ {0}, there exists an element p in C such that S(p) = x. This p is called the predecessor of x, and is denoted P(x).
Classify all sets C satisfying properties 1 & 2 up to order-isomorphism.
im learning to write proofs using induction and I want to kms
jack could you move to #proofs-and-logic please
oh shoot you right my bad
anyway, ok, so my conjecture for this is that the general form of $C$ is $$C = (S_1 \times \bZ) + \bN + (S_2 \times \bZ),$$ where $+$ denotes the sum of total orders, $S_1$ and $S_2$ are arbitrary total orders and the products are equipped with lexicographic order
Ann
how so
like since completeness is negated by 1.

Ann
nobody said we can't have a continuum of Z-sized 'sections'
well 1 and 2 joined together make C well-ordered set if i am not wrong
not necessarily
N + Z is already not well-ordered
if you start anywhere in the Z part, repeatedly taking the predecessor will never take you outside of it
||Natural numbers fit the bill, but does this work for integers too? (2) doesn't seem to forbid 0 having a predecessor, so I'm not sure if it can be isomorphic to C.||
oh wait somehow i read 2 as 0 does not have predecessor
everything other than 0 has a predecessor
actually yeah i should say 0 doesnt have a predecessor
that was my intention
but just becase 0 has no predecessor does not make 0 minimal
you can have stuff before 0 just not a direct pred
but why we can't then make C to be sum not only of three orders but of arbitrary amount
the arbitrariness is encapsulated in S1 and S2
Commander Vimes
A×Z + B×Z is iso to (A+B)×Z
well then it looks to be true
wait
we may not need Z here
we can take some limit ordinals here
we can?
i was under the impression that every element not of the form S^n(0) generates a Z-sized portion around itself
and the problem is to cut the class of ordinals to make it set
which we can achieve by taking limit ordinal
and hmm i am not sure that cond. 1 is satisfied for ordinal numbers
well yes, it does
since assume a is ordinal
then b = a U {a} = S(a) is minimal ordinal s.t a < b under ordinal numbers ordering
are you talking about the entire class of ordinals 
and each limit ordinal satsifies 2
limit ordinals other than omega do not satisfy 2
no need to take entire class of ordinals
not even omega*2 has property 2
omega*2 = {0, 1, 2, ..., omega, omega+1, omega+2, ...}
omega has no pred
ah
you want 0 to be unique
well yes then we have to reduce it to omega being smallest limit ordinal
so just N
well then it seems that this is true
but removing uniqueness of 0 we can just do ordinals
hmm
but would it work with cardinals?
or not cardinals
alephs*
hmm
there again iso to N
Does anyone know some resource about partial orders like a particular video, I'm still unsure how to really approach or conceptualize this understanding of a minimal element and maximal element
Like for example this question
I'm given this in the material to help explain it
And the weird symbol that is denoted to express aRb as a<=(curley) b
My only guess is since its partial order on the set (a,b, c, d, e, f, g). Would that mean the maximal elements in the partial order is just d. And the minimal elements in the partial order is a?. Then everything comparable to d is compared to ever other set of elements
Sorry it would be d, and g. for maximal; and minimal will be a and f. Unless I got this interpretation wrong
<@&286206848099549185>
Wait, unless the definition applies for this case. If there is no y =/ x then x is at most y. So a is at most b, and b cannot be greater than a. Therefore a is the maximal element since no element is above a. And this also applies to f.
Would that then mean that d and g would be the minimal elements since no element can be below d or g. For this given partial order set
would someone be able to help with a problem on injectivity and surjectivity please?

i have to find a function that is surjective but not injective but both sets involved have to be countably infinite. i know what injective and surjective are but im not sure how to go about creating an example when they have to be countably infinite
start by picking two countably infinite sets of your choosing
would something like 2x where x is a natural number constitute a countably infinite set?
since it corresponds 1:1 with the naturals
{2x | x in N} is a countably infinite set, yes
but you're already making this more complicated than it needs to be.
oh ._.
oh waitt i have an idea
if i have f defined as y=x/2 then i define one set as being
the naturals and one set as being
nvm
xd
it worked when i had finite sets
or actually no it does work
since the odd values
will not correspond to any natural
in the other set
hmmm
thanks
what are you thanking me for?
well i was thinking too much
and it helps to just be able to
talk through my thoughts aloud
Does anyone know how to approach this
For reflexive I know we add n pairs but not so sure what is the case for symmetric and transitive
i have no idea what this means
what do you know about equivalence relations?
What is even the cardinality of an equivalence relation?
The number of its equivalence classes?
Minimum number could be anything no?
nvm
Cardinality of relation is the numbers of elements considering the relation as a set
Answer is n
n is the maximum, not the minimum?
an equivalence of sets and a equivalence relation are distinct
ohhhh my b
How is n not the minimum?
what's your argument?
can anyone help me out with the question i posted above, im not sure if im right
...
Hello (first time question) I am a programmer and I'm working on a video game in my spare time. I'm long out of school and could use help in a graph theory question I ran into. My levels are represented as special graphs that I want to pre-generate, but I need to be sure there are no duplicates--that is, no ISOMORPHISMS. However, the verticies have a secondary attribute that is important to maintain.
For example, a->b->c is isomorphic to b->c->a when all nodes are equal, but a!->b->c is NOT isomorphic to b->c!->a as before, since now ! is a secondary attribute, and its location also matters.
Is there a name for this kind of problem?
The most novel thing I came up with as an idea to represent this is to enumerate the secondary attributes, and give the same number of self edges to a vertex corresponding to which secondary attribute category it falls into. While this may work in this case since I have no self-edges in the original graph, but what if I did?
My "solution" feels like a hack, and I was wondering if there's a better, more general way.
looks like it might be related to graph coloring, which is counted by a graph's chromatic polynomial, if you imagine a vertex having a property or not as different ways of coloring with 2 colors
ahh, so this would be like testing if the graph is structurally isomorphic, and the node colors match up?
like for instance, nodes with a ! would be a different color from nodes with no !, in their example above?
yeah
@tame rapids does that help at all
isomorphic graph coloring, now I have a topic to read about. Thanks! (Any tips where to find algorithms for determining this?)
Im confused on A x C
{(x, empty set), (y, empty set)}
Is what I think
Is there any reason for A x C = empty set or is it just the way it is
C has no elements
$C$ is not ${\rien}$
Ann
$C$ is $\rien$
Ann
I don't understand this proof
specifically the "let b be an arbitrary element of B"
why does he do tha
t?
if he shows its true for an arbitrary element of B, he will show it for every element of B
Because b was arbitrary, so it works for ANY element of B
But not every element of B is in Dom(R^-1)
cause $Dom(R^{-1})\subseteq{B}$
Reaper
I would understand if he just let b be an arbitrary element
Cause that's for subset proofs
So yeah its because both Dom and Ran are subset B
b may not be in Dom(R^-1)
But if it is, then it is also in Ran(R) by the argument above
and vice versa
So how come he starts with that then? Like the order seems weird
Ohhh ok
Hmmm
That's really confusing
Yeah I think it's to make it quicker, but I agree, I would prefer to take b in Dom and show it implies Ran and do the reverse
But this proof also got some idea which might be worth to understand
What idea is that?
well the proof that you take any b in B and if its not in dom or ran then you dont care, but if it is then you show equivalence
but ye you got it
What's a different way of proving this?
I mean its the same pretty much, just take b in one set and show its in other set and the other way around
probably there are other proofs
just forget about it
what book is this?
Let b be an arbitrary element of Dom(R^-1) then b is an element of B. If b is in Dom(R^-1) then there exists an a in A such that (b,a) is in R^-1 but that means (a,b) is in R and so b in Ran(R)?
how2proveit?
ye but its actually the same thing as ain the book
Hmm
yeah I guess
because your "then" is actually an iff
how?
how can it be an iff
definition
b in DomR^-1 iff b in B
No way...
That's an actual definition??
wait no maybe im tripping
u right
ure right
Relations kinda hard ☹️
yea especially if you dont have many examples
its something you get used to
at least in my case
but ofc dom(r^-1) subset B not equal
it's also kinda confusing cause b is used in two different ways
whatever
Ill figure it out eventually
Lemme try some exercises
btw also you can ask c4t about this stuff, I think he recently did this chapter or is currently studying it and I'm sure it could be helpful for both of you
c4t?
yes
yeah I'm just going through the book
I dont want to ping him
I finished ch2 ch3 and now I'm on ch4
but ye theres just one c4t
ok
Maybe I'll add him
Wait I don't see him
this one
okok
Is there a way to prove that if |G| = p which the id is e.
than for every g in G there exists an int k which g^(k*o(g)) = e .
How are you defining o(g)
Because if it's the order of the group <g> g^(o(g)) is clearly e
right

