#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 289 of 1
I'll admit I can't guess what more it is you want either.
You can't iterate disconnected -> disjoint union topology infinitely
can you not? đ€
You can't
You can go all the way to sets of the form { x \in X | x is topologically indistinguishable from a } for every a.
And then it's obvious
So in short, spaces of which Kolmogorov quotient is a discrete space
T_0
hmmmmmm I still do not get the infinite vs finite
$\bigsqcup_{i\in I} A_i$ where $A_i$ are all indiscrete spaces
I get the impression that you're just trying to get Shuri to say what he has already said, but with particular magic words?
Does this not work for some cardinalities of I? Or are there some spaces I've missed
A topology with a basis that is a partition of X?
ah ok
Well I can certainly see all the spaces I've listed are sigma algebras
as for the converse... that doesn't sound so easy
With which topology?
You can't just iterate taking {1/n} here to take disjoint union
Euclidean
The discrete topology is certainly a sigma-algebra.
With the Euclidean topology it's not a sigma-algebra. {0} is a closed set, but is not open. So not closed under complement.
My point is you can't just take finite amount of clopens, then more etc
And get a disjoint union
Sorry, it's not clear to me what it is you're even arguing for.
Can you make a more self-contained statement of your thesis?
Well as for the proof --- all I can really say is that if we cannot write it as a union of indiscretes, we can still write it as a union of connected spaces, at least one of which isn't indiscrete. But a connected space cannot be a sigma algebra (we must have a non-trivial/proper open set whose complement isn't open)
(the open set in the connected space whose complement is not open can be found back in the union)
I agree
You can identify your indiscrete summands exactly as the equivalence classes of the "topologically indistinguishable" relation.
I shall have to look up that term đ
indistinguishable?
yes (I uh... haven't really taken topology properly properly yet)
Two points are topologically indistinguishable iff they are in exactly the same open sets.
Ah I should know this, but probably forgot
Nah
I cant think of one right now
but ill let you know later today if I can find one
no no - we got this as the answer
what was missing was my argument was finite ig
What I wrote as my argument about 'splitting' up disconnected spaces
The answer is indeed this
Oh I thought you said it could be an arbitrary disjoint union
I tried scrolling up but cant find easily.
By arbritrary disjoint union I was emphasizing a disjoint union of any cardinality
Yeah.
So the topologies that are also sigma-algebras are exactly those that can be produced by picking an arbitrary equivalence relation and declare its equivalence classes to be the basis for a topology.
@high hill no
But if you assume T_3 and countable basis, then you do
This is called Urysohn metrization theorem
This isnt obvious
and ive seen the proof
Just embedd X in Hilbert cube and dab away
Just started topology
What treatises do you human beings recommend? I just started using topology without tears
Hatchers notes
munkres
I tried that but idk i dont feel like im ready for that yet
The set theory
Skip set theory tbh
Ah yes. The Cantor way
And then you imagine the set of all sets and your head explodes
There's couple important identities in topology imo
$f(A\cap f^{-1}(B)) = f(A)\cap B$ is one of them
Blitz
This holds for all B iff f is surjective
My formula holds for all f
I have very few such formulas memorized
There's not a lot of them
Another one is $f\left(\bigcup_i U_i\right) = \bigcup_i f(U_i)$
Blitz
Also useful
Hmm... sure, I have it memorized by heart though
?
well it's nice to remember that maps of any kind interact well with intersections and unions
the proofs are obvious after like a minute of inspection but it's nice to not to have to put that minute of work in
They donât interact well with intersections
uh oh
Yeah, only an inclusion
Itâs not even a proof in the union case tho lol
life is harder than i hoped
Youâre applying f to the same elements either way
That's why there are ways to circumvent intersections, such as finite fibers
Then in some special cases you can still extract something like that
mathematics is horrible
I'm thinking of some compactness thing
Too specific probably

Are there a non-trivial continuum C such that there is a point x in C which makes C\{x} totally disconnected?
Nope
Set theory is trivial because you can just pick a particular model and check what happens in it
ayoooooooooo
Let X be a topological space, let A be compact in X, and let U be open in X. Prove/disprove A\U is compact.
The specific problem I have here is that X is a metric space but a topological space should be sufficient
i donât think this property always holds in a general setting. it holds if your space is hausdorff tho
iâd like to see a ce if anybody has one. canât think of one immediately
anyway, do you need help proving this in the case of a metric space?
Closed subspace of a compact space is always compact
dang. compact subspaces of hausdorff spaces are closed. thatâs what i was thinking
my bad
no blitz is right
Nothing
A\U is the intersection of X\U and A, so it's closed in the subspace top.
Proof still holds
let C be an open cover of A\U. then C union {U} is an open cover of A. it admits a finite subcover {C1,âŠ,Cn} which covers A, hence covers A\U
i was just being lazy ig and didnât want to use open covers.
no need for any fancy theorems
iâm such a noob
No need for reproving fancy theorems either
Being a metric space is nothing special either
I forgot A\U is in A
That was the line I needed
Thank you
hey yall i was trying to find all the two and three degree covers of RP2 v S1. for 2 sheeted i found two covers and for 3 sheeted i could not find any. i dont think any exist of degree 3 but am not sure how to prove it. any ideas?
My two sheeted covers
?
I have a space that is k circles all attached at opposite ends, so think of it as a figure 8 but with k circles instead of 2. Is this the same as the Wedge product of k copies of S^1?
the wedge product usually identifies all spaces at a single point, but in this case we have a long chain of them
is it possible to create a homeomorphism between these spaces?
It's homotopy equivalent but they're not homeomorphic
ok, but then they would have the same fundamental group?
Yep
ok cool
I'm about to explain why they're not homeomorphic, sorry
The wedge sum has a point p such that X \ p has 8 connected components
Right?
yeah
any answers to covering spaces of RP2 v S1 btw? i cant find any of degree 3
But this isn't true for the other
im trying to visualize why, is it because its all path connected?
No
You can only get two components at most
There's two types of points. Points where adjacent points meet and points where they don't
The first type of points will disconnect the figure eight into two components
Right?
ok
If you remove the point connecting the ith and (i+1)th circles, you'll get the component {jth circle where j <= i} and {jth circle where j > i}
And the second type of points will still be path connected if you remove them
So this shows they're not homeomorphic
ooh i think i get it, so if you remove it in the "flower-like" configuration, you get separate components (petals), but if you remove one point in the straight line configuration it only divides it into two
is that it?
ok gotcha
what kinda homotopy should i use btw? like would i just stretch the connection points on each circle to eachother inductively?
sounds like it, might just handwave and hope its okay đŹ
One way to think of it is as contracting the interval between the two endpoints to 0
(inductively)
ah yes that makes sense
That might be okay to write down
cause the arcs are contractible, on their own
so it should be ok
thanks for the help!
Np!
for classifying covering spaces can any of yall expalin how they are equal up to conjuugacy? im a little confused on that point
do you mean with regards to the galois correspondence for subgroups of $\pi_1$ and covering spaces?
llspacebarll
ye
im trying to prove there are no covers of degreee 3
and its to do with order of a subgorup of gthe freegorup
There are 3 sheeted covers
Take the 3 sheeted cover of S^1
And at each of the 3 evenly spaced points put a copy of RP2
What did you have in mind 
and i can build any n sheeted covering using that
Yes
well i couldnt figure anything out but i was looking at covers of S1 v S1 for inspiration
like the inscirbed triangle in a circle
Ah
are there any else tho? like i guess this makes sense as the subgroup (ab)^n of Z cross Z/2
I think you might be able to say that the restriction of the cover of the wedge to either of the 2 spaces that are being wedged should be a covering map on its own?
So you have S^1 sitting inside this wedge
Suppose you have a covering map p to this wedge
mmm
Then p: p^-1(S^1) â S^1, the restriction of the covering map, is this guaranteed to be a covering map?
uhh on the wedge $$S^1 \mathbb{R}P^2$$? Uhhh i think so
Optimism
If it is, then we know what it must be because S^1 has exactly 1 3 sheeted cover, and then we just need to look at how RP2 is attached
ohhh
ok
so in terms of subgorups
the circles + projective concatenations is like (ab)^n whereas this is id x b or a x id right?
Hmm yeah I think so
actually i dont think sp
does it not have ot be up to conjugacy
cause i was trying this but like the parity forces an even number of both
unless u have an explicite image in mind
Yeah I'm not sure lol
ye alg top makes my brain hurt
lol reading hatcher is like a nightmare
wait can u draw out ur cover
lol i dont see how that works
it still requires even parity of cricles
which becomes degree 4
nvm
i just got it
people usually don't like Hatcher, but some consider it a good first exposition
whatâs the knock on hatcher?
why donât people usually like hatcher?
because his proofs is geometry and intuition
oh. so he just leaves it to the reader to fill in the blanks?
and no normal human being is going to fill in that much details, or so I heard
100% agree
the books is like impossible to read i basically learn from online lectures tbh
yeah, but he leaves too much for the reader and intuition and it feels wrong
the issue is that by leaving out most details he goes really fast so its been an issue considering my prof thinks thats a good pace
what are homotopy classes of spaces btw? we literally never talked abt them and i cant really find it in hatcher prior to homology
I think there is not much you can do unless it's something more specific
mm ok im specifically looking at [RP2, S1] which i think is H1 (RP2) x Z =~ Z/2 x Z but not sure how to show its the same as homology classes
Animation showing the homotopy equivalence between a solid torus with k points removed and a wedge sum of a circle and k 2-spheres. During the process we obtain a chain of spheres (SÂČ) in a loop (pearl necklace / necklace with k beads). The chain is homotopic to a wedge sum of k spheres and a circle, and using van Kampen's theorem one may show t...
Yeah, what can you say about it? Does anyone know? (It's in the video I just posted)
one homotopy class?
What is a fiber bundle intuitively?
It is a topological space E along with a continuous map E â B, such that the inverse image of each point of B looks like a fixed space F
The point is that if we understand B and F then we can use that to understand E
intuitively a fiber bundle looks like a product
you have some base space
and at each point you have a fibre attached
R^2 is a an R1 bundle over R1
a cyclinder set is a line bundle over a circle
it can also be viewed as a circle bundle over a line
a torus is a circle bundle over a circle
these examples so far are all âtrivialâ fiber bundles
because they really are globally product
a non trivial example is a möbius band
if you imagine a möbius band
if you looked at a small portion of it
it looks like a cyclinder
but globally
there is a twist
so a mobius band is a line bundle over a circle, but not a circle bundle over a line?
yes a möbius band is a line bundle over a circle
but it is not a circle bundle over a line
so you can see that fiber bundles are like a twisted product
but the twisting only happens in the fibres
oh sorry
i think i might be wrong
i am wrong
i get confused with this example because
I can't see a continuous projection onto a line though 
as a circle bundle over the interval
itâs not a *vector * bundle
i think itâs
picture the möbius band as rectangle before glueing
the fibre over the point x on the interval
is the line from x to 1-x
Aren't these intersecting
i think? this is okay
But fibres can't intersect right
Because then the intersection is mapping to 2 different points
Is a möbius tetrahedron a tetrahedron that has its cohomology unaffected by its cofibers and kernels?
Google just seems to find this concept, which is projective geometry rather than topology: https://mathworld.wolfram.com/MoebiusTetrahedra.html
this is true for vector bundles
but itâs it true for fiber bundles
In mathematics, an I-bundle is a fiber bundle whose fiber is an interval and whose base is a manifold. Any kind of interval, open, closed, semi-open, semi-closed, open-bounded, compact, even rays, can be the fiber. An I-bundle is said to be twisted if it is not trivial.
Two simple examples of I-bundles are the annulus and the Möbius band, the o...
i thought the möbius band was not a circle bundle over the interval
but this seems to suggest otherwise
oh shit
never mind
damn you Moldi
you shook my confidence
I literally made up that sentence on the spot I never knew that a möbius tetrahedron actually existed lol

Hi! I'm kinda new in alg top, and I have the following problem: if X and Y are connected CW complexes, then homotopy type of X wedge Y does not depend on the point where we're gluing the spaces. Can someone give me a hint?
lmao legend
Lol
Note that you can view a path as a homotopy
do you mean I can take a homotopy of paths?
no i mean a path itself is a homotopy
yes
so if it starts at x you can see it as a homotopy {x} x I -> X
with homotopy starting at inclusion map
and ending at map x -> endpoint of path
hmm, I guess I got it, but correct me if I'm wrong: so I handle my gamma: I -> X path as H : {x0} x I -> X homotopy, where x0 is the starting point gamma(0), H_0 (x) = x0, H_1(x) = endpoint = gamma(1)
lol
yes, you just define H(x,t) = gamma(t)
but im kind of sceptical now if you have the tools to solve this question
maybe there is some easier proof idk
but do you know about homotopy extension
yes
thanks đ
Wait so was it or was it not?
Hey, im trying to apply the seifert van kampen theorem to a space constructed from chains of of circles all connected to a larger circle in the centre. I decomposed it into the individual "arms" of the space where the interesection is just the circle in the centre. My question is, is the kernel generated by the inclusion mappings trivial?
the inclusion of a map on the inner circle to any of the arms seems to just give a path in the circle like usual regardless of which arm it is included into, so i am thinking that any of these generators will always give you the constant loop.
i can share a picture if needed
Wait, I just realized my decomposition is probably wrong since the sets are not open
@hasty pasture If you send a picture I can try to help
Also if you're working with circles and by each "arm" you mean the union of these circles or whatever you can generally thicken them a little bit to make them open and then deformation retract onto the arms so that you can still describe it in terms of pi_1(S^1)
The same thing you do to compute pi_1(S^1 wedge S^1)
This is the space for k=3
the arms are at the k-th roots of unity
and there are k copies of S^1 in each arm
as well as k arms
so my thought was to decompose the space as each arm union the circle in the middle, now im thinking about how to get that open
and furthermore is the kernel trivial?
@fading vale
Oh i see
Okay yes your idea is correct, what you can do is basically "thicken" the center circle and the arms a bit
ok, and then use a deformation retract like you said?
Its exactly how you compute pi_1 of the wedge like i said before
Yes
And then the inclusion will be trivial for the same reason that the inclusion of each copy of S^1 into the wedge is too
ok, and i assume thats because this space is very similar to a wedge product?
it almost seems like it should be homotopic to one
since we can contract each arc to a point
Pretty much yes, if I write the arms as like A1, A2, A3, and the center circle as B
then the existence of nbhds around A1 and B in A1 wedge B for example that deformation retract imply that pi_1 of their wedge sum is their free product
This is a general fact for spaces X and Y with this kind of retraction property
ok
So technically speaking what you do is apply this three times with A1 wedge (A2 wedge (A3 wedge B)))
And turn all the wedges into free products
ah makes sense yeah
ok, so it ends up being something like $ZZ...Z$ $k^2+1$ times?
llspacebarll
Is it k circles on each arm?
yeah
cool, thanks so much
i feel like i could just make an argument with the descending wedges instead of all this deformation retract stuff
Also I think you're right that its homotopy equivalent to the standard wedge of k^2 + 1
But showing that formally would be much more annoying
Lol
indeed
You can think of this space as a graph and find a maximal spanning tree for it, then contract the tree to get this equivalence
@hasty pasture
oh i think i remember something like that in hatcher
right after van kampen in fact
yes its used to show that the fundamental group of a connected graph is always free
model categories 
also
dont do this
Wasting peoples time trying to explain things to you
cna yall esxplain how this implies that this is isomorphic to Finfty. Im trying to show $$[F_2, F_2] \approx F_\infty$$
Optimism
Well I learned something from it, so was it really a waste
Its at minimum dishonest 
Dishonest if I said I knew what it was
I just learned the definition of the support of a function. At first i thought it was a fancy term for the points which get mapped to a non-zero value but then i noticed the support is the closure of all points mapped to nonzero values. If Im not mistaken doesnt this allow for the possibility of there being a point in the support of a function which gets mapped to zero? If so, what idea are we trying to capture by defining the support of a function in this way?
that's just a technicality, and the one justification I know is that you need to go to the closure anyway if you want to talk about compact support
but you are correct in your analysis, eg a bump function âââ with supp = [-1, 1] is actually zero in -1 and 1
although I do wish there was a name for just fâ»Âč((0, â))
I guess it is useful that the complement of the support is open
So that, for example, $\text{supp}(f') \subset \text{supp}(f)$.
IlIIllIIIlllIIIIllll
Also it allows extension of the definition of support to tempered distributions as the complement of the largest open set on which the distribution vanishes
ah i see that makes sense thanks
What's the idea behind long exact sequences? I suppose you somehow encode information in it, splitting the computation into easier pieces. I just encountered them when learning about relative homotopy groups. Given my interpretation is correct, how do they encode information?
You might also want to ask in #groups-rings-fields
Thank you for the advice. Fortunately, I've already come to terms with it.
the möbius band is not a circle bundle over the interval
related: any bundle over the interval is actually just a product space
it's not too hard to prove
Wait, you may need more structure I'm not thinking of
Like the transition maps should be given by the action by a topological group or something
The idea is generally to break up the computation into an LES where you understand or already know a bunch of the groups in the sequence, as well as hopefully some of the maps
This allows you to better leverage computations you already know to do new ones
nice to see you pfp is still going
I still cherish it <3
This isn't so much of a desire for help as it is sheer curiosity.
I have just been introduced the fact that for n-dimensional euclidean space where n â„ 5, there are only 3 regular convex polytopes.
WTF is going on that makes this true?
What's the culprit?
I should preface by saying that I am just a lowly analyst, so don't go too hard on me. xD
one way to view this is in terms of finite Coxeter groups, and then the classification follows from the classification of these groups
such groups are classified by their Coxeter diagrams, and the point is that there are a few exceptional diagrams (H_3, H_4, and F_4) that give you the exceptional examples in dimensions 3 and 4
(from Vogan's slides: https://math.mit.edu/~dav/regpolyHO.pdf)
Skimming, it reminds me of the argument about possible tessellations of R^2.
"most of linear algebra" and "rest of linear algebra"

based
yeah exactly
the classification of regular polyhedra in R^3 is just like
So, the issue is that there are too many possible symmetries in higher dimensions.
you try all the regular faces you can have and you get everything
yeah
the reason why Coxeter groups are a good way to look at this is like
if you have some regular polyhedron in R^n, it has to be awfully symmetric
This has to do with root systems and all that jazz.
and not just by any group action, by like rotations and reflections across hyperplanes
yeah
What happens if you remove the convexity requirement?
then the stuff with Coxeter groups lets you classify these kinds of reflection groups in Euclidean space in a nice combinatorial way
oh hmmm
definitely becomes harder
I feel like I've seen the classification of non-convex regular polyhedra (or some other weakening of the definition) in R^3 and it's a huge mess
certainly you lose being able to attack the problem really cleanly with Coxeter groups's there's a lot of other junk you have to deal with
Would this subject area be "geometry"?
(like, without any modifying adjectives xD)
I've always felt that pure geometric questions like these are really, really beautiful. I love it when (initially) unexpected phenomena like these emerge from simple objects.
yeah this is combinatorial geometry
I feel like I'm losing my mind. Anyone familiar with knot theory, someone told me:
According to Fox's Quick trip through knot theory, one correct presentation for the 2-twist spun trefoil is <x,y | x*y*y*x^-1*y^-1, y*y*x*y^-1*x^-1 >
But I've spent like a half hour scrolling through Fox's 'A Quick Trip through Knot Theory', and I can't for the life of me find that presentation
and the only other presentation I've found in another source is different
What space do you get when you attach the boundary of D^2 to S^1 by a triple covering map?
Damn, so it's not something interesting?
i.e. the cofiber of the map $S^1\xrightarrow{3} S^1$
ShamFan1999
I mean
this space is interesting
but this requires some explanation
it plays a "height 0" role of chromatic homotopy theory at the prime 3
less interesting, i guess
Aw
This is effectively just like analogous to asking what the outcome of taking Z and killing 3Z is
it's Z/3Z. You can think that is intrinsically interesting or not, depending
Z/3Z is a basic fundamental object, so is Z/4Z
but is the cofiber of n-fold coverings useful?
I'm not sure what useful would mean, really
Maybe like, used in some important construction, an important example of something, an important counterexample of something, etc
it's a very elementary example of killing a generator in homotopy, but its only really used in constructions when you kill a prime.
I see
@mint sage lim f(x) --> f(a) as x --> a^+ means that for each e > 0 there exists a d > 0 such that if 0 <= x - a < d, then |f(x) - f(a)| < e
But how to prove
let U be an open subset of R. you want to show that V = f^{-1}[U] is open.
if V is empty, then we are done. otherwise, let a in V. then f(a) is in U. U is open, so there is an e > 0 such that
(f(a) - e, f(a) + e) is a subset of U
apply this definition now and see if you can conclude that V is open
does there exist any principal S^n,n even bundle?
Let $X$ be a topological space and $f, g: X \to X$. Do $f\circ g$ and $g\circ f$ being homotopic to the identity map implies $f$ homotopic to $g$?
Tâđ(n)
no
consider S^1->S^1 given by the +1 and -1 map
In particular if [X,X] has a nontrivial group structure then you can always just take any map and its inverse
But in this case the composition of these maps wouldn't be -1 that isn't homotopic to id?
we are talking about the additive group not the multiplicative structure
Oh wait I am the one being dumb here.
Yes okay use nobody's example. My bad.
say i have topolgical spaces (X,tau) , (Y,pi), with A being a subset of X and B being a subset of Y. the interior of A and B, int(A) and int(B) are both open in X and Y respectively, but why is int(A) x int(B) open in X x Y (with product topology)? i dont fully understand the product topology definition, i feel
Maybe you should post the definition of the product topology
from the source you're working with
Hint: try writing these interiors as unions of base sets and then apply the above stuff
saw somebody state this on stack exchange without proof or source of proof. is this true or false:
if X is a compact metric space and f is a continuous map on X, then there is a set A such that f(A) = A
Should be true by starting with A_0 = X, A_{i+1} = f(A_i), and A = intersection of A_i's
i see. didnât think of this. thanks
From compactness, if X is non-empty then so is A
I like leaf's answer better
I'm doing intro algebraic topology. What does it mean to "provide an explicit homotopy"? I presume it's wanting me to give a function on the unit square to the top. space defining a continuous interpolation between two (presumably homotopic) loops?
am i right with that?
Yes.
Did you solve this? It follows like, immediately from the definition, you just have to understand what the definition says
Take A to be {0,1}, with X_0 = (X,tau), X_1 = (Y,pi)
so the basis for the topology on X x Y is given by all U x V where U is open in X and V is open in Y
taking U = int A, V = int B gives the result
I'm looking at may's explanation of the fundamental groupoid and skeletons of categories, etc
he defines a groupoid to be a category in which every morphism is an isomorphism
he then says a group can be thought of as a groupoid with only one object
this doesn't make sense to me. i don't really see what only having automorphisms is useful for here
because the homset on a group to itself is the endomorphism set
not aut(G)
in what sense exactly is a group a groupoid with one object?
He's saying that you think of the elements of the group as being automorphisms of some fixed abstract object
right, so here's your miscommunication. he's not saying that given a group G we consider the full subcategory of Grp consisting of the object G, which would just be the endomorphisms of G. What he's saying is to any group G we can associate a category C where Obj(C) = { * }, a one-object set, and Hom(*,*) = G, with composition given in the obvious way
conversely for any one-object groupoid, Hom(*,*) is a group under composition
Yep, this is what I got to in the end, it was just a case of me not understanding the definition at all
huh. ok, like group actions on it
this actually makes sense considering a group action of G on A is induced by a map G -> Aut(A)
Yeah, right. And like, pretend that this is more specifically an isomorphism
ye
wait, do we need to?
the elements of Aut(A) seem to be a superset of the elements of the homset for the groupoid
if i'm thinking about this right
may not be, just woke up
Ok. Let C be a category and c an object in C.
Do you have a concept of an "automorphism" of c in this setting?
ahhhh right. we are dealing with abstract objects
not sets
oh
i see what you mean
there's the identity morphism
but that's all that's guaranteed to be there
Would you let me call an "automorphism" any isomorphism from c to c?
does that sound reasonable to you?
yeah
Like an automorphism of a vector space V is just an isomorphism V \cong V.
indeed
So.. the automorphisms of c just consist of all isomorphisms c \cong c.
You can prove that this is closed under composition and each one has an inverse.
And the identity morphism id_c is definitely part of this family.
your explanation Hom(*, *) = G seems quite good. we don't consider the endomorphisms on G here in the groupoid do we?
So we have a group of automorphisms of c.
like homomorphisms between G and some other group H ought to be encoded as functors?
in the groupoids corresponding
Yes, from this perspective, if a one-object groupoid is a group, then a group homomorphism is a functor between categories.
One cool puzzle.
Ok. So we've agreed that if C is a one-object groupoid, then we can define G = Hom(*,*).
Then group homomorphisms G -> G correspond to functors from C -> C.
Why is there a talk on category theory here. How's this relevant to topology
Let phi, psi : G -> G be regarded as endofunctors on a one-object category. Under what circumstances are these two functors naturally isomorphic? (In group-theoretic language)
Which homomorphisms G -> G, regarded as functors C -> C, are naturally isomorphic to the identity?
There doesn't even seem to be any topology motivation behind your question @quartz edge
ah yeah sorry. i was super tired last night and the question came from an algtop text
Oh, okay.
How to show that unit circle in $\mathbb{R}^2$ is not homeomorphic to [0, 1)?
Giyu
Yes if i remove any point from $S^{\perp}$ then it is connect but in interval if i remove only o then it is connected
Giyu
Yes
So by this how do i claim that it is not homeomorphic
So suppose there was a homeomorphism
Remove a non 0 point from the interval and remove the image of that point from the circle
The restriction of the homeomorphism is still a homeomorphism
But being connected is a homeomorphism invariant
Alright got it i try from circle to interval then i remove point from circle and take image of that removing point is zero so it is not working i need to do in reverse
Yes got it, thank you.
Another way is that e.g. the sequence 1/2,2/3,3/4,... has no convergent subsequence in [0,1) but its image in S^1 under any map will have one, in particular if it's a homeo we can pass to that subsequence and go back to [0,1) to get a convergent subsequence of the original sequence
Basically using (sequential) compactness
But i didnât read compactness till now so
Fair enough
How to show that any space is seperable or not i.e. they have countable dense set
So you want to make a countable set with which you can approximate any other sequence with bounded absolute value sum
Usually for this you use rational approximations for reals
And you use finite sequences as an approximation of infinite sequences
Stuff like that
This is boring haha
it can be kinda cute constructing such an approximation sometimes though imo
like it tests understanding too a bit
For construction of approximations i need measure?
You need to look at the metric
this has nothing to do with measure rly (unless you meant L^1)
I knew somebody would say smth like that kek
Okay then i need read this deeply
Just to clarify, you do mean the set of absolutely convergent sequences right
No there is space of sequence small ell
ok sure
Yes
Another question: is there any Cauchy sequence which is not convergent anywhere, i mean $(a_n) \in X$ but not convergent in X so is it necessary that $a_n$ convergent in some other space?
Giyu
This is the definition of the completion of a metric space
a_n is Cauchy
Essentially
Here X is not complete
The completion of X is the smallest space which contains X in which all of the Cauchy sequences in X are convergent in the completion
Oh got it any space X have completion right so any Cauchy sequence converges in some other space
Yeah
Thanks
You can even make any individual Cauchy sequence converge by throwing in the point it should converge to
So if you have a particular Cauchy sequence you want to converge you can add a point to your space and extend your metric to that point
Yes
How to relate sequentially closed set and closed set
I mean S is sequentially closed set then for any x in S there is sequence which converge to x but i think it is also true for closed set?
Yes so there is an implication in one direction (closed implies sequentially closed)
So in general other one is not true right how to distinguish them
And in a lot of nice spaces we have the converse
In topology and related fields of mathematics, a sequential space is a topological space whose topology can be completely characterized by its convergent/divergent sequences. They can be thought of as spaces that satisfy a very weak axiom of countability.
All first-countable spaces, which includes metric spaces, are sequential spaces.
In any t...
If X is metrizable and S is subset of X then is it iff?
Okay that article is probably not that helpful actually
Yes
Here's a nice class of spaces with that property
In topology, a branch of mathematics, a first-countable space is a topological space satisfying the "first axiom of countability". Specifically, a space
X
{\displaystyle X}
is said to be first-countable if each point has a countable neighbourhood basis (local base). That is, for each point
...
In mathematics, the Kuratowski embedding allows one to view any metric space as a subset of some Banach space. It is named after Kazimierz Kuratowski.
The statement obviously holds for the empty space.
If (X,d) is a metric space, x0 is a point in X, and Cb(X) denotes the Banach space of all bounded continuous real-valued functions on X with the...
To obtain completion of X
Yes first countable is much weaker
weaker mean more restrictions right
No, less
So second countable imply first countable?
Yes
Lower limit topology on what space?
Yes i proved this one and $\mathbb{R}_l$ lower limit topology is first countable by setting $\left [x, x+1/n \right)$ so this one is first countable isnât?
[x, x+1/n)
Giyu
Ohh sorry Iâm little bit confused there is space which is not second countable but it is first countable,
Those are common even among metric spaces
Any metric space is first countable, but there is a lot of metric spaces which are not separable
$\ell_3$ is first countable but not separable
Giyu
Usually the space of continuous bounded functions over a non-compact metric space is not separable iirc
l^infty is not separable
So if we imposed one more restrictions that totally bounded imply separable
Well, such space would contain a copy of l^infty I think
Oh yes sorry
Totally bounded implies separable, yes
So then we can claim that l^infty is not totally bounded
Yes
How to prove that l^infty is not separable
We need to find a point and then claim that there is no sequence which convergence to that point
Some kind of diagonal argument probably
Okay thank you.
There is uncountably many pairwise disjoint open sets in l^infty @peak crystal
Consider x in {0, 1}^infty and B(x, 1/2)
Not understand
Any sequence of zeros and ones and a ball in l^infty centered at it and with radius 1/2
I mean Iâm not getting your point, by this what we conclude?
If l^infty were separable then there would be dense countable set
So any non-empty open set has element of this set
If we find uncountable family of pairwise disjoint open sets, then we need to have uncountably many points in our dense set
Ohh got it then its not remain countable
Any knot theorists here familiar with 2-knots? Different sources are giving me different presentations for the two-twist spun trefoil, and idk which is right
Rate my pun from -i to ij
Have you confirmed these groups are actually different
Stupid question incoming
To the best of my ability, yeah. I'm not the best with working with group presentations though
Hm, not sure then.
Itâs obvious that H_n(empty set) = 0 for singular homology for all n but i was asked to verify this. So I defined the chain complex in the usual way but the map phi: n simplex to empty set doesnât appear to exist.
You should be able to compute this yourself
Or if you draw it for me I could figure it out
I donât know what this knot is tho
yeah so the chain complex is the free abelian group on the empty set in dim geq 1
So I donât define the chain complex starting from n
what?
There are no n simplixes that fit into empty set right?
Yeah. the set of singular n simplices in the empty space is the empty set
and the free abelian group on the empty set is zero
It's a 2-knot embedded in 4-dimensional space, so it's not nearly as easy to just find the relations as with a traditional knot
ah
In order to show that H_0(X) is isomorphic to augmented H_0(X) + Integers, Hatcher claims that epsilon composed with boundary map induces a map from H_0(X) to Integers st kernel of this map is augmented H_0(X). Does this follow from functoriality? I already proved this using a dimension argument but I would like to know Hatcherâs way.
Since epsilon vanishes on Im(boundary map)
Never mind
Is S={1,x,x^2,x^3.......} is compact in C[a,b]? any hint how can i prove this?
what does the notation pi_1(X) mean for a topological space X? i thought fundamental groups need a base point
are you familiar with stone weierstrass?
pi_1(X, x_0) only depends on the path component of the base point (up to isomorphism)
so when you restrict yourself to path connected spaces you can drop the basepoint
pi_1(X, x_0) only depends on the path component of the base point (up to isomorphism)
sorry but i don't understand this at all
Yea,but can i use thay here?
if you can connect two base points by a continuous path, the fundamental groups at the two basepoints are the same. If the path between $x_0 $and $x_1$ is $\alpha$, then if $[a]\in \pi_1(X, x_0)$, $[\alpha] \ast [a] \ast [\alpha^{-1}]\in \pi_1(X, x_1)$
Buncho Spheres
you can show that this is a group isomorphism
if you're not allowed to make use of that, you can still use it to get some intuition for what you need to do
oh okay thanks
namely that {1, x, ...} is not closed in C[a,b]
It's not compact in general, you can take a = b = 1 though
That will be an intervel then
How does Stone-Weierstrass work here?
ummm
Are you using closed + bounded = compectness?
Yes, it's just a sequence
jfc lmao for some reason i interpreted that as span{1, x, x^2,...} 
It's not compact then because 0 is not in this set
Then i will be , because it will generate set of all polynomials
ah yeah
great point
whereas if b >= 1 or a <= -1, you get failure of equicontinuity
nah it's not closed or precompact, that's what i was trying to say with the stone weierstrass thing
Why we focusing on equicontinity?
it's dense in C[a,b]
It's not
arzela ascoli says that for subsets of C[a, b], precompactness (compactness of the closure) is equivalent to pointwise boundedness and equicontinuity
How? Can you please elaborate ?
(i'm talking about the span in response to ryc, not the correct interpretation as a sequence)
Ohhh i forgot Arzela Ascoli
if -1 < a < b < 1, then x^n converges to 0 uniformly
yeah try to work this out using AA
I mean, you can check this by hand
If |a|>1 or |b|>1 then it can't even converge pointwise
So we are left with -1 <= a < b <= 1
And here you have that it converges to something that's 0 on an interval if anything
So no polynomial of the form x^n
(Then it would be 0 polynomial, which is not in the set)
So only a = b = +-1 work
Can you please tell how can we show this is not equicontinious?
the best way to see this is at x = 1
at x = 1, the derivative of x^n is n
this lets you say that, for epsilon = 1/2, if you give me any delta, we have |x^n - 1| > 1/2 for large enough n even when |x - 1| < delta. in particular, pick x = 1 - delta/2 and pick n big enough so that (1 - delta/2)^n < 1/10 (this surely will happen, since (1 - delta/2)^n converges to 0 as n goes to infinity)
i didn't really use the fact that the derivative is n
but you can also use that and the mean value theorem somehow
I feel like using equicontinuity is overcomplicating this
We have a sequence, and it's enough to show there is a subsequence with no convergent subsequences
Sure, that's another way to do it. And you can do it for, say, [-1, 1] by saying that you do have pointwise convergence, so subsequences cant converge uniformly (or they would be forced to the pointwise, discontinuous limit)
(i dont know if equicontinuity is complicating it necessarily though - when I think about compactness of sets of functions in uniform norm, I start thinking about derivatives growing before I start thinking about literal sequential compactness. But that's just a perspective thing).
is a net just a map that takes one directed set to another?
and a subnet another map that takes a directed set to the directed set of the net?
A net is a map on directed set into our space
And subnets are analogues of subsequences, but they are slightly different
so is a net a way to order the space?
No, it's just a more general sequence
oh right ok
For example, partial sums of a Riemann integral are a type of net
I think this example is illustrative
Nets are one of two main ways of generalizing convergence, the other being filters
Both are pretty good
yes I can somewhat understand that a net is a less restricted definition of sequences, just having a hard time visualising what's going on
Directed sets, as name suggests, impose some sense of direction, without it being a well-order
Do you understand the Riemann integral example?
so an element can have two or more predecessors?
x_1,x_2 =< x_3
Yeah
not really
Well you have one partial sum, and a second one
Now you can say the first one is < than the second one if you're using all the points from first one, and then some
And for any two partial sums there is their common refinement
Now if the integral exists, the partial sums will converge to it
Precisely in the sense of convergence of nets
ahhh ok, yeah so basically the sums get finer and finer until you have the exact value of the integral
cool jazz, thank you so much
Does the n+1 skeleton of a CW complex completely determine the nth homotopy group in an extension of the manner that the 2 skeleton completely determines the fundamental group?
I think so. By cellular approximation, every map from S^n already lands in the n-skeleton and a homotopy starting in S^n x I lands in the n+1 skeleton
No it needs to be n-1 connected
e.g you need pi_i(X) = 0 for i < n
Oh wait i am illiterate, n+1 skeleton yes, n and n+1 cells no
Would the homotopy have to be defined from S^n x I^n for the nth homotopy group?
no
homotopies are always of the form X x I -> Y
sometimes you have some extra conditions that some things are preserved
but still the domain is of that form
you can think of the interval as a time parameter
There is a concept of $K$-homotopy for compact space $K$, which is a function $H:X\times K\to Y$
Blitz
I'm not saying what chernberries said is right of course
is there a point to this? i've never seen it
Does K come equipped with like some structure
i.e. the inclusions of 0,1 into I
well, the only application I know of, is this simple theorem
Blitz
I read it from a book and not sure if there are other applications, seems like a definition which is too basic
it exists in literature though 
Is there an open set in R^n which is connected but not path connected? Just out of curiousity
No
This is because of local path-connectedness
If U is open connected, its path-components are open and path-connected
Since U is connected, there is just one path-component
Is the proof
Interesting that Poincare duality is your favourite theorem, but you ask such basic questions 
People learn every day ig
They are mostly active in #algebraic-geometry so I imagine they learned it out of an AG book
I read Hatcher before getting into AG :)
That would also explain it 
Quick q - the cone of S^n is homeo to D^n+1 just because of essentially spherical coordinates right?
Yes
Like if we embed it both R^n+1 we have the map S^(n) x [0,1] -> D^(n+1) just sending (x,λ) to λx and then ye that identifies all the points with λ = 0
compact hausdorff etc so it's a homeo
Yes
Nice cheers
Np
More precisely, there's no argument with compactness, just quotient maps
I just used that to show its inverse is continuous
But yeah the inverse can also just be explicitly written down anyway
Like continuous bijection from compact to hausdorff is a homeo i mean yeah
Here's where it's used
Yup
I don't want to prove it, so here's a reference
In case you haven't noticed this visual: We can think of S^n x I as a copy of S^n, based at its rightmost point, living at each coordinate of [0,1]. In fact, we might as well consider them to be shrinking as we do so. Visually, this "fills in" the outermost unit sphere and looks exactly like the unit ball. The problem is that in the limit our shrinking wants a sphere of radius 0---but because we are coning, the last sphere gets to be squished to a point
Oh i mean i've done this before lol dw
I was more just checking I had the right idea for a map/intuition
Oh nice, that's a slightly different way of visualising to what I had, thanks
And yeah the interpretation of it being a 'cone' is seen more visually when we modify the map to, say S^1 x [0,1] -> R^3, (x,t) -> (tx,t) right? since then the image is literally just a standard cone and so CS^1 homeo to the cone
oh sure yeah
I mean the visual should always be like
you take X, stretch it to a "cylinder" of Xs, and then squish the final copy of X
i sent this like 5 times before my internet connected properly and discord decided to send them all lol
also i meant to say something but this attitude has no place here, please refrain from saying dumb things like this. it's toxic and pointless.
I feel attacked here
nobody is attacking you, just saying you don't have to act like that
no hard feelings just saying
âInduced homomorphismâ just follows from functoriality of function right
It keeps popping up and I just assumed that was the definition
Can you give an example of the composition?
My understanding, for instance, is that the functor from based spaces that takes based spaces to groups and morphisms to morphisms st f(x0) = y0 is induced by the cont function from a based space to a based space
So like what you said w/ pi_1
What are you composing? The continuous function with the function that sends basepoint to base point?
Given an element in pi_1(X,x) you can pick a representative a : (S^1,1) -> (X,x). If you now have a map f : (X,x) -> (Y,y) you can consider the composition f o a : (S^1,1) -> (Y,y), giving you a loop in Y. Taking homotopy classes then gives you an element in [f o a] in pi_1(Y,y).
so the induced morphism pi_1(f) : pi_1(X,x) -> pi_1(Y,y) just takes [a] to [f o a]
Itâs weird to think that the composition is inducing functoriality vs the actual function
drawing pictures helps
this is pretty common in algebraic topology though, you'll see similar things everywhere
Unfortunately Iâm already knee deep in my algebraic topology course so I guess I need to revisit my intuition about induced things
Well, the composition includes the original function
We are just explaining how to get from a map X->Y to a function sending maps S^1->X to maps S^1->Y
which then gives us the algebraic map we need after taking homotopy classes
But really the original function X->Y is doing the heavy lifting here
Whatever, no use in arguing and I don't need to be here
lol what
you said something rude
and got called out
you aren't a victim here lmfao
This was already resolved btw (with me, max and Porphyrion in #discussion ) so if anything you are coming in for the drama, and I advise you to stop.
Is [0,1] homeomorphic to [0,1)? I don't think so as $\mathbb{R} - [0,1] = (-\infty,0) \cup (1, \infty)$ which is open in $\mathbb{R}$ under the standard topology while $\mathbb{R} - [0,1) = (-\infty,0) \cup [1, \infty)$ is not.
Ăvariste Galois
Although i am not sure if that is even an indication
Is the way I showed it good?
A space can have homeomorphic sets which aren't both open/closed
I see
So your argument doesn't work
Np
Any recommendations for introduction to TQFT? I have basic knowledge in algebra, algebraic topology, and category theory. When I look up the materials, I am always deterred by advanced topics like higher category theory
[0,1) isnt compact
there isnt anything to show
a compact space cant be homeomorphic to a noncompact one
The paper I always recommend starting with is the 2cob and frobenius algebras paper
Thanks for your recommendation. Who is/are the authors?
Thanks. I will take a look
There is to show that they are not homeomorphic
I know it might sound obvious to you, but it might not be to someone who is starting with topology
I'm not sure if this goes here or in #real-complex-analysis, but I'm trying to figure out what the open balls of the uniform topology on $\mathbb{R}^{J}$ look like. In Munkres, the uniform metric is given as $\overline{\rho}(x,y)=\sup{\overline{d}(x_{\alpha},y_{\alpha})|\alpha\in J}$. My first guess is that the open ball $B_{\overline{\rho}}((0,0),1)$ would be $\prod_{\alpha\in J}(-1,1)$, but that doesn't feel right: If we let $\mathbf{a}=(\frac{1}{2},\frac{2}{3},\dots,\frac{n}{n+1})\in\mathbb{R}^{\omega}$, then $\overline{\rho}(\mathbf{a},\mathbf{0})=\sup{\overline{d}(\frac{n}{n+1},0)|n\in\mathbb{Z}^{+}}=1$ so $\mathbf{a}\notin B_{\overline{\rho}}((0,0),1)$, but $\mathbf{a}\in\prod_{\mathbb{Z}^{+}}(-1,1)$.
Esix, Fractal Bloom
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
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This is definitely topology
Yeah, it's just that it's specifically a question about a metric, and I've also done metric space stuff in real analysis
I'd go here for metric and metrizable spaces myself, and reserve #real-complex-analysis for integral stuff and so on
Fair enough
So you have $\sup |x_\alpha |<1$, right? Like you noticed, we need the sequence bounded uniformly by some $M<1$
Blitz
So it should be $\bigcup_{0<M<1}\prod_{\alpha\in J} [-M, M]$
Blitz
That looks believable. I want to make sure $(\frac{1}{2},\dots,\frac{n}{n+1},\dots)$ isn't in there, but I think that shouldn't be too difficult.
Esix, Fractal Bloom
Yeah, you just pick $n>M$ for any given $M$
Esix, Fractal Bloom
You can also write it as $\bigcup_{0<M<1}[-M, M]^J$ or $\bigcup_{0<M<1}(-M, M)^J$
Blitz
Yeah, I was about to ask, actually, about open vs closed intervals
But because it's an infinite union I'm not sure how much it strictly matters
Infinite union of closed intervals can be open, etc.
It doesn't matter because M is from (0, 1), this is what makes the set open
Np
munkres theorem 17.11 states that every simply ordered set in the order topology is Hausdorff. However consider the set {a,b} with the order relation defined by a < b. This satisfies comparability non-reflectivity and transitivity. If iâm not mistaken the order topology on this set would be { {empty}, {a,b} }. Clearly this is not Hausdorff. What am i missing?
the order topology is generated by the open intervals and open rays here, so sets of the form
{x : a < x}
{x : x < b}
{x : a < x < b}
for all a,b in your set.
this says that the open sets are
{}, {b}, {a}, and {a}U{b} = {a,b}
aahhh thanks
Could someone help me get an intuition as to why these spaces are called "hedgehogs"?
They're spiky
sorry to ask such a basic question but:
I'm a bit confused by this because from my understanding [0, 1] is a compact set
actually hmm, i think I might've figured it out
my problem with it was for example if the open sets got smaller and smaller somewhere. but it clearly neats to have an open set containing the limit point, which if it got smaller and smaller would necessarily contain an infinite number of those sets, and reduce it to a finite number.
at least I think this is correct
exactly!
trying to prove that the set {1/n : n in N} union {0} is compact will give you an idea of why this works.
lol literally the example it gives later on
for open intervals it's a tiny bit more involved to show it rigorously but your idea is 100% correct.
now maybe this makes it clearer why things like (0, 1) are not compact
yea it does. thanks! :)
idk why but there's so many definitions in topology that have always confused me on if it's actually sound or not.
(and in general, why compact sets should be closed - but you have to be careful, this can fail in non-hausdorff spaces)
a lot of them are very confusing at first and only become more intuitive the more arguments you do with them and the more equivalent ways of stating them you see.
any reccomendations on a text? the text from above is just Calculus on Manifolds, so def not actual toplogy, but I'd like to kinda like to read along and I don't think I have any texts for it yet
The classic text people like to use is Munkres's topology book.
thanks so much! :)
Does the topology $\tau$ as defined in this statement have a general name? It sounds interesting and probably merits a name because if $\tau_1$ and $\tau_2$ are induced by metrics, $\tau$ is induced by the metric given by the maximum of the two metrics.
Mistral
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1999946/hatcher-question-1-2-10-show-that-the-loop-gamma-is-nullhomotopic in the answe to this they say that keeping track where gamma goes gives gamma = ab but when i try to visualize this i keep getting gamma = aba^-1b^-1: any nice way to visualize to figure out why im wrong ?
Question about this definition: is ii) really what is stated here? I ask this because most of the time when we define a delta complex structure on a space, ii) isn't exactly satisfied. However, a relaxed version of ii) where we ignore the ordering of simplexes is satisfied
Here's an example
This is the Klein Bottle
L restricted to the bottom edge of the triangle gives us the map -b instead of b
Where by -b, I mean the map which takes an element t of [0,1] to b(1-t)
Strictly speaking, this map is not one of the maps from Î^1 to K
the only two maps from Î^1 to K that we have in our structure are a and b
Can someone verify this?
Restriction of L to b is the exact same continuous map
er
let me think harder
yeah wait why do you think its -b?
@coral pawn
Well let's say we order L by [x_0, x_1, x_2] where x_0 is the bottom-left vertex, x_1 the top-right, and x_2 the bottom-right. Then restricting to the lower edge (which is [x_2, x_0]) gives us the map -b right?
@marsh forge
I guess if you orient L the other way, the restriction to the bottom edge would be b
However, then the restriction to the right edge would be -a
My (Masters) course in Algebraic Topology more or less consisted of basic Point Set Topology and Chapter 1 of Hatcher
Is this typical content for a course, or is this quite short? (this thought has been bugging me for a while
)
Dont know anything about a masters degree but it does seem very short
From what I can tell a masters alg top course at least goes through homology
sigh guess I just have to readup on extra stuff
If Iâve got an identification space can I always say that itâs homotopy equivalent to connecting the identified points to an intermediary contractible space?
My 1st sem masters course in algebraic topology had ch 1-3 and basic htpy group stuff as prerequisites. We started with hurewicz
Sounds like something you might be able to say about CW complexes
There were 2 bachelor courses preceding this though, covering mostly chapter 1-3
From what I can tell our courses cover higher homotopy groups and cohomology in masters and do point set, fundamental group and Homology in second and third undergrad year
https://www.math.umb.edu/~oleg/hw_2_solutions.pdf i donât quite get in 1.2.11 why they attach two 2-cells by the given maps instead of a single 2-cell by the map abcf(a^-1)f(b^-1)c^-1
I think the issue here is that the orientation is like a formal algebraic choice rather than something actually describing the order of the map but maybe that also doesn't work
I havent thought about this in a bit and it is indeed confusing at times
Like the identifications of the edges via the directional arrows and the map representing b in the chain complex need not coincide i think
so as a map [0,1] the "direction" of b might not agree with the identification pattern
Like we could reverse the orientation, get a different shape, but keep the delta complex structure the same, I think
Hm. But then maybe you are messing up the boundary maps or something
Let $\mathcal{C}, \mathcal{D}$ be two chain complexes and let $f: \mathcal{C} \to \mathcal{D}$ be an arbitrary chain map. Show $f: \mathcal{C} \to \mathcal{D}$ induces a sequence of group homomorphisms $f_* = {((f_q)*) , | , q \in \mathbb{Z}}$, where $(f_q): H_q(\mathcal{C}) \to H_q(\mathcal{D})$ with $[\sigma] \mapsto [f_q(\sigma)]$ for each $q \in \mathbb{Z}$. (We write $f_: H(\mathcal{C}) \to H(\mathcal{D})$.)
eM
Am I showing the map $(f_q)*$ is well-defined and is a group homomorphism for each $q \in \mathbb{Z}$?
eM
Yeah the well-defined part doesn't seem as straightforward as I thought đ€
So I let $[\sigma], [\tau]$ be in $H_q(\mathcal{C})$ such that $[\sigma] = [\tau]$, and therefore $\sigma = \tau + \theta$ for some $\theta in \mathrm{Img} , \partial_{q+1} = B_{q+1}(\mathcal{C}) \subseteq C_q$. Recalling $f_q: C_q \to D_q$ is a group homomorphism, from our map as defined previously, the induced map gives $(f_q)_*([\sigma]) = [f_q(\sigma)] = [f_q(\tau + \theta)] = [f_q(\tau) + f_q(\theta)] = [f_q(\tau)] + [f_q(\theta)]$.
I'm figuring out how to "delete" $[f_q(\theta)]$, which can be done so by showing $f_q(theta) \in B_q(\mathcal{D}) = \mathrm{Img} , \partial_{q+1}$, where the term $\partial_{q+1}: D_q \to D_{q+1}$. I think commutative of $f_q$ might come into the picture but I'm trying to see how to put this together.
eM
the map you should get sends a chain a+imâ of degree n in C to f(a)+imâ of degree n in D. It's well-defined since if you take a+imâ=b+imâ then (a-b) is in imâ, but since f takes boundaries to boundaries we get f(a-b) in imâ, so f(a)+imâ=f(b)+imâ
so f takes kernels to kernels and images to images, so you get an induced map from kernel mod image to kernel mod image
(I'm being sloppy with omitting indexing/lower star)
I literally just saw where theta was living lol how did I miss that
all good! đ
I understand
Also, how did you get that partial character to show up?
Oof
I know there are some fancy math keyboards but 
consider trying wincompose
If A is contained X, is the fundamental group of A contained in the fundamental group of X? I found a counterexample but Iâm not too sure
if you have already found a ce, why are you still unsure?
