#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 284 of 1
your idea of continuity is probably epsilon delta i suppose
but that uses the concept of distance since R is a normed (hence metric) space
but generally we don't need distance to define continuity on topological spaces
we just need neighbourhoods of points
which is necessary since there exist spaces that aren't metrizable (there's no metric that induces our topology)
and then when you get back to metric or normed stuff you'll see that they are special cases of the general definition of continuity on topological spaces by using the topology induced be the metric/norm

it's weird man, im doing ind. study w a prof and he starts w topology but idk what a metric space is lol
and the only topology he's taught me has been a whirlwind of a phone call that was 10 minutes long lol
he did say that a map between topological spaces is cont if the preimage of an open set is an open set
but having asked what i ddid before about open sets, that seems a lot simpler now ig
wdym metrizable
How do i show something is a metric
show that it satisfies the properties of a metric
can someone give me an example of a discontinuous map between topological spaces
im trying to understand the def. that a cont. map is one such that the preimage of an open set is an open set
take X = Y = {0,1} with topologies T_X = {{},{0,1}} and T_Y = {{},{0},{0,1}}. Then f : X -> Y, x -> x is not continuous because f^{-1}({0}) = {0} is not in T_X, even though it is in T_Y, i.e. we found an open set {0} in Y whose preimage under f is not open anymore
this map isn't onto though
oh ig nobody said it has to be
oh 
it's been a long day
but why does {0} even have a preimage
or is that the point you're making
f^{-1}({0}) = {0}
if f : X -> Y is any function, then for any subset S of Y i can consider f^{-1}(S) = {x in X | f(x) in S}
ok yeah
and in the above case f is just the identity
i mean {0} in particular, no element in T_X should map to it right...?
0 -> 0
its the identity mapping
f(x) = x
its just different topologies on domain and codomain
same underlying set
OH the map is between the X and Y not the topologies themselves
yes
im being dense
being continuous is a property of a function between topological spaces
the function itself us just a set-function between the underlying sets of the topological spaces
and you use the topologies of the spaces to check that the function has the property of being continuous
ajsdblksahdbfadsbh ive been overthinking this
happens
i mean the continuity you know from functions between the reals is just a special case of this
would be a good exercise to check that the definitions are equivalent
you're assuming i paid attention in analysis 
jk ik what you mean lol
or at least i will after a quick look through my notebook
do you know the topological definition of being continuous in a single point?
i do not
.
do you know what a neighborhood of a point is
oof
well in contrast to topological spaces i'd say that working with metric spaces is pretty straightforward if you're comfortable with R
just whenever you say |x-y| < eps replace that with d(x,y) < eps
d is just a distance function
what i mean is im kinda groping around atm lol
just tryna get a better idea of shit while i meet w prof again
is a homeomorphism a map between the actual topologies or the topological spaces again
,w topological space
the topologies are just extra data so that you know which sets are open
so should i think of the "topological space" as just the set on which the topology is being built (like R for example) or as the set and the set of subsets together
well you need to consider them together of course because otherwise you would just be looking at an ordinary set
butt
im not really sure why you're having such a hard time with this
no i get it im just being unnecessarily exhaustive probably
if you consider the reals with their natural ordering, you dont suddenly ask whether order-preserving maps are defined on the reals or in the relation-set of the order

Given a map between two topological spaces, there is an induces homomorphism between the fundamental groups. Is this induced homomorphism an example of a categorical pushout
no, fajitas
i guess you're already discussing this in #category-theory but yeah no, it's a functor
why is it phi_i+ compose phi_i-
phi_i^- -1 maps B^n back to U_i^-
which isn’t even the domain for phi_i^+
how do you compose them
nvm it’s in the errata
f is continuous if any open U in X is open in A (since we're dealing with inclusions, it is the identity map)
Let X be the discrete topology on {a,b}
A be the induced topology of {b} on X
So, A = {{},{b}}
We claim in : {{},{b}} -> {{},{a},{b},{a,b}} is continuous. But {a} is open in X but not in A
Where am I wrong?
this implies A having the subspace topology
That's what's not clicking
what is it having a subspace topology, does it mean, open sets in X are open in the subspace? Closed sets in X are closed in the subspace? I mean, how can it be that {a} is open in A (example above) if it isn't an element of A
ah, the open sets in A are open sets in X intersect A
so you start with a topology on X and endow A with the so called subspace topology
(there is also a definition in terms of the inclusion map, but that makes this exercise trivial)
also i assumed in your example above you had A=X, if {a} isnt even in A, its preimage is the empty set, which is open
i mean
say X = {a,b,c} and A = {c} both with discrete topology
then the preimage of {a} under inclusion is {}
why is that
by the definition of preimage
let me check
the preimage includes all elements of A that get mapped to a
but c gets mapped to c, so c cant be in it
and there arent any other elements
oh I see lol f^{-1}({a}) = {x in A : f(x) = {a}} which is indeed the empty set
your counterexample still works for A=X, so the word "subspace" implies "endowed with subspace topology"
now I am not seeing how the counter example works
i mean just have A = X, X discrete top and A indiscrete/trivial top
then the inclusion will not be continuous
ok, A = X = {1,2}
{1} open in X but not in A
no wut
the preimage of {1} in A is open indeed
How is the inclusion not continuous?
but the preimage of {1} is the emptyset, and indeed the emptyset is open in A. Why doesn't it make f continuous?
in this case the preimage of {1} is {1}
the condition for continuity is open in X its preimage must be open in A ?
since {1} notin indiscrete topology of {1,2} that makes inclusion not continuous
so the map in : A -> X (A endowed with subspace topology) generally corresponds the mapping $A \cap U \mapsto U$ where $U$ is open in X
mns
the map is just the identity restricted to A
and the open sets in A are of the form $A \cap U$ with $U \subseteq X$ open
Lochverstärker
exaclty, I see now, it is continuous because the inverse of the mapping will be open since for any open U in X the restriction to A is U cap A which is open in A
yeah
I think I will leave the counterexample to rest a little bit and comeback to it later today
the thing with that counterexample is
when you talk about subspaces in topology you want them to have subspace topology generally and not just any topology
because subspace means more than just subset
you want at the very least the inclusion to be a "good" (in this case continuous) map
otherwise it isnt really a subspace, because subspaces have to play nice with the maps we care about (in this case continuous maps)
oh I see
Hum, I will think about it
thanks!
exactly
we can't find any coarsest topology in A such that the mapping in : A -> X is continuous with respect to the topology of X
Because letting A be the trivial topology in : A -> X won't be continuous
because in the example above, {1} is open in X but is not open in the indscrete topology of A = {{},{1,2}} thus making in discontinuous
what is the issue? the subspace topology is the coarest topology of those that make the inclusion continuous
i.e. the subspace topology has enough open sets to make the inclusion continuous, but not more
Thanks!!
Is every continuous injective map a local homeomorphism?
Identity map from discrete topology on a set to the indiscrete topology on the same set
Rats
Is there a criteria for an open map?
whats the free homotopy class
there's a statement in my book which states that every free homotopy class admits X (X irrelevant here)
homotopy class but you don't fix a basepoint
There is no nice statement like you are looking for
what structure do these form?
They are in general a set, but that is about it
you need a fixed base point to create the group, are the free ones some kind of a groupoid?
Well, you need more than just a basepoint for a group structure on homotopy classes of maps in general
how so?
[X,Y]_* is not a group in general unless we choose X,Y specifically
It probably would help if you gave the
(Irrelevant here info)
The fundamental groupoid of a space is the correct thing to think about here. One takes as objects the points of X and as morphisms that paths from a point x to a point y.
One might quotient the morphisms by based homotopy
Or one could try to remember this structure (obtaining some sort of higher fundamental groupoid)
"every free homotopy class is represented by a length minimising curve" is the full statement
That seems reasonable enough
and for each real r there are only a finite number of homotopy classes represented by curves of length less than r
I would not know how to prove such a statement but it does not seem nonsensical
So you are looking at riemannian manifolds
Ascoli + the fact that homotopy classes are open subsets of C^0(S^1, X)
compact path metric spaces
apparently both statements also true when the base point is taken to be x, but we can't expect the curves to be smooth at x anymore
alright, thanks for the help, I'm gonna go study
a submap of a continuous map is continuous
X,Y topologies with f : X -> Y continuous
A subset X and B subset Y
we must show ab(f) : A -> B is continuous
Take any open set U in B. We must show ab(f)^{-1}(U) is open in A
What is ab
ab(f) is abbreviation of f to A, B
So its the restriction of f to A and you're assuming that the image lies in B?
oh yeah, that's an assumption in the definition, for A subset X and B subset Y, then for every f : X -> Y such that f(A) subset B there's a mapping ab(f) : A -> B defined by the formula x |-> f(x) called abbreviation of f to A,B
What have you tried
yeah, so, since U in B is open, we have U is open in Y. Since f is continuous we have f^{-1}(U) open in X
now I have many questions
what exactly is A? 1) subset 2) subspace 3) a random topology on a subset A
x open in X means x is open in A?
A and B should both be subsets of X,Y with their respective subspace topologies
for this statement to make any sense
ok, so its done
Not quite
A cap f^{-1}(U) is open in A
U open in B does not imply U open in Y
I see
max 
hello!
I am sorry I missed ur talk chm
I rejoined the server like 15 min after it started lol
Max 
It’s okay
Hi
You need to take an open set in B and prove that it has open preimage
Max
The idea behind your proof is reasonable, it just needs more thinking
(in particular, you have not at all used the definition of the subspace topology)
U = B cap V for some V open in Y
f^{-1}(U) = f^{-1}(B cap V) = f^{-1}(B) cap f^{-1}(V). Note f^{-1}(V) is open in X
I am trying with the f^{-1}(B)
huh?
this is true
oh yes
but why does it help
but then, f^{-1}(U) is open in A if f^{-1}(B) = A
and we already have A subset f^{-1}(B)
If x in f^{-1}(B) then there's some x in X with f(x) in B
note f(A) subset B, so the image of every element of A is an element of B
but it can be the case that the x we take in f^{-1}(B) is not an element of A (right?)
in fact, it can be the case that f(x) in B and x notin A

(remember that we want to be intersecting with A, eventually)
eventually 
So maybe f^{-1}(B) cap f^{-1}(V) is not good enough, but can we find a set with the same A-intersection that is more obviously open in A?
what is meant by point set in "point set topology"
im assuming it has to do with a literal set of points but what does it mean
Point set topology is a way of doing topology by describing your space as a set of points and having another family of subsets which describes how the points are connected
It also tends to mean you are studyung something that emphasizes like, the nitty gritty study of spaces that can be gross or have weird properties
If I'm not mistaken, point set topology is a synonim for general topology, as opposed to, say, algebraic topology or topology of manifolds.
Like point set topology is used to describe the study of topology that does not really vibe with how future topological subjects go
Point set is more specific than general, I would say
At least as a Concept With Attitude(tm)
hum

im gonna assume the latter half of this is the def of topology that ive been taught so far
set of subsets that contains nullset, entire set, closed under inf union and finite intersection
Yes they’re just saying you’re giving neighborhoods of a point
now im just wondering how the def of a topology is connected to describing how points in a topological space are connected
as in the 3-rule def i regurgitated justnow
Do you know what a connected open set is
Ah, well you can define these
and then the picture will start to emerge
arguably, the actual connectedness properties should be thought of in terms of how certain "test spaces" continuously map into your space
For example, maps from the unit interval [0,1] with its standard topology into your space tell you which points can be connected by paths
studying this makes me feel so cool but at the same time adfhasbdhbfsdhbfrea
@marsh forge Not getting it
we're going to need something like A cap W where W is open in X
I will sleep under this exercise, tomorrow I let you know tho. Thank you!
is there any reason we say homeomorphic and not bijective
am i missing some difference in their meaning or is it just to promote the idea of a "physical" map
what did you mean by these
i want the picture 
like connected open set?
i dont wanna just jot down def's and not understand why
the picture is that a connected open set is an open set that is connected haha
lol
but the definition is that you can't split it up into two separated pieces

ryc is thinking like a real topologist
hiya
these people are slowly making me more algtop/alggeo brained 
moldi has left his cavern in #groups-rings-fields to watch me suffer here how fun
bijective could mean you cut things apart or glue things together (like the function which sends [0, 1] union (2, 3] to [0, 2] by shifting the second interval to the left is a bijection)
this channel has scary words 
homeomorphisms cannot glue things together or tear them apart
can't tear apart = continuous
ohhhh that makes sense
can't glue together = inverse is continuous
(gluing things together is just tearing them apart in reverse)
Keep in mind that the definition of a bijective function makes no reference to the topology
so there is absolutely no way a bijection can say anything meaningful about the topology
chicken or the egg 
well, i guess my perspective is that's it's very clear to me why tearing things apart should be bad
but gluing things together looks continuous to me, so what's the problem with that?
and in a lot of fields of math, structure preserving bijections are automatically also structure preserving in reverse
(for example, if you have a linear transformation, and if it's invertible, then the inverse is automatically also linear)
Gluing things together is fine, but it is also destructive
but in topology this doesn't happen: a continuous bijection can also glue stuff together. so you need to be really careful.
like, it is continuous, just not invertible
what is the point set condition for a continuous bijection to be a homeomorphism
i don't actually know if this property of "inverse of a bijective homomorphism is a homomorphism" is given a name / is discussed somehow
i feel like there is one
well, one is that the domain is compact and the codomain is hausdorff
maybe you can weaken the former to locally compact?
thats what i had in mind yeah
is this why we say a continuous map is one where the preimage of open sets are open sets?
maybe
or am i mixing things
I would say that the strict definition of continuous is the way it is "because it works"
It does capture the intuition of "sends nearby points to nearby points" whenever one can make sense of the latter
not quite. this seems like it's a weird definition until you start thinking about what it means to tear things apart - when you tear things apart, you create new open sets against the boundary of tearing that then would preimage to non-open stuff
for example, when i tear [0, 2] into [0, 1] and (2, 3], i get a new open set (1/2, 1] in this space
but that has a preimage of (1/2, 1], which is not open in [0, 2].
so the "preimage of open sets is open" condition really does capture the idea of "continuous maps can't tear stuff apart"
i guess another way to look at it is from the perspective of the definition of continuity on metric spaces (the epsilon delta one)
oh wow i need a moment for that to sink in
(Proving things like image of compact is compact, image of connected is connected, etc also helps with this intuition a lot)
continuous functions really are deep down functions that look continuous though lol
need a topology version of this bc i forgot how hard step 1 is lol
i have no resource to give me problems tho so if yall wanna give me homework that could be cool 👉 👈
- yes, metric spaces make sense
- what the fuck is a hawaiin earring
- okay metric spaces make sense
lmao
No one can be told what the Manifold is. You have to see it for yourself.
manifolds make sense as long as one does not corrupt them
i think i get those
at a high level at least
my prof explained them as crumpled up pieces of paper glued together and that made sense
accurate
smooth structure 
im assuming he just meant it as R^2 for its simplicity
i guess the problem is flatness
sure i just feel like cloth might be better
silk
manifolds are very silky in my mind
hmm
i think manifolds are made out of some kind of plastic in my mind
flexible acrylic sheets
yeah latex was coming to mind initially
LaTeX
i'd go for the acrylic for a riemannian manifold
symplectic manifolds are made out of bent wood, but i'm not even sure how people do that
Often you steam the wood
what's a poisson manifold under this?
what do you get when you stick together a bunch of pieces of steam bent wood
You add a fish stock to your steamer
Just for the person who was asking about pointset
I personally don’t think of all point set topological spaces as being “spaces”
Point set topology
Is a very general way to talk about spaces
But
You only really use pointset topology to touch base and connect different fields
Like in algebraic topology we work with simplicial sets or CW complexes
And we prove results about these
But you can translate this back into pointset topological theorems
And there people in other fields can make use of what you prove
So don’t spend too much time trying to worry about what is this intuitively in general point set settings
Just get loads of examples
And get an intuition about nice spaces
algebraic topologists dont even work with spaces anymore
nah poisson manifolds are just a bunch of fish in a pile
i wish this were ironic
something in my brain is broken
this is fine
each fish is a symplectic manifold
they're all together in like
a school of fish
some fish may be bigger than others but they're all doing working together
to do.... whatever fish do
yeah
idk it's like something in finding nemo
and then a contact manifold is also bent wood but there's a car driving around on it
it's got a little pointy tangent vector arrow sticking out the front. it's red and looks like the car from the game Rush Hour
simple question
what is a simplex 
i understand low dim examples ofc, should i worry about a "rigorous definition"
what kind of simplex are we takling about
A simplex is just the convex hull of the unit vectors
i.e., a dot, a line, a triangle, a tetrahedron, and so on
and so on = "i have no geometric intuition for these after this point"
yo tell me if this makes sense to you
few things do
I think CW complexes are like, made of this kind of dark void material which you can spread with a trowel kind of like it's umm something a plasterer or bricklayer would use. It's firm and it retains its shape in place, you can shovel it into gaps in the CW complex and patch holes when you want to kill off elements of the higher homotopy groups. Whenever I do CW complex stuff I imagine i'm reaching my trowel into the void of CW source material, lifting it out and scooping it into my complex to patch a hole
interesting
i think actually
topological spaces are to me
made of up this white material that like
has no earth analogue
platonic realm gang
yeah it's the same for me
i'm describing its texture and feel but it's not earthly of course
do you know what the cone of a space is
do you understand like, quotient topologies, product topologies, this stuff
ok well both of these things are important in the long term learning about quotient topologies or identification topologies as they're sometimes called but
do you know like
linear algebra in an abstract vector space
i agree with max
definitely
it's a really nice sort of doughy stuff
a little firmer than dough though, it sort of returns to its desired shape when i push at it too unless i hold it in place for a few seconds to get it to set
hmm
now i feel weird that i have never thought about what topological spaces or their "material" would feel like
apparently many people did?
i just stuffed it in my platonic realm box
like most mathematical objects
i definitely think this is something people would call me a weirdo for
i'm surprised to find any camaraderie in it
you forget that i am also very weird @hollow harbor
lmao
i see
but none of the objects i study have a real existence
yes, that makes sense
i think my past platonism is being torn from me by the fluids people
i'm not sure if the takeaway is that the platonic realm isn't real, or if it's that it's the only thing that's real
@marsh forge
Is every zero set a closed set and if yes, how does one show it?
Zero set of functions of which kind?
If ℝ^n to ℝ^m under the standard topologies yes
The preimage of a closed set is closed
My bad for not clarifying, I mean the null set which has measure zero
Like any set of measure 0?
Or by null set do you mean the empty set
Measure theory goes in #advanced-analysis 
But if you just mean empty set
Then yes, the empty set is always closed in any topology
I mean this one, I'm sorry I'll ask it there then
You say that as if you haven't talked to him in months 
Anyway I have been told to learn this with you
How do I start

Idk what these are so you gotta guide me 
Lmao I will try to look up some nice sources later
Or just ask Max where to read about these stuff
I wonder what the easier way is 😌
oh I forgot to ping lmao
@marsh forge 👉 👈
topology alg top
@marsh forge
shit
I think I did it
Recall f : X -> Y continuous
A subset X and B subset Y induced subspaces
ab(f) : A -> B such that f(A) subset B
We want to prove ab(f) is continuous
Take U open in B. So U = B cap V for some open V in Y
Note B = B \ f(A) U f(A)
So U = [B \ f(A) U f(A)] cap V
Take the preimage of both
f^{-1}(U) = f^{-1}([B \ f(A) U f(A)] cap f^{-1}(V) (notice the skipped step)
Now we can make f^{-1}([B \ f(A) U f(A)] = f^{-1}(B) \ A U A
And we have [f^{-1}(B) \ A U A] cap f^{-1}(V)
take the distributive
[ f^{-1}(B)\A cap f^{-1}(V) ] U [ A \cap f^{-1}(V) ]
Now notice that f^{-1}(B) \ A cap f^{-1}(V) must be empty. Here's why:
When we took V open in Y. Either V subset f(A) or not. Indeed, if V subset f(A), then clearly we have the left side equal the empty set. If V wasn't a subset of f(A), then f^{-1}(B) \ A cap f^{-1}(V) is not empty in X but it is in A since it won't belong to such set A
this last statement is so badly written sorry.
Something wrong?
blue book!
you two should just read the blue book
what's blue book o:
Adams "Stable Homotopy and Generalizes Homology"
Yessir 🙉
honestly I think my cat theory is too weak for the blue book
I will have to work my cat theory up if I want to read it properly
I think you don't need a ton of cat theory
unless im misremembering
like nothing past the first quarter of riehl or whatever
You should 100% read riehl if you havent
at least up until some point
there were some like, representable functors and stuff and I don't know those yet
Right
ye I will have to read riehl lmao
Representable functors are just functors that are of the form Hom(-,X)

i.e if I have a functor F: C-->D and F is naturally ismorphic to Hom(-,X) where the Hom lives in D then we say X represents F
woke
hmm okay I see
It is difficult to read this without proper latex
But I think there is still an error
Or maybe not?
Sorry the last statement is confusing and my coffee is still kicking in
+1
this should be false, so the proof of this statement must be false
but i am too tired to figure out why yours is wrong lol
fair enough xd
"If V wasn't a subset of f(A), then f^{-1}(B) \ A cap f^{-1}(V) is not empty in X but it is in A"
I think the part after "then" is on the right track, but that it does not prove what you want.
Like at the end of the day, you can kind of ignore what's going on outside of A, but you need to formalize this.
yeah that's what I wanted to say
the typesetting in that book 
im spoiled by latex
Here's a hint. Say I want to prove that the preimage of f in A is of the form U cap A for an open set U in X. Then the set you're currently working with is kind of gross, but if I can throw out some part of it so that it looks like A cap U then we are done
Like my recollection is that you currently have something like Z cap U where U is obviously open but Z is not obviously open and also Z can contain points outside of A
But what if we could just ignore the bad parts of Z
Adams typesetting is bad but he makes up for it by being a truly excellent writer
could I write that?
Unlike rudin
if you were a grad student you could write that and people would assume you knew what you were doing, but when you are first learning you have a greater burden
but you can rewrite what i said with simple set stuff
hum ok interesting
thanks!
finally I got the right mind set on this proof
it was indeed a good exercise
my suggestion would be to like
draw some "worst case scenario" style pictures
like start maybe drawing a nice picture where this is all easy to see
and then ask how it could go wrong
and see if you can figure out how to fix it
Like
honestly 99% of point set problems can be solved using complicated ven diagrams
.rotate
Okay I think the right hint to give you is as follows
first, let's review
We take V to be open in B. By definition this means $V=U\cap B$ where $U$ is open in $Y$. Then $f^{-1}(V)=f^{-1}(U)\cap f^{-1}(B)$. We know $f^{-1}(U)$ is open in $X$. Let's call it $Z$ to simplify notation. So now we are looking at $Z\cap f^{-1}(B)$. But this is the preimage for $f$, not for $ab(f)$ (this notation is nonstandard but let's use it for consistency). Do you know how to relate the preimage of $f$ and $ab(f)$?
MaxJ
@limber ravine
I know that f|A = f o in
with in : A -> X
and that this map is continuous
but I think that would be the next exercise
because
Well
I meant a simpler relationship
the preimage f^-1(C) is all those points in X that map to C
but the domain isn't X for ab(f)
it's A
So ab(f)^{-1}(C)=f^{-1}(C) \cap (fill in the blank)
A?
ab(f)^{-1}(C)=f^{-1}(C) \cap A
So, taking where you were:
$f^{-1}(V) = Z \cap (ab(f)^{-1}(B) \cap A)$ ?
mns
@marsh forge
MaxJ
That is the set of all the points in A which the image under f is in B
Which is....
Ab(f)^{-1}(B)?
Okay so we agree that f(A) is a subset of B, yes?
Yes
Yes
perfect
A
Can you simplify $A\cap f^{-1}(B)\cap Z$?
MaxJ
A cap Z
And Z is....
Perfect
no problem!
Is there any way to do a sphere eversion in real life? Like could we use bubbles to allow the possibility of self-intersecting surfaces? Or could we make a wire mesh sphere with gaps in it to allow parts of the sphere to pass through?
Did someone ping me
Did you just delete this so you could ask it again?
Opps sorry I
Just making sure I’m not senile
I thought person deleted their question to ask it again
next time I will say if I pinged someone, sorry!
Hahaha no worries at all
In any reasonable way no
Could you contrive something
Probably
Which way do you think would be more feasible, bubbles/soap films or wire meshes?
None of these
I mean
Contrived contrived
Doing it with bubbles
Will be even more unreasonable
mns
You need your animation to go through minimal surfaces
When I say contrived I mean
Extremely contrived like
Get enough drones of a small enough size
And stand far enough away so that’s they look like pixels
And make them perform a 3D animation
And really I only say maybe you could contrive something because
I’m not going to argue why this is clearly impossible
Sorry I don’t mean to say clearly in the sense this is obvious
I mean clearly in the sense
I’m not sure how to finish my assignment so I write clearly
If I wanna demonstrate a map p:R+ ->S^1 doesn't have the path lifting property is it sufficient to show p is not a covering map?
No
It is nice to see the topology channel still has it's anime roots
What is geometric topology
As far as I know its a more detailed look at manifolds
look at df(x,y)
oh
uh
oh
in general topology wikipedia says find a homeomorphism from E^2 onto f(E^2)
not sure where to start besides trying to understand what image of E^2 is in simpler terms
is topology on E^5 standard?
I think so
So cursed
What is this from?
Im genuinely interested in trying to solve this problem
Basic Topology written by Mark Anthony Armstrong
in Chp 4
,rotate
That's 11
I guess the part im trying to wrap my head around are open sets in the image
I dont really see how the image is the same as [0,2pi]^2
i guess the idea is to change of variables the image
if we transform all the cos into sqrt(1-sin^2)
nah i cant really think of what to do
oh wait
everything with y can be strictly positive
so maybe you can only transform those
nvm those 2y’s
oh i see something
i think the idea is to use angle identities
yeah
i think you can write each coordinate as either sin (u+v) or cos(u+v)
and then maybe something obv shows up
because f(x,y) = cos x, cos(y+y),sin(y+y),sin(x+y)-cos xcosy,cos(x+y)-
yeah idk lol
oh
oh bruh
got to. use identification mapsnfor this
yeah
i think i figured it out but i wont do details
you use fact that klein bottle is given by opposite identifications
and then you prove that your map f is injective wrt identification
so f:[0,2pi] x [0,pi]->E^5, g:[0,2pi] x [0,pi] -> K=Klien Bottle. And then you check that f is injective on the boundary
so interpret image of f if it were on one of the identified edges
we know that the interiors are homeomorphic because they both look like squres
excellent, thanks
Hey, had a doubt in fundamental groups. Suppose A and B are closed sets in X, such that X is A union B, and A intersection B is non empty and path connected. Is the fundamental group of X generated by fundamental groups of A and B?
In case of open subsets, this is true by Van Kampen Theorem but the same proof cant be adapted to closed subsets
I think that for closed set in van kampen, you want an additional criteria that A intersection B is a neighborhood deformation retract in A and B, i.e there exists open sets V in A and U in B containing A intersection B such that V and B deformation retracts onto A intersection B. I think you can then use van kampen on the pair (A union U, B union V) and show that the "amalgamation product" you get is equal to the one you get when you apply van kampen to (A, B)
or something like that I'm not entirely sure
Thanks, yeah i was thinking along these lines to generate a counterexample for the case where we just replace open by closed, but couldnt come up with any
I would add that for most decent spaces, and reasonable closed sets we can without issue slight grow or shrink them to open sets
say r is a continuous retraction from D to S, is it the case that the fundamental group of S is a subgroup of that of D
ok I see, thank you
also is it true if you have a continuous map from D^2 to D^2 , it is then homotopic to a continuous map that maps its boundary S^1 onto itself
This is true in the most trivial way possible
Every map D^2->D^2 is homotopic to the identity
how do I prove that
that's what came to mind but I was doubting the continuity of the in-between maps
You can also prove that every map is nullhomotopic
which is easier maybe
easier to believe at least
nullhomotopic?
homotopic to a constant map
yeah I just did that ,lol
thanks @wooden falcon @marsh forge
I was asking these questions to get a better sense of the Brouwers fixed point theorem.
feel free it mention anything that might be useful to think about
People use htpy as a short form of homotopy, is there a short form for homotopy equivalent or is it just htpy equivalent
i tend to use eqv for equivalent/equivalence, but not sure if thats common
I'm sure it's understood at the very least, was just wondering if there was a standard out there
$\simeq$
MaxJ
I wouldn't use htpy in formal writing and in informal writing you can use whatever you want
I use simeq as well, but I dislike that you have to read into the context to distinguish when it's being used for homotopies and when it's being used for homotopy equivalences. Maybe that's just my inexperience showing though.
it should be fairly clear from the objects on either side
like if you write simeq between functions its clearly a homotopy and if you write it between spaces it means htpy eq
the bigger issue is distinguishing between weak and strong homotopy eqs
but again this is normally clear from context or you can restrict to a situation where they are the same
I've not learnt much about those, do people use the simeq notation for both strong and weak homotopies?
Yes
The meaning rarely causes any actual confusion, in my experience
And people are normally careful when the difference could matter
I use $\cong$ for homeomorphism, which is similar
Blitz
one of the (IMO) weak points in math is how people use the same symbol /definitions in related contexts :/
thanks for the short discussion though!
It might feel awkward at first but I promise it’s better than having to learn a million symbols
Hahah I wish there were like some fancy H for homotopy, and then you could just add an equal sign somewhere to make it homotopy equivalent
Like $=_\mathcal{H}$?
are really only for situations where you meaning is totally obvious
Blitz
maybe! Or possibly even the reverse
i think about symbols like pronouns. You want to state your meaning explicitly first and then you can use symbols after the meaning is established
For example
if I was writing a paper i might write
$\mathcal{H}$ and $\mathcal{H}_{=}$
wOne
let $X\simeq Y$ be homotopy equivalent spaces, then ...
MaxJ
this type of stuff gets very unwieldy very fast
you want to write for people, not a compiler
I do that as well, but when I find my literature gets too long, I'm always worried people will forget and then the meaning becomes lost :/
i have rarely thought that an explanation was too long
and certainly not from the addition of extra clarification
It's more of when it detracts a bit far from the original point, you know? When you explain a bit more and more, etc.
But i"m sure it's something that resolves itself as I do this more and more
idk I think you get used to the like
sweet spot
for mathematical writing
symbolic notation should play a minima role
only for things that really are best explained in symbols
It's mostly for assignments now, when the lecturer says to target it so that your peers will understand, but when I actually discuss the homework with them, a lot of gaps are present here and there and so sometimes it goes a bit off tangent
Blitz
Is meager set something topoligical? Haven't heard of tha tbefore
(I would avoid defining ones own nonstandard notation if you want your TAs to like you)
Yes, it comes up when studying Baire spaces
theres a big difference between holes in notation and holes in the argument
Definitely don't, which is why I started by asking if there was any conventional short form for homotopy equivalent
I would just write homotopy equivalent
I also wouldn't really write htpy in homework
but thats a personal thing
Interesting, don't think those are in my syllabus though, so I might read up more
I am
(in an AT class)
right after GT, which is from what I gather the usual order
Either GT and AT "together", or AT after GT, never really before
But as a parting remark I would say that your readers and graders will rarely be upset that you write out what you mean explicitly in english, even if it increases the length a little. I'd rather read 2 well written pages than half a page of condensed gibberish 🙂
While I agree with you, I find that when I reread my own work there's much that can be cut down or shortened in future passes
But maybe that's just me cringing at my own work, something something imposter syndrome
That’s just learning better writing, you’ll improve in time
My writing now is a lot better than when I first took AT hahaha
Mine's continually improving
Well, it was just an example that you can put * in your equality/equivalence symbol somewhere anyway, Baire spaces are just a side note
Not that there was much to "write" in earlier classes, topology has had the most explanations and least computations by a long shot in the classes I've taken so far
It’s probably a lot of peoples first experience with proofs that involve a lot of arguments that can’t be expressed notationally
Definitely, and it's often easier to write a sentence or two in latex rather than come up with a diagram, though it's often the case that a diagram helps more than a sentence can
this may be a dump question, i couldn't figure out Hom(Hn(X;Z),Z)=?
where Hn(X;Z) is free
Do you understand homomorphisms from Z^n to Z?
i got it, Hom(Hn(X;Z),Z)= prod of generators
Can someone explain the construction of a genus 2 surface using cell complexes?
We take a point, attach 4 1-cells to it using the constant maps
Then we attach a 2-cell to this
But I don't know what the attaching map is
aba^-1b^-1
i.e. glue around one circle, then along the other, then back around in the opposite direction, and then back around in the opposite again
Does knot theory fall into this room?
My question is "Can rings (of the same size) link in any combination in 3d space?" I put it into stackexchange but am getting no traction... https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4338935/can-identical-rings-intersect-in-any-combinations-in-3d-space
an open, injective map should preserve hausdorff-ness right?
The points outside the image could do whatever they want
at least onto its image, but that's not a very interesting statement

sniped me
yea, i just meant onto its image. my bad
hmm. i’m just trying to think of what maps preserve hausdorff-ness. seems like continuity isn’t even needed
At the end of Engelking's "General Topology" there is a table with what kind of properties are preserved by what maps etc.
It says there that image and preimage of a Hausdorff space by a perfect map is Hausdorff
today i also learned that nlab has unexpectedly much content on pointset topology
like under what circumstances which separation axioms are preserved by pushouts, coproducts,etc
neat proofs that every cw complex is normal, or even paracompact
Blitz
So the "Hausdorff preimages via perfect mappings are Hausdorff" doesn't tell us anything actually
suppose that i have a pushout square (maybe a homotopy pushout)
A B
C D
Is H^*(D,B) iso to H^*(C,A)
for homology it works if A -> C is a cofibration
other than that, if you know that A -> C is a cofibration and A -> B is a homotopy equivalence, then you get a pair homotopy equivalence (C,A) -> (D,B)
i dont know about homotopy pushouts sadly
yeah if we have a homotopy pushout the A to B to D is a cofiber sequence
i’m basically thing of the situation for CW complexes
B and D bring the Xn-1 and Xn
but i want to know in how much more generality this holds
yeah also the S^n-1 -> D^n is a cofibration and coproducts preserve that
so in homology the situation is pretty good
but im not sure about cohomology
maybe ill know that in 2 days though when im done revising cohomology
yeah for homology and actually the case of CW complexes this is fine
yes. Plz don't shitpost the anime channel
i think i might be wrong
I think homotopy pushouts give you a Mayer-Vietoris like statement but I don’t think it’s quite this strong
In the definition of local contractibility on wikipedia, does neighbourhood mean open neighbourhood?
Seems so
Not necessarily
Local always means open
Look at the alternative definition of local path-connectedness: it says that every point has to have a neighbourhood basis consisting of path connected neighbourhoods, but not necessarily open
The alternative definition may indeed be alternative
But if you are reading something and it says locally P
It means P on open sets around points
What about locally compact
I don't think there's a rule, one just has to be careful
what are some good topology lectures/yt series?
does seifert van kampen theorem give you any actual way to determine precisely what the fundamental group of some space is?
i see now that this is the case indeed
very cool
i do wonder now what the difference between wedge and connected sums is
topologically speaking
They should have different homotopy and homology groups
Connected sum of 2 spheres is just 1 sphere
Not so for wedge
So 2nd homotopy and homology are both different
ouch
o_o
oh yeah because the connection is a hollow cylinder
i was thinking you meant S^1 by sphere
Is connected sum of 2 S¹s not S¹?
I have never actually looked up the definition of connected sum I just know what people here have told me 
Ye the definition on wikipedia looks like it makes S¹ # S¹ = S¹
ohhh
i was thinking it was a line
i have a Q
there can't be a homotopy from a dim k manifold to a dim k+1 manifold can there
hm
yeah it seems there cant be
Do you mean homeomorphism
Do you mean surjective
doesn't the afterimage of a homotopy need to be surjective?
Because there is an obvious embedding there
huh
homotopies can be constant
Define H((x,y), t) = 0 for all (x,y) in R^2 and t in [0,1]
This is a homotopy from R^2 to R^3
All constant maps are continuous
ah, then it cannot be a homotopy as the H((x, y), 0) != (x, y)
iirc a constant homotopy needs to be H((x, y), t) = (x, y)
(x,y) is not in R^3 so that doesn't make sense

still, not what i meant
clearly the image is at most a 2-manifold
no homotopy can elevate the dimension of its preimage
it can just embed it in a higher dim codomain
Have you seen space filling curves
yeah, but let me think for a sec about a trivial example
oh shit
that actually works in homotopy
nice
wow that really does do the trick
wow ok

i'm just so used to that not being feasible
I have no clue what you are referring to lol
like those dont work via homeomorphisms
i kind of ignored them when starting to read ab homotopy
I'm still lost lol leave it
R not homeomorphic to R^2
Oh
i'm unsure if this is right but here goes
i'm trying to compute the fundamental group of S^2 punctured in n antipodal pairs of points
grist bundle
i.e. the free product on 2n-1 generators
is this right? i had also tried to use van kampen but i always get a cylindrical intersection in my decomposition and am not sure how to recover exactly what the fundamental group of the whole punctured sphere is
Yes that is right
Another way to look at this would be to use the homeomorphism between a once punctured n-sphere and R^n
what does that tell us?
k-punctured n-sphere is k-1-punctured R^n
Yep
There is
How would you show that k-1-punctured R² has pi_1 = free prod of k-1 copies of ℤ?
One way to do that is to induct on k and use van kampen for the induction step
You could probably do something similar on the sphere directly
yeah
Just that you'd have to do this standard argument again
van kampen makes this quite weird
i always end up with a cylinder intersection, which makes the kernel of the map from the free product to the fund group of the whole punctured sphere nontrivial
unless you mean doing something else first
You can use a second hole to make the intersection a band that goes around the sphere but pinches off at exactly that hole
So that it's not actually a cylinder
This is probably where you'd get a k-1 instead of k

damn we can do all kinds of funky stuff here
thanks for the guidance
one more thing if you don't mind
is there a standard notation for the free product on n copies of Z?
I would imagine it would be this
You could also use the upside down capital π since free product is the coproduct in the category of groups
grist bundle
Nice
Ye that's the coproduct in the category of sets
All contractible spaces are homotopic
sure, but for some reason i was thinking that because you only needed continuity (not bicontinuity) that it could be deleterious
of course homotopy classes would mean nothing then, though
why is the orientation of 0 mfd +and-?
the orientation of 0-dim simpleces is only one.
what is the difference between them?
It should be a choice of generator effectively
in H_0
i.e. unreduced H_0 will be Z
there are two "fundamental classes"
1 and -1
0-degree homology group?
Hello, I was wondering if I could get some feedback on my attempted proof?
The goal is to show that homotopy equivalence is an equivalcen relation
It feels like I'm in the right direction, but also something feels missing, if anyone is willing to help me that would be great
This is all fine
Depends on the level of course you are in
they might expect you to be more explicit about the homotopies between the maps
The main ideas here are probably like
Reflexivity: maps that are actually equal are trivially homotopic
Symmetry: The definition is inherently symmetric anyway
Transitivity: Homotopies compose
(In fact, one has two different ways to compose homotopies, usually referred to as "vertical" and "horizontal")
I'm in a first homotopy Algebraic Topology course, but that is exactly what I think can be improved, I would like to be more explicit about the homotopies between maps. Could you elaborate more on that?
It's interesting to hear about vertical and horizontal compositions, could you share more as well?
And also I'm wondering what the exact difference is between homotopy and homotopy equivalence, I haven't been able to find a distinction that I understand yet
I'll start with the last question
a homotopy is a relationship between functions
a homotopy equivalence is a relationship between spaces
One way to think about homotopy equivalence is that if you take homotopy classes of maps (homotopy between maps is an equivalence relationship) then the two spaces are homotopy equivalent if and only if there are maps f:X->Y and g:Y->X such that [f] and [g] are inverses of eachother, where brackets are homotopy equivalence classes
Vertical composition says the following: If H is a homotopy between f and g and H' is a homotopy between g and h then I can compose H with H' to get a homotopy between f and h
Horizontal says that if I have a homotopy between f and f', both functions X->Y and similarly g,g':Y->Z
then I get a homotopy between the compositions gf and g'f'
The top left here is a vertical composition
and bottom left is a horizontal
Okay, perhaps this is a good place to pause before you talk about the first question I asked, if you don't mind
What does the down arrow notation mean here?
For this one you would name the given homotopies and explicitly construct new ones that prove your claims
c_1,c_2 are homotopies
between the black single line arrow maps
(they are arrows because sometimes one studies non-invertible versions)

