#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 283 of 1
i.e. a map H : {0,1} \times [0,1] -> {0,1} so that H(x,0) = x and H(x,1) = 0 for x = 0,1
I did briefly try that way, and I got stuck here
lets say we use the topology {{},{1},{0,1}}
we need to define H in such a way that its continuous
the preimage of the empty space is always empty
and similarly the preimage of the entire space is the entire space
so we dont need to check them
the only requirement for continuity is that the preimage of {1} und H is open
so try to give a definition of H satisfiying these requirements: H(x,0) = x, H(x,1) = 0 for x = 0,1 and H^{-1}({1}) is open in the product space {0,1} x [0,1] endowed with the product topology
there arent really many choices left
und here means...?
*under
Right, let me give it a shot
Is it something like
H(x) = tf + (1-t)g
where f is the inclusion map and g the constant map?
Sorry, it took me a while to digest what you said
that does not really make sense
f and g dont even have the same domain
and there is no structure on their codomain where you could "add" them
the map is H : {0,1} x [0,1] -> {0,1}
Is there an explicit definition you had in mind?
Or is it just defined in terms of its domain and codomain
i mean i figured one out, but i thought you would like to try yourself
Definitely reassuring to know an answer exists, and you're right
I will give it a try, but do you think it's a simple one? If not, is there another time I could discuss it with you?
Starting to get a bit mentally drained
Feels like one of those things which I'll think is painfully obvious in hindsight
yeah maybe try again tomorrow then
If you're alright with me dm-ing you maybe in 24h from now I'd like to think about it
Yeah, sounds right
Cheers, and thanks for your help on the topic so far 🙂 Hope you have a good rest-of-the-day wherever you are
yeah its 1am here so i better go to sleep as well soon xd
Pretty close to me, just past midnight for me
does anyone know about the normal form of oriented manifolds?
The interior of the whole space is obviously itself right? In a question like this, we could assume E is the whole space, right?
yes, in the sense that the whole space is itself an open set
Reidemeister’s original proof of Reidemeister’s theorem only showed that two knots are equivalent under Delta moves (aka triangle moves) if and only if their diagrams are equivalent under Reidemeister moves. But where can I find a proof that two knots are equivalent under ambient isotopy if and only if their diagrams are equivalent under Reidemeister moves?
@wooden falcon My understanding is that both Alexander & Briggs and Reidemeister used Delta moves, and that ambient isotopy came later.
The kernel should be 0 actually
We went through a full computation with simplicial homology here
I'm trying to compute the reduced homology group of $$S^n$$ - interior of a n-simplex using Mayer-Vietoris sequence. I'm not sure how do we know what the map from $$\tilde H_{n-1}(S^{n-1})\to \tilde H_{n-1}(\Delta^n)\oplus \tilde H_{n-1}(Y)$$ is like... Can anyone help?
yxm
for this specific instance.
I've got $$\tilde H_{n}(S^{n-1})\to \tilde H_{n}(\Delta^n)\oplus \tilde H_n(Y)\to \tilde H_{n}(S^n)\to \tilde H_{n-1}(S^{n-1})$$
$$\to \tilde H_{n-1}(\Delta^n)\oplus \tilde H_{n-1}(Y)\to \tilde H_{n-1}(S^n)$$
which gives me $$0\to \tilde H_n(Y)\to \mathbb{Z}\to \mathbb{Z}\to \tilde H_{n-1}(Y) \to 0$$ Is that correct? and then I'm kind of stuck there and I think if I know about the map i mentioned, it's solved
No... I'm really confused about computing these maps in general. Is it defined by the Snake lemma? so do we sort of follow the path back?
Thanks! First time learning about this and it makes a lot of sense. However I'm still confused about what's going on in this specific case: how do we know what an n-cycle in $$S^n$$ decompose in the two components $$\Delta^n$$ and Y?
yxm
not sure... is it like e.g. if n=1 we think of S^1 as a triangle, and Delta^1 is just one edge, Y is the other 2 edges. But a 1-cycle in S^1 can go around many times, or it's not like that? sorry it sounds really stupid..
Nobody
Ah right yes!
Is this map just identity then? seems to me to be vaguely like that but not clear...
Nobody
To argue that it's id or -id, is it like when an n-cycle in S^n decompose in Delta^n and Y, the portion in Delta^n would just be like <e_{0,1,2,..,n-1}> whose boundary would be a non-trivial cycle in S^{n-1}?
And after this step, we will have $$0\to\tilde H_n(Y)\to Z\to \tilde H_{n-1}(Y)\to 0$$. Do we calculate more maps to get it out?
yxm
Nobody
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Nobody
Got it! then do we know $$\partial_n$$ is +id or -id just because $$\partial (i*\alpha)$$ is not trivial?
yxm
Oh yes. so $$\tilde H_n, \tilde H_{n-1}$$ are both zero? and $$\tilde H_*$$ is just zero?
Oh yes! Thank you so much!
If there is a homotopy H:XxI\to x_o for some point x_o does that mean it is contractible?
Im confused about the different between a homotopy between functions and homotopy equivalence between spaces
ok
but that would probably look like H:X x I -> X or H : X x I -> Y then
not to a point
because maps to a point are always constant, and the map couldnt change over the time parameter, so it would be pretty uninteresting
So if you have two maps f,g : X -> Y a homotopy between them is a map H : X x I -> Y such that H(x,0) = f(x) and H(x,1) = g(x) for all x in X
(and H needs to be continuous of course)
But for a homotopy equivalence of spaces X and Y you have maps that go in different directions, sort of like "inverses", but less strict
namely, you consider f : X -> Y and g : Y -> X, and basically want that they are "inverses up to homotopy"
this means f o g : Y -> Y should be homotopic to the identity id : Y -> Y
and likewise g o f should be homotopic to the identity on X
Okay that makes sense. But then to show a space is contractible do you necessarily have to find g?
If there is a homotopy equivalence between the identity function on a space X and a constant map to a point x_o on that space does that help me in showing X is contractible to x_o?
yes that does help
so lets look at the definition again, i assume you say a space is contractible if its homotopy equivalent to a point
Yeah
that means we have to find maps f : X -> pt and g : pt -> X such that g o f and f o g are homotopic to the identities on X and pt respectively
bot note that f o g is necessarily equal to the identity
since its just pt -> X -> pt
so you only need a homotopy showing that g o f : X -> X is homotopic to the identity on X
but g : pt -> X basically just picks out a point x_0 in X, so g o f is just the constant map X -> X, x -> x_0
so it suffices to find a homotopy H : X x I -> X that starts at the identity and ends at this constant map
namely H(x,0) = x and H(x,1) = x_0 for all x
then your space is contractible
(and its an if and only if, by definition of contractible)
Hmmmmm thank you so much for this explaination. I feel like I'm still not getting something. I suspect that when I think of a homotopy I should think about a family of functions H_t:X-> x_o indexed by t. I might be missing something but is f one of these functions
its not maps to x_o
its X -> X
otherwise you could not start at the identity
only at the end you image has to be a single point
Oh okay I see what you're saying about the codomain
and in this case f is not part of these functions
since f : X -> pt
the homotopy H : X x I -> X can be seen as a continuous familty of functions H_t :X -> X such that H_0 = id and H_1 is the constant map at some point in X
you could also say H_1 = g o f, since that is precisely the constant map on some point
So yeah if you just have a general homotopy H : X x I -> Y between maps f,g :X -> Y, then f = H_0 is at the "start" of this family of functions and g=H_1 at the "end"
or vice versa, the order doesnt really matter, since then H'(x,t) = H(x,1-t) would yield a homotopy starting at g and ending at f
Okay now I think it's clicking thank you so much for your patient help
@lunar yoke if you happen to be up I couldn't figure out the homotopy, would be grateful if you shared it
If i remember correctly it was H : {0,1} x [0,1] -> {0,1} with H(x,t) = x for t in [0,1) and H(x,t) = 0 for t = 1. Then H^{-1}({1}) = {1} x [0,1), which is a cartesian product of open sets hence open in the product topology
here we use the sierpinski topology {{},{1},{0,1}} on the space {0,1}
and you see that H(x,0) = x, so H starts at the identity, and H(x,1) = 0, so H ends at a constant map
which shows that {0,1} with this topology is contractible
I don't know why you explaining it makes it so obvious, but thank you for taking the time to share it
Every subset of topological space has closure. If A doesn't have any closure then we couldn't find any closed ball which contains A. However, for any topological space the whole space is closed and A is contained in the whole space. Thus we conclude that every subset of a topological space has closure.
Is something wrong with this?
I was wondering if my reasoning is correct to justify why every subset has a closure
in a general setting, topological spaces don’t come with an object called a closed ball
Then a more reasonable answer would be that we can't find any closed set that contains A. But the whole space is closed and A is contained in it
Hum ok, thanks!
I'm sure there's something simple I'm missing, but can anyone please tell me why we require that f* be 1-1 (towards the bottom of the page) in order to conclude that s is a subset of f*(tau).
I see that the second statement (s is a subset of f*(tau)) follows by applying f* to each side of the first statement (f*^-1(s) is a subset of tau), but I don't understand why f* must be 1-1 in order for this to be justified. Any help would be appreciated.
Right! I did some working and concluded being surjective would help, but couldn't get any further. Do you reckon it's a typo then?
hmmm. i see no reason for f* to be surjective
It feels like f* being surjective might rely on f being surjective, but that isn't mentioned anywhere either.
it also feels weird taking the preimage of a collection of subsets
usually it’s just the preimage of a subset
is it a notational abbreviation for something?
Yeah. That's to do with something earlier in the book where it's talking about how a continuous function, say from X to Y, assigns to each open set in Y and open preimage in X, and so the preimage of the topology of Y is in some sense contained in the topology of X.
alr, thnx for explaining
Maybe in saying f is a function from a set X to a set Y, we are supposed to implicitly assume f is onto the entire set Y. This could make sense as if f only mapped X into a subset of Y - Image(f) - then there probably wouldn't be a need to consider everything in terms of X and Y. You could just base things around X and Image(f).
K thanks. Good to know I'm not going crazy in finding this a little unclear.
Yeah if gh is surjective, then so is g
I didn't read the rest of the conversation though so this might not be relevant
That is relevant I think. It ties together what i was saying about f likely being surjective.
Plus, it makes a point of mentioning that pi_f is surjective, so it does seem to be hinting at something like that (since f = f* pi_f.)
Would be a weird convention to assume that set maps are always surjective tho lol
is f*(T) just the set of images of all open sets of T?
Ah. I probably should have pasted in the preceding page too. f* is "induced" by f in a way that is mentioned earlier. We define f*(x) to be the image of any element of pi_f^-1(x) under f. So f* kind of "backtracks" back to X, via pi_f^1, in order to figure out where it should send any point x. This makes f* composed with pi_f agree with f, and the continuity of the resulting function f* was proved earlier in the book.
I think we apply it to each set of the topology individually.
Ok. I guess I'll assume it's a mistake or a minor detail, and move on. If I am missing something I'll likely notice later once I've done more related stuff from this chapter. Thanks for all the help.
Hausdorff
Is this statement true?: Let $X$ and $Y$ be topological spaces and $f:X\to Y$ a map with the following property: For all convergent (in $X$) nets ${x_{\alpha}}$, ${f(x_{\alpha})}$ is convergent (in $Y$). Then $f$ is continuous.
danmarino90
Pretty sure the product of connected spaces is connected
@gusty wagon http://alpha.math.uga.edu/~pete/convergence.pdf See Proposition 3.2
right, and D{0} is connected because? it is path-connected?
that is how i would show it
correct
The difference is that I'm not claiming X or Y are Hausdorff, nor am I assuming that f(x_alpha) converges to f(x), where x is the limit of x_alpha
I ask because I'm teaching myself topology from Bredon for fun, and I'm stumped by this problem.
I did find this on MSE: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/459232/nets-dense-subsets-and-continuous-maps, but they assume continuity of f there, where Bredon does not.
Also, I'm unable to construct a counterexample with f not continuous.
I'm an idiot; I thought that regular did not imply Hausdorff.
I think map means continuous, otherwise they wouldn't have the distinction between map and function no?
I need help with closure in topology

so, let X be a topology
A subset of X
The closure of A is the intersection of all closed sets which contain A. Right?
yup
So, If I take an x in CL(A)
x is an element which is common to all closed sets in X that contain A
yup cause it's in the intersection
I am having an hard time with all this lol
5.E. I see why every subset has closure
But I cannot show the equality
namely, $CL(A) = \bigcap {F : F \text{ is closed in A and } A \subset F}$
mns
Show that the minimal closed set and the intersection of all the closed sets contain each other
^ show they're subsets of each other
and how would I represent the minimal closed set containing A?
What do you mean by represent it 
Oh it's annoying because we say minimal
CL_X(A) I presume
Change it to minimum
Show that then the statement is true
Then you can say that when a minimum exists
It is the unique minimal
And this is a proof is existence of minimum

moldi that has gone completely over my head
I am lost
I'd just show that if something is in CL_A(B) then it must be in the other set
and the other way around
Show that the intersection is the minimum closed set containing A
Not just the minimal one
Then both inclusions become easy
Does it make sense now?
So, show the intersection must have the cardinality of A?
and by minimum you mean a closed set C such that there isn't a closed set C' such that $A \subseteq C' \subset C$ right?
Wew Lads Tbh
No that's not what minimal means 
Minimum means that it is smaller than everything else
ok then I am COMPLETELY lost and I'll just try and prove the inclusions the old fashion way
"Smaller than everything else" is stronger than "there is nothing smaller than it"
I was thinking about the old fashing way but I couldn't and now I am interested in the method that moldi is describing
Minimal vs minimum is a pretty important distinction 
How did you show existence of a minimal one though?
The way I'd show existence is by proving this equality
That's in 5.2
5.E there is only the topology of X
Closure of a subspace in its subspace topology would be itself
oh I thought we were talking about 5.2 
F
still a fun proof I recommend it, 7/10
damn it really has been 3 hours
Damn
F
I went to get my tea
So you have to show that intersection of all closed subsets that contain A is the minimum closed subset containing A
Minimum means it is contained in every other closed subset containing A
So take any closed subset containing A
And show that this intersection is contained in it
(and you'd also have to prove that this intersection is a closed subset containing A)
doesn't this follow from the definition of the set?
Did you mean this
Or are you asking about the definition of minimum
Because the message you replied to is just the definition of minimum
I mean, this, doesn't this set theoretic definition implies it is the minimum?
So assuming you also have this
You have that this intersection is the minimum closed subset containing A
And minimum implies minimal
So it is a minimal closed set containing A
So a (the) closure of A
well, the intersection of close sets is a closed set
Yep
And you just gotta also say that you're intersecting something
As in, it isn't an empty intersection (or if it is, handle that case)
But yeah that's it
it can't be the empty set as the whole space is closed and A is a subset of the ambient space, thus at least X is in {F : F is closed and A subset F}
Yes
interesting
So to prove 5.E. we will show that $\bigcap {F : F \text{ is closed and } A \subset F}$ is the minimal closed set containing A. Consider any closed set that contains A. By definition of intersection we have $\bigcap {F : F \text{ is closed and } A \subset F} \subset A$. Moreover, since the intersection of closed sets is again a closed set, it follows that $CL A = \bigcap {F : F \text{ is closed and } A \subset F}$.
mns
Yes
Also, note we're not intersecting nothing since the ambient space is closed and A is a subset of it, thus at least X will be in the intersection
Yeah that's something you include in the proof of the intersection being closed containing A
mns
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If I have a path x->z and another path y->z, I should definitely have a path from x->y right? Like that's a theorem somewhere that if two paths have nontrivial intersection then the union of their images are path connected right?
you can just define a path formed by "composing" x->z->y
it works out with the formal definition of a path being a map [0,1] -> X, you just scale each path so one maps from [0, 1/2] and the other maps from [1/2, 1]
and then since one path ends at z and the other begins, the composition of these functions piecewise is nice (i.e. you get f(1/2) = z to be well defined for the composed map)
and continuity follows from the pasting lemma yeah?
Okay. Now is anyone else currently asking for help in this channel?
don't think so boss
Ima bring this one back up. Can someone help me with this? I’ve been trying to solve it for days and can’t get anywhere
(I don’t need help with the counterexample part)
do you have a counterexample where Y is hausdorff?
I do not.
so if x in H and you pick the constant net x_i = x, then g(x) should be the unique (Y hausdorff) limit of f(x_i) = f(x), i.e. f and g agree on H
Indeed
i think somebody above also mentioned the distinction between the terminology map and function so that map probably means continuous
and i'd agree with that
you can actually prove f is continuous
but you need to have that the definition of “regular” includes being T1
the textbook this problem is from defines regular this way
whats you definition of regular then
regular = T1 + (separate points from closed subsets)
ok
and that’s actually enough to prove continuity
so f is continuous and f=g on H. That’s basically all I got to lol
g is not assumed to be continuous on X.
you’re thinking of “f and g both continuous on X and f=g on H => f=g on X”
hmmm
ok im probably missing something
but why doesnt the following work
pick x in X and some net h_i in H converging to x
then g(x) = lim f(h_i) = lim g(h_i)
oh you need that it holds for all nets
not only those in H
ye
can you be more specific
well if we had sequences
then for an arbitrary sequence x_n in X you could find a sequence (h^n_k)_k converging to x_n for every n
and then you can take the diagonal sequence h^n_n which has the same limit as the x_n
but is contained in H
right
im wondering if something similar works for nets
i found a similar argument here: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/459232/nets-dense-subsets-and-continuous-maps
i tried going through this argument all day and the way the argument is written is abysmal
plus,
i do not want to use “diagonal” nets in my proof.
but its such a nice idea
the textbook never talked about those and it is certainly not a trivial concept
well i dont want to sound condescending but i really dont think its particularly nontrivial
at least no in comparison to all the other stuff you see in pset topology
i mean i only started learning about nets yesterday lmao
fair enough
i really tried to formalize the argument from this link. i spent all day on it and got nowhere
what is not formal enough there?
its basically the same idea as for sequences i said above
specifically:
“passing to a subnet”
“we may choose the net”
those phrases suck
i was able to prove the “passing to a subnet” thing, but “we may choose the net” just makes absolutely no sense to me
well i also dont know why this guy does a proof by contraposition
maybe the direct argument i proposed doesnt go through as easily as i thought
well lets just see where we get
take some net (x_i)_i in X
for each i we find a net (h^i_j)_j in H that converges to x_i
okay
i have to remind myself about convegence of nets lol, been a while
basically a net converges to x if it is eventually in any neighborhood of x
“eventually” meaning:
x_i is eventually in N if:
there exists k such that for all i >= k, x_i is in N
ok i think i see why the subsequence thing is done
problem is all these h^i may have different index sets
like with sequences all have index sets natural
and there is a canonical diagonal
but here the sets are just filtered and it gets weird
why are you even doing this then lol
tbh i wouldnt either
bc i hate myself too LOL
do algebraic topology instead
thats a lot nicer
also i remember filters being a lot nicer than nets
because i’m teaching myself topology from the ground up in this textbook and i’ve solved every exercise so far with the exception of two (this one included)
@lunar yoke are you done helping me now?
well my approach is not gonna be better than whats written in the solution you posted
okay then can u explain to me the “we may choose” part at the end?
i can maybe figure out everything else on my own from that
i mean you dont have to
but i would appreciate the assistance c:
ok i dont know why its written in that order, but i think it works as follows
the f(e_ab) need to converge to f(x_a) = y_a for all a
but each y_a is in the open set V
hence if you already have e_ab, there is for each a some point b_0 where all the f(e_ab) lie in V for b >= b_0, simply by definition of convergence of f(e_ab) to y_a
and you just take these subnets as the new nets, i.e. replace (e_ab)_b with (e_ab)_(b >= b_0)
then do the same construction with the diagonal
as before all the e_gamma are of the form e_ab, but each of those now satisfies f(e_gamma) = f(e_ab) in V
so in this sense you can choose the e_ab so that f(e_ab) is always in V
which allows you to choose e_gamma in such a way that f(e_gamma) is in V always
does that make sense?
sorry i was taking a shower. let me read this rq
ah yes! this makes perfect sense thank you so much.
and I suppose the contradiction comes from the fact that f(x) is in U, which is open, which implies that f(e_gamma) would eventually be in U. But in fact none of the f(e_gamma) are in U since U and V are disjoint. Is that the idea?
Yes
i appreciate the help very much.
Hello, hope you missed me 😄
The closure of a set is the set of its adherent points
So, we all know what is the closure of a set, let us define the set of its adherent points as Ad(A) = {b : for all U subset X open if b in U then U cap A != emptyset}
Lets start by taking x in Ad(A). Then for each open set U that contains x we have U cap A != nothing. Now either x in A or x notin A. Suppose x in A. Then by definition of closure, we have x in Cl(A).
I am having an hard time with the x notin A case
x not in Ad(A) means that there's an open neighborhood of x not intersecting A
You should be able to deduce that this implies x ∉ Cl(A) using 5.E
x notin A implies x notin Ad(A)?
why did you said x notin Ad(A)?
Aren't you trying to prove that x ∉ Ad(A) → x ∉ Cl(A)?
no, if x in Ad(A) then x in cl(A)
oh
So closure is defined as
Intersection of ______
Use de Morgan, this is the same as
Complement of union of complements of ______
This second definition should give you Ad(A)
(1) closed sets that contain A
(2) hum
I mean, why is there two ways of learning topology
one defines closure as the limit of sequences and the other (which is the one I am using) as the set of adherent points
which one is preferable?
Learn all the definitions/characterizations, remember they are equivalent, and then safely forget which of them is "THE definition", until you need to write your own textbook.
Both are the same lol I was just avoiding writing it
that was to many complements xd
Thus the reference to De Morgan's law, which says that "intersection" is the same operation as "complement of union of complements".
... though for this particular case this advice might be bad because the two definitions are not equivalent in general topological spaces, and it's the "adherent point" definition that keeps working then.
fancy
thank you both!
in a very distilled way, is it accurate to say that a topology of a set X is just a special set of subsets
and is there any reason for saying "a topologyon a set X" as opposed to "of"
day 1 of topology today 
There's a million ways to refer to what a topology "is" haha. It's a very abstract structure and you'll find plenty of ways to define one
But yeah, day 1 will push the idea of open sets, that is a set of subsets that follow some properties
You can make topologies that don't resemble anything to do with our usual notion of "space" playing with this def
to me the problem with the language "topology of" as opposed to "topology on" is that the former seems to assert that there is a unique topology on X.
I figure because, in real number sets,
Open = without boundary
Closed = completely with boundary
But this idea doesn't extend to most other topologies, we still call them open/closed
ah merci both of yall
also mildly related, i can tell munkres seems to be the end all be all of topology books but do yall know anything about a topology book by donald kahn
my math dept changed buildings recently and someone left it behind so i kinda just took it lol, curious if it has any kind of reputation
does the power set of X count as an easy topology on X
easy as in just easy to come up with 
A topology on a set is a kind of additional structure that has been added to it. we often speak of "additional structure on a set"
of course the subsets themselves are already there but the choice of which subsets will go into the topology is what we mean by the structure
If a space is second countable is it guaranteed that a base of open balls exists. If not what extra requirements are needed?. Thank you
open balls?
what do you mean by open balls?
great minds think alike
Presumably it's a metric space.
feel like u need to be separable, which should be equivalent in a metric space
On the other hand a metric space always has some base of open balls. Do you want a countable base of open balls?
yes you should be able to get a countable base of open balls in a metric space, for any given countable base C_n, pick an arbitrary element inside it, x_n and we can easily show that this is dense. (this all works in general topological spaces). Now define a base of balls B_n in the standard manner given a countable dense set
Yes I think a metric space assumption would be appropriate
Very interesting. Thank you
Yes I think. I want to involve separability somehow though
To be exact I meant assume a polish space. I think chmonkey… dealt with it appropriately. Thanks again all of you for the comments
this is probably a really dumb question, but if I have a function between CW spectra f: E --> F, why can I assume that each component is cellular?
Probably by applying the cellular approximation functor to the entire map? 
I only read the definition of a CW spectrum yesterday 🙈 might be wrong
okay wait
I mean more like, if I have a map between CW spectra, why can I assume WLOG that it is represented by a cellular function?
Every map between CW complexes is homotopic to a cellular map
I'm using the definition that is in adams blue book
If this is a functorial homotopy then it will keep commutative diagrams commutative
I'm sorry but I don't really understand the "defined above some finite level", could you elaborate?
ye but can I really replace a map with something that is homotopic to it in this case?
Truly unfortunate
Nobody
oh okay I see. I think this is different from what my book uses
ye right. My book does this a bit differently I think but the idea is the same
you have like functions $f: E \to F$ of degree $r$ which are sequences of maps $f_n: E_n \to F_{n-r}$ that must commute with the structure maps. Then maps are defined to be equivalence classes of these functions with respect to the relation that $f$ and $g$ are related if there's a cofinal spectra contained in both domains such that the restriction of $f$ and $g$ coincide on this cofinal spectra
Tokidoki ✓
so working with this definition, if I have a map then why can I assume that it is represented by a cellular function?
Nobody
the definition doesn't assume anything about the f_n's I think
Are there any good conditions under which $H^\bullet(X, A) = \tilde{H}^\bullet(X \setminus A)$? And is this identification called something nice?
Lartomato
Oh I guess this is just excision if A is an open subset?
it's enough that A has a neighborhood in X that def contracts to A
That's even better
reference: Hatcher proposition 2.22
Okay, one somewhat unrelated question for my sanity: Consider the subspace $\Delta := { (x,y,z) \in (S^1)^3 : x,y,z \text{ are pairwise unequal} }$ of the circle $S^1 \subset \mathbb{C}$. Does this have two or three connected components?
Lartomato
I think it's only two, because once you fix a value for, say, x, the connected component you're one is somehow just dependent on how y and z are ordered, which should give you something like 2! = 2 connected components
Just being made insecure by a paper by Gelfand from the 70s which claims it's (3 * 2)/2 = 3
This is very vague but it's way too late for me to be doing math so I apologize
Yeah I'm right and Gelfand is wrong
He can suck it
ban Gelfand
uh oh already banned the wrong person
"Exercise 9.1 I. Let Figure 9.7 be the nerve of a good cover U on the torus,where the arrows indicate how the vertices are ordered. Write down a nontrivial 1-cocycle in C^1(U, A)."
I computed a 2 by 2 box (even calculating the matrix of each of the boundary maps) to check for an easy solution and found that in such case we have no non trivial co-cycles, so clearly a construction of such a cocycle is more delicate and requires using the whole big diagram, and I cant exactly see how to do it. furthermore I read that the first cohoology of the torus is 2 so if this really is a nerve diagram corresponding to a good cover of the torus then there ought to be 2 nontrivial classes of cocycles, but I cant find either of them, help would be appreciated
We've been working with this thing my professor calls a "filling graph" but I can't find the term used anywhere else. Does this definition go by another name?
This would usually be called the 1-skeleton of your surface given a two dimensional CW complex structure
If you havent seen CW complexes before they are basically exactly what is going on here but in arbitrary dimensions: a 0 complex is a collection of 0-cells (points) called the 0-skeleton, a 1 dimensional complex is a 0 dim complex with 1-cells (lines) glued to the 0-skeleton, a 2 dim cell complex has 2-cells glued to the 1-skeleton, and so on
to be clear k-skeleton is all cells of dim k < n so 1-skeleton is the intervals and the vertices not just the intervals
If S is an infinite set, and U a dense subset, does it follow that |U| = |S|?
no, absolutely not
generic points baybee

Bruh ℚ ⊂ ℝ
prove it
i dont understand. what does it mean to take the difference of two maps f_n and g_n here, where f and g are chain maps?
do i interpret "-" as the underlying operation of the nth group in the complex?
ok pog.
pointwise subtraction 
one day i wish to speak the language of the gods
You can start today 😼
Hey
how is the closure of A on O_2 contained in O_1
What I am thinking is that the closure of A on O_2 is the closed ball A, but the closure of A on O_1 is the empty set ?
i dont really get your picture, but if $\Omega_1 \subseteq \Omega_2$ then also the closed sets of $\Omega_1$ are contained in the closed sets of $\Omega_2$. Since the closure of A is the intersection of all closed sets that contain A, and we have more closed sets in the second topology, CL2 takes an intersection over more sets than CL1, and is hence smaller
Phil
Not sure if this goes here but is there a way to quotient a cylinder into a closed disk?
Im assuming you mean a hollow one
You can identify the top or bottom circle to a point
Then you get like a disk with the center pushed up into a cone
And if it isn't hollow then collapse all the lines parallel to its axis
So you're identifying the boundary of the hollow cyclinder to a single point or to two points?
No you identify one circle on the top or bottom to a point
Like if its S^1 x I collapse S^1 x {1}
I see, but in this situation, set A is not an element of $\Omega_1$, how can the closure of A in $\Omega_2$ be contained in CL 1
mns
since there is no closure of A in Omega_1 (?)
The omegas are not subsets of X, they are two different topologies on X
I have a family $\mathcal{F}$ of closed subsets of $X$ which satisfies certain properties (it's a closed base, closed under finite unions/intersections, ... too much to list, I'd rather only do that if necessary).
I have a compactification $\hat X$ of $X$ such that any two disjoint elements of $\mathcal{F}$ have disjoint closures and that $\overline{F}\cap X = F$ for $F\in\mathcal{F}$.
Now does anyone see a way here for the implication $ \overline{F_1}\cap ...\cap \overline{F_n}\neq\emptyset \implies F_1\cap ...\cap F_n\neq \emptyset$ to hold?
Blitz
somehow I feel like I won't get any help but, um, here
you get the case n=2 by contraposition, using the fact that disjoint F_i have disjoint closures
now $\mathcal{F}$ closed under finite intersections, and if one of the many properties allows you to deduce that $\overline{F_i \cap F_j} = \overline{F_i} \cap \overline{F_j}$, then you get the general case by induction
yes, I realize that
Phil
the properties of my $\mathcal{F}$ relate to $X$ alone though, not really $\hat X$
Blitz
one property I'll mention, but I doubt any of them are really useful, is that if $F\in\mathcal{F}$ and $x\in X\setminus F$ then there is $F'\in \mathcal{F}$ such that $x\in F'$ and $F'\cap F = \emptyset$
Blitz
I know this is a mess, it's like that for me too
so I have that if $\bigcap_{n\in J} F_n = \emptyset$ where $J$ is finite, then for any partition $J = J_1\cup J_2$ we have $\overline{\bigcap_{n\in J_1} F_n}\cap\overline{\bigcap_{n\in J_2} F_n} = \emptyset$
Blitz
Let $(X, A)$ be a pair of spaces with the homotopy extension property,
and let $f : A \to Y$ be a map. Show that the pair $(X \cup_f Y, Y )$ also satisfies the homotopy
extension property.
eM
I'll be quite honest, I've been thinking about this for a while now and I'm not sure how to start it.
I don't know a way of visualizing this--my only handy way of thinking about this is by diagram chasing, which has gone nowhere.
Any help or any kind of direction would help a lot!
Note that X u_f Y is the pushout of X <- A -> Y
moreover, the interval I = [0,1] is locally compact, hence the endofunctor -x[0,1] on Top is left adjoint and preserves colimits, i.e. you get that (X u_f Y) x I is again the pushout of X x I <- A x I -> Y x I
do you see how you can extend a given homotopy H : Y x I -> Z to (X u_f Y) x I -> Z now, using the universal property of the pushout?
there is definitely also a way to do this without so much category theory, but depending on what you already know that would be a lot more cumbersome
to make sure I got it right.
X Is a topology. A is nowhere dense in X if CL(Int(X\A)) = X
yes, the definition on wikipedia says e.g. CL(X \ Cl(A)) = X, but note that always Int(X\A) = X \ Cl(A), so yours is the same
nicee
Hey, can I get some help here?
I am taking a topology course as a freshman and it's definitely the hardest math course I've taken so far.

Thanks! :)
So, I have three questions.
-
I need an example of X/G beinf homeomorphic to Y/G where X is not homeomorphic to Y. I have tried cyclic groups to no avail and I'm already stuck.
-
If f: X --> Y is continuous, show that X x Y (the graph of f) is homeomorphic to X. I tried some open set magic and it didn't work.
-
What is a canonical projection or natural projection from X to X/G? It's not in the book. ;-;
Thanks! ^.^
I really want to master this class but I'm really sucking so far.
For 1, note that if you have a G-action on X, then X/G has the trivial G-action
and in that sense (X/G)/G = X/G
do you see how to continue?
For 2, you already have a continuous map f : X -> graph(f) = {(x,f(x)) | x \in X} c X x Y
note that this is a bijection with inverse g : graph(f) -> X, (x,f(x)) -> x
can you show that g is continuous? (here we endow graph(f) with the subspace topology of X x Y)
oh for 3. its just the projection sending x in X to its equivalence class [x] in X/G
its always continuous by the definition of the quotient topology we put on X/G
O.O
Hmm, so... Basically... (X/G)/G is homeomorphoc is (X/G) but (X/G) is not homemorphic is X?
well depends on the space X
Hmm... Right...
but there are definitely easy examples where this holds
X = R?
probably most examples work
with what G?
how would that action look?
It's just equal to R?
yeah
It's r and -r.
do you see what happens if we act with Z on R?
Wait, Z is the group under +?
yes
so we act by addition (z,x) -> z+x
Right?
no
But Z cannot be homemorphic to R.
you are confusing some things i think
we have a continuous group action Z x R -> R, (z,x) -> z+x
then we form the space R/Z := {[x] | x in R}
where [x] = {y in R | x-y in Z} is the orbit of x under the group action
so for example Z is identified to a single point in the quotient space
likewise, for any x in R we identify the orbit of x, given by [x] = {..., x-2,x-1,x,x+1,x+2,...} to a single point in the quotient space
Ohh
Eq classes
if you have a group action G x X -> X then for x in X its orbit is {gx | g in G}
Oh, thanks.
so kind of "everything you can reach from x by acting with you group"
Yep.
so the point to note is that every equivalence class in R/Z already has a representative in [0,1)
Yeah.
because we can just subtract or add multiples of integers
and moreoever [0] = [1]
so can you guess what space you get?
With R/Z?
yes
[0, 1)?
not quite
note that because [0] = [1], if x in [0,1) is very close to 1, then [x] is close to [1] = [0] too
starting at [0] and going towards [1] after a while you end up at [1] = [0] again
its a circle
you get S^1
you basically take the interval [0,1], and glue the endpoints
or think of it as "rolling up R into a circle", with each interval [n,n+1] being rolled once around the circle
fornally, you can define R -> S^1, x -> exp(2pi i x), and then note that this induces a well-defined map R/Z -> S^1, which you can check to be a homeomorphism
but all of this is probably quite a lot at once
Oh.
there are easier examples for your first question
for example, take a finite space with two points
act on it via C2
the quotient space then only has a single point
Ah, right.
but R/Z = S^1 is a nice example to keep in mind
no what i meant is you can take X = {1,2} and Y = {1,2}/C2 = {[1]}
these are not homeomorphic
Ohh.
but then quotienting out C2 they are homeomorphic
{1, 2}/C2 is hm to {1, 2}/C2/C2 = {1, 2}/C2
but {1, 2} is not hm to {1, 2}/C2
Ah.
The second has only one element?
Why?
And how can I prove that X/G/G equals X/G?
its easier to look at {-1,1} instead of of {1,2} to define the action, even though they are isomorphic if we choose them as discrete spaces
now formally you have an action C2 x {-1,1} -> {-1,1} acting by multiplication (where we say C2 = {-1,1})
then you can see that the orbit of 1 is the whole space [1] = {1,-1}
hence also [-1] = [1] = {-1,1}
that means {-1,1}/C2 = {[1]} is a space with a single point
now the induced action on this space is just the trivial one doing nothing C2 x {[1]} -> {[1]}, (g,[1]) -> [1]
its a bit stupid, there isnt really much happening
if you look at this and the definitions of everything involved carefully it just pops out
anyway since the action is trivial you get ({-1,1}/C2)/C2 = {[1]}/C2 = {[1]} again
btw many of these equalities should be homeomorphism symbols instead
but these are all one-point sets, which have a unique topology, so the unique maps between them are all homeomorphisms
Sorry, I got up to get food.
Oh, okay.
I think I get it.
Thanks a lot! I have at least a vague understading now. 😆
yeah this takes time, especially if you're just a freshman
The class is really fast... My other 400's are so much easier!
what are 400's
Yeah, linear algebra, abstract algebra, and analysis are my other math classes, and they're all so much slower and more intuitive.
oh ok
400's are like topology and complex analysis. 000's are algebra, 100's calc I-II, 200's pde's and calc III etc., 300's basic analysis and discrete maths, etc.
Linear algebra is my easiest, haha.
But how do I prove it rigorously?
just look at the definition of orbit i gave above
.
Say graph(x) is a subspace of X?
yes
Ah, cool idea!
<@&286206848099549185>: Could I ask anothet question?
Hmm
Uh, what is the definition of the topolofy on the natural projection pi: X --> X/G?
I feel like I'm missing something.
sorry im new/haven't read everything but assuming you defined what C2 is this seems pretty fine to me
Oh, I should have waited 15 minutes. Sorry.
Thank you!!!!!!!
Are you a math grad student?
undergrad ^_^
Oh, C2 is the cyclic group of order 2?
Right?
currently doing topology, calc 3, and algebra 2 ^_^ (and 2 projects ehe)
lol
Ohh, cool!
Projects????
Algebra II?
I like the anime haha
my uni has a lab of geometry so im doing that, then a reading group. abstract algebra 2
Math majors are as weeby as CS majors, eh? ^.^
Oh, wow, cool.
I'm going to take an AA grad course next semester.
We omly have one undergrad AA course here.
ah, coolio uwu
How good is your uni for math?
decent enough) (not that this matters, there are ppl everywhere)
is this sending x to its equivalence class/coset?
Yes!
Yeah, true.
I have to prove it's a closed map.
ah
I did this last sem im p sure, but forgot literally almost everything about topological groups
aw :(
Sry 😓 it was like literally my worst hw
I'm lucky my professor drops the two lowest quizzes and homework assignments.
My grades have been pretty bad so far. 😅
We love to see it (the grade dropping)
50%-80%
Just in this class, too.
I'm usually an A, A- student everywhere else.
So that means I need to improve.
Is there any main thing that's confusing?
Hmm
It's all just new to me.
this is fair ^_^
topological groups esp are weird, at least imo (i told myself id review them and never did)
lol
Gotcha
Also, does abstract algebra get harder after cyclic groups and such?
Or just more interesting?
harder is a subjective term, but i would be suspicious of anyone saying it gets easier
👍
(not that ik a ton ofc)
I'm a little nervous for exam week, haha.
At least my linear algebra exam is a week earlier than all the others.
epico
So only 3 math exams, 1 cs exam, and 1 art history exam that week.
gl ^_^
lol im just a second year im not exactly super experienced, just be fine with getting super confused ig
Can I get help with another problem?
Either one would be helpful.
Just a hint, even.
They're quite troublesome.
(<@&286206848099549185>)
(Sorry to ping so much.)
👀
Nvm, I just misread the problem 
Hint: Cantor set
Also, that looks like a pretty fun topology course 😅 those sort of riddle questions are cool, much better than silly definition pushing ones
what are the prerequisites for munkres topology. I need to pick up this book quickly
basic set theory, but knowing about metric spaces helps
Munkres does the required set theory in ch0 anyway
I'd say just pick it up and see how it's like, you'll probably be fine
oh yeah I'll try to go over ch1 first
do you still need hints or no?
|| I think looking at the function v -> v/|v^2| from R^3 without zero looks promising when you check what happens with the line (1/2,0,0)+r*(0,1,0) ||
Thank you for helping! So, basically,we're trying to prove a bijection can't exist, right?
I thought you were trying to find a homeomorphism?
Yeah, it's fun! Very hard, but fun.
Oh, duh. Sorry.
I got it backwards.
Hi
I suggest inspecting the function I suggested
I don't understand it, lol.
what about it do you not understand, the function or sth else?
When one glues topological spaces, the points in area in red still exist? I found it weird that they lie “inside” the new figure.
But the idea is that v/v^2 cannot contain 0, right?
So it is missing a point.
it is.... however if you remove the mentioned line from the domain, then the image is also missing several other points
inspect the shape of the missing points
A circle?
yes
Wait, is r a parameter here?
well when you glue things in real life the area where they are glued together doesnt simply vanish either?
yeah, I was talking about a line
Try corrosive glue
yeah totally true, its just uncomfortable for me to see that figure an think that those points got trapped :’(
i feel like that wouldnt make for a decent glue then
In all srriousness though, probably the best way to learn some of this stuff is to just take some sheets of paper and do the constructions by hand. At least I find it's very useful for getting a feel for stuff like mobius strip and such
So you subtract (v/v^2) and that line from R^3?
nonono, you look at the function (v/|v^2|) on R^3 without the line and without zero
Ohhh
So take f(x) = x/x^2
Remove 0Uline
yeah
Is this the right line?
we are in R^3
Oh yeah.
that's why I put the absolute value sign around the v
Right.
Hmm
Well, at least I don't have to do these challenge problems until April.
Thanks! I think I kind of understand now. :)
would someone plz explain how this 1-1 correspondence is defined? I don't understand how taking two maps and composing them gives a bijection between E*(E) and natural transformations
I understand that I can use the yoneda lemma to get that E^n(E) is Nat(Hom(-, E), E^n), but in this category my Homs are graded and Hom(-, E) isn't E^n(X), but Hom_(-n)(-, E) is E^n(X). So maybe there's some version of the yoneda lemma that takes into account graded homs or something?
@pallid lion: Is this a rigorous proof?
For a different problem.
Also, how can I prove that the natural projection of X onto X/G for any group G is a closed map?
I cannot read what that thing next to the isomorphism sign is supposed to mea
graph(f)
I am not fully convinced, though I am unaware how much of it is due to me being unable to read
ok after rereading, you're being maybe a little imprecise with your argument why the inverse is continuous
(also you forgot to mention bijectivity, but that's kind of obvious)
but looks fine to me otherwise
Okay, so rewrite mentioning bijection?
And how can I make it more precise?
you 're supposed to show that the preimage of an open set in X is open in the graph of X. you didn't really do that as far as I was able to see
just idk, write a line mentioning that this function is clearly bijective at the start
I have to show that f-1(U) is open => U is open, right?
But where f maps X to its graph?
you have to show V in X open =>(phi-1)-1(V) = phi(V) open
Two -1's?
How would I even start?
it's the preimage of the inverse of phi of V,
which is just the image of V since phi is bijective
well you know that a subset U of the graph is open if and only if there exists an open subset O of X x Y, such that O intersected with the graph is equal to U
due to subspace topology
so you take some set V and look at its image.
you need to find an open set in X x Y such that its intersection with the graph is equal to the image of V
Hmm, okay. I think I am closer.
Is there a decent Youtube series where I can learn this stuff?
I feel like my book just isn't doing it.
I'm the wrong person to ask this, maybe others know better about yt topology practice
thx
I still don't get this btw. And later on the author says that HZ/p*(HZ/p) is the mod p Steenrod algebra, which I also don't understand. If E*(E) is in bijection with natural transformations E* --> E*, then HZ/p*(HZ/p) should just be the set of ALL cohomology operations, not just the stable ones, right?
You could also try a different book, but I dunno much bokks about topology myself (Topology is the kind of subject you just learn naturally as you go forward in mathematics)
Munkres is pretty good and one of the classics i guess
Why is it that topological space is separable if it has a countable dense subset? Is there a proof or its just a definition? Can someone explain
thats the definition
oh okay maybe whats troubling me is, why calling it 'separable' if it has a countable dense subset xd
Let me check that out
+1 that's very informative
Let X be a (finite?) CW complex and let X_i be a skeletal filtration of X
X is is the colimit of this filtration
But are the cohomology groups of X
The colimit of the cohomology groups of the X_i
i would guess so, since it works for homology and higher homotopy groups
maybe you can get it from this via UCT
but i dont know how Ext behaves with colimits
Yeah I saw it worked for homology
And I think homotopy commutes with a good few kinds of colimits
But cohomology scared me
Hmm seemingly it’s not true
oh yeah we should expect a limit instead of a colimit anyway
but even that is not always isomorphic
may has a chapter on this
oh right this has occurred to me. on one of my homework problems, I said that the boundary map sends the singular 3-simplex f(x,y,z)=e^2(pi)iy to e^2(pi)ix-1+e^2(pi)ix and the grader corrected the -1 to +1. Idk if i am continuously misreading the definition of the boundary map or smthn so i just want to sanity check if i made a careless error or the grader did
Why not just use the fact it's a smooth map restricted to a submanifold?
What are people's general opinion on Hatcher's book?
Specifically looking for something to learn and use as a refrence for homotopy theory
I need recommendations for point set topology, can anyone give me a list of resources?
can someone explain how Hatcher came to the conclusion that the Steenrod algebra consists of all stable mod p cohomology operations?
everything in the above pic is just a big mess in my head and I'm basically confused about everything
Can someone help me understand this proof:
https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Point_in_Closure_of_Subset_of_Metric_Space_iff_Limit_of_Sequence
I'm stuck on this bit
I understand everything that's going on, except isn't epsilon fixed in the beginning?
this is the definition they give for a set being open
and this is the requirement for a point being in the closure
Does this proof actually work, because to my understanding, epsilon is fixed in the proof.
Like, it proves it for a specific epsilon (and I guess anything below that epsilon), but doesn't prove for all positive epsilon. At least, unless I'm misunderstanding something.
the proof is correct
im not sure what exactly you are not understanding though
the definition for an open set says that epsilon exists. It doesn't necessarily hold for every positive epsilon
Whereas, for a point to be in the closure, it requires that it holds for every positive epsilon
We're only using the epsilon from the existence statement of an open set.
but note that if $\epsilon' < \epsilon$, then $B_{\epsilon'}(x) \subseteq B_{\epsilon}(x)$
Phil
Any positive value of epsilon should hold for a point to be in the closure. This proof doesn't work (at least to my understanding) if we have $\varepsilon^\prime > \varepsilon$.
(𒀭)
Because then the statement with the open ball being a subset of U doesn't necessarily hold with $\varepsilon^\prime$
(𒀭)
but you do acknowledge that they have shown what they claim in the second to last line right?
that every open set that contains a also contains a point in H
I feel like I've seen a proof for that, but I can't immediately remember. Either way, I'll accept it as true for now.
wdym feel like
I'll probably attempt a proof if I can't find one in my notes later.
its literally your link
bruh
That line refers to the stuff above it, so yea I understand that.
lol sorry about that
ok but then i dont see the problem
assuming this as given, we want to verify that for every eps > 0 you get B_eps(a) n H nonempty
but note that B_eps(a) is an open set containing a
hence by assumption intersection with H is nonempty
so this verifies this condition for a being in the closure of H
Fun (but quite tricky imo) problem I wanted to share: Let $A_1,\ldots,A_n\subseteq \mathbb R^n$ be bounded, measurable subsets. Show that there is a half-space $H_{u,a}^+={x:x\bullet u \geq a}$ such that for all $i \in [n]$, we have
$$\mu(A_i \cap H_{u,a}^+)=\frac 1 2 \mu(A_i)$$
Where of course the measure is lebesgue measure. Hint: Use Borsuk-Ulam Theorem
quite a striking result too imo
feel free to ping me to discuss (I've already solved it)
ShiN

think you can assign a pari (left, right) on a sphere whose points denote the orientation of the plane then use BU...
Could.you elaborate?
isnt this the ham sandwich theorem?
i imagine the higher dimensional analogue is the same trick as for n=3? Take a hyperplane that cuts through A_n in half with orientation s \in S^n-1 (for no ambiguity take the closest one to 0), and then take a function from S^n-1 to R^n-1 that to every orientation assigns (a_1, ..., a_n-1) where a_i is the measure of A_i n H_u,a^+ where you take the half space to be the positive side of the hyperplane. Then with borsuk ulam you get a plane that divides each of the A_1, ..., A_n-1 equally and by earlier construction the plane must also divide A_n equally. Im not sure how you show continuity of all these maps though
Let $M$ be a $4$-manifold (topological manifold without boundary, not necessarily compact), and let $B\subseteq M$ be a connected, compact submanifold of dimension $2$. If $M$ is simply connected, and if $B$ corresponds to a nontrivial element $[B]\in H_2(M)$, is it then true that $B$ must be simply connected (in other words, by the classification of surfaces, $B$ must be homeomorphic to the $2$-sphere)?
gustavn64
An idea I had would be to consider (part of) the long exact sequence for the pair $(M,B)$: $\cdots\to\tilde{H}_2(B)\to \tilde{H}_2(M)\to\tilde{H}_2(M/B)\to\tilde{H}_1(B)\to\tilde{H}_1(M)\to\cdots$. By assumption, we know that the first arrow is injective, and that the last homology group, $\tilde{H}_1(M)$, is trivial. We want to use this to show that $\tilde{H}_1(B)$ is trivial. But I'm not sure how to go about this, other than those remarks, really.
gustavn64
It is, yea. Well that's almost it but those aren't exactly the functions you need if i'm understanding you correctly.
How does one picture smash and join? Should I just give up?
woww very cool website
I didnt know this existed
Sometimes I feel like my textbook doesn't go as in-depth in a topic as I'd like, so I'll pop over there and find some interesting results.
It doesn't work for every topic, but occasionally, you'll come across a link at the bottom of a page that'll say something along the lines of "For more results about ___, click this."
Yeah, it's a nice resource to have!
oh
its probably an algorithm which
takes theorems and proofs from wikipedia
and copy pastes them to here
wowwwww there is something called
modern puzzles
This question from my AT final today. I've been told that the answer to c is no, but I don't understand the explanation. Could someone shed some light on this
sigma* is the unique element in C^1(K,Z) such that sigma*(sigma)=1 and sigma*(tau)=0 for tau!= sigma
C^1(K,Z)= Hom (C_1(K),Z)
And this is simpicial homology ofc
Oh wait nvm I think I got it
Considering oriented sum of all simplices, we get that on one hand the result should be 1 if the equality is correct (Cuz sigma appear inside once), but on the other hand everything besides 2u(ad+de+da) cancels, so we have a contradiction.
I think Im missing something obvious but why does HEP imply that id on A x I U X x {0} extend to retract X x I \to A x I U X x {0} when the identity is not a homotopy (it isnt defined on (x,t) where x in X and t != 0). Here A is closed subset of X
p14 hatcher
you consider the homotopy H : A x I -> A x I u X x {0} given by the inclusion. At 0, this coincides with the restriction to A of the inclusion i: X = X x {0} -> A x I u X x {0}. Thus the HEP gives you a homotopy H' : X x I -> A x I u X x {0} that extends H and starts the inclusion map i
Ah of course! Thank you so much
assume that $X$ is a CW complex. Show that $S(X) \simeq \sum(X)$, where $S(X)$ denoted the suspension of $X$ and $\sum(X)$ denotes the reduced suspension of $X$.
eM
I was able to show $S(S^n) \cong S^{n+1}$ and $\sum(S^n) \cong S^{n+1}$. I was hoping, since $X$ is a CW complex and so admits a cellular structure (i.e. we have open homeomorphic copies of $D^n$), I was trying to squeeze in the fact $D^n/S^{n-1} \cong S^n$ so that we can show these are the same homotopy type. But I have had no luck.
eM
Furthermore, I don't see why this fails to hold when X is not a CW complex.
What are these pictures called that represent a surface in R^2?
My professor calls them "polygonal decompositions" which doesn't seem to be standard since I can't find anything on them.
Hello guys
Not sure if this works, but suspension is taking the product with the unit interval and then quotienting out some relation right?
The former is a left adjoint
The latter is a colimit itself
So both and hence their composition should preserve colimits?
So if this really does work you can use the structure of how the cw complex is built out of pushouts, and that might also explain why it doesnt work in general
Nobody
Any ideas on how to go about finding a counter example here
well for this you can find very small finite counterexamples
think about what happens if f is not injective for example
(im assuming you're talking about the statement at the bottom, that f(X\S) != f(X) \ f(S) in general)
i mean that would work for the right S
but that seems rather complicated too
X = {0,1}, S = {0}, f : X -> {0} works too
any constant map where the domain has at least 2 points in fact
why are elements of a topology called open sets if i can (probably maybe) put closed sets in a topology
actually is that valid
a topology is a set of subsets of a set
sets can be open and closed
so if that set is R, then yeah an element of a topology could just be [0,1] right

i know R and null set are both open and closed
but [1,2] is certainly not open
depends on the topology you're talking about
your term of openness is probably referring to the natural one on R rn
oh yeah im still doing baby shit lol
like truly understanding the def. of a topology
but the fact that its elements are called open sets is tripping me up
bc they dont necessarily have to be open, at least from what my intuition is telling me
though ig im thinking abt open in a more "conventional" sense
ok can an element of a topology be a closed set
in the sense that it contains all its accumulation points
well accumulation points are already a different story
defining closure in terms of accumulation points of sequences isn't valid for general topological spaces
yes
bleh
you should try to forget what you think about openness and closure in R for a second
it's still useful to keep in mind for some intuition later on
pas de probleme
me doing maths
hence my picture

