#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 260 of 1
diligentClerk
i think i roughly see your point, yeah, that is a very cool perspective! i'm not quite categorically-minded enough to translate that 1:1 to the de rham setting, but this shouldn't be impossible
i worked out exactly what this connected component is in the case $\ell=1$ and found that i actually know how to describe its (opposite) category fairly well: the opposite category can be characterized as having as objects the sets $0=\emptyset, 1 = {0}, 2 = {0,1},\dots$ and where maps from $n$ to $k$ are just all injections. An injection $n\to k$ corresponds to a map $V^k\otimes M\to V^n\otimes M$.
diligentClerk
Call this category $\Delta_{dg}$. so the action of $V$ on $M$ generates a presheaf of $k$ modules over $\Delta_{dg}$. then i found a nice like, canonical way to 'realize' such presheaves as chain complexes, by a kind of cousin of the dold kan functor, and it gives the Koszul complex
diligentClerk
i'm pretty psyched about this but i'd really like to understand the de rham complex better
holy shit lmao that is sophisticated
i feel like everything i could suggest is just bebbi's first mathematics
yeah i'm into freely generated monoidal categories. and nah lol i have a lot of trouble understanding the shit i'm reading online relevant to this, i found this comment from Mariano alvarez and it makes no sense to me, like i said 'something something operads'
yea so I think the Chevalley-Eilenberg construction is probably the most algebraically natural explanation for the de Rham complex in the smooth setting (without dealing with Hochschild stuff)
it's certainly going to be related to the Hochschild setting in the end because of HKR
Yeah i just groan a little internally when i think about reading weibel's chapter on hochschild homology, it's like 60 pages
yea that chapter is a pain
I think you already said this above but the de Rham dg-algebra is the CE construction applied to the tangent Lie algebroid TX of X
which is sort of aesthetically satisfying because there's a deeper sense in which most constructions involving dg-algebras are really controlled by the Lie operad (or its higher operad refinement)
i guess one obvious, more algebraic perspective is the one of kähler differentials and kähler forms, but the connection to the smooth de rham complex is a little bit loose i think because of garbage like $de^x \neq e^x dx$ in the algebraic setting
Lartomato
yea this is sort of why I refrain from giving this as "the" explanation in the smooth setting. There is a way to make this work properly in the smooth setting, but it's a little funny
like there is a way to make sense of Kahler differentials properly in the setting of smooth algebras and then set up an appropriate HKR theorem that recovers the de Rham complex using Hochschild methods
that's an okay approach too I guess but again it's like
since you're extracting a dg-algebra in the end it should be controlled by some (higher) Lie theory considerations. This is what the tangent Lie algebroid is controlling here.
Yeah i think that would also be a good setting to consider. I've tried to consider them from different perspectives. in many different settings one can carry out a similar construction but i haven't yet found a situation in where this complex just 'builds itself from scratch', so to speak, i.e. it's the free whaddyacallit generated by such and such etc
that is a bit surprising since the de rham differential on higher forms is really just inductively defined from knowing what it does on the lowest level plus leibniz rule, but i get that that might not be easy to make into a "free" thing rigorously
I'm having a bit of a hard time with the Kahler differentials. just a bit of confusion because there are two ring objects involved. d is of course an R-linear map but not linear with respect to the action of O_X. on the other hand when we form the exterior algebra one can think of it as the exterior algebra of the cotangent sheaf, or sheaf of differentials, over the ring O_X. somehow i don't really get why in the very abstract sense, d should survive that quotienting if it's not a morphism in the category
I mean one thing you can say about freeness is that the de Rham dg-algebra is a semi-free commutative dg-algebra, and then there is a structure theorem that says that any semi-free commutative dg-algebra which is degree-wise finite dimensional has to arise as the CE construction of a Lie \infty-algebroid of finite type
the data in this case is concentrated in degrees 0 and 1 (since you only care to have your differential plus a single bracket), so arises from a Lie algebroid
ye the more i think about it, the lie algebroid perspective seems like a really good one to categorically make sense of it
(tho lie algebroids themselves seem like a very high-level starting point already?)
yea definitely
alright. i think i'll spend some more time learning this stuff, don't know much about lie algebroids at all. was hoping i could find a simple answer that didn't require me to delve too deep into the subject matter. i found a talk by jacob lurie on "Lie Algebras and Homotopy theory" that looks like a pretty good introduction
I mean also one reason why the Hochschild/HKR approach might not be the right one to consider is that the HKR isomorphism does not extend to an isomorphism of dg-algebras here
he talks about the 'universal' lie algebra, maybe this is a PROP? anyway seems pretty interesting
the definition of Lie algebroids itself isn't so bad it's only when you get to this higher stuff that it gets very homotopically annoying
ok
let me ask one last question.
does anybody know what filtration this guy is talking about
I saw somewhere that you define it iteratively by looking at the preimage of iteratively defined sets under the comultiplication but i just don't know anything about hopf algebras other than the bare minimum you learn in like, two weeks of a singular cohomology course
you learnt about hopf-algebras for a singular cohomology course
and i don't know how to describe that filtration more easily so that i can actually work out the associated spectral sequence as he says
yea I was gonna say wow
eh there was 1 section in the textbook on em, it was 10 pages, i read it. i skipped over the worst of the algebra anyway
I think the filtration here is the one that comes from the canonical filtration on U(g)
ok cool. so what is that
i know this formua
$C_0$ is defined to be the 'sum of simple coalgebras of $C$'
diligentClerk
and $C_n = \Delta^{-1}(C\otimes C_0 + C_{n-1} \otimes C)$
diligentClerk
you get a filtration U_0(g)≤U_1(g)≤...≤U(g) where U_0(g) is the base field f and U_n(g) is the k-subalgebra of U(g) generated by products of length n
i.e. by products i(x_1)...i(x_n) where x_1,...,x_n are in g and i:g->U(g) is the canonical embedding
where I guess $\Delta$ is the free algebra map generated by letting $\Delta(x) = 1\otimes x + x\otimes 1$ for $x\in g$
diligentClerk
I think this is maybe unrelated to what I'm referring to? But yea you get a canonical length filtration on U(g), this passes to a filtration on this simplicial construction
i thought that might be what he was talking about but i wasn't sure, i didn't even know U(g) was a hopf algebra
mhm
and yea the Hopf algebra structure on U(g) is such that elements of g are Lie like, that is ∆(x)=1⊗x+x⊗1 and this determines it for general elements of U(g)
it's similar to how the Hopf algebra structure on the group algebra K[G] is defined, where you demand that elements of G are group like, that is ∆(g)=g⊗g
@uncut surge do you have a name or reference so I can look up examples of this cohomology
Also, in simple cases does it just recover whatever homology you started with?
Oh nevermind
I think I know where to find it 
o which cohomology did you mean
the vector field one
that's commonly called gelfand-fuks cohomology, and all sources i know for it are awful, but if you're up for an unpleasant adventure, "Cohomology of Infinite-Dimensional Lie Algebras" by fuks from 1984 is your guide
i also have 50 page notes on that thing which i've been waiting for my supervisor to read for a full year but he doesn't want to
I remember that one, but I meant the general idea, derived functors of the sections of some local cohomology sheaf
yo does anybody know what breaks if you try to do spectral sequences with a sequence of chain complexes $C_0\to C_1\to \dots$ where the maps of chain complexes aren't necessarily injective? This is all in $R$ mod, so everything about the objects is nice
diligentClerk
like i want to compute the homology of the colimit complex of this sequence
and i know that over R-mod, homology commutes with filtered colimits. so it's not totally implausible that there's a spectral sequence associated to this colimit
With injective resolutions that aren't necessarily injective? 
does anything go wrong? what happens if i just pretended like it was a filtration and started trying to compute it
lmao
yes
nah i mean
wait what are you saying exactly
at that point it might be easier to see if you can get an appointment in their calendar and just lecture at them for an hour about it
I thought you were trying to compute something in particular with a resolution, but it seems like you're just trying to see if the computation still makes sense
oh those thoughts that i was writing down aren't based on any literature; what comes kinda close to that is what Bredon does in his book "Sheaf Theory", maybe that's worthwhile to look into
he does formulate spectral sequences that come from sheaves of DGAs and when you can say nice things about them
I am trying to compute something in particular and i'm wondering, first of all, if there's a well-defined spectral sequence associated to a sequence of chain complexes $C_\bullet \to C''\bullet\to C''\bullet\dots$, and second of all, if under good conditions it converges to the homology of the colimit complex $\operatorname{colim}C^{(n)}_\bullet$
diligentClerk
hmm does make you wonder what kind of good condition that could be, something like 0 \to C \to 0 of course can't give you anything meaningful
i have no thoughts beyond that tho unfortunately
Just in the simplest cases, say X equipped with a good cover, this construction would preserve Cech cohomology wouldn't it?
@orchid forge If you mean something like "If S is a sheaf of DGAs, then taking the DGA-cohomology commutes with Cech cohomology", nah, that's generally not true
Whoops
god i'm too stupid to construct examples
it might actually work out for the de rham complex over a smooth manifold? man, it's too late for my brain
ok thanks. cool
i honestly have no idea what the homotopy colimit of a diagram in Ch(Ab) is.
I think if you do this for the de Rham complex over a manifold, then applying de Rham cohomology and then Cech cohomology gives you the Cech cohomology of the constant sheaf (in degree zero of the de Rham cohomology), and if you do it the other way round you get the de Rham cohomology of the manifold (in degree zero of the Cech cohomology)
This doesn't straightforwardly "commute", but if you write this as two spectral sequences, you can argue that they converge to the same limit, and there's your proof that Cech cohomology is identical to de Rham cohomology
Yeah, I understand, I got that by your reference to the 'telescoping trick' in Top
I think this is what I meant 
So I am messing around with this problem trying to see if I can get anywhere.
I think the thing the perplexes me the most is how to deal with the supremum in this problem
That is most likely what causes a restriction on a_i
My initial thought is that since delta= epsilon/|a_n|, we need to force all a_i's to equal one another
However, I am not sure this is a sufficient requirement for continuity, I am not sure it is a necessary one
I could be wrong, but I am pretty sure I proved continuity regardless of the values for a_i
If I am wrong, please correct me. My intuition must be failing somewhere if I am
Oh wait....a supremum for a_i has to exist
Maybe im missing an easy argument but i dont really see it
folks i am ????
i've come back to this a couple times over the course of the afternoon trying to figure out what he's saying but i just for the life of me cannot get the same answer that he does
Perhaps there's some ambiguity in his comments and i'm misinterpreting it.
Diligent interrupting my incredibly serious and important question on belyis theorem to categorypost... literally quaking
i'm sorry lol you deleted the original post so i didn't see your profile picture attached to it.
I assumed that dackid posted that message, my eyes just glossed over your name
Sad!
yeah i mean you deleted the tex
(its fine btw i was just joking)
ok i will ask this question in #groups-rings-fields. surely the sylow group theory people will help me solve this
good idea. @tough imp please help me with my spectral sequences thing and DO NOT READ OTHER MESSAGES IN THE CHANNEL UNTIL THIS GETS RESOLVED
just kidding. help moth. idk i'll go somewhere and try to figure this out
not sure what clerk is asking tbh
what's complicated about constructing a filtered simplicial cocommutative coalgebra
jk that's just a lot of syllables
i mean i think I get what he's trying to say after a lot of help but still
i sat down to do the spectral sequence computation he's talking about and I got that $E_1$ was equal to.... $0$
diligentClerk
just straight up $0$
diligentClerk
what a pleasantly computable homology theory
yes!
extremely well behaved chain complex
i mean that's a reasonable answer to the question. Like, the spectral sequence is a tool for computing the homology, and the whole 'filtered simplicial cocommutative coalgebra' thing should be a free resolution just by appeal to abstract nonsense. So including the augmentation, the homology should be zero, and ideally if you run the spectral sequence out for far enough you should get 0. What this guy is saying tho is if you compute only the first step of the algorithm, the original complex should simplify down to a simpler complex with the same homology, and this is the standard Chevalley-Eilenberg complex. Somehow i'm already getting that everything vanishes in a puff of smoke in the first step of the algorithm. I can't figure out what I'm doing wrong
I do understand the question, I just don't know how to answer it
if you want to rubber ducky your way through the argument there's a nonzero chance that one of us will figure it out along the way
i think i have an educated guess
i just came across a much more sensible interpretation of one of the words he used.
He just said "the filtered complex" and i just made an educated guess as to what filtration to use. But I found a paper which suggests that there's a different filtration which is considered standard (which makes a lot more sense than what I was doing lmao) and so i'm going to try this
Hey guys
I know this is basic but can anyone help me find a homeomorphism between (0, 1) and (a, inf)? Every example i come up with breaks when i take a < 0
Natural logarithm gives a homeomorphism (0,1) <=> (-\infty,0). Then (-\infty, 0) is homeomorphic to (a,\infty) by means of the map x \mapsto -x +a
Omg
I guess a shorter way to say this would be $e^{-x+a} : (a,\infty) \to (0,1)$
diligentClerk
np
ok let me spell out my issue.
Let $\mathfrak{g}$ be a Lie algebra. For the sake of argument suppose it's free over a commutative ring $k$. Let $U(\mathfrak{g})$ be the associated universal enveloping algebra, constructed by taking the free tensor algebra $T(\mathfrak{g})$ and modding out by the two-sided ideal given by $x\otimes x, x\otimes y-y\otimes x - [x,y]$.
diligentClerk
There are two important maps associated to $U(\mathfrak{g})$ here: the 'comultiplication' $U(\mathfrak{g})\to U(\mathfrak{g})\otimes U(\mathfrak{g})$, which sends the monomial $x_1\dots x_n$ to $\prod_{1\leq i\leq n} (1\otimes x_i + x_i\otimes 1)$
diligentClerk
and the counit $\epsilon : U(\mathfrak{g})\to k$ which sends any non-empty product of elements of $\mathfrak{g}$ to zero; this map is the identity when restricted to the embedded copy of $k$ in the tensor algebra
diligentClerk
these two structures makes $U(\mathfrak{g})$ into a 'comonoid' in the category of $k$-modules. If you look at the diagram given by freely taking higher tensor powers of $U(\mathfrak{g})$ and all the maps that are induced between these $U(\mathfrak{g})^{\otimes n}$ from the counit and comultiplication, you'll find you've got an augmented simplicial object with $X_n = U(\mathfrak{g})^{n+1}$ and $X_{-1} = k = U(\mathfrak{g})^0$. The face maps are given by applying the unit to one of the elements. The degeneracy maps are given by applying the coproduct.
diligentClerk
What's a decomposition / decomposition space?
give me a sec
loosely speaking it's a collection of disjoint subsets of a space X
a set is open in D is there union is open in X
well what book is this and what's the general context
stephen willard general topology
he talking about quotient spaces
There is a filtration on $U(\mathfrak{g})$ given by setting $U(\mathfrak{g})m$ to be the smallest $k$-module containing all products $x_1\dots x{\ell}$ for $\ell\leq m$. We use this to define a filtration on the simplicial object $U(\mathfrak{g})^{\otimes \ast}$ by writing $U(\mathfrak{g})^{\otimes n}_m$ the smallest submodule containing all tensor powers $p_1\otimes\dots p_n$ where the sum of degrees of the $p_i$ is less than $m$. It is not hard to prove that the face and degeneracy maps do not increase the total degree of elements, so this is indeed a filtration of the simplicial object.
There is a spectral sequence associated to this filtration. The first page of this spectral sequence is given by taking quotients $U_{k+1}(\mathfrak{g})^{\otimes\ast}/U_{k}(\mathfrak{g})^{\otimes\ast}$ and computing the homology of that simplicial Abelian group. But for me as far as I can tell the homology of this simplicial Abelian group is always zero
diligentClerk
almost thought this was an answer to bchaotics question lol
oh bchaotic i see what's going on.
have you ever studied partitions and equivalence relations
we already defined the quotient top induced by a map I think this is to somewhat facilitate the transition to quotients defined by ~ equivalence relations
yeah
but I don't see the intuition for this semi-continuous definition
well it's certainly defined in order to make theorem 9.9 true. they want to give a criterion for when the quotient map is closed that can be understood in terms of the equivalence relation/partition on X
have you read the proof of theorem 9.9? maybe it'll give some intuition
I skimmed it
Ok. Write q : X -> X/~ for the quotient map. Then U in X is saturated iff U is of the form q^{-1}(V) for some open V in X/~. They're asking you to focus on the open sets which are in the range of the preimage map q^{-1} : T(X/~) -> T(X).
A decomposition is upper semicontinuous iff, whenever U is open in X and F is an equivalence class contained in X, there's already some V in the image of $q^{-1}$ in between U and V. This has the immediate consequence that, if F is fixed, and U is allowed to vary around all neighborhoods of F, we can always choose some V. So there is a neighborhood basis for F consisting of opens of the form $q^{-1}(V)$, where V is an open nbhd of the point [F] in X/~
diligentClerk
These distinguished kinds of open sets are cofinal among neighborhoods of F
cofinal is new to me
here it just means that no matter how tightly you draw U around F you can always find some intermediary V of the desired form. Even if you took a descending sequence of opens {U_i} getting closer and closer to F, say the infinite intersection of the U_i was F, you could always find a sequence {V_i} doing the same thing with V_i contained in U_i for each i.
where the V_i are saturated
if you want to see a more "geometric" theorem that uses the same basic arguments as this one / same concepts (but is easier to visualize maybe because the spaces are nicer?) look up the proof that a proper map of locally compact hausdorff spaces is closed
it's getting clearer, so would the equivalence relation whose set of equivalence classes are upper semi-continuous are some special type
so these would have some nice properties ?
yeah closed maps are really nice. i mean, like, in any hausdorff space compact implies closed and the continuous image of a compact set is compact. so this has the property that for any map from a compact Hausdorff space X to a Hausdorff space Y, the map is closed, and it's really useful to know that closed sets get sent to closed sets.
I guess i would stress that if a map f: X -> Y is both closed and open, then since X itself is closed and open, f(X) is closed and open, so f(X) is the union of components of Y
if Y has only one connected component then f(X) must surject onto Y
there are some theorems in complex analysis which say something like "for a holomorphic function f, f is either open or constant"
and if we add in the hypotheses above, like we were doing complex analysis with locally compact hausdorff spaces and proper maps, then the maps would necessarily be closed as well, thus clopen
clopen here means both close and open?
is there a nice proof of this
let me also mention some cool immediate corollaries
nice this is cool , thanks @plain raven
np glad i could help
I can get the $i \notin \mathbb{A}$ case, but for the $i \in \mathbb{A}$ case i get $(-1)^{|\mathbb{A}-1|}e_\mathbb{A}e_i$. I mean $(-1)^{x+1} = (-1)^{x-1}$, but I think i'm missing something more drastic. Is it more complicated than counting the swap operations to get $e_i$ on the other side of $e_\mathbb{A}$?
power_transformer
I was trying to understand how I can get a space of specified fundamental group. So we start with Wedge of circles (depending on the number of generators of the group). And we attach 2 cell along the relations (which give the group by quotienting). Now Van Kampen's theorem is supposed to tell me that the fundamnetal group of resulting space is the specified group. I understand that by Van Kampen the fundamental group of resulting space is free group on some generators quotiented by the fundamental group of the intersection of U and V (U and V) are open sets containing wedge of circles and the two cells ). Why is this group exactly the group generated by the relations ?
What do they mean by "identify" in the second step?
define an equivalence relation which makes those things equivalent and quotient by it
ie treat them as the same thing
Yeah I know that
but I am not sure how to explicitly write this down
especially since we are just taking "copies" of stuff in R^n
Yep
So when we take multiple copies of the same set we just put a label on them which distinguishes them
like if you have multiple copies of S, you just take S x {1}, S x {2} etc
Interesting, sure
Try doing this for the copies and then it'll be good
or I can just say S_1, S_2..?
Yep
this is better in terms of defining maps actually
Well it will be understood that you have done something of that sort when you write S_i
How you distinguish elements does not matter
So we usually don't care about it
Right. Let me see how to write this down formally
Although how do we show it's a homeomorphism
because that would need us to know the topology on |K|
and that is not clear from construction
No, you're taking product with a singleton in what I said
You just put the discrete top on that singleton
S is homeomorphic to S x singleton
i count that the following set has 6 connected components. am i right?
$$\mathbb{C} \times \left( \mathbb{C} \setminus {0} \right) \times \left{ z \in \mathbb{C} : 1 \neq |z-1| \neq |z| \neq 1 \right}$$
reking
Yes
Okay I'm misunderstanding something very badly rn
So let's say that $A$ is a retract of $X$. Then I have the long exact sequence
$$\cdots \to H_{n+1}(X, A) \to H_n(A) \to^i H_n(X) \to H_n(X, A) \to H_{n+1}(A) \to^i H_{n+1}$$
Tokidoki ✓
Okay and now since i is injective I can just replace H_n+1 with 0 right?
that would give me an isomorphism between H_n(A) and H_n(X)
right so the boundary is the zero map, i.e it has image 0 right?
Yes because the next map has 0 kernel
wait let me post a pic of the exact sequence
Wait your exact sequence is going from n+1 to n to n+1 lol
I hope you're talking about the first n+1
Okay so in this pic I would have 0 --> H_n(A) --> H_n(X) --> Hn(X, A) -->etc. right?
okay and that's because the image of \partial is 0, right?
Yes
since the image of \partial is 0 I would have 0 --> H_n(X) --> H_n(X, A) --> etc.
and this is wrong
Yes you can replace H_n+1 with 0 while keeping exactness after that point
If you have an exact sequence
... → A → B → ...
and you find that the map I've drawn in the middle is the zero map
Then you may change this sequence to
... → A → 0 → B → ...
retaining exactness
But you can't say that A or B is 0
You can take a zero map between any 2 abelian groups
ah yeah right so the zero map just factors through the 0
Yes
ahhh yeee okay now I see
ye because I always thought that if the middle map in ... →A →B →... is zero then I could just do this ... →A →0 →... and retain exactness
F
yeah right okay I see now lmao. Thank you for the help! 

Hello, if I have two ideals I, J of respective spaces X, Y it is true that if $J \subset I$, then there exists a function $f: X \to Y$ such that for all $A \subset Y$, if $A \in J$ then $f^{-1}(A)\in I$?
My intuition tells me yes and maybe it could be the identity function, but I would like to corroborate it. Thanks.
Samuel Martinez
Done
Any hints for this though?
Hausdorff
This isn't what they are saying
And it's not true
It's not a homeomorphism, but am embedding
That's what homeomorphic copy means
Are these spaces varieties/schemes? Then I think there might be a typo because A ∈ Y and A ∈ J should not be possible at the same time right?
No, it was my mistake, I have already edited it, A is subset of Y
Ah I see
Oh yeah makes sense
So I need to show that f is a continuous bijection onto its image
and that it has a continuous inverse
I thought about the identity, because if A is in J, then $f^{-1}(A)={a| a\in A}\in J$ then $f^{-1}(A)\in I$. But I don't know if this is correct.
Samuel Martinez
I know that you can get a 2-holed torus (genus 2 surface) $\Sigma_2$ by gluing the edges of an octagon appropriately. But is there anybody who has actually given a parametrization of $\Sigma_2$ (as a surface in $\mathbb{R}^3$) with such an octagon as a parameter domain (respecting the identifications needed on the edges)? Is there something else similar to that? The corresponding thing for a torus $\Sigma_1$, with a square $[0,1]^2$ as parameter domain, is pretty easy to come up with by yourself
gustavn64
The reason I ask is that I want to make animations illustrating homotopies between some loops in $\Sigma_2$, and such homotopies are easily described in terms of the octagon with glued edges.
gustavn64
Can someone help me understand the relationship between "the rank of the Jacobian matrix is not maximal" and "the function fails to be surjective"?
To be more specific, I'm trying to understand critical and regular points on a manifold in an intuitive way, and both definitions are related but I can't see why
They are equivalent if f : R^n --> R^m and n >= m
Assuming by "the function" you mean the differential
The Jacobian matrix represents the differential df, which maps tangent vectors to tangent vectors. Its rank is maximal if it equals m, since the rank can't exceed the dimension of the codomain, and it's also maximal if it equals n, since it can't exceed the dimension of the domain
If n >= m and df has maximal rank, then necessarily it has rank m, so the image is all of TR^m
If n <= m and df has maximal rank, then it has rank n so it is injective
You can replace df, R^n, and R^m by any linear map from n dimensions into m here
It's purely linear algebra
I guess I got the idea
I'm supposed to prove the Torus $\mathbb{S}^{1}\times\mathbb{S}^{1}$ is diffeomorph to $\mathbb{R}^{2}/\mathbb{Z}^{2}$. I have already proven that the the quotient of M by the proper discontinuous action of a group (M/G) is diffeomorph to M, and I understand $\mathbb{Z}^{2}$ is a group with proper discontinuous action on $\mathbb{R}^{2}$ using a simple equivalence p~q iff $(p-q)\in\mathbb{Z}^{2}$.
However I do not know how to link the Torus to the group action... 😦
Necrowizard
why not just give an explicit diffeomorphism
what explicit diff. could I use? (x,y)=(tan(theta1),tan(theta2)) ?
If you restrict to [0,1] x [0,1], you still get a torus
under the projection map, each copy of [0,1] turns into an S^1
or if you want an explicit map, for the same reason, $(x,y) \mapsto (e^{2 \pi i x}, e^{2 \pi i y})$
Kogasa
what does it mean in (b) to compute?
like for each e_j i've found curves y_j(-\eps,\eps)\to S^3 such that y_j'(0)=e_j
so then dF_1(e_j) = (F\circ y_j)'(0)
but how do i compute this further?
given that (F\circ y_j)'(0) is in T_{F(1)}SU(2) which are derivations
and there's not rly a canonical way to write a derivation right?
Hello guys I want to show that an open ball B(a,r) is the interior of a closed one B(a,r?
But I font know how to caractérise the fact that an element doesn't belong to the interior
Please help
Well firstly we know that the open ball is contained in the interior of the closed ball
What would happen if we had a point exactly a distance r from a in the interior of a?
Considering that should give you the answer
For every open ball we build around x we can find a y that doesn't belong to A ?
But I don't get what it's like as a point to not be in the interior
Does it mean that every open in A don't contain such a point
how is this a normal cover of wedge of two cricles a and b.
like $a ab a^{-1}=a^2ba^{-1}$ does not belong in the group of this covering space
bert
i think this should be the same as saying
if p is zero on a dense open subset
then p is zero
but im struggling a bit to see this
any non empty open set is dense in the zariski topology?
and any empty set is the compliment of some closed, hence some algebraic set
im trying to come up with an example of a simply connected space that is not contractible, i know that S^n is not contractible for n > 1 but we haven't proven Brouwers fixed point theorem for N>2 so i can't really use that. However i was wondering whether i could just take [0,1) \cup (1,2] you can contract each component but you can't retract the whole space to a single point, right? i somehow want to show this via contradiction, namely by showing that if this were contractible it would have to be connected but it isn't but i am struggling on proving this
usually a requirement for simple connectedness is that the space is path connected
but [0,1) u (1,2] isnt
we defined simply connected as every fundamental group pi_1(x,X) is trivial and 1-connected as simply connected + path connected
hm then yes that should work
if its contractible it should even be path connected iirc, maybe thats easier to show
yup well that's true, i even saw a proof of this fact a few days ago xd
somehow i didn't think of it
thanks!
Why can we take a nbhd of 1 here?
ah I see, yea I think that's it
well something in that vein
close enough
lol
wait right that doesn't make sense actually
I also got confused by the notation
I don't think translates would preserve the distance
like if f(y) is close to f(1)
does that necessarily mean that f(xy) is close to f(x)?
since f is not a homomorphism
oh ok yea I see it now
yea
take the nbhd U of 1 with |f(y)-f(1)|<ep/2, then take some nbhd U_x such that xy falls in U for each y in U_x
from continuity
then U_x is your desired nbhd
Yea I think
that's pretty much the same thing you said but formalised lol
Here are we talking about an abstract simplicial complex K, or its topological realization |K|?
Abstractly it's not a top space so you can't compare it to one
So when they say n-simplex, they mean the standard n-simplex
and not a set of n+1 elements, right
They mean the copy of the standard n-simplex inside |K|
Not the standard n-simplex itself
Can we define the chessboard as a metric space?
an N X N tabel
chess board
yes?
I know it will sound stupid but
Can we define a metric over N?
Ohh
Ty man
Okay
Do you want it to reflect the rules of chess somehow?
I'm not sure you can do that, because they depend on the relative positions of the pieces (most squares are essentially identical anyway).
Yap
It is probably more sensible to define a metric on the "configuration space" of it, by which I mean the space of all possible arrangements of pieces in a chess board (which is huge!)
It has 2^192 points (if you don't restrict to "legal" positions)
I think one reasonable way to topologize X (this set) would be as follows. Regard X as a graph, by linking two points iff you can move from one to the other by a legal move. Then X has a natural topology as a graph. Also, the subspace X0 of all legal positions has a simple description: It is just the connected component of p0 (the standard initial position).
In theory it should work
using sequences show that the grip of an open ball is the closed one
I dont know what sequence i should consider
what does "in theory it should work" even mean in regards to mathematics
can someone pls help with this
so if I have a boundary map \partial and I write it like a matrix, is then the dual of that boundary map the transpose of \partial?
this is a standard linear algebra fact, nothing special about boundary maps
oh shit lmao I didn't know that
I was watching someone on youtube and they called the dual of the boundary map a transpose
why is that tho?
the transpose of a matrix represents the dual linear transformation
i don't know what this means
ye me neither
but how do you know this?
are you asking how one proves it?
it's just a computation, you can probably find it in any decent linear algebra textbook
eg theorem 2.25 in friedberg
okay great thank you so much! 
ill explain the notation to keep it self contained: $[T]_\beta^\gamma$ means the matrix rep of $T$ with respect to $\beta,\gamma$ (so if $\beta = {v_1,\dots,v_n}$ then its $j$th column is the coordinate rep of $T(v_j)$ with respect to $\gamma$). also $\beta^$ is the dual basis to $\beta$, consisting of $v^j \in V^$ defined by $v^j(v_i) = \delta^j_i$
TTerra
okay great!
the book used different dual basis notation than me but whatever
upper/lower indices are superior
I've just done some calculations and want to confirm if this is true. We're given an embedded submanifold in the $(x,z)$ plane globally parametrized by $(a(t), b(t))$. Is the latitude of the surface of revolution at time $t_0$ a geodesic $\iff a'(t_0)=0?$
Brian485
yes i think so
Mhm thanks
geometrically this corresponds to the tangent to (a(t), b(t)) being parallel to the axis of revolution
i think you can find a proof of this in do carmo's book if you want to check your work
What would a map on S^2 of deg = 2 look like?
Hausdorff
n-cell = homeomorphic to open unit disk in R^n
like this?
what do you mean, the image wont load or you dont understand?
i don't understand it
this is a cell-complex for me
you start with the 0 cell aka the point in the middle front of the picture
then you attach the two 1 cells that are the two rings
finally you add most of the surface by attaching a 2 cell along the boundary of the two circles
well i think the image should give enough information to make it formal
vague because don't we have to "prove" that those are indeed n-cells
especially that surface is not a "known" shape
visually true
when we say "attaching here" what do we mean btw
is it "attaching along a map"
where you take a disjoint union and quotient?
ok is cell complex = cw complex?
ok cool
is hatcher a good place to read cw complexes (for a beginner)
i just want a reference where these things are explained nicely
so if anyone has any recs, lmk
also here they talk about the attaching map f sending the circle along the path aba^{-1} b^{-1}
what's that? (sending circle)
the circle is one of the two 1-cells we have added right
I’m pretty sure the circle is the boundary of the 2 disk here
hmm ok maybe i need to think about these things more
Having turned around the directions of various boundary maps to produce cochain complexes, we define cohomology groups and show how to visualize cohomology classes.
Lecture notes: http://people.maths.ox.ac.uk/nanda/cat/Lecture 05 Cohomology.pdf
so I'm watching this video to hopefully gain some intuition but there's a moment in that video that I don't understand
so from 7:40 to 8:20 they try to visualize a cocycle. In 8:20 they say "its coboundary will include these two simplicies" and I don't really understand that and the explanation of it shortly after 8:20. So if we say that $a$ is the edge marked in red then they have a $\sigma \in C^1(X; \mathbb{Z}_2)$ such that $\sigma(a) = 1$. Now $\partial^* (\sigma)$ should be zero because that's what we are considering. But what does it mean for this equation to "include these two simplicies"?
Tokidoki ✓
Can anyone tell me what elements in S1 look like
I can't seem to find it on Google
I don't know if m searching for the wrong thing or what
what is S1?
permutation ?
then it's something homeomorphic to a circle
the antipodal point of x
It is true that an "abstract" circle doesn't come with an antipodal map
S1 is all circles I thought
But just pick the unit circle in R^2 and define an antipodal map by transporting it along a homeomorphism
$$S^1 = {(x, y) \in \bR^2 : x^2 + y^2 = 1}$$
TTerra
That's very strange
I'm like 99.9% sure in my robotics class it was the set of all possible circles
notation isn't universal
Defined as 2 dimensional for polar coordinates
At least in the exercise you shared, it isn't. I guess you could think of S^1 as the "set" of all possible circles, like the "the number 2 is the class of all pairs" thing, but that's not what is done
I don't get the definition of the boundary map here
I'm guessing that the left side should be
$d^p((s_{i_0...i_{p}}){i_0...i{p}})$
Moldilocks ✓
Because we should have a tuple of sections, indexed by the increasing tuples of i's
And they should only go up to i_p and not i_p+1?
But regardless I'm just unable to make sense of the right side 😵💫
oh I might just have understood it
Bruh
ty
Would be nice if someone could explain what this complex and its cohomologies would measure tho
Obstruction to gluability and hence to being a sheaf?
This seems somewhat legit thinking about it, but would be nice if someone could say the extent to which this is true
Also try to guess what the footnote after the well ordering thing says 
Obstruction to the locally constant sheaf of integers in particular being a sheaf
The definition seems fine. The boundary of a section is the alternating sum of all its restrictions
Oh i see this is for any sheaf, nevermind the first thing
What is this sheaf?
oh ok
Usually cech cohomology is what you get when you let the sheaf be the locally constant sheaf of integers
And you can kind of see what's going on through computations here
So each F(U) is Z, and restrictions are id?

I'm not familiar with the terminology
hmm I see the definition of a locally constant sheaf 
Would that be constant? Couldn't you have a point with a connected neighborhood and a point without connected neighborhoods?
Or just remove the points from that
Feels like a disconnected open set would have more locally constant functions to Z than a connected one
i lose my shit when people slap an ordering on I and destroy the functoriality of it
but anyway moldilocks i don't have much intuition for the higher differentials, the most important thing is to understand what the differential looks like in low degree. so the boundary map from C_0 to C_1 sends a family of sections {f_i} to the pairwise differences f_i -f_j on the intersections U_i\cap U_j
Sorry i need a few mins
I meant obstruction to gluing sections, like the individual function guys
Not to being a sheaf
it is obvious then that {f_i} is a cocycle of the boundary map iff all the f_i agree pairwise the intersection.
Brb like 5m, and ty clerk
hey kog
ergo if F is a sheaf then {f_i} glues together to give a unique element of i by the sheaf axiom
so like
you can read the definition of a sheaf of Abelian groups as asking that it's a presheaf P such that for any open cover U = {U_i} the sequence
0 -> F -> C_0(F; U) -> C_1(F;U)
is exact
and it turns out that there's a natural way to extend this sequence all the way out in a way that gives a chain comlpex
that's the short version
there's also a long version.
:)
Let's go

I might fall asleep at any point tho
In which case I'd have to read tomorrow
Sounds like derived functors 
yes and no. it's not directly related to derived functors in the usual sense. imo it's more of a distinct foundation for homological algebra than derived functors which comes with a more flexible notion of what is projective/injective/exact than the usual definition that can be applied in every abelian category. you can think of it like relative homological algebra
ok. so. let $M$ be a monoid, say in the ordinary sense, just a set theoretic monoid. there are two basic maps associated to $M$, the multiplication $\mu : M \times M \to M$, and the distinguished identity element $e : 1 \to M$. if you look at the whole diagram we get by freely applying the Cartesian product and looking at all the maps induced by $\mu,e$ , identity maps on $M$, etc., you get a diagram of sets called an 'augmented cosimplicial object.'
Speaking precisely there's a category $\Delta$ whose objects are all finite ordinal numbers $0 = \emptyset, 1 = { 0 } , 2 = { 0 < 1 }, 3 = {0 < 1 < 2}$ equipped with the standard linear ordering. The morphisms from $n$ to $m$ are any (weakly) monotonically increasing maps between them. $M$ determines a functor from $\Delta$ to the category of sets which sends $n$ to the $n$-fold cartesian product $M^n$, which I'll call $F$. (Here by the $0$-fold cartesian product I mean the empty product, the terminal object/singleton set.)
The morphisms of $\Delta$ contain certain distinguished maps $\delta_i : n \to n+1$, for $0 \leq i \leq n$, where $\delta_i$ is the unique injective map which skips the element $i$ in $n+1$, and the maps $\sigma_i : n+2 \to n+1$, for $0 \leq i \leq n$, which is the unique surjective map which sends two elements in $n+2$ ($i$ and $i+1$) to $i$ in $n+1$. We know that the maps of the form $\delta_i$ and $\sigma_i$ generate the category $\Delta$ under composition. So to give this functor $F : \Delta \to \mathbf{Sets}$ it suffices to say where $F$ sends $\delta_i$ and $\sigma_i$.
We define $F(\delta_i) : M^{n}\to M^{n+1}$ by $F(\delta_i)(m_0,\dots, m_{n-1}) = (m_0,\dots, m_{i-1}, e, m_i,\dots, m_{n-1})$.
We define $F(\sigma_i): M^{n+2}\to M^{n+1}$ by $F(\delta_i)(m_0,\dots, m_{n+1}) = (m_0,\dots, m_{i-1}, \mu(m_i,m_{i+1}),m_{i+2},\dots, m_{n+1})$.
diligentClerk
Sweet.
Now it's not hard to see that an analogous construction works, say, in the category of Abelian groups, where we replace $M$ by some ring, $R$. There's a diagram $F : \Delta\to R$ which sends $n$ to the $n$-fold tensor product of $R$ with itself, where the $0$ fold tensor product is understood to be $\mathbb{Z}$. the multiplication of a ring is bilinear so this defines maps out of the diagrma.
diligentClerk
More generally this works at the level of any monoidal category $C$ endowed with a monoidal product $\otimes$ and a choice of monoid $M$ with respect to that tensor product. $\Delta$ itself is a monoidal category under the tensor product given by ordinal addition (concatenation of the linear orders) with unit the empty set, and has a distinguished monoid $1$ (the multiplication and unit are obvious) and in each case there is a unique functor $F : \Delta\to C$ preserving the monoidal product and the distinguished monoid. This property characterizes $\Delta$ up to equivalence as the free monoidal category generated by a monoid.
Super important property!
diligentClerk
Ahh I remember you mentioning this before 
yeah it's neat
You left the last part as an exercise and I did it in a much worse way 
diligentClerk
$V^\ast$ its dual space. Then $V\otimes V^{\ast}$ can be equipped with the structure of an $\mathbb{R}$ algebra in a natural way, with multiplication given by
$\left( v_i \otimes v_i^\ast \right)\left(w_i\otimes w_i^\ast\right) = \sum (w_i^\ast(v_i) \cdot w_i\otimes v_i^\ast$
and identity element given by $\sum e_i\otimes e_i^\ast$, where the $e_i$ is any basis for $V$ and the $e_i^\ast$ denote the standard dual basis.
Another easy way to see this is that $V\otimes V^\ast$ is naturally isomorphic to the vector space $Hom(V,V)$ by the map which sends $v\otimes f$ to the linear functional with one-dimensional image $g_{v,f} : V\to V$ defined by $g_{v,f}(w) = f(w)\cdot v$. With respect to this isomorphism the product structure can be simply described as function composition and the unit element can be characterized as the identity matrix.
diligentClerk
Make sense?
I should be able to make sense of it 
if you choose a basis for $V$ this isomorphism basically amounts to the isomorphism between $Hom(V,V)$ and the space of $n\times n$ matrices btw.
diligentClerk
Is that the dot product?
it's the action of a scalar on a vector. sorry
maybe concatenation would have been easier to read
Ah ok yeah makes sense
So, what's crazy is that the proof that $V\otimes V^{\ast}$ is a monoid goes through at an incredible level of generality, for very general definitions of tensor product, dual, etc. So general that, in fact, if $F : \mathcal{C}\to \mathcal{D}$ is a functor, and it has a right adjoint $G : \mathcal{D}\to \mathcal{C}$, then if you look at functor composition as a kind of 'tensor product', then $G$ is a kind of 'dual' to $F$. And in fact the same proof goes through - $G\circ F$ is a 'monoid' in the monoidal category of functors $[\mathcal{C},\mathcal{C}]$ with 'tensor product' given by composition and unit given by the identity functor.
diligentClerk
In the first formulation you say standard dual basis
That's a thing?
Oh once we fix a basis for V
for a fixed basis $e_i$ there's a standard dual basis. right.
diligentClerk
Right
We say that $G\circ F$ is a 'monad'. Briefly the 'unit' is a natural transformation from the identity functor from $\operatorname{id}\to G\circ F$ which is just the unit of the monoid, the universal arrow $\eta_c : c\to G(F(c))$. The 'multiplication' $\mu_c: GFGFc\to GFc$ is given by applying $G$ to the counit $\varepsilon_{Fc} : FG(Fc)\to Fc$.
diligentClerk
ah I've seen monads
Just don't know how to use them and monadic functors in a nice way 😵💫
It is a bit easier to bring this back to some concrete reality in the case where, say, $\mathcal{C}$ is the category of Abelian groups, $\mathcal{D}$ is the category of $R$ modules, $F$ is the free $R$ module functor given by tensoring with $R$, $G$ is the forgetful functor. Then the natural transformations $\eta$ and $\mu$ just correspond to the unit maps and multiplication of the ring, $R$.
diligentClerk
OK. So, if $GF$ is a monoid, then by the grand universal property of $\Delta$, there is a canonical functor from $\Delta$ to the category of endofunctors $[\mathcal{C},\mathcal{C}]$ preserving the tensor product on the nose and sending $1$ to the distinguished monoid $GF$. This gives an augmented cosimplicial object $1 \to GF \to GFGF \dots$. Applying all these functors and natural transformations to some fixed object $c$ in the category gives an augmented cosimplicial object in the category $\mathcal{C}$,
$c \to GFc \to GFGFc \to \dots $
diligentClerk
fake words wtf
An augmented cosimplicial object is a functor from Δ to the category?
augmented like augmentation in reduced homology?
yes, that's the definition of an augmented cosimplicial object
and yes exactly millionaire
Ok. I have two questions before i go much further. first of all do you know anything about the Dold-Kan correspondence and secondly do you know like, basic homological algebra of ext and tor etc
both of those questions were for moldi
Nothing about the first, I know that ext and tor are and how to construct them and why the construction lets you extend the exact sequences
But nothing about there properties beyond what can be easily proved from looking at a resolution
It allows us to extend left exact sequences to longer exact sequences
In a very specific situation
You want to think of the augmented cosimplicial object $c \to GFc\to GFGFc$ as a cosimplicial 'resolution' of $c$, very much like a cochain complex resolution of $c$ by injectives.
diligentClerk
ok. so the slogan we want to establish here to summarize all the shit of the past 20 minutes are: Monads give rise to augmented cosimplicial objects. They give us systematic, functorial ways to assign 'injective' cosimplicail resolutions of objects.
and yes in specific cases we can get honest to god injective resolutions out of this.
So let me give a specific example here.
consider the adjunction between $\mathbf{Ab}$ and $\mathbf{Sets}^{\rm op}$. The left adjoint is $\operatorname{Hom}(-, \mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}): \mathbf{Ab}\to \mathbf{Sets}^{\rm op}$. The right adjoint here is given by the functor $X\mapsto \prod_{x\in X}\mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}$.
diligentClerk
Lol a right adjoint out of Set seems very 😵💫
yes haha but it's just another way of talking about the universal property of the product
If $A$ is any given Abelian group then the unit of this adjunction (i.e. the first map of the functorial resolution of $A$ is of the form
$A\to \prod_{f:A\to \mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}}\mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}$ and sends $a$ to the family of elements $(f(a))_{f: A\to\mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}}$.
this map is indeed injective and the codomain is an injective abelian group. so we've given a functorial embedding of $A$ into an injective abelian group!
thanks odysseus
people say that the proof that Ab has enough injectives depends on the axiom of choice. this is technically true but you don't need it to construct the resolution! you need it to prove that the object $\prod \mathbb{Q}/\mathbb{Z}$ is injective and maybe that the unit map is injective but this construction can still be given and computed with independent of any choice principles.
diligentClerk
Anyway iterating this construction gives an augmented cosimplicial object whose objects are all injective (other than A). You can turn this into a cochain complex by the standard construction which takes alternating sums of the face maps $\sum (-1)^i d_i$ and this is easily checked to be a cochain complex.
diligentClerk
so it may sound a little bit weird as to why we're talking about cosimplicial objects when the original question was about cohomology of cochain complex so i just want to say, although this isn't the place to get into this right now, cosimplicial Abelian groups are essentially the same thing as cochain complexes. The Dold-Kan equivalence is the theorem that there is an equivalence of categories between cosimplicial Abelian groups and cochain complexes bounded below by 0.
if you look at contravariant functors from $\Delta$ rather than covariant functors you get an equivalence with the category of chain complexes
diligentClerk
just to add confusion, the construction i just mentioned (take alternating sums of face maps) is indeed a functor from cosimplicial abelian groups to cochain complexes but it's not the functor which occurs in the dold-kan equivalence theorem lol. the construction i just gave is called the 'unnormalized' complex, the equivalence is given by the 'unnormalized' compelx
ok this has the risk of getting really out of control so let's get it on track. what i've been doing is explaining this very broad framework for constructing cosimplicial resolutions of objects
let's talk about cech cohomology
so what are we trying to do in cech cohomology? we're trying to look at the sheaf as it behaves on the individual open sets of an open cover and consider its behavior. one way to explain what's going on here is that we're like, 'breaking apart' the space into the individual open sets of the cover and look about what happens to the sheaf on this broken-up space.
Specifically if $\mathcal{U}$ is an open cover of $X$, say by ${U_i\right}$ then let's form the space $Y$ which is the disjoint coproduct space $\coprod_{i\in I}U_i$. There's an obvious projection $\pi : Y\to X$ which is the subspace inclusion on each open set $U_i$.
diligentClerk
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Somehow we're asking: let's simplify the sheaf (presheaf) by pulling it back along the map $\pi$. For $\mathcal{F}$ a presheaf on $X$, and $V$ an open subset of $Y$, let $\pi^\ast\mathcal{F}(V) = \prod_i\mathcal{F}(V\cap U_i)$.
diligentClerk
I think it it probably the case that if $\mathcal{F}$ is a sheaf than this pullback is also a sheaf.
diligentClerk
What we're doing here is breaking up $\mathcal{F}$ by looking on it on all these open subsets individidually. The new sheaf on $\mathcal{F}$ is simpler because it doesn't contain or represent information about the global structure of $X$ if the cover $U$ is fine.
diligentClerk
Does this idea make sense
Yes, with you so far
We're destroying a lot of information about $\mathcal{F}$ this way because so much information about $\mathcal{F}$ occurs at the global level but the new sheaf is much more flexible and easy to work with.
diligentClerk
Now $\pi^\ast$ should have a right adjoint which is given by the direct image functor.
diligentClerk
Do you believe this?
Seems natural, but I'm slow with checking adjunctions properly 😵💫
Haha. Well, do it eventually. Just remember that direct image is right adjoint which is the opposite of what you think it is if you draw the map $\pi : Y\to X$ as going from left to right.
diligentClerk
Mathematics is designed to be confusing! if you keep this in mind you will never fail
ok.
so what the fuck am i talking about?
oh, right.
So look at the composition $\pi_\ast\pi^\ast$ of this pullback and direct image. This gives an endofunctor on the category of sheaves of Abelian groups over $X$.
diligentClerk
And, in line with what we've been saying, it's a monad. You can think of it as a way to construct canonical, functorial sheaf resolutions, by sheaves that have certain nice properties that make them flexible. Intuitively we might think of them as: flabby, soft, fine
indeed these are all technical terms which have been given to variations on this theme
There are monads which give you flabby sheaves, monads which give you injective sheaves, etc

and this monad is like, roughly in the same category as these guys, it's one of their cousins. Sheaves in the image of $\pi_\ast\pi^\ast$ have no interesting information that lives outside any open set $U_i$.
diligentClerk
They don't have any interesting global information
all interesting information that lives in these sheaves is somehow 'subordinate' to the open cover. All of their real content and structure is truncated down to live within the sets of that open cover.
Makes sense
Does that make sense? I'm not sure how well i'm articiculating this. It's kind of like how a projection from a free group onto an arbitrary group doesn't know anything about what the generators are, not how it fits together.
OK. So write $T$ for this monad on sheaves of Abelian groups over X.
diligentClerk
You can to any sheaf associate in a functorial way this resolution
$\mathcal{F}\to T\mathcal{F}\to T^2\mathcal{F}\to\dots$
diligentClerk
If you apply global sections to this whole augmented cosimplicial diagram you get an augmented cosimplicial Abelian group
And by taking alternating sums of face maps gives you the Cech complex of the open cover.
ohh I see it
In a sense that's the whole explanation. I could say more but only for the sake of making this more concrete by walking you through some of the computations, and it sounds like it's a little late for you
Well the screenshot I sent was all we have to work with
Prof said the remaining stuff about these will be left to assignments and I doubt I'd have gained much from just that
btw this whole theory of systematic functorial resolutions by monads is often called the 'bar construction' if you want to look up a keyword. It was first used in sheaf cohomology by Godement, and it was used by Eilenberg and Mac Lane to give a resolution for computing group cohomology.
Staying up was worth it 
cool haha glad to hear it
This was very cool, thanks a lot. You explain very well, maybe you should start a youtube channel or something 🥸 
🥸
Yeah i did create a real-name discord acct. maybe i should switch to that one. luckily no one would be able to link my real name acct to this acct. certainly they wouldn't find someone ranting about monads for 4 hours and say "Ah, that's definitely Clerk"
Just make sure to switch accounts before rant 
there is a dual theory for comonads btw - instead of cosimplicial resolutions, simplicial resolutions; instead of cochain complexes, chain complexes; instead of cohomology, homology
The world if comonads gave rise to a cohomology theory and monads gave rise to a homology theory:
attached: utopia.gif
I just learnt that in point-set topology, closures behave nicely wrt to subspaces, but interiors don't.
A counterexample would be the x-axis as a subspace of R^2, where for any line segment A on the x-axis, the interior of A in R^2 is empty while the interior of A in the x-axis is an open interval. So when reducing our scope from the space to the subspace, the interior of A "became bigger" as some elements of the boundary of A in R^2 "turned into" elements of the interior of A in the x-axis. This doesn't affect the closure.
My question: I'm wondering if there can be a converse scenario to this example -- where the interior of A "shrinks" while the boundary gains more elements. (All while "preserving" the closure as before)
Let X be a topological space, S a subset of X given the subspace topology and A a subset of S. If U is open in X and a subset of A, it is in particular a subset of S hence is open in S, therefore U is in the interior of A in S, so the interior of A in S is a superset of the interior of A in X.
One criterion of continuity is f^-1 (int B) being a subset of int f^-1(B), for all subsets B of the codomain. Now let f be the inclusion map, and observe that f^-1 is just intersecting with your subspace.
The second "int" here refers to the interior in the subspace topology
Both explanations makes sense. Thanks guys!
not rly understanding why a needs to be on the boundary of H^n for this proof to work
any explanation would be greatly appreciated : )
is the inclusion not smooth on all of H^N tho?
not entirely sure what u mean
but ig the interior of H^n is open and open submanifolds have the isomorphic tangent spaces to the main manifold
So I have a good idea how to do 4 a). However, I just have a quick question. Are the elements of X* equivalence classes? Otherwise, the inverse of g in the hint does not make much sense.
Nvm, it literally says it in my book -_-
So I'm having some trouble with computing images of lines onto an image plane. For example I have the line (-3,0,-3)+t(0,1,0) from the viewing point (0,-2,1.5) with the image plane being y=0.
I have this 3d calculator thing to help me visualize it but I'm unsure how to map it to the image plane from the perspective of the viewing point.
This is what my friend sent me before he fell asleep but I'm confused by the wording.
just to clarify the question, is this what's going on? you have a parametric curve (the line) in space, and you're looking at the projection along the line of sight onto some plane, like a lens?
and you want to find the equation of the curve on that plane
assuming so, here's how you can solve it. Let $P = (0, -2, 1.5)$ be the viewpoint and $\gamma(t) = (-3, t, -3)$ be the line. The line of sight has equation $L(s) = P + (P - \gamma(t))s$. We want to follow this line onto the plane $y=0$, so set the $y$ coordinate of $L(s)$ to 0 and solve for $s$. Then plug that into the $x$- and $y$-coordinates
Kogasa
It's not a ciruve it's just a line.
I'll send you the 3d representation.
I know it's a line, but it's given parametrically
I drew a curve because it makes the visualization easier
but everything I said applies, regardless of what the parametric curve or point are
is the problem what i described above?
Okay so in my case I would have L(s) = (0, -2, 1.5) + (0, -2, 1.5) - (-3, t, -3)
Right?
Oh wait. Forgot the s.

Is that not right?
I'm still trying to make sure that I'm even solving the right problem
Oh lol.
so
is it
Is what?
is the problem I described the kind of problem you are trying to solve
I just need to like map it.

Like we had to give the point of that vanishing point for that problem.
Yes.
then my solution should be correct
assuming you're only looking at the part of the curve t >= 0 (so it's on the other side of the image plane), then the above gif shows what the solution looks like
(a line segment)
since the line is perpendicular to the image plane, as t --> infinity the resulting curve approaches the ordinary vector projection of P onto the plane
Okay so by the way. What exactly is t and what is s?
$t$ is the parameter for the given line $\gamma$, s is the parameter for the line of sight (from P to $\gamma$)
Kogasa
Okay so am I trying to find T(s)?
Sorry I'm still a bit confused.
This is all like super new to me ^^;
You draw a line $L(s)$ from the point $P$ to the curve $\gamma$, and find when (for which value of $s$) that line intersects the plane $y=0$
Kogasa
The value of $s$ depends on $t$, because the line goes from $P$ to $\gamma(t)$ (a point on the curve). So when you take that value of $s$ and plug it into $L$, you get a curve (depending on $t$) whose $y$ value is $0$.
Kogasa
Wait so is it a line or a curve?
both
i'm referring to it as "curve" because there are two lines here, the line you were given and the line of sight from P to the other line
in the above gif, the red lines are the lines of sight $L[s]$ for different values of $t$
Kogasa
Okay so.
Just being sure here.
First things first I do what I was saying but with s so
(0, -2, 1.5) + ((0, -2, 1.5) - (-3, t, -3))s
Or (0, -2, 1.5) +(0, -2s, 1.5s) - (-3s, ts, -3s)
Right?
Yeah. For a fixed t, that's the line of sight (red) that goes through both the point P and the given line (blue). So you want to find the s value that makes the y coordinate of that equal to 0.
Yep. Try to work through the whole solution and see if you can figure out how to check if it's right or not
But wait there's no s where that = 0
It will depend on t
So I have to find s and t?
as in, for each t, there is a value of s such that -ts -2s - 2 = 0
Oh okay.
Okay so I was able to come up with that s=-2/(t+2)
Is that what I was looking for?
Yes, that is the parameter s for which the red line intersects the plane y=0
now if you plug that value of s into L(s), you get a curve (f(t), 0, g(t)) which is what you are looking for
Is that right @orchid forge
Suppose A, B intersect in S^n and let K be their union, and that I know the homology of A, B. Does the Mayer-Vietoris sequence give an explicit description of H_n(K)?
I got an exact sequence of five terms involving these and wasn't able to give any easy description of H_n(K) or H_{n+1}(K)..
I suspected that maybe we need more data
You'd need to know the homologies of the intersection as well as all the maps between the known homologies in the exact sequence, because for modules you can't just give a dimension argument for the missing terms and need to know the exact kernels etc
Hausdorff
Is this good? How can I make it better?
I understand the intuitive idea and the process but I suck at constructing CW complexes formally, so please help
bruh you really don't need to do it this formally
lol man i want to, at least once
You can abstract the details of making the intervals disjoint
i want to know i can do it before i stop doing it
hm ok lol
is this ok? how would you make it better
btw is it normal in alg top to not write details?
Yes because they are trivial 😌
because see i also feel bad about just writing "attaching along f" and not actually defining the quotient map and all that
no but I mean you just worked it out once
and now you never have to think of this again
ohh okay cool, this is very different from analysis man
but you know what that means formally
lol I feel like it is only different because it is hard/infeasible at times to give all the details
ok fair, but how do i know when to stop
like someone asks me to show the torus as a CW complex
i can visualize it, but i'm struggling to formalize the details
right I see
But if you see how the gluing is being done then where are you stuck with that?
a 0-cell, two 1-cells, and a 2-cell. my problems are:
- in 3D space, those 2 1-cells are in orthogonal planes! why do we never formally write that?
- the 2-cell is homeomorphic to D^2 sure, but it's a very weird shape. so while constructing the torus am i supposed to also mention a homeomorphism from D^2 to that surface?
- because we are not necessarily embedding this stuff in 3d space. It is happening abstractly, and it happens to be homeomorphic to the embedding of the torus in 3d. Proof: The embedded torus is homeomorphic to S^1 x S^1, and the CW complex we have is exactly the product cell structure on S^1 x S^1 (show these individually). You can also give the torus a cell structure so that the loops aren't in orthogonal planes fwiw
- yes and this is where you stop giving details and just say that use any homeomorphism from disk to square because there is no way you are writing such a homeomorphism explicitly
and if you want you can prove generally that instead of pasting an n-simplex at some stage you can attach anything homeomorphic to it
so that you never have to think about that again
fair enough. the practice of skipping details is very new to me because in the past two semesters, my analysis and algebra courses have made me be rigorous about everything
thanks tho!
rather than skipping details its like abstracting them
it can be just as rigorous as anything else by placing stuff like this inside blackboxes once you prove it
just think of it as a lemma
yup, i get the idea now
love that this is a valid opener to a math conversation
math is shitposting formalized
hello!
so i am paying the price of formally constructing the torus as a CW complex
so i have picture of the unit square in mind, where we identify opposite edges, etc.
Hausdorff
What am I missing? How should I complete this?
The problem is that I haven't identified I_1 with I_2, and I_3 and I_4, but my construction ended lol
Hmm, I do wonder if the square with identified edges is a good model to make a CW complex out of; 'cus if you wanted to do this, to identify two edges, you'd have to discontinuously jump from one edge to another one while going along the boundary of a single 2-cell... right?
I've not done this rigorously in a while, but as a CW complex I always find it helpful to think of the torus as spanned by the two non-contractible loops you can put into it
But maybe there's a way for the first one, too! I'm just not seeing it immediately
If you ask me, the square thingy is more natural. The four corners are 0-cells, the four edges are 1-cells, and the stuff inside is a 2-cell
Hausdorff
Start with 2 copies of I instead of 4
You cannot reduce the number of 1 cells in your complex later
Makes sense
but the second equivalence relation though?
Hausdorff
It basically identifies the two intervals @empty grove
I see your point, should've started with only two intervals
but isn't this fine too
But weren't you formalizing the cw structure 🤡
In that you can only glue the new n+1 cells in the n skeleton which you have already built
In this way you could construct structures which aren't cw structures
So
Closure(A) is closed and contains A
Hence, topological space X (where A is a subset of) --
X - Closure(A) is open
But how is X - Cl(A) contained in X - A
thats just basic set manipulation
if $A \subseteq C$ then $X \setminus C \subseteq X \setminus A$
Phil P
Oh gotcha, thanks 🙂
Fair enough
Should have been careful
Thanks!
Writing it down was totally worth it
why Zariski topology is not Hausdorff?
so if you just look at the affine line over like C, then the closed sets are exactly the finite sets and the whole line
so all open sets except the empty set are cofinite
so you cant separate points with disjoint open sets
It’s even easier if you just take an irreducible set
Any two opens intersect
And if you want the scheme version of Zariski topology points aren’t even closed
i have a true/false question that i am confused about: i need to find a topological space such that the fundamental groupoid is not equivalent(in a categorical sense) to a group or show that such a space does not exist. This question doesn't really make sense to me since a group is a groupoid with only one object. So every fundamental groupoid of a space X with more than 1 object(that is points) should not be equal to a group right?
I don’t know off the top of my head if this is true, but in general an equivalence of categories does not need to respect the number of objects in a category
So you’ll need to further argue if you want to prove that
For example I’m pretty sure a category with 2 objects, the identity being the only self-maps, and then 1 invertible map between the two objects is probably equivalent to the trivial category
No it totally is, that’s its skeleton
hmm ok guess i just won't answer this question in an exam then because i absolutely know nothing substantial about categories xd
ty though
The fundamental groupoid is made of a bunch of isomorphic groups within each path component
Different path components need not have the same fundamental group
can anybody explain the method of acyclic models to me in a way which like
at all gives geometric rhyme or reason to this
n >= 5 is not needed here, right?
I've looked around and stack exchange seems to confirm it
At the very least, I feel like I could prove it for n = 4
Like, the proof in this answer very much works, I think?
I'm beginning to think I might have the wrong definition for contractible loop, but what is it if not that its class is trivial in pi_1?
(there's a chance n>=5 is, indeed, not needed, but since Milnor's using Whitney's approximation theorems here to prove it he has his hands tied and has to add an extra hypothesis)
It's also pretty trivial for n = 3, right?
HHHHHHHHHHOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOOO
i love the method of acyclic models lmao
yeah
like
eilenberg zilber is fake news
you have hit onto a weird niche thing that i have strong feelings about
somehow that tells you that you can relate H_n(X) and H_n(Y) to H_n(X x Y)???
like
wtf
So i've been trying to figure out the intuition behind eilenberg-zilber for a while.
one thing that's helpful to observe is that it's just an easy fact about the category of pointed spaces that the reduced suspension of the smash product $S(X \land Y)$ is homeomorphic to the reduced join $X\ast Y = X \times I \times Y / ~$, where
$(x, 0, y) ~ (x, 0, y')$ for all $y, y'$
$(x, 0, y) ~ (x', 0, y)$ for all $x, x'$
$(x, t, y_0) ~ (x,1,y_0)$ for $y_0$ the basepoint of $y$ and $t$ is arbitrary
$(x_0, t, y) ~ (x_0 ,0 ,y)$ for arbtirary $t$
diligentClerk
lol
now if you take, say, two ordinary abstract simplicial complexes $K, L$, they don't have a well-behaved notion of Cartesian product, simplicial complexes don't have products but they do have joins. The join of $K$ and $L$ has as its underlying set of vertices the set $|K| \cup |L|$ and as its $n$-simplices it has all finite subsets sigma of $|K| \cup |L|$ where $\sigma\cap |K|$ is a simplex of $K$ and $\sigma\cap |L|$ is a simplex of $L$. And it's easy to see that the chain complex associated to the join is exactly the tensor product of the two original complexes, up to a dimension shift.
diligentClerk
Similarly in the category of simplicial abelian groups there is a very natural tensor product, the Day convolution, and via the Dold-Kan correspondence this corresponds exactly to the usual tensor product of chain complexes, up to a dimension shift.
So I think what Eilenberg-Zilber can be thought of as saying is that the "Cartesian product" of chain complexes is homotopy equivalent to the delooping of the join. or conversely the suspension of the cartesian product is homotopy equivalent to the join. and this matches the geometric intuition
however this dimension shift just doesn't appear in the usual statement of the theorem because of the predominant conventions about how the chain complex of a space should be indexed.
as for the method of acyclic models it's incredibly beautiful and i think it's arguably one of the first times you see a need for a kind of homological algebra which is based on the idea that there should be a relative notion of freeness/projectivity; not necessarily projectivity in the ordinary sense of an Abelian category but projectivity with respect to an adjunction (say, if F is left adjoint to U, then any object in the essential image of F is 'free' and any retract of a 'free' object is 'projective')
i wrote a paper on the method of acyclic models so i'm not really sure where to start lol
:o
i guess the way i understand the version of the theorem used in eilenberg zilber is that like
very cool stuff
to me like
it feels weird bc the proof of eilenberg zilber using acyclic models
it doesn't really feel like you're embedding that much topological info if that makes sense?
to say something which seems fairly topological
like the proof that the homology of a suspension is what it is
feels fairly topological
but this doesn't feel that way at all
let M be a small category, for the sake of argument we can take M to be discrete. Let C be a category, potentially large, and let F : M -> C be a functor, often M is just a small set of objects of C. Now if P : M -> Sets is any functor (uhh actually here let we can extend it along F by left Kan extension, and the left Kan extension construction gives a left adjoint to the 'precompose with F' functor. so this gives an adjunction between [M, Sets] and [C, Sets].
Now use the free-forgetful adjunction Sets <=> Ab to get an adjunction [C, Sets] <=> [C, Ab]. So we hook these two adjunctions together to get an adjunction
[M, Sets] <=> [C, Ab].
In the terminology of the usual statement of acyclic models, a functor X : C-> Ab is said to be 'free' if it's in the essential image of the left adjoint
Similarly one can define a morphism of functors f : X0 -> X1 in [C,Ab] to be 'U-surjective' if U(f) is split epic in [M, Sets]
and using the notion of U-surjective you can define U-acyclic and some other related notions
and this lets you carry out the usual proof that like, projective resolutions of an object are unique up to homotopy in this diagrammatic setting
actually this theorem can be generalized to the level of simplicial objects
there's like, an 'acyclic models' for simplicial objects in an arbitrary category with respect to a certain comonad. and in the case at hand, the comonad is the comonad on [C, Ab] resulting from the adjunction
let $$X={(a,b,c)\in\mathbb{C}^3\mid a\neq b\neq c}$$ be the set of pairwise distinct triple of points in $\mathbb{C}$. Each triple $(a,b,c)$ determines a triangle $\Delta abc$ in the plane. Also let $$Y=\mathbb{C}\times (\mathbb{C}-{0})\times (\mathbb{C}-{0,1})$$ be the set of triples in $\mathbb{C}^3$ with $y\neq 0$ and $z\notin {0,1}$ give $\mathbb{C}^3$ the usual metric topology and $X,Y$ the subspace topologies. How do I prove that $$f(a,b,c)=(a,b-a,\frac{c-a}{b-a})$$ that $f$ is continuous and admits a continuous inverse $g:Y\to X$ where $f:X\to Y$
it's pretty cool stuff. idk if that really answers your question.
hmm
it answers my question that there's like a general method of this that leads to model categories
but that's less
hrm
my question is more philosophical
notsushY
but i think eilenberg zilber is really a statement about the relation between cartesian product and join, it's just kind of obscured by some notational conventions about indexing
inceresting
join in what sense?
are we thinking in like simplicial complexes ? I know of the join operator there but haven't worked with it
(like simplicial complexes as our model for hTop)
yeah i think the join is like, basically just a really fundamental structure when you're thinking about simplicial stuff. The pitch i have for why you should care about the join is the following: Let C denote the subcategory of Top which consists of the objects and maps in the image of the geometric realization functor SSet -> Top. C can be described roughly as follows:
- it is a monoidal subcategory under the join operation which i'll denote * : it contains the empty set (the unit of the join) and the join of two simplicial complexes is again a simplicial complex.
- It contains the singleton space 1, the unique map 0 -> 1, and the unique it contains the unique map 1 * 1 -> 1 (where here 1 * 1 is just the unit interval I )
- it is closed under certain types of colimits.
so i think about simplicial complexes as being built kind of by starting with the singleton set and then taking higher tensor powers with respect to the join
and then gluing those together to form other more complicated structures
the category of simplicial sets is the 'free cocomplete monoidal category on a distinguished monoid" where the distinguished monoid is the terminal object and the monoidal product is the join
the join can be defined for simplicial complexes, simplicial sets and topological spaces, the definition is in chapter 0 of hatcher i think
btw the map that is constructed in eilenberg zilber is like
i think you can already see some of the structure at the level of simplicial sets. i mean like
topologically, just thinking of spaces, there is a canonical map X x Y -> (X * Y)^I which sends the pair (x,y) to the canonical path from x to y in X*Y
and this construction can be carried out at the level of simplicial sets
and you get something which really looks almost exactly like the alexander-whitney map which is used in the eilenberg-zilber theorem, the cup product, cross product
the thing is that abelian groups are like, richer than sets lol so you can represent a family of elements (like a family of simplices that form a homotopy) as a formal sum of elements
and so a lot of this gets crunched down and compressed in a way that is more computationally convenient but
kind of obscures the meaning
@wooden falcon alright so i'm curious
why do you think homology is a cubical concept rather than a simplicial one? to me eilenberg zilber seems really to be about simplicial stuff
nice
ok
nah, no worries i don't know anything about cubical stuff
so any bare minimum is useful
Let $X$ be the union of the unit sphere $S^2\subseteq\mathbb{R}^3$ and the straight line segment going between its north and south poles. Then the fundamental group of $X$ is $\mathbb{Z}$. This can be seen by sliding one of the ends of the line segments until it meets the other one, at which point we have the wedge sum of a sphere and a circle. I agree with it intuitively, but I'm a bit unsure about exactly why (with a semi-rigorous argument) the fundamental group is preserved when the two endpoints of the line segment merge together into one. Why is this the case?
gustavn64
In other words, why exactly does this step preserve the fundamental group?
maybe the first deformation retracts onto the second
that's not exactly what they mean
The second is not a subspace of the first.
What do you mean?
X is a sphere with a line through it
you're contracting that line to a point
which is a homotopy equivalence
I am not contracting the line to a point.
that is what they say to do
Really? That is not possible
what?
If it would be possible to contract the line to a point, the space X would be simply connected, which it is clearly not
sorry, draw the line segment along the sphere from the north pole to the south pole
then contract that
Contract it how?