#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 251 of 1
yeah okay to here t = 0
yes
So can we build f:XuCA->X?
yeeee
Okay now final question before you go to bed
is X->XuCA->X a retract?
(remember the first map is just the inclusion)
ye it is by construction
amazing
now think deeply about this construction
and reversing it
is basically the exact same concept
For after you get it, Exercise: ||Prove that a map f:X-> Y is nullhomotopic if and only if there is a map g: CX->Y such that the composite X->CX->Y is equal to f (where the map X-CX is the inclusion at time 0)||
yeah okay I will try that one out tomorrow. Thank you so much for the help! Tbh I was kind of lost at the very start but then I started to get the idea, thank you!
I think that a big problem in topology is finding maps with certain properties and the solution is almost always to like, partially define the map in some easy way and bootstrap up to make the full map you need
And this gets more complicated the more topology you study
So my advice is whenever you feel totally stuck try to write down what you can guess and what the problem is giving you and see if together that can get you to where you need to be
Is (1,1) a valid basis of the standard Topology and is it the empty set or {1}
the standard topology on what? ℝ? if so, certainly not
Yeah on R
also i'd interpret that as the empty set but like
i wouldnt use that notation in general
{} or {1} are both more clear for whatever you want
Basically I'm trying to determine if there are finite elements
And that's the only thing I could think that would be finite
there are no finite open sets in ℝ except the empty set
(under the standard topology)
there are various ways to prove this
one way: prove that singletons are closed, and that closed sets in ℝ are not open unless they are {} or ℝ itself
[that second statement is equivalent to ℝ being connected, but you probably havent learned that yet]
Nope
a more direct way: let U in ℝ be a nonempty open set, so it has an element u. Then there is an interval (u - r, u + r) that is a subset of U for r > 0, since such sets collectively form a basis of the standard topology. but that would imply U has infinitely many elements.
intervals of the form (u, u) are not part of the standard basis for the standard topology
only (u - r, u + r) for some r > 0
as i said above, thats how id interpret it
but i would never use this notation in practice
i suppose if you interpret it like that, the empty set could be a part of the basis of the topology (though it need not be)
but in any case, its... well.. empty
so it doesnt contain u
hence doesnt present a problem to my above argument
i dont see what youre adding.
Tru
Well I've seen problems with calling the closed set infinite or finite
Most my professors leave it as ambiguous
apparently there are some physicists whose convention is that the word "finite" is not used to describe 0
Sorry I meant empty set@ivory dragon
ex. my analysis professor considered N to be {1, ....} and thus there was no natural number that represented the carnality of the empty set => empty set it not finite
and in terms of if it was then infinite he said that there were a lot of complexities and issues with assigning finite or infinite to the empty set
he ended up saying that (1,1) wasn't valid
it's fine to disqualify that notation, it's confusing
but you could also just define (a, b) : { x | a < x & x < b }
and then (1,1) would denote the empty set
I guess when you asked if there were finite open sets I assumed you meant non empty
I think it is reasonable to call the empty set finite
Does anyone know where I could find a proof for this claim?
i think this is a theorem of topological dimension theory
maybe try Nagata's Modern Dimension Theory
or Connections, Curvature and Cohomology by Greub, Halperin and Vanstone
not a very useful reference, sorry, these are big books
Nagata wrote a book on topological stuff?
yeah it's called counterexamples in topology
-_-
"closed sets of R by the usual topology are NOT the segments [a,b]" WAIT WHAT
intervals [a, b] are in fact closed sets
but there are more closed sets than that
for example, (-infty, a] U [b, infty)
Yup yup, or simply the union of two segments that don't overlap right?
yeah yeah, i interpret it as [a,b] are not closed and i was like "whuuuut"
well its fine if they overlap, itll just give you a single segment
but yeah
(yeah was thinking a closed thing that is not segment)
finite unions of closed sets are closed
in general
but yeah i understand what youre saying
you just read it backwards
is every closed set of a Hausdorff space the preimage of 0 under some continuous map into R?
This property implies the space is regular, so no
No, R_K is a hausdorff space in which K is closed but is not the preimage of 0 under any map
Do you have a sufficient condition?
okay, so it's equivalent to saying the space is perfectly normal?
Is there anything particularly special about R here? What other spaces could we replace it with?
R appears in the def of perfectly normal, I assume that is what makes it special in this case
Nobody
i think it's a diferent nagata. the commutative algebra guy is Masayoshi Nagata, the author of this book is Jun-Iti Nagata
In a general topological space how would one show that a set is open?
Nobody
(This strategy works particularly well when you know a basis for the topology)
This makes a lot more sense
Good morning!
Trying to understand the comb space as an example of a connected but not path connected space
Does A ⊂ B ⊂ C where A,C are connected imply B is connected? I don’t understand this chain of logic
Intuitively I understand it like “any open ball around (0,1) has to contain another point in D, so separating into two open sets is impossible”
Not in general, no
Ok
[1, 2] subset [1, 2] U [3, 4] subset R
because its specifically the closure of E
what would it mean if D could be disconnected?
(if you want a formal proof of this fact, https://proofwiki.org/wiki/Set_between_Connected_Set_and_Closure_is_Connected)
the formal proof is a bit finnickier than you might expect
but the fact should be intuitive enough
(unfortunately thats a theme for a lot of point-set topology...)
(thankfully because this is a "familiar" topology you dont need the proof of the statement in full generality)
well proofwiki has a habit of constructing weird maps without explaining what its doing
lmao
if you unpack what that map is actually trying to communicate, it should match your visualization
(Sometimes proofwiki seems to write in more detail than most humans reasonably would imo too or is that just me?)
alternatively you could just remark that its obvious since you know how ℝ² works
whatever you prefer ¯_(ツ)_/¯
Proofs almost always seem much longer and often more tedious than textbooks I mean
absolutely yeah
it likes to cite hella prereqs too
its a... weird organization
were i to make a collection of proofs, i would not structure it like proofwiki
but eh, can still be handy
Ye I agree
the nice part is that proofwiki's proofs are completely unambiguous
you very rarely have to fill in details
its just... you might have to hop back 3 steps of hyperlinks to figure out how they proved some random fact theyre citing that any reasonable human would bypass with an "obviously..."
or perhaps a "because ___"
actually thats another style thing with proofwiki: they rarely say "because _ is _" or whatever
its always
"By definition of bleurgh:
and therefore:
and so from [proposition]:"
which makes it look (and read) a lot more intimidating than it ought to be lmao
yeahh
Let (X,tau) be a topological space.
I want to show from first principles that a subset A is in tau (namely, open)
iff each point x in A is inside a open set U contained in A.
I have managed to show this, but I had to go via A = Int(A) iff A is open.
Can one circumvent this sidestep and directly link the iff-statement I want to show?
Notice I am not referring to any basis or such, rather working directly from and only with
the definition of a topological space.
@gritty widget yes I feel so too but it's not clicking for me. The converse direction
is straightforward I feel, since the topology is closed under arbitrary unions.
But the other direction. Let A be open, that is, in tau. Now let x be in A.
"open" now just means "a member of tau". I don't see how to proceed from
here to exhibit a set O in tau that x lies in, and also such that O is a subset of A.
I am probably missing something here but I can't spot it
Oh lord I am dumb, thank you
Hey looking for some help on a problem from "Topology and Groupoids"
I'm most of the way there but having some trouble constructing a pushout in the form:
[\begin{tikzcd}
{\pi (X,(B_1\cup B_2))} & {\pi(X,B_1)} \
{\pi(X,B_2)} & {\pi(X,B_1\cap B_2)}
\arrow["{s_1}", from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["{s_2}"', from=1-1, to=2-1]
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=1-2, to=2-2]
\end{tikzcd}]
Oatman
Where $s_1$ and $s_2$ are retractions given by 6.7.4
Oatman
Actually they're deformation retractions
I won’t lie, Bourbaki is honestly like this lol. When I have a specific result I need a proof of Bourbaki has consistently been the easiest proof to read as long as you can find it lol
This is in contrast to Stacks Project where it still has this reference web but all the proofs still require a ton of filling in 
well you see
you dont read stacks projects for the proofs
you read it so you have something to cite and can sidestep the proof
I do 
if there is an error in the stacks project's proof network, no one will notice for 7 decades
and then itll suddenly break 5000 papers
Maybe you but
I instead spend 193949293 hours
Poring over some dumb detail
And there’s still 1 proof I gave up on after like actually 2 days

Torsors am I right
Can someone please help me answer this question from my homework?
How would one answer this?
What exactly is it even asking?
Polar coordinates don't really work if we include 0, so I'm guessing it wants us to consider R^+ x (-\pi,\pi)
But then the inverse map of the chart would require us to use atan2 function
And I don't think that's a commonly used function
Also, does this chart give the same smooth structure as the cartesian coordinates?
My hws due tonight and this is the only problem I need to do
Ping me if you have any ideas
It's asking if chart transition function is smooth between the canonical polar and Cartesian charts.
That's what it means for a chart to be smooth.
Quick topology question bc I have done it in a while lol
Just about topology of R^n
So for a subset E of R^n, if E is compact and E consists of only isolated points, then I am trying to prove E must be finite. So since E is compact, it is closed and bounded. I think I can approach this by contradiction. So assuming E is infinite, so it has infinitely many isolated points, clearly no open cover will have a finite sub cover
But like
How do I formalize that
@wet flame if E consists of infinitely many isolated points, then for each x in E, there is an open neighborhood U_x of x so that U_x cap E is {x}. the collection of all such U_x's gives you an open cover of E with no finite sub-cover
E is your set
cap means intersection
i made a slight typo, U_x cap E is U_x intersected with E. And since x is an isolated point, it should mean that U_x intersect E is just the singleton set {x}
i dont think you need contradiction either, but it works
just take the same open cover of U_x's from above
it has a finite sub-cover by compactness
each U_x contains only one point from E (namely x)
E is finite
Ohhhh
This is beautiful omg
The simplest things amaze me
which trick
it can be hard to figure out a good open cover for a problem sometimes, it seems so silly to take an open neighborhood around every single point (isn't that way more than you need?) and then apply compactness
so you might miss it at first
yea good trick
this is only tangentially related but like
if X is a space
then for any open cover of X
we can associate to it the Cech cochain complex of the cover, with coefficients in some Abelian group.
and there's a category of open covers and refinement maps
now, this category is not filtered, so colimits are poorly behaved.
you wouldn't want to take the colimit of all cech cochain complexes over all open covers here
because the answer would be nonsense
but if you pass to cohomology first, then the colimit kind of becomes filtered
this is a terrible explanation and probably doesn't make sense
but
where i'm going with this is
if instead of considering all open covers of X
you consider just those open covers of X indexed by the points of the space
with x\in U_x for each x
then you do get a filtered poset
and you can take colimits at the level of cochain complexes and get a reasonable answer
which is nice
this trick blew my mind when i first saw it lol
diligentClerk about to send me down a rabbit hole of wikipedeia articles at three in the morning with all this vocab
i'm sorry haha
lmao its cool. wish i could appreciate it, i just have no idea what most of those terms mean
suffice it to say that there's a common form of argument where you are dealing with open covers in a space, and it's always ok to replace the open cover you're working with with a refinement, so you'll say something like "we need property P to hold for the cover, and U doesn't necessarily have that property, but that's fine, we can replace it by a sufficiently fine refinement V such that P holds"
often this is phrased in a way where it's understood that U, V are arbitrary covers, but it turns out that a lot of these arguments still work when you let U, V be open covers indexed by the points of the space with x in U_x for each x in X, and they're much better behaved in some technical ways (although perhaps not as computationally friendly because then the cover is necessarily infinite if X has infinitely many points)
i see. i didnt realize that covers came up that much later on. only places ive really seen them be used is for compactness and total boundedness and some uniform continuity
yeah I think i first started to understand the importance of covers when i saw this picture
give me a sec
idk it was a blog post on shape theory
but like
take a circle or something
and cover it by like, short segments of arc
say, connected open sets
and cover it in an efficient "minimal" way so that no point lies in more than two open sets
now you can associate to this open cover a combinatorial data structure
this is going to be a simplicial complex
it has one vertex for every set in the cover
and it has one edge between i and j iff U_i \cap U_j is nonempty
if you draw a picture of this simplicial complex you get exactly like, a regular n-gon, where n is the number of open sets in the cover to start with
so from this nice cover of the space you can extract a simplicial complex homeomorphic to the original space
and you can imagine doing this with a sphere or something as well
whomst in the fvck was big brained enough
or just like, an arbitrary nice topological space
idk. cech? maybe mardesik?
say like
a torus or another compact manifold
you should often be able to, from a nice enough open cover, extract a simplicial complex which is a triangulation of that space, or at least homotopy equivalent or something
oh that's interesting
so in this example the cover is somewhat "bad"
and there's an example of a point with a triple intersection
but you can see that the new thing is still homotopy equivalent to a circle
just not homeomorphic
the triple intersection means you add a 2-simplex connecting the points i,j,k
does that make any sense lol
yes the picture and extracting the simplex made sense
same with the example of the triple intersection, at least intuitively. two lines kind of got identified as one
shape theory apparently was like, an independent branch of topology that kind of existed independently of algebraic topology for a while. it was combinatorial but not algebraic if that makes sense
in retrospect that distinction doesn't seem well founded because you can associate interesting algebraic invariants to the cech complex
but
at the time they were considered two different branches of topology
and like, two different proofs of the same theorem by two different methods (shape theoretic vs algebraic) would be published in separate journals
aha this was the bllog post
wait i feel like im failing to see something important here. so, different open covers might give you different simplexes, right?
wait, but big picture right, so if you take nice enough open covers, you get back something thats possibly easier to work with and still preserves some of the important properties of the original space, right
In a compact, totally disconnected, separable metric space with cardinality less than that of the continuum, given an uncountable closed set, can it always be partitioned into 2 uncountable closed sets?
Context is these Stone spaces, and proving what I said will be enough. Any other suggestions would be welcome
I think whatever I said is all we know about the space S_n(T) topologically, but if it helps it is the space of complete types of over a theory T over a countable language (I don't think that would matter though, looking at the language used here. I have seen a proof of this before which doesn't use metrisability but uses the elements of S_n(T) itself, and I want to see how to get a proof from metrisability)
yeah this is right, different open covers means different simplicial complexes, taking refinements of the open covers gives a more detailed, more accurate representation of the original space, like increasing the number of triangles in a rendering.
cool thnx
Hi
Let X a space. How to prove that if every map f:S^1->X extends to a map f':D^2->X then the fundamental group of X is 0?
Using functoriality of fundamental group i found that $\pi_1(f)=\pi_1(f')=0$
Or x1
there is a very nice picture you can draw for this
i think this might help you, to show that the fundamental group is trivial its enough to show that any map is homotopic to a point
D^2 is contractible
can you put together
Hello.
I have made an attempt to exhibit a topological space (X,tau) with a
subset A such that lp(A) = {all limit points of A} is not closed.
Is it correct?
Take X = {a,b,c} and tau = {null, X, {a}}
Consider the subset A = {b}.
c is the only point in X such that each neighbourhood of c
intersects A. Hence lp(A) = {c}.
But the complement of {c} is {a,b}. And this is not in the topology, that is,
it is not open. So lp(A) = {c} is not closed.
I have a slight suspicion it is spurious, since I can't readily
spot an error. Does anyone see any?
Yeah seems legit as long as your definition of limit points doesn't make all points of A limit points of A
@reef shore The definition I used is that p is a limit point of A iff
if U is an open set containing p then U \ {p} must intersect A non-trivially.
"all points of A limit points of A", hmm well here A = {b}
and I verified b cannot be a limit point of A. This is because
X is the only open set containing b. And X \ {b} = {a,c} intersects
A trivially, so b is not a limit point.
Where could it go wrong, do you mean?
Yeah so sometimes limit points are defined with just U instead of U \ {p}, which would make this counterexample not work
Here it is fine, I was just making sure
Oh ok interesting, I am working with the "punctured" definition, that is, we remove the limit point when checking intersection.
@reef shore big thanks for the help!
Wait, does $X \times S^n$ always retract to $X \times {x_0}$?
Tokidoki ✓
ye it does, never mind
sorrt space
isn't that when the first oog homology is 0
wtf is oog homology? 
empty set isnt a space because real spaces have basepoints
Then I shall define a pointed empty set 
what is the difference between deformation retract and strong deformation retract?
like 3 hatcher exercises
The homotopy to identity in a strong deformation retract must fix the subspace being retracted onto throughout the homotopy
i actually do not know any important results that depend on the distinction
I only googled this because someone asked me a related question when I was TAing their topology course 
yeah i mean
there are literally a handful of hatcher exercises where it matters
but idk if it comes up at all after
since like
strong deformation retract is kind of a weird notion for a homotopy theorist to care about
maybe its nice to know when homotopies are homotopies of pairs
that could come in handy
but i think CW replacement makes this unnecessary for practical purposes
id have to think a little more
in spaces of homomorfism
i see it in a talk
ah no, you can't make it fix A by replacement
orx1 i really have no idea what you mean by "spaces of homomorphism"
for example Hom(Z^n,G) with G a topological group
So I'm having a bit of a hard time being able to concisely describe these topologies. I am ending up with a notational mess and it's making it harder for me to understand them.
Can someone help me boil this down a bit.
Okay but how is this related?
Can you start by giving me a basis for each
I'm sorry to disturb here but Max, I have to pick a subject to write about. I want to write about algtop but I don't know what I want to write about in that field. Any suggestions on cool stuff that I can write about?
Hm what have you learned that you like most
Sure. The first basis is open boxes and boxes with one of the boundaries included.
There are a bunch of things I could suggest depending on how much time you have and what you like
So something like Ax[0,b) or (a,1]xB for open intervals A and B, and real numbers a and b
do max's research topic
tbh I kind of want to explore something new in AT that I haven't learned yet and write about that. Like cohomology and the rings sound really cool but I don't know if I will be able to write a project on that topic lmao
I would be happy to help you learn about stable homotopy theory
tterra I'm too noob wtf
Should I wait?
Thread perms when
yeah I will take a note of that. I will go now lmao, sorry for the disruption
I’m waiting for all three dackid but the first looks good
Except you of course also have just AxB
Okay cool. Wanted to make sure we were okay
let me search the paper
Yea, that was the first part (open boxes)
Okay, the dictionary order is tough to explain, but I'll try. but if you have two points (a,b) and (c,d) with $a<c$, then $a_b<c_d$. And ((a,b),(c,d)) is an open set.
dackid
In contrast to the product topology, we have open intervals of the form [(0,0),(c,d)) and ((a,b),(1,1)].
If the notation is confusing, there is ordered pairs, like (0,0) and the outside paranthesis refers to the interval
There is also the situation in which a=c, so we need to check if b<d. If so a_b<c_d
Finally, the last one is defined as this on the reals intersected with the set [0,1]
Okay, I think I'm done
Is it true that in a Hausdorff space X, for A⊆X and x∈X a limit point of A, there is an infinite sequence of points of A \ {x} converging to x?
@gritty widget In your example, x is not a limit point of A because the neighbourhood {x} of x doesn't intersect A \ {x}.
Sorry was watching a YouTube video
You can take X = omega_1 + 1, A = omega_1 ⊂ X, x = omega_1
This is not quite accurate you’re doing everything squared
My advice is to first look at the first and third examples and write down the basis sets explicitly
@empty grove My definition of a limit point: x is a limit point of A iff every neighbourhood of x intersects A \ {x}
Hint: || they are the same ||
Ye, then my example works
Assuming you're familiar with ordinals
I'm putting order topology on X
I think hausdorff second countable is the assumption you want
I'm not sure what you mean
I am familiar enough with ordinals. Give me a minute, I'll try to understand your counterexample.
About first and third examples
You did not work very hard on the third examples basis
You can write down a basis for all of R^2 and use this to write down a basis for I^2
The intuition is that if you space has too many open sets you might need more than a countable amount of points to properly converge
@marsh forge @empty grove what if I allow not only infinite sequences, but transfinite sequences?
You get to the theory of nets very quickly in which case I think stuff works out how you want
But I don’t think about spaces that aren’t second countable often
Yea, it's pretty much open intervals intersected with I.
something like ((0,-1),(0,2)) is an open interval, and that intersected with I would be [0,1]x{0}
Yea I know
[0,1]x0 is not open
That is the intersection of the open interval I mentioned on I^2
Oh I completely misread
I’m very sorry
I assumed they meant the usual subspace top
Oh no. It wants dictionary order
@empty grove Indeed that works, thanks. So I guess in topology sequences are not good objects for defining stuff. Idk if transfinite sequences are though.
They're not, I remember a counterexample but I can't remember its name
So naturally I wonder if I can redefine a limit point in terms of transfinite sequences and their limits 🙂
Looking it up lol
Wait maybe in weak* stuff this doesn’t suffice
Ah Aren's space. I think it works, will have to check
So now back to the OG question. Is there a better way to express these?
My explanation for dictionary order was not great and I'd really like to know how to improve it
No your explanation of the dictionary order was fine. My guess would be that the second and third spaces are homeo and have the same basis
Maybe try to prove that and see if something goes wrong
Actually, the page right before this gives an example in the subspace that is not in the I^2 dictionary topology
The set was {1/2}x(1/2,1]
This is because the only time we will have a half closed interval is when we include the least and largest elements. In this case (0,0) and (1,1) respectively.
So that is not included in the dictionary topology for IxI
Oh then that is a pretty good answer I think for those two
I don’t think this problem is very good
It’s worth thinking about a little
Eh, compare in these classes tends to refer to try and see if there is some sort of inclusion
Were you given it as an assignment
We know those two are different, but is one finer than the other? Or are they completely separate topologies?
Yessir. Last question for it
bad instructor
Okay
I think one of those two should be finer
The only reasonable inclusion is the identity
Maybe you could scale everything
And get an inclusion
But again this question is too open ended
Well, with the tools we have now, compare only really means is it coarser or finer. We don't have many tools in our kit right now
Yeah then one of the latter two is probably finer, whichever one you just showed can’t be coarser
And then the first should be incomparable to the others
Actually pretty sure Product top equal to relative top
Oh maybe
Sorry I’m not thinking very hard about this but it also feels like you know what you are doing
No
@solar shore ok I'm pretty sure the Aren's space works. The reason is that (infty, infty) doesn't have a nested neighborhood basis (I hope) and that should suffice. For a net of a certain order type to converge to a point, the net of open neighborhoods of that point should have a cofinal subset with the same order type and that is a neighborhood basis of that order type. So to converge to a point, a net must mimic the order type of some neighborhood basis of that point, and to say that transfinite sequences (or even totally ordered nets) suffice would be to say that all spaces have nested neighborhood bases. I'm actually not sure about a couple details here, but this is what my intuition says. Of course that doesn't go very far in point set topology
There is an open set between (x,y) and (x,y’) where y’<y and everything is inside the interior
This is not open in the product topology
@quasi forum
Although you should be correct that these two are not incomparable
hmm what I said about some subset of neighbourhood basis having the same order type as the net is not true, the converse is
Ah true, because {x} is not an open set
But in contrast, that set is indeed in the dictionary topology on RxR
Okay, so I believe the inclusion is I^2 dictionary topology is included in product and relative top and product is included in relative top
I didn't follow the discussion so far but that doesn't sound right. The I² dictionary top should contain open sets which are not there in the product topology
In particular the open vertical lines
@quasi forum you might be interested to know that there exists a solution book for Munkres' first few chapters
@empty grove Do you mean this https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Arens–Fort_space space? And is your (infty, infty) the same as (0, 0) in the wikipedia article?
@empty grove
I think I have figured it out.
- Suppose we are given an infinite sequence s of points that converges to this special point (∞, ∞).
- Then s has a point in an infinite number of columns, for otherwise there would be a neighbourhood of (∞, ∞) not intersecting the columns s is contained in, and no tail of s would lie in that neighbourhood.
- Let t be an infinite subsequence of s such that t has no more than one point in each column.
- Clearly, "all points except those in t" is a neighbourhood of (∞, ∞). There is no tail of t that lies entirely in this neighbourhood. Therefore, there is no tail of s that lies entirely in this neighbourhood either. Hence, s doesn't converge to (∞, ∞).
Got my answer. Prod top and dict top are subsets of the relative topology inherited by the dictionary top on R^2, but they are NOT subsets of each other in any way
I do not. I'd rather figure it out on my own, even if that means losing a couple points on my homework.
Why is it true that Symm^g(C) surjects onto Jac(C)?
Ah yeah the one I had seen before in some blog post was slightly different but captures the idea yeah (there it was a counterexample to "sequential closure is sequentially closed" but needs slight modification for that)
Only detail that is missed I think is that you need t to be a cofinal subsequence. Infinite subsequence need not be cofinal of your sequences are transfinite
Wtf is Symm^g
Can any one help me with this, I have two modules A and B I want to know that A and B have the same free parts
A and B are cohomology groups, the map between then is the map induced by the inclusion of B into A
I know that the support of the kernel and cokernel of this map is contained in some set K
Moreover I know that the kernel and cokernel of the map are torsion
Is this enough
Does anybody have some tips on how to demonstrate two different sets of topological bases generate the same hotel sigma algebra? For instance the closed sets and the open rays
I'm just wondering on general tips
@gritty widget what ring are the modules over
you said free part, so I assume they're over a PID?
or dedekind
Modules over C[x1,..,xn] , Specifically A and B are equivariant cohomology groups
And the map between A and B is the map induced by an inclusion
so youre saying you have some map B ---> A such that the kernel and coker are C[x1,..,xn]-torsion?
Yes
just tensor with the fraction field?
Sorry this is very rude of me I have to run off and help a friend
I’ll reply later
localization is exact, yes
but you dont really need that
tensoring still gives you a complex
ker --> B ---> A --> coker
tensor that with the fraction field and ker and coker become 0
it still doesnt make sense to talk about a "free part" without more information
But is the tensor if B with the fraction field not just exactly the free part of B
free part doesnt make sense unless it's a direct summand of B
tensoring with the fraction field kills torsion
but this doesnt imply that it is free
in your particular case if you somehow know that B/B_{tors} is projective, then it works
but projective implies free for modules over C[x_1, ..., x_n] is a very deep theorem
it's called the Quillen-Suslin theorem
From the line before having support in that union implies that the module is torison
Is the rank not just the number of generators of the free part?
Ooh no
what do you mean by free part
It’s the number of free generators
Okay I think this is where I was going wrong
I thought we could decompose our module into a free part and a torsion part
yeah that doesnt work in general
you always have an s.e.s 0 --> B_{tors} --> B ---> B/B_{tors} --->0
but it doesnt always split
And that the free part was just generated by the free generators and the torsion part was generated by the torsion
But yeah I see now that you can have some mixing
Thanks very much
That cleared up a lot

And just to double check if we have something like
C[x,y,z,w]/(y^2,z,w)
y, z and w all have torsion
x is the only free generator
So the rank of this thing should be 1?
rank over what
Okay I need to go read the definition of rank
the definition of rank is simple
if R is a domain
and M is an R-module
then the rank of M is the dimension of M (x) F over F
where F is the fraction field of R
So then above since A and B are isomorphic after tensoring with F they must have same rank
Thank you very much king
yup
Excellent
C^g modded out my action of Symmetric group on coordimates
What does it mean to say that a map is fibering?
Do you mean fibration 
Stupid question, does anyone have an example of an etale morphism with infinite fibres?
take an infinite disjoint union of spec(k) and map to spec(k)
I thought of that but couldnt see why it is etale, and I still can’t
I see that it’s relative dimension zero so that checks at least
My guess is that etale morphisms must have finite fibres but dunno how to see that
Yes, it is etale, at least according to Vakil's first defenition.
The map Spec(k)->Spec(k) is etale, and that's enough because being etale is a local condition on both the source and the target
I’m a bit confused, is the original map quasi finite?
Or how is k -> \prod k defined
<@&286206848099549185>
if B is the basis for a topology
is B in T ?
does this even make sense as a question ?
@winged badger I don’t think this example works
@gritty widget thanks
How do you define Spec(\prod k) -> Spec k?
No, it's not Spec(\prod k)-> Spec(k). Let X=union of countably many Spec(k). It's not equal to Spec(\prod k). The map is from X to Spec(k)
It's not true that the disjoint union of Spec(A_i) is Spec(\prod A_i) when the union is infinite. Only for finite unions is this guaranteed to hold
Okay so Hatcher writes this: "Another sort of process we have encountered is the transformation of one functor into another, for example: Boundary maps H_n(X, A) -> H_n-1(A) in singular homology, or indeed in any homology theory". I don't really understand this. How is this a transformation of one functor into another?
I assume it's in the vain of the n-th homology group and the n-1th are different functors because one looks at C_n and the other one at C_n-1
Transformation of the functor (X,A) → H_n(X,A) into the functor (X,A) → H_n-1(A)
He should define what he means by this precisely later
yeah okay I see
@winged badger you're right this works, I was being confused by some formulations of etale morphism requiring quasi finite but missed the local part of quasi finite
Of course I've only told you how the functor acts on the objects here, but it should be easy to see how to turn this into a functor by defining a map on the morphisms
The functors are from Top-2 to Ab, Ab being the category of abelian groups and Top-2 being the category of space-subspace pairs with maps of pairs as morphisms
ah yeah okay I see
Hatcher also defines a functor and then says "strictly speaking, what we have just defined is a covariant functor". So wtf is the difference between a functor and a covariant functor?
A functor can also mean contravariant functor, but usually you'd say if that is the case
Contravariant functors are arrow reversing and covariant are the ones he defined. If you just see "functor" written anywhere, it means they are talking about contravariant functors
yeah okay, got it! Thank you so much! 
I am not sure what cofinal means. But maybe the observation that we only have countably many points in the space will give you what you think I missed?
Here cofinal = unbounded
Yeah it might, I'll have to think
Don't see it directly at least
Virgin covariant functor Chad contravariant functor chadder presheaf chaddest copresheaf
Well, since we have countably many points, if a transfinite sequence converges to some point, then there's a (the usual kind, countably infinite) subsequence of it converging to that point
:catThink:
How would you argue for this 
Like it might be immediate lol I'm probably just missing something
You should be able to use transfinite induction
To construct such a subsequence
I think
Actually not even
You can do it more simply
Oh no nevermind my idea requires a second countable assumption
I think you can still do it transfinite my
Transfinitely*
actually now I am thinking about this and i'm unsure so let me think

I feel like ordinals with cofinality ≠ omega might mess things up in some way but not sure
So I mean
You only need continuum many points to pick one for each possible open set
Then I think you can refine that
Set theory isn’t my strong suit I might be messing something up
Hmm so you're saying take the original sequence and you can assume that it is at most continuum size? 
Yes I believe so
Actually
Eh
You probably need some directed system of neighborhoods
To make this choice
Which is i think what nets are
Yeah actually how do you even phrase the notion of convergence without a net converging to you point for a transfinite sequence
You can define limit points
But a directed limit point seems harder
For every point x of the space except for maybe the limit of our transfinite sequence, there exists an ordinal α s.t. x doesn't occur in our transfinite sequence after α (because the space is Hausdorff and hence t1 and hence everything-except-x is an open set).
Now what do I do next ...
So if you have cofinality = omega, you can take a cofinal (usual) subsequence and that also converges to the point. Now if cofinality > omega, then you can do the following: suppose no point in the space occurs cofinally in s. Then since you have countably many points, the union of the indices corresponding to each point is a countable union of non cofinal subsets and because cofinality is uncountable this can't be the size of domain of s, which is a contradiction. Hence there's a point which appears cofinally in s, so you can just take t to be the constant sequence at this point and this should converge to the same point
Cofinality < omega case is trivial
You can still say that for every neighborhood there is some index N such that for every n > N...
Yeah actually how do you even phrase the notion of convergence without a net converging to you point for a transfinite sequence
I have no idea what a net is. So...
We say a point L is a limit of a transfinite sequence of points s iff for every neighbourhood of L, there exists an ordinal α s.t. all points of s after α lie in that neighbourhood.
Which is the same definition as in the case of nets actually
I used cofinality above, it just means " size of smallest cofinal subset"
Cofinality < omega implies cofinality = 1, ie the ordinal is a successor ordinal so any notion of convergence is trivial
Or cofinality = 0 I guess
Which means ordinal is 0 
There might be a less set theory brained way of doing this
but I can't think of anything else
Continuing, how about this?
So, from our transfinite subsequence, take the last occurence of each point and throw away everything else. Done, we've got either a finite or a countably infinite convergent subsequence.
throw away everything else
By everything else do you mean everything upto this last occurrence of x?
Ah I see
Only keep the last occurrences
We take our transfinite sequence. Throw away all its elements except those that are the last occurences of their respective points.
Right that makes sense
is there really such a thing as "set-theory brain" beyond the set-theory brain that we all have because this is the dominant working language for mathematics
👉 👈 I need a bit of help with this one
Tbh I'm not sure how to even show what is created when I identify the edges
So if I mold it I imagine I'll get a 2-simplex with 3 edges connecting to a point in it's interior
Two triangles with an edge connecting the diagonal?
Oh yep I forgot about the second one
I feel like I'll get this
Oh wait no
I'm stupid
wrong one
Gimme a sec I'll draw it
Now I just have to somehow turn this into the sheet for the Klein bottle
Maybe I could cut it along the diagonal
Oh yeah I seee it
You have the [v1,v2] and you cut along that
Hm I thought of something like
rotating it by 60° but they I'll have to identify [v0,v1] with [v1,v2] instead of [v1,v3]
Hmmmmmmmmm
AAA I keep getting a torus 
Cut along the [v1,v2] edge and then invert the lower segment so that the edges of the same color are parallel
Like "flip it" would be a better term although that doesn't seem allowed
Oh yeah I see where I fucked up
I basically managed to replace v1 and v3 when I did that
OK OK
OOp
I had to
do another thing
sorry
So this is where I got to
Now
if I were to flip the lower part about the red axis
I'd just get the torus
However if I put it back together that way the vertices get bungled around
so there's probably some other way to rotate this that I can't see cuz it's 12AM
OK so
Flip in the way I'm thinking i.e. the same as rotating 180° around an edge or some other kind of flip
OK yeah
it was easy
I was just being stupid

OK now sleep and then I'll start computing the homology groups of this thing tomorrow
thanks a lot btw
@sleek thicket snake snake snake
we also proved that extraordinary homologies play well with suspensions on our homework from today
Nice!
Ellenberg-Steenrod OP
yeah it's like a second course
nice
there's 3 courses on Algtop in the department
592 (qual course), 695 (Algtop 1), 696 (Algtop 2)
I took 592 last semester and am taking 695 now
Pog
the lecturer's notes are awful
I'm thinking I might review complex analysis today
I want to take complex geometry in winter
But I took one quarter of complex analysis like 2 years ago
Oh dear
Well it looks pretty
Lmfao
please
I didn't go to class today bc my allergies are acting up so I got a covid test just in case
it's in the context of a wedge sum
I recognize cohomology
bouged???
Lmfao
I am trying "what was the bus drivers name" Twitter rn: https://twitter.com/grassmannian/status/1435739700623396865?s=19
Let k be a field and R a countable product of copies of k. What's the global dimension of k?
the global dim of R = 2 iff CH holds but the global dim of k is just 0
lel


have you tried abandoning a physical form?
that way, it cannot physically hurt.

idk try harder
thanks
if G is a reductive algebraic group and K a maximal compact subgroup of G, then Hom(Z^n,K) is a strong deformation retract of Hom(Z^n,G)
Oh okay I was looking for theorems that use this in the hypothesis
That is a cool result tho
there are also more results that relate strong deformation and spaces of homomorfism
what are lagrange manifolds?
lagrangian submanifolds?
hey so if i'm trying to show that certain projective spaces don't admit fields of tangent 2-planes, i can do that by showing that their total steifel-whitney classes don't factor into a degree 2 polynomial and a degree n-2 polynomial in the Z_2 cohomology ring right?
Can someone help me with this?
Probably more suited for #advanced-analysis ?
one word: chain rule
hint: read the problem
why there isn´t a homotopy between f and id which is stationary in both boundary circles?
can you visualise what f is doing?
yes
could you describe it in words?
ok actually idk if that will be productive
look at the subset {1} x I
f is something like twist the points which aren in the boundary circles
think of what its image looks like under f, and under id, and why they couldn't be homotopic intuitively
i found a homotopy between f and id
right yeah
I twists the cylinder
Yeah they are homotopic
Just that the homotopy cannot fix the boundary circles throughout
this is a line right?
yes
yep perfect
so now if you have a homotopy of f with id which fixes both boundary circles, you could restrict it to this line x [0,1] to get a homotopy between f restricted to this line and id restricted to this line (which would fix the end points)
are you able to visualize this?
like visualize it like some continuous deformation
So if you can prove that such a restricted homotopy cannot exist, then you are done
continuos deformation from the twisted line to the line?
Yeah
the image of f_0 should be twisted line and f_1 a line
Yep
But it should fix the end points because the whole homotopy fixes the boundary circles, and the end points lie on the boundary circles
Do you see this? And also that it is impossible?
i dont see why is imposible
one of the lines is twisted around the cylinder
and the homotopy wouldn't be able to undo this twist
To prove this formally you can use fundamental groups
ooh i see, is because the f_0 is a line twisted
like brouwer fixed point theorem of D^2?
I don't see how you could use that
Probably means a similar contradiction
yes, i mean, the proof of brouwer fixed point theorem is by a contrdiction and using functoriality of fundamental group. I think this proof is similar to prove that there is no homotopy f_t between f and id which fixes boundary circles
how is ℝ's topology defined for you?
i would pick a point in (0, infinity)
and then i would find a ball around that point which is contained in (0, infinity)
so if i have x in (0, infinity), then if i pick say r = x/2, we have the interval (x - r, x + r), and this is (x/2, 3x/2). since x/2 > 0 and 3x/2 < infinity, this interval is a subset of (0, infinity).
i could have picked other r's too
(and r can depend on x as you can see)
There are a few equivalent ways to define the topology on the real numbers
depending on what your definition is
the proof will look different
Well, if you don't know how to define the topology on R then it will be impossible to prove a set is open
just like as a matter of the question making sense
It's sort of like me asking you if apples are foobars without telling you what a foobar is
gib me foobar
or gib me deth
does a clifford torus have a pair of antipodes where the villarceau circles meet?
is that the correct terminology?
Ye so that’s what it means for a set to be open in a metric space (such as the real numbers w/ the usual Euclidean distance )
So for this question, it suffices to show that given an arbitrary point x in (0, infty), you can find an open ball centered at x contained in (0,infty)
So I'm having a hard time with this one. Neither A^CxB or AxB^C are open, so I am not entirely sure if this is achieving anything
Remember that the open sets in the product aren't only products of open sets
The product of open sets just gives you a basis for the topology
Yea, open sets are unions of open boxes in the product topology.
Yeah, sadly it does not
this is what i was just about to say
slimvesus
Le slimsavage
Thanks, I was thinking of that earlier, but I second guessed myself since I was struggling to justify it.
This gets the job done easily, so I appreciate the help.
Ya know, for a grad class, some of these questions are super free.
Half of it. The second half is algebraic
My grad algebra class had a problem of showing an action A to an ordering of S_|A| could be lifted to another ordering of S_|A|
You might realize that this is not only trivial
It's like
Super trivial
...I was trying to think of a stronger word than "trivial" but failed
So jumping back into this: when might this not be equal in an order topology?
Firstly, not interested in the sass.
2nd) this inclusion seems super trivial to me and I feel like it should always be an equality.
However, this does not appear to be true and I would like to mold my intuition into the correct one.
But yes, the first part is very simple
think about when X is discrete, like X = Z
Ohhhh! So for instance, (1,2) is just the empty set, so the closure is also the empty set.
More generally, if (a,b) is open, then [a+1,b-1] is the closure
I think what you're getting at is that a and b have to be limit points of the set in order for the equality to hold.
no, in Z, every set is open and closed... its just that cl(a,b) = (a,b) != [a,b]
like, cl(1,2) is empty, but [1,2] = {1,2}
So the issue is clearly the end points right
So your question is “when are the endpoints not limit points”
Er I guess any point can be a problem
Mainly the issue is that R is not a good example to keep in mind
Because it’s so connected
But Z is a better example as above
So yeah, I am pretty sure this claim holds, since 1 and 2 are not limit points of (1,2) (the empty set).
That is necessary but not sufficient
For example, 2 is not a limit point of [1,3] in Z
(1,3)*
Why?
Let me explain better when I get home
i wanna say equality holds if and only if X contains a dense proper subset
if not that, then something like that.
assuming cl(a,b) = [a,b] for all a,b in X, then for any two points a,b in X, a and b will be limit points of (a,b)
it seems like you need some global property of X to hold
@quasi forum exercise: every one element subset of Z is open in order topology
(a-1,a+1) is open in the order topology
(a-1,a+1)={a}
If there is a smallest element, let's say a, then [a,b) is open for any b. So [a,a+1)={a} is open
Largest element has a similar approach
The above is using the fact that these are basis sets of the order topology
Oh geez...this is super obvious! Cl(A)=AUL, where L is the limit points of A
yea
you can characterize closed sets by limit points too. A is closed if and only if (something about its limit points)
I can't, cl((1,3))={2}
I agree that is the closure
And the closure is all the elements of A and it's limit points.
I guess what you're trying to get at is because {2} is a Singleton, there is no neighborhood U/{2} that meets {2}
And so yeah, that means {2} is not a limit point of itself
@quasi forum
for cl(a,b) to be equal to [a,b] for all a,b in X, you need that for every x,y in X, if x < y, then there is a z in X such that x < z < y
these are necessary and sufficient conditions
Can someone explain how divisors correspond to line bundles?
a divisor D corresponds to a line bundle O(D)
conversely a line bundle L corresponds to a divisor D(L) of zeros minus poles

Is the classifying space of products the product of classifying spaces?
B(G\times H)=BG\times BH
You can write every element of S_1 as a union of elements of S_2 and vice versa
Thus T_1 contains S_2 and T_2 contains S_1 and therefore T_1 and T_2 contain each other
How you write elements of S_1 as union of elements of S_2
countable union
Well you can write elements of S_3 as union of elements of S_2, and elements of S_1 are special cases of elements of S_3
Do you see how to do it for S_3?
You might have seen this as "S_2 forms a countable basis for the standard topology on R"
Ok
what is equivariant homology?
Hi how can I find the vertex of the following paraboloid?
#multivariable-calculus #geometry-and-trigonometry this channel is for higher geometry (upper undergrad / grad level)
if you answer in another channel I'll move there but until then I don't believe you when you say it's easy
this is for a diff geom class
ryc if you are so good why are there unsolved problems in math????
owned
isnt vertex where derivative is 0
what do you mean
Then you’re dumb. This is easy stuff
no that's the centre
it's implicit in z
but paraboloids dont have centres
oh epic
my strategy here would be to do changes of variables to get rid of the xz and yz terms
and then to complete squares
actually you can just complete squares from the start with the xz and yz terms to see what the change of variables should be
maybe linear change of basis so that the axis is parallel to one of the axes
the strategy that I have managed to catch onto is
- determine asymptotic directions of quadric surface
- the vertex is where the gradient vector is equal to the asymptotic direction vector
and then partial derivative of 3rd coordinate wrt other 2 = 0
but idek how to find the asymptotic directions
yeah the aim of the question is actually to find canonical orthogonal coordinates such that the equation reduces to the form $\frac{x^2}{a^2}+\frac{y^2}{b^2}=cz$
but to do that I think I first need to know the position of the vertex so I can translate the axes accordingly
maybe you can figure out direction of axis without exact line?
I know that the asymptotic direction can be found by ignoring the lower-order terms so you can reduce it to finding a nonzero vector $v=(x,y,z)$ such that $$4x^2+2y^2+3z^2+4xz-4yz=0$$
but a method for actually finding such a vector escapes me
Can „f: X→Y is a quotient map“ be checked locally? i.e. if we have an open cover Uᵢ of Y, and we can show that every f⁻¹(Uᵢ) → Uᵢ is a quotient map, does that suffice?
are you allowed to use wolfram 
haha I have been using it for some factoring
Not sure what I'm overlooking, but can we just not complete the square to get it into a quadratic form and then diagonalise?
Meh no, completing the square would leave mess still, ouchies

I think so, because some set V is open iff V cap U_i is open for all i, so it suffices to check f(S) cap U_i is open whenever S is a saturated open set, and that works
yeah
context: I was looking for a short argument that a locally trivial fiber bundle π: E→X always is a quotient map. Surjectivity is clear because Eₓ ≅ F for every fiber, and now we can see that π clearly is a quotient map when restricted to E_U whenever U is an open set over which our bundle is trivial
and since these E_U are saturated open we get that π as a whole is a quotient map
Neat
Not so neat: I have like a week left to finish my B-thesis and I'm still digging in the basics lmao
all the best 
thanks, should be just the right amount of pressure to not fuck around with perfectionism
in case anyone is interested in the solution to the question I asked earlier: here is an answer I got in another discord
and one of the columns of P turned out to be the solution to this equation
i´m trying to understand why loops in X x {y_0} and {x_0}x Y conmutes
the isomorfism between $\pi_1(X \times Y),(x_0,y_0)$ and $\pi_1(X,x_0) \times \pi_1(Y,y_0)$ is defined by $\varphi([f])=([p_1f],[p_2f])$ with $p_1,p_2$ canonical proyections right?
Or x1
yes
so if i have paths $f:I \rightarrow X \times\lbrace y_0 \rbrace$, $g:I \rightarrow \lbrace x_0\rbrace \times Y$ then $\varphi([fg])=\varphi([f])\varphi([g])=([p_1f],[p_2f])([p_1g],[p_2g])=([f],[e])([e],[g])=([f],[g])$ right?
ooo right
here too, the right side should have square brackets
Or x1
but if $[f]$ and $[g]$ conmutes then $\varphi([fg])=\varphi([gf])$, $([f]),[g])=([g],[f])$ and this implies $[f]=[g]$, is this right?
Because the projection onto the first coordinate is still f
and similarly for the second coordinate
now i see why loops in X x {y_0} and {x_0}x Y conmutes
yo I'm reading the first page of "The Idea of Cohomology" and I'm already lost lmao. Hatcher writes "let X be a 1-dimensional \Delta complex. For a fixed abelian group, the set of all functions from vertices of X to G also forms an abelian group...". How does that form a group tho? With what operation? If it's just composition then you can't just compose X->G with X->G so what is going on here?
You just add them component wise
Think about maps to R first (the Reals)
If you want to add f,g: X -> R
Just use the rule that f + g is the function sending x to f(x) + g(x)
The identity is the constant 0-map
And the inverse to f(x) is given by g(x) = -f(x)
Chm alg top arc
oh lmao so it's just "normal" addition?
Yee
oh okay yee then I see it lmao
You can do this to turn the set of functions to any sort of algebraic structure with that sort of algebraic structure
(Okay I’m not sure any, but it works for like groups, rings, modules, etc)
yee okay I see. Thank you so much!

Hey! a soft question: I'm self studying AT from tom dieck. Is understanding all the "side constructions" necessary to becoming fluent in AT? For example, the build up towards homotopic map => same induced map on homology groups. Also, I've just spent about one and a half weeks on covering spaces. I'm worried avoiding too many constructions will trip me up later but I'm getting a little impatient too
Reading tom Dieck as a first intro to AT 
I guess it should be fine to skip examples and come back later if you feel the need, or decide for each topic based on how well you think you understood it
Hatcher was a bit too informal, but yeah i think ive made a mistake
How do uni AT courses usually go? straight to thm or no?
Yeah Hatcher skips some important details and I feel that it is inefficient if you already know cat thy. I am planning to read from JP May because it was recommended to me by the people here. I was trying dieck earlier, went very poorly
Usually profs tend to give examples, some give them after theorems and some before
but books would give more examples than you would get in lectures
Not enough time in lectures
So should be safe to skip some annoying ones
Thanks thats reassuring
So
AT courses in general
normally dont focus
on nitty gritty proofs
every class ive ever had skipped the proof of singular = simplicial = cw, for example
A lot of intro AT is building the tools you will need for real AT
Understanding certain constructions is important
and other less so
one of the hard parts of self-learning AT is knowing which is which
and most books don't do a great job of distinguishing
yeah thats exactly my problem
what would you recommend?
I like Hatcher more than most, but I also would say a lot of people seem to like Rotman
I would disagree with your comment that hatcher is not rigorous
and in general say that omitting certain verifiable details and being unrigorous are very different concepts
Mmm alright ill have another look at them
Yeah true, it's rigorous except maybe in ch0 which is a quick review of prereqs
I would say that peter's book is not great for learning AT without like
but it leaves a lot up to you to check I feel
a heavily involved mentor
the biggest issue is the lack of exercises
but also just the writing is like, very concise, shockinglky
Peter's book also is really really written for aspiring algebraic topologists
like homotopy theorist style topologists
and not great if you are interested in e.g. knot theory
But will going through dieck after familiarizing myself with AT be fruitful?
I should mention that I am doing a quick pass of Hatcher with someone else rn anyway
I read the first 3 chapters in May so far and I plan to read the rest later so it will be my second pass
yeah no tom Dieck is like
a massive reference text
i dont think i would suggest reading this unless you are trying to read some specific part of it
also why the fuck does it introduce spectra before homology
I remember
That was where I started learning AT
but then not use the stable perspective for homology
I would think there is little to be gained in trying to read tom Dieck as a book
I quit and moved to Hatcher when he defined the universal cover of a space to be a space such that the associated coverings functor becomes an equivalence or something
😵💫
My like, suggested course would probably be

