#point-set-topology
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picard-lindelof could help
we could define f such that it is the solution of a given ODE with nice conditions with initial values given by f(I) \subset J
and then maybe with a bit of work
actually show we can find such f and it is actually a diffeomorphism
Pick I = Q and J = N, you can't find an injective monotonic map from Q to N
So even without continuity this doesn't hold

I wonder why tho
does this have something to do with Q being dense in R?
it's more about Q's order being dense but N's order being discrete
oh
you can't inject something dense in something discrete
yeah
that's the intuition I had in mind, thanks for making it clearer
makes sense
I will try to work on the finite case tho
If we work with I and J discrete
maybe this could help?
the case where both sets are finite should be true, you can probably even get something as smooth as you want, don't have a proof in mind yet tho 
Yeah, I was thinking about like
Setting f
To be the solution of an ODE
And apply some existence of smooth solutions theorem
With initial values given by f(I) = J if |I| = |J|
But I would have to work on that
That's just the intuition I have in mind
If you just want continuity, you can just glue interval homeomorphisms together
Basically, you ordonate I and J, you get i1 < ... < in and j1 < .. < jm, with n <= m.
We discard the ji with i > n, since we want to send i1 to j1, i2 to j2 etc.
]-infty, i1] and ]-infty, j1] are homeomorphic, so we send the first one to the second through this homeo.
Then we send ]i1, i2] to ]j1, j2] through an homeomorphism, to.
etc.
You can even explicit those homeomorphism if you want 
But this won't be differentiable, even if the usual homeomorphisms that send this kind of intervals to each other are actually diffeomorphisms, so we need to work harder if we want a diffeo
(It won't be cause it won't be smooth at the glue points, it's just gonna make an abrupt angle (atleast in the general case. If the points are equidistants, I think this will be differentiable (and I think it's the only case where it's gonna be differentiable)))
If the functions are C^omega I wonder if they can be seen together
Is quotienting „compatible“ with taking products?
I.e., if I have an equivalence relation ~ on Y, I get a „lifted“ equivalence relation on U×Y by making (u,y)~(u,y') iff y~y'.
This gives me a natural map [(u,y)]↦(u,[y]) from (U×Y)/~ to U×Y/~, which I can see is continuous (because id_U×proj: U×Y→U×Y/~ is constant on each fiber)
But I don't find an elegant way for the inverse (u,[y])↦[(u,y)]
(inb4 this is in $standard_textbook I just didn't look)
if I didn't make any mistake this should be true because a basis of open sets on the LHS is given by {[B×C] |B open in U, C open in Y and closed under ~} and on the RHS by {B×[C]} but it feels like there should be some universal argument
I would have said to fix for every $u \in U$ the continuous map
$$
f_{u} : Y \rightarrow& (U \times Y)/ \tilde
$$
Where $y \mapsto [(u,y)]$ and then maybe by applying the universal property of the quotient space we could extend it to a continuous map $\overline{f}(u,[y]) = f_{u}(y)$.
\
\
But I am afraid this may not work.
MisterSystem
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Continuity on each subset {u}×Y does not necessarily imply continuity
Yeah
Also
I am afraid this may not work
Because Top doesn't have really good properties in the sense of category theory
It is not Cartesian closed
As you noticed
Heh, that was one attempt
I have searched on stack exchange
like saying maps U×Y→ Z are maps Y→Z^U
And it seems that in general it is not the case
that does not work iirc
Yeah, Top is not a Cartesian closed category
And I think that is the main problem
Why this might fail in general
Here
Hm, but otoh what is wrong with my „the bases look the same“ argument
Turns out there's an example where it fails
Ah, wait, careful, I'm only asking for the special case where one relation is the identity
The example given in the comments picks Q endowed with the trivial equivalence relation on it
So it doesn't seem to matter
:-<
I will try to think better about this tho
anyway this is unexpectedly complicated so I guess I'll grab something to eat first and not pursue it maybe think about it more later
It should work in my example because I essentially want to show that P(U×𝕂ᵈ) is the same as U×𝕂ℙᵈ⁻¹ where U can be chosen to be „nice“ I guess
everything should be CGH if I'm not entirely stupid
Oh
Is K a general field ? Or is it taken to be R or C?
If we take U to be nice enough
Say Hausdorff and locally compact
The result should hold
Yeah, ℝ or ℂ
Ok, so I have a question.
We have defined the Čech Cohomology groups of a given sheaf of modules on a topological with respect to an open covering of it.
Does the Čech Cohomology in general depend on the covering you choose for X?
We have so far proved a certain property related to if you have a refinement of this open covering
How these Čech Cohomology groups related to each other
In Forster he takes the inductive limits of the groups with the open covering
Know nothing about sheaf theory, only teh def cech cohomology. But doesn't that depend on whether you consider Ȟ(X,𝒰) or the limit Ȟ(X)?
Oh
Ohh
You are right
We take the direct limit with respect to the coverings
A few chapter laters he does this
A few chapters 
I will take my time until I get there
Oof makes more sense
He also defines
Something called "feixes finos" which are pretty sure would be coherent sheaves
But the definition is the following
So
In general Čech cohomology totally depends on the cover you pick
And like ppl said you can do a direct limit and you can get an isomorphism with H^1 in say algebraic geometry sheaf cohomology
This won’t extend to higher groups but there’s ways to get around this like if your cover you chose is very very good
In that there’s no cohomology on the intersections and stuff then you know that you can compute the actual cohomology using that cover
Here’s just a couple statements ripped straight from hartshorne
I’m not sure if you’ve defined derived functor cohomology, but this is usually what you’re actually after since it gives you the LES after taking global sections
Let $\mathcal{F}$ be a sheaf of abelian groups on $X$ a topological space and $\mathcal{U} = {U_{i}}{i \in I}$ a locally finite open covering of $X$ we say that a partition of unit of $X$ subordinate to $\mathcal{U}$ is a collection of morphism of sheaves:
\
\
$p{i} : \mathcal{F} \rightarrow \mathcal{F}$
Such that
\
\
\begin{itemize}
\item \text{supp} p_{i} \subset U_{i}$
\item \sum\limits_{i \in I} p_{i} = \text{id}_{\mathcal{F}}
\end{itemize}
\
\
And now he's a calling a sheaf "fino" if for every open covering of $X$ there's exists a partition of unit of $\mathcal{F}$ associated to it.
\
\
How is this called in English? He says that feixes "finos" are nice for actual computations and I think these would be called "coherent" sheaves in English because I have heard a similar statement about coherent sheaves, yet at the time I didn't know what it meant.
It’s called a fine sheaf I think
MisterSystem
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There’s a few concepts I think they’re like soft and fine sheaves
You can find it on like ummm… the Wikipedia page for this I think like it’s about acylcic sheavesv
In mathematics, injective sheaves of abelian groups are used to construct the resolutions needed to define sheaf cohomology (and other derived functors, such as sheaf Ext).
There is a further group of related concepts applied to sheaves: flabby (flasque in French), fine, soft (mou in French), acyclic. In the history of the subject they were intr...
If you scroll down there’s something about fine and soft sheaves
Yeah I guess the idea is like
Partitions of unity give you a way to break it up really finely?
Like it into little pieces or something idk
I am familiar with partitions of unity in the case of smooth manifolds yeah
Afaict these notions aren’t really used in AG sheaf stuff as much as like say
Diff geo sheaves and like more general LRS stuff
Like if you do manifolds from a LRS sheaf POV
Yeah we are doing Riemann surfaces so these kinda show up i think
I think you talk about these because like I think they’re a cyclic on paracompact Hausdorff spaces
And that’s also the setting a bunch of these cohomology theories are the same
Yeah, it seems that in these notes my professor proves some relationship between the De Rham Cohomology groups of a compact manifold and the Čech Cohomology groups.
Ooh nice
So they coincide or at a least nicely relatee
Oh 
I know nothing about derham cohomo oof
Still have to look up what derived functors are
I mean
Like
If you wanna know the construction then yeah
But their use is literally just to extend out when you can’t when you only have left / right exactness haha
Yeah, I know they show up in Algebraic Topology as Ext and Tor functors. And they are useful in homological algebra.
But haven't looked up the construction
Also
My professor is keeping the category theory background to a bare minimum lol
So we won't cover this prolly
The construction is more homological algebra than category theory
You can do it without really needing category theory
You just kinda like show some stuff about projective or injective resolutions
And then do some weird shenanigans taking homology and stuff and it kinda just is shit out
Lmao

Yeah, the construction is pretty basic. Take an injective/projective resolution of your object, pass it through your left/right-exact functor and take homology
Tadaa
The hard part is proving that this works well
Yeah, I don't have much background in homological algebra. Will have to look up what a resolution is too.
All I know so far about homological algebra is stuff like the snake lemma, five lemma, Poincaré lemma, Short exact sequence => long exact sequence in homology
And these sorts of basic stuff
A resolution is realllyyty easy
It’s just a long exact sequence where most everything is a certain type of thing
So a projective resolution is where you have like
-> P^n -> … P^0 -> M -> 0
And all the P^i are projective
It’s the same for say a free resolution or a flat resolution blah blah
So maybe I may give it a try understanding the construction
Sometimes it’s the other way tho
So like
0 -> M -> I_1 -> …
For I_j injective
Is an injective resolution
It really is quite simple
I see, I will try to go back to the notes and see if I can understand more of it 
Thanks for the clarifications
I will still hard for Aluffi, but his coverage of this stuff in chapter VIII of chapter 0 is good I think
It won’t go through why it works but that’s kinda fine at first I think
It’s wayyyy better IMO to get how to compute with it, see why it’s good
And then dig into the really annoying details on how to show it works
It kinda doesn’t make sense to do it because it’s kinda just super tedious to show it works
When you don’t know why you care about them lol
Yeah, one of the problems I am having with these notes
Is that there are a few computations of these Čech Cohomology groups so far
I would like to see some examples
So like, sort of
If you can get a “nice cover” I think is the actual word for it
Then you can deal with just one cover
But I’m not sure if there’s actually vanishing theorems for the non algebraic case
In the algebraic case you know they vanish on affines
So this lets you compute stuff via an affine cover if you’re separated because all the intersections are also affine
But for the diff geo or manifolds or whatever the hell case I dunno how it works
Like you’re not gonna verify all the intersections have vanishing derived functor cohomology by hand lol
Okay yes
Wait
Oh okay sure
If you want higher ones you need to know they vanish on the intersections
And the double intersections
And the triple
…
Ah right makes sense
I think this like
What about the čech cohomology groups of the sheaves O_X, O_X*, and the sheaf of meromorphic M_X ?
This might secretly be hypercoverings or some crap
Yeah for Riemann surfaces we mainly care about first I think
I was thinking about those
Usually you just wanna know first cohomology is dead
So yeah
The O is actually important
-_-
It tells u the genus mistersystem
Have you tried these examples yet? If they are sort of trivial to compute I would try it out myself.
O is very non trivial I think
The trivial ones would be just like
Sheaf of differential functions (infinitely differential equations in real and imaginary parts)
Or like, locally constant maps
Really? Maybe some existence any uniqueness theorem gives us some nice results about it.
I will tackle this one first then
And then try to get my self familiar with other examples
Oh yeah do it for simply connected surfaces
It’s actually a bit non trivial otherwise oops
Also you kind of need to do the infinitely differentisble one first
Honestly just go through the Forster section and try proving the results
Good practice imo
Yeah, I am always a bit shocked because I always want to try some things out by myself
And never know which problems are trivial
And which are not
I will finish reading this chapter on the lecture notes
And then go to Foster
Nice, I’ll continue when I awake
He does Čech Cohomology very soon, right?
Also
When people refer to sheaf cohomology are they usually referring to čech cohomology or is it an umbrella term that encompasses other cohomology theories for sheaves?
if you have a "good cover" cech cohomology computes the sheaf cohomology
i.e. derived functor of global sections
otherwise, you can still use it, but you get instead a spectral sequence converging to the derived cohomology
it's a nice straightforward generalization of ordinary partitions of unity, yeah. this is imo the best way to get a grip on what cech cohomology is trying to do, sheaf cohomology is a theory for gluing local things together into global things and partitions of unity are a really good jumping off point here for the obvious reason. Warner uses sheaf cohomology with fine sheaves in ch. 5 of his book on Foundations of Differentiable Manifolds and Lie Groups to prove the equivalence of a bunch of different cohomology theories on manifolds.
cech cohomology isn't a derived functor construction and doesn't always agree with the derived functor cohomology theory. derived functors are pretty cool but there are lots of interesting theories that aren't a priori defined under that umbrella and they may disagree or it may take a lot of work to prove that they agree with it, partially because the derived functor pov on sheaf cohomology is totally computationally intractable, although from a theoretical pov it's just interesting to see that it has formal similarities with ext and tor.
i think different people will use different language. i use it as an all encompassing term. i've talked to many people who believe that the derived functor cohomology theory is the "right" cohomology theory and that's what they mean by sheaf cohomology. personally i think we should just use the phrase to refer to any cohomology theory for sheaves.
the first cohomology group, in a word, measures "obstructions to gluing things together". the more flexible and malleable your objects are - note the vocabulary soft, fine, flabby - the easier it is to glue things together, the less likely you'll have trouble gluing them together, i.e. run into an obstruction. Partitions of unity are a powerful tool for gluing things together, so you should expect that, for example, the sheaf of C^\infty functions has vanishing higher cohomology, because intuitively we understand that smooth functions play nice with partitions of unity - if you have smooth functions defined locally you can glue them together into a partition of unity argument, and the result is again smooth. But when the functions are very rigid, like the analytic functions, you can't do this. A family of analytic functions defined on an open cover can't be combined into a global analytic function by a partition of unity argument in general, the result won't be itself analytic. So you do run into obstructions, which is why we understand that H^1 of the sheaf of holomorphic or meromorphic functions may not be zero.
sorry for the spam, i like sheaf cohomology a lot and was catching up on the last hour of conversation
Np, these were in fact quite insightful !
Also
About Leray Coverings
We have seen that a Leray Covering for a given sheaf is nice for computational purposes.
Is there some result which guarantees us existence of Leray coverings for a given sheaf satisfying some nice properties?
We have seen so far that the sheaf of locally constant functions from a topological space to Z has a Leray covering, for instance.
If I equip $\mathbb{R}$ with the topology whose subbasis are $(a,\infty)$ for $a\in\mathbb{R}$, how do I find the closure of ${1}$? Thanks!
emphatic_wax
How would you find the closure of a set in an arbitrary topological space
take the intersection of all the closed sets that contain the set of interest
There you go
the problem is I don't know how the topology looks like. if I look at the basis, they are also open rays going to positive infinity right?
Are the open sets also open rays going to positive infinity?

I assume I'm wrong lol
Nah, you are correct
np
so the closure is (-\infty,1]?
thank you!
So i figured this is kind of a trivial proof by just expanding it out
but I was just wondering where would x1 x2 and x3 come into play exactly?
V is any vector field basically, and Ui are the canonical frame fields I believe my professor called them? Basically like U1 is the field that assigns vector <1, 0, 0> to every point, U2 would assign <0, 1, 0> to every point, U3 assigns <0, 0, 1> to every point, so the basis vectors essentially, in this case I used R^3 but it's applicable to any dimension
oh i just wanted to know
how x1, x2 and x3 as brought up in the question r incoporated into the proof
well my interpretion of the hint is it means smth like this
where u then multiply the v's by the vector, for context vi is what the text has been using for the positions inside a vector
ohhh
idk how that completely glossed over my head
Isn't that the guy from mathematical mathematics memes?
how do u apply a vector field to a natural coordinate function (Xi(P) = Pi)
cuz usually solving V[f] involves taking partial derivatives of f, but that doesn't seem right for the natural coordinate functions..
why doesn't it seem right?
surely you just need to replace f by a coordinate function
what would u take the derivative with respect to?
how do you define V(f) for a vector field V and a function f?
what's the definition you're working with
one sec
they use this for individual vectors and then extend it with the pointwise principle to vector fields:
and you want to figure out what v_p(f) is when f is one of the coordinate functions?
yah
it's for this question
so just take the definition you have and replace f by one of the coordinate functions
the result will be the corresponding coefficient of the vector (field) v
okie
(you should prove that)
In singular homology with coefficients, Hatcher takes the chains to be formal linear combinations of simplices with coefficients from an abelian group. Is there a name for such a structure? Module over abelian group would make sense but I can't find anything about that 
Or is this something familiar like just taking tensor product with that abelian group
Doesn't seem like a G-set because we are allowing adding the set elements too
Here's what I have tried:
If I want to prove that composition of smooth maps is smooth on general manifolds, is it okay to use the result that composition of smooth maps on open sets of R^n are smooth?
This is for a graduate core topology-geometry class
yes
if you lose points then complain about the grader who's expecting you to reprove things everyone learns as an undergrad
I don't know if this stuff is covered in a multivariable calc course because I never learned it
Hi everyone, Can someone verify if i'm on the right track?
The question goes, can a projective transformation P^2(V) -> P^2(V)
have three fixed pointswithout being the identity ?How many can it have?
My answer follows this lines:
A priori, it can have infinite number of fixed points, as we could have a projective line in the plane be fixed by the projective transformation
But lets consider instead 3 non colliniear points. the perspective plane is isomorphic to ℝ^2 U ℝ U {infinity}. A plane is determined by 3 non collinear points, the line by 2 points, so the plane can't have more than 2 fixed points (otherwise it would be the identity), the line can only have one..(and i'm not sure how the point at infinity changes anything) so it can have at most 3 fixed points, given that they're all independant...but i feel i'm talking bollocks?
I have the done the entire proof could someone just check for correctness lol
is correct
Hausdorff
Kinda stuck here, any hints?
Also concerned because I do not seem to be using unique liftings, etc.
A path homotopy fixes the end points of those paths
Which paths, f and g?
Whichever paths it is between
Like the definition of a path homotopy is that the end points should be fixed throughout
Cool ye
But how are you defining f tilde and g tilde
Just any liftings of f and g?
Let's take any liftings because the degree of f is independent of the lifting?
Is that okay?
Well you also want those liftings to be path homotopic
So there is some dependence
ie even if you have homotopic paths in S¹, if you just choose any lifts for the 2, they may not remain path homotopic
hint is ||relate them through the lifting of F' tilde||
Wait a moment
Do we need f and g to be PATH homotopic?
Can't they just be homotopic?
homotopy of 2 maps from S¹ to S¹ can be turned into a statement of path homotopy between slightly modified maps
Do you mean path homotopy between f' and g' here?
For a path, you want a map from I to S^1
That's the only obvious one available to you
Hausdorff
Rotate? Umm
Rotation of the circle is a homeomorphism which is homotopic to the identity, you can just postcompose g' with one such rotation
Okay, so then let's say the new map is g'' = g' (composed) R, where R is the required rotation
f' and g'' are path-homotopic then
You will have to show that postcomposing with rotation doesn't change degree, which is pretty easy
Yes
What is the moral of the story though
How does getting f' and g'' path homotopic solve our problem
Lift the path homotopy between them
It lifts to a path homotopy between two paths, and define those 2 paths to be f' tilde and g" tilde, and try to prove that these 2 paths are exactly lifts of f' and g"
And those 2 paths must have the same end points
Okay sounds interesting. Let me try some more. Thanks for the hints!
For any polytope, we should have $L_p(t)>0$ right?
beeswax
@empty grove Could you explain some more, maybe a bit slowly?
3 hours and I didn't get nowhere 😦
F' as defined by F'(s,t) = F(p(s), t) is already a homotopy between f' and g' I think, there is no need for the extra step?
F'(s,0) = F(p(s), 0) = f circ p (s)
F'(s,1) = F(p(s), 1) = g circ p (s)
If F' to fix endpoints, i.e. if F' to be a path homotopy:
F'(0,0) = F'(0,1) and F'(1,0) = F'(1,1), right?
Yeah it's a homotopy between them but I don't see how you can directly infer that the end points of the lifts are the same
So after adjusting g' to be path homotopic to f' via a rotation you get some better homotopy G
Which is a path homotopy
Okay so for the endpoints of the lifts to be the same, i.e. for tilde F' to be a path homotopy between the lifts, we need f' and g' to be PATH homotopic instead of just homotopic?
Hmm actually you might not need path homotopy yeah
Wait no idk
Yeah homotopy between them won't necessarily fix end points
and for that you propose chucking the g we have and using g_0 which is g circ R
Hausdorff
You should check this before turning these functions from S¹ to functions from I
Yes
How can they be path homotopic, f and g are functions from S^1, not I
they are not paths only lol
Ah lol basepoint preserving homotopy
ie see where f sends 1 (say x), call that the basepoint. g(1) = x as well, and they're homotopic, so you want to prove that there is a homotopy that also preserves this basepoint throughout
ie F(1,t) = x for all t
Wait which book are you doing this in
Hatcher right?
Okay then we have $f(p(0)) = g_0(p(0)) = g(R(p(0)))$ and $f(p(1)) = g_0(p(1)) = g(R(p(1)))$. Since $p(0) = p(1)$, all of this is really just choosing $R$ (rotation) such that $f(\mathbf 1) = g(R(\mathbf 1))$. Right?
Hausdorff
Munkres LOL
I've been reading Hatcher but not a lot at the moment
That's exactly what I proved here right
yeah f and g lol
Replacing g with g_0
Wait not basepoint preserving exactly but they map the basepoint 1 of S¹ to the same point
Got it
So we need to also show that f and g_0 = g circ R are homotopic
which you say is trivial, so I take that
Well if f ~ g and id ~ R
Then compositions are homotopic too
This is what you asked about a couple days ago
Fair enough!
Okay so coming back, now we have f homotopic to g, and WLOG f(1) = g(1)
So now you have a homotopy F between f and g and the assumption that they map 1 to the same point
Yeah
And you want to turn this into a homotopy G such that G(1, t) is constant
As t varies
Hot take: there's too many books called „[useless prefix like general /introduction to / …] Topology“
Someone should just publish a book called „Dopeology“ that sums them all up
And it contains just the two sentences „this page intentionally left blank“ and „topologies are just glorified semilattices“
Hint here is to use ||time dependent rotations||
Why do I want to do that?
Yeah ok better to discuss the rest of the solution first
So suppose you had such a G
After getting f(1) = g(1), I get f' and g' as in this diagram, then the lifts
Then do you see that G' : I x I → S¹ would in fact be a path homotopy
And it would be a path homotopy between f' and g'
Okay wait
this and G(0,t) right
both gotta be constant
My bad, right
What is G'? G'(s,t) = G(p(s), t)?
Yep
So you have to check that it fixes end points, and that it's a homotopy from f' to g'
Checked that G' fixes endpoints
It is continuous for obvious reasons
and now you lift G' to tilde G'?
Yep
and claim that tilde G' is a homotopy between the lifts tilde f' and tilde g'?
But did you check that it is equal to f' at 0 and g' at 1
Hausdorff
Not exactly
this isn't true in general. Take the path q which is constant 1 on S¹. This is homotopic to itself via Q. It has multiple lifts: take q1 as the constant 0 lift, q2 as the constant 1 lift. There is no lift of Q which is a homotopy between q1 and q2
So yeah tilde G' is a lift of G', and path homotopies lift to path homotopies
So G' must be a path homotopy
tilde
The claim is that it is a path homotopy from some lift of f' to some lift of g'
OHHH. Do I need to find which lift
Yep
And once you have this, you'd see that these lifts must have the same endpoints in R
Therefore the degree of f and g must be the same because degree is defined by looking at these endpoints only
Thanks! I will try to complete this!
We are missing one thing
We do need to show that deg g = deg g \circ R
Hopefully that's not too bad
Yeah, so look at a lift of g
NO WAIT I WILL THINK ABOUT IT
oh lol
@pearl holly How's Hatcher going
I've been busy the last 2 weeks so I'm just curious how far ahead of me you are
well I guess it's going kind of decent but I'm still struggling with some stuff here and there
but moldi really do be explaining tho 😌
Oh damn are you reading together?
ye we read some pages and then have meetings 
I'd ask to join but I feel like I'm too far behind lol
since I just finished the first chapter in homology
Just started 2.2 but when I get home today finally I'll do some 2.1 exercises
so the degree stuff?
Yea
You guys are on 2.3 or something I assume
yeah we will start there after we are done with the exercises in 2.2
Then I have some catching up to do 
It looks short tbh
it's like 21 pages without the exercises 
But there's some cool stuff there
why tf am I drinking coffee now
oh yeah this is topology lmao
Topology makes you stressed 
But yeah 2.1 was really fun
I finally understand homology lol
yeah 2.1 was nice but in my opinion 2.2 is nicer
you should be looking forward to that
I guess idk
Probably since you calculate more stuff
there's like nice theorems and examples
so like the Euler characterstic is cool
and the Mayer-Vietoris sequence
Oh, yeah I'm looking forward to that
Well sounds fun
When and where do you guys meet
we meet every Thursday on discord
WHAT?
Irony remember the exercise that wanted you to prove that there's no retraction from the möbius strip to the boundary circle of it? Hatcher explains a way to do it with homology
in 2.2 that is
so that's kind of neat
Everything can be done with homology wtf
Also what time do you guys meet
well it's flexible, we don't have a fixed time
Cool
you're also on some American timezone I assume
nah lmao
Well I'm CEST so maybe that makes it easier
toki mfkin doki h8s me;/
ledog
Ledog
OK well I won't be able to tune in today since I'm gonna be home at midnight my time (unless you guys meet at like 1AM lol)
yeah it's fine, we already had our meeting
Well then there's something to look forward to next week
Projective geometry is usually defined as the the set of equivalence class under the relation x ~ y if x = ky where k is a nonzero scalar. I was wondering if this has been generalized to arbitrary equivalence relation and the set is not a vector space
Arbitrary might be too general haha
Do you have something specific in mind?
Normally for a generalization to make sense tou want to have some theorem or result that holds still
I thought so too. I was thinking of the set of square matrices over a Field where the equivalence relation is A ~ B if A = CBD where C,D are invertible diagonal matrices.
Can someone explain why this is true?
I dont really understand why $\frac{dz}{w}$ and $\frac{zdz}{w}$ are holomorphic one forms on the riemann surface $w^2 = 1 -z^5$
PTLanglands
Found my answer: https://mathoverflow.net/questions/324812/the-construction-of-a-basis-of-holomorphic-differential-1-forms-for-a-given-plan
Does that work in the real case as well?
Like for defining 1-forms on smooth real varieties
I believe so.
Wait but why can't we just take any 1-form of ℂ² (or ℝ²) or an open subbset still surrounding X and take its restriction onto X
is the problem that the restriction may not be holomorphic (resp. smooth)?
Im not sure how exactly to show that the squareroot is needed
I Killed the Most
Honestly im not sure what is meant exactly by showing why sqrt(1+f_x^2+f_y^2) is needed. But I think its asking why do we need that factor for both of the integrals to be equal. The answer to that im not sure.
i mean saying its not an injection will probably use the sizes of the sets anyways
Right?
But I mean
Shouldn't there be a way to show from the bijection?
I mean you can construct a bijection between two uncountable sets using the same inductive argument
ye but those two sets are of different cardinalities
Yes but I am weirded out by not being able to show that with this bijection
In fact it makes me think any infinite set with well ordered should be countable

Which I guess is what I want to convince myself that is not the case
we usually use 'every set can be well ordered' as an axiom
This is confusing, it's well ordered so it does have minimal element
ye
Like I know we can show that there is an uncountable set that has a well order by axiom of choice
But I feel like we can just as easily show that every well ordered set is countable
Unless there's something I'm missing here - which there very well should be
your first sentence denies that though
I know which would imply we should reject the axoim of choice
But this is not feasible
I must be missing something
hurb
Apparently you dont need AC to show you can order an uncouuntable set
Ah okay
It looks like the comments are saying that the reals can't be show without axiom of choice which I guess I just extrapolated
The definition of a well order requires the minimum to be unique tho
Unless I'm misunderstanding what you're saying
There may have been a user banned or someone did an auto-delete
There were like 3 people in the conversation?
what the hell is happening lol?
Oh my browser didn’t update
This is still confusing to me
Like
It's kind of like your using the fact that it's uncountably infinite to show it's uncountably infinite
Yes, but my point is that if we didn't know that, could we not derive that from showing this bijection doesn't work
Doesn't that seem wrong
Like
What does that even mean
But isn't it by definition?
Okay this is a good explanation
That clarifies it a little
It's still a confused mess in my head
Yeah
Okay that's clearer
I would be amazed if that wasn't true
oh shit
here is a cool answer in relation
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1403416/infinite-set-always-has-a-countably-infinite-subset
Can someone help, I am doing something very silly here.
The set up, I have a homogenous space embedded in \mathfrak{u}(n), so its normal bundle is in \mathfrak{u}(n)\times \mathfrak{u}(n)
I have a map E:N \rightarrow \mathfrak{u}(n)
that sends (p,v) to p+v
I want to calculate the jacobian
i have two lemmas, one which gives me a basis for the tangent space, and one which gives me the derivatives of E
so i have the "column" vectors of the Jacobian of E
I want to calculate the kernel of the Jacobian, or really juts the dimension
I know if all the derivatives are linearly independent then it should just be the number of zero vectors
but i just feel sus that our "column" vectors are actually matrices
I assume you would just, "unfold" the matrices. As in if each "column" was a 3x3 matrix, you'd write this as a 9 long vector and the Jacobian would be a 9x9 matrix
@fickle marsh you can attempt to use transfinite induction to do better
do carmo says in proposition 3.7 that every immersion invokes a local embedding
how can this be the case
isn't the plane given in R3 by z=xy kind of like
immersed in the plane z=0
at the point x, y, z = 0
oh, answered my own question.
i was being stricter about def of embedding than the book is
Sorry bout that, I got it in my toplogy class. Obv. It's set theory but I don't know if it's specific set theory that relates specifically to toplogy yet
Ironically most topologists try very hard to never think about these things
I know I don't want to think about it
Hey actually side question: has anyone here heard of knowledge space theory?
This is related to topology as it appears to be a special case of topology
Do you have a reference
In mathematical psychology, a knowledge space is a combinatorial structure describing the possible states of knowledge of a human learner.
To form a knowledge space, one models a domain of knowledge as a set of concepts, and a feasible state of knowledge as a subset of that set containing the concepts known or knowable by some individual. Typica...
This is decent
nonsense
Its not nonsense
Idk if it’s interesting
I also don’t see a reason why it shouldn’t be closed under arbitrary intersection
But I doubt that matters
Well they consider infinite knowledge spaces in the book so it may have to do with that
Well yeah but I more meant conceptually why infinite intersection would not be a knowledge set because it doesn’t run into the same issues you get with top spaces
@empty grove We did too much work yesterday
For the lifting problem
It is much simpler
Sure
@empty grove Same notation as yesterday
Let me know what you think! The "trick" was to define H and hence avoid all trouble. No need to worry about rotations, path homotopies, all that.
Hausdorff
Who is Clark Barwick?
look him up on youtube
Neat!
both 
Is this a result proved in Hatcher or something?
Hausdorff
I've solved it, the proof is very neat! 
Most important theorem in Hatcher ch1 😌 or so Max tells us 
Btw this should be an iff, though the converse is quite a bit harder
Oh! I'll try to prove the converse!
Hausdorff
How would you do this?
I expect a similar result for f(z) = f(-z) implying deg f = even too
Ah, proved it.
How did you do it
Any lifting g has the property that for all x ≤ ½, g(x+½) = g(x) + n/2 for some odd n, and g(1) = g(0+½+½)
Would be my solution 
Definition of degree he's working with is that f defines an f' : I → S¹ by pre composition with the standard quotient, then degree is the difference between end points of a lift of this to R along the usual covering
Wait lmao I saw a MSE question with literally that handwriting yesterday
spotted you in the wild
That probably would work. I think the significance of this specific differential form is the following:
You know how for C, the basic global 1 form is dz, where z is a global chart? And any other 1 form is of the form fdz for some holomorphic function f on C?
Now when you have a smooth algebraic curve, the basic global 1 form is w, and any other 1 form is fw for some holomorphic function f on the curve.
Yes! I've posted the solution there too xD
Cropped this solution and posted hints there hahah
I did something similar.
Hausdorff
Hmmm… but isn't it the case that for general (complex) manifolds, the C-infty (Hol)-Module of 1-forms need not be free? Bevause the cotangent bundle (or whatever the complex equivalent is) need not be trivial.
So I'm a bit confused by the wording „the global 1-form“
*free of rank 1 for 1-dimensional manifolds
OH LOL I just realised that Moldi did the same thing just different notation 🤣🤣
I was wondering why you thought it was a difference worth mentioning 
what is abstract homotopy theory?
study of weak equivalences
weak equivalence are maps which induces isomorfism in homotopy groups?
well originally yes
but the answer is more like
in situations where we have reasonable notions of weak equivalence (less than isomorphism but still strong)
we often want to study the "weak equivalence types" or "homotopy types" of such things
this is i think the original motivation
nowawdays its a little weirder
So this is the exercise that I'm working with: Let X be the quotient space of S² under the identifications x ~ -x for x in the equator S¹. Compute the homology groups H_i(X). Do the same for S³ with antipodal points of the equatorial S² \subset S³ identified. I don't even know where to start on the first one and I can't really visualize X. Because of this I can't really find a nice decomposition for Mayer-Vietoris and I can't find a CW complex to put on it so it feels like I can't compute the homology with the cellular boundary formula, but there's probably something that I'm missing. Any hints?
What if you start with a sphere where the equator has two points and two 1-cells connecting them, and then take a 2-cell above and a 2-cell below?
What does the quotient do to this CW complex?
Oh sorry for not responding, I was being AFK. Well if the equator has two points and I identify them then the 1-skeleton becomes a wedge sum of 2 circles right?
Yeah, but you have to identify all the points along the equator to their antipodes
so it becomes a wedge sum of infinitely many circles? 
no, the two 1-cells become equal to each other and the two 0 cells too right?
yeah okay I see. I think that I can take it on my own now from these hints, thank you both so much! 
Thats another good way to do it
If I have a local homeomorphism X->Y, and Y is Hausdorff, does that imply X is hausdorff also?
if not, what condition is needed to make that true? local compactness?
nvm found the answer on wikipedia
yeah a counter example would be line with two origins being locally homeo to R
Can someone help me figure out where I went wrong here?
Suppose $(\mathscr{A},\pi)$ is an sheaf of abelian groups. Let $a\in \mathscr{A}x$. Then there is a neighborhood $U{a}$ homeomorphic to $\pi(U_{a})$. (by local homeomorphism)
$\mathscr{A}x=\pi^{-1}(x)=\pi^{-1}(\pi(a)) \subseteq \pi^{-1}(\pi(U_a))=U{a}$
so $\mathscr{A}{x}\subseteq U_a$, so $\pi|{\mathscr{A}_x}$ is a homeomorphism $\mathscr{A}_x\to {x=\pi(a)}$
so $\mathscr{A}_x={a}$ ???
alias
$\mathscr{A}_x$ is the stalk at x
What is pi
pi is the local homeomorphism onto X, a topological space. (x\in X). I'm using bredon's definition of sheaf.
Ah, I am not familiar sorry. If you posted the definition maybe, or someone who knows it might come through
A sheaf of abelian groups on a topological space $X$ is a pair $(\mathscr{A},\pi)$ where
- $\mathscr{A}$ is a topological space (usually not hausdorff)
- $\pi:\mathscr{A}\to X$ is a local homeomorphism on $X$
- for all $x\in X$, $\mathscr{A}_{x}=\pi^{-1}(x)$ is an abelian group called the stalk of $A$ at $x$
- group operations /of each stalk/ $\mathscr{A}{x}$ are continuous:
that is, $\alpha\mapsto \alpha^{-1}$ is continuous, and
if $x=\pi(\alpha)=\pi(\beta)$ then $(\alpha,\beta)\mapsto \alpha+{x}\beta$ is continuous.
alias
What the hell is this definition. I was expecting the étale space definition but this kinda just looks like an abelian group bundle
It only looks like it has stalks though
I don’t see what the sections are over an open set
The sections of U is the set of all the maps s:U->A st pi(s(x))=x for all x in U
I know what the sections are in the étale space definition lol
Bruh
I mean what they posted doesn’t mention that
Unless I missed it
Like the sheaf of abelian groups appears to only ever mention what the stalks are
My definition tells you what the sections over U are, what’s the confusion
They don’t need to, this isn’t necessarily the etale space of a sheaf, this is just a purely topological defn of an etale map, then you can use my defn to recover the sheaf if you’d like
An equivalent one to the usual
This is literally the definition of an abelian group object in the category of etale bundles right
This is all cursed
And you can just use the equivalence between etale bundles and sheaves to recover any of the sheaf stuff
I imagine chms point is that any good definition of a sheaf doesn’t require any thinking to recover the sections on an open set
Well, isn’t this definition the motivation behind the term section
Because these sections are literally the sections we talk about in topology
I'm only familiar with sheaves in "Sheaves in Geometry and Logic" but this is the construction Mac Lane derives for the purposes of making things easier to visualise
YES
Ah ok
I’m not doubting it’s equivalent I think this is just an ass backwards way to define a sheaf
It's certainly easier for me to think about
This is pretty much the og defn of a sheaf
Because you're working with actual sections rather than elements of the image of a functor
Yeah but the étale space definition deals with actual sections of a map but at least defines what the sections over an open set are
This definition only includes stalks, if you read this and that’s all you’d had if someone talked about a section of a sheaf over an open set you’d have no clue what they’re talking about
The sections are implicit?
Yes you would, you would just use the fact that you know what section means to understand what a section is
Citation needed
I don’t think that’s true is it
For example I think the understand of the sheaf of maps on a manifold would be the og sheaf
And that generalizes as the one me and chm expect it to
it's true
i mean it's not exactly true because the "OG" definition of a sheaf was just this complicated mess cooked up by leray to assign coefficients to a space locally
and it was like
a bit chaotic
and defined on closed sets rather than open sets
and the definition bounced around rather quickly
I mean why do you think the elements of FU are called "sections" and the image under morphisms behave exactly like restriction of functions
Oh and you can do collation just like cts functions
This logic is not particularly convincing, layman
but it stabilized on the etale space definition before it stabilized under the presheaf-w-gluing-condition definition
layman?
here, check out this history by john gray, i'll see if i can find it
Oatman* autocorrects to layman
Oh lol
I have to finish this book first
this is a super useful paper covering the history of sheaves in a bunch of different places
But I will
Wow Adam’s truly like
Defined all of the classical notation
For stable homotopy
Like@every convention I didn’t know the history of appears in this book lmao
It's made formal by using the equivalence between ShX and EtaleX outlined in Chapter 2 of "Sheaves in Geometry and Logic"
Huh
No
I meant the argument
“We call them sections so the section definition came first” is bad logic
There are lots of things that get renamed
Time to find out hehe
What is this trying to capture?
Serre spectral sequence w local coefficients iirc
AH right
I rarely recall correctly
leray was interested in general algebraic topology here. his work most directly generalizes steenrod, who was interested in finding a theory of local coefficients, presumably for obstruction theory (?)
leray used sheaves mostly to study the cohomology properties of maps
like, if p : E -> B is a bundle, even if you want to take the cohomology of E in a pretty straightforward and ordinary sense, the cohomology properties of the map may depend on assigning coefficients to B locally in a way that depends on the fiber space p^{-1}(b)
Man I need to learn more algebraic topology
looks like the cartan seminar was the one that first formalized the espace etale definition and said that was a sheaf
What I really want to know
both godement and EGA give the presheaf-w-gluing condition definition. Godement uses the correspondence between sheaves and etale spaces constantly in proofs. EGA basically refuses to admit that etale spaces exist as Grothendieck thought that was the wrong definition lol
Is how you organize PDFs so well
That you can pull up a screenshot like that
In 10s
dark arts
and he was RIGHT
actually i just downloaded the book off lojban in the time we were talking
and looked it up in there
btw i think this is historically putting the cart before the horse a bit lol as Leray invented spectral sequences
leray gave the definition for sheaves specifically
then koszul generalized it to like, arbitrary chain complexes in the modern sense
serre was one of the first people to figure out wtf leray was talking about. i think he's like the first person to prove a result with spectral sequences other than leray himself.
(this took several years)
cartan also kind of understood what leray was doing as he led a seminar on his work
or i guess we should say
cartan led a seminar on Leray's work, which serre was a member of, and serre thought "hmm maybe i can use this in homotopy theory"
Is it just me or does this look a lil sus?
Chmonkey
That was from april2020
How the fuck
That's from back when we thought the pandemic would end in a few weeks
Chomology moment
Chmotopy
Cursed post.
I am god
😴
Hello,
In a paper I'm reading, I have the following I don't really understand:
Let T(k) denote the 2-disk bundle over S² with Euler number k; T(2) is just the tangent bundle of S². Let N(k) be the nonorientable 2-disk bundle over RP² with Euler number k; N(1) is the tangent bundle of RP².
By 2-disk bundle, do they mean a fiber bundle whose fibers are D²? It doesn't seem to fit what I can read about the Euler number, because it concerns vector bundles. On the other hand, what is such an Euler number?
There seems to be a unique such 2-disk bundle with prescribed Euler number in each case; maybe one has a paper in mind that speaks about just that and may be helpful to me ?
Thanks you ! 🙂
I would guess that you take the disk bundle associated to the vector bundle with the appropriate Euler number
But then I don't get how T(2)=TS² 😢
(and also wouldn't you need a metric for that?) I guess you embed everything naturally
I will take a look later if I have time maybe someone else can help in the meantime
Sure, thanks!
I remember there being some like change of fibers stuff in Peter Mays characteristic classes that might help, eg, the author might be being very loose with what they are “equating”
I'll give that a read, thanks
Wait it goes in the abstraction of principal bundles, classifying spaces and shit, I don't think it's needed in that case 
?
Maybe I'm not on the right thing: https://www.math.uchicago.edu/~may/CHAR/charclasses.pdf
Yes okay my understanding here is that Peter’s comments about the fiber playing an auxiliary role tell us that we can go back and forth from disk bundles with O(n) to associated vector bundles
Which means you can read that sentence more correctly as
T(2) is the disk bundle of TS^2 and this is well defined and nice
@feral copper
If I understand this correctly, this means that somewhat-magically, viewing it through the O(n)-principal bundle point of view means that we have a “natural” bundle isomorphism from the 2-disk bundle T(2) to TS² ?
Because the fiber doesn't really matter, the group does?
It is more “correspondence” than “isomorphism”
Sure you're right 🙂
Okay so this is the exercise that I'm working with: For a pair $(X, A)$, let $X \cup CA$ be $X$ with a cone on $A$ attached. Show that $X$ is a retract of $X \cup CA$ iff $A$ is contractible in $X$: There is a homotopy $f_t: A \to X$ with $f_0$ the inclusion $A \hookrightarrow X$ and $f_1$ a constant map. I'm honestly stuck on both implications and I don't really know where to start. I know that $ir \cong \text{id}_A$ and I was trying to do something with this but I don't see how I can get a homotopy like $f_t$ from this. Any hints?
Tokidoki ✓
I assume that the cone over A plays a role here somehow, but I don't really know how. All I know about the cone over some space is that it is always contractible
Well, let's start by defining as much of the retract as you can
at least a few parts should be obvious
Let Z=XuCA
you want X->Z->X
Do you know what the first map should be?
@pearl holly
okay well maybe the inclusion?
well maybe the retraction?
can you be at all more specific lmfao
So we are living in point-set land
so to define a map it suffices to break the space into two sets whose union covers Z
Do you see a good way to break up Z?
well by X and CA I guess
I would say that is almost correct, but those two overlap
Remember that Ax{0} is a subset of X here
Okay so like X and AxI?
That is the same answer as the first answer
lmao then I'm not sure
What I am getting at is that we can start with all of X
and then what's left isn't CA
but like
all of CA except the very bottom
does that make sense?
Because the cone attaches to X
ah yeah okay I see
Okay so can you define the retract on X
i.e. we want r: Z->X, can you define the restriction of r to X
the identity map right?
yep
Now basically what's left is to like
"lift" this map to the cone over A
and the only thing we have not used is the homotopy that squishes A to a point
So what we want is a map
AxI->X
But remember for the cone we squish the top copy of A to a point
so we need this map to be constant on the copy copy of A
to get a map CA->X
Does that make sense?
Like do you see why a map CB->Y is the same thing as a map BxI->Y that is constant at the top
yeah I think I see that
if you are not sure this is an important exercise that is not too hard
anyway
do you have a candidate for a map AxI->X
we are doing the implication <= right?
We are proving that A contractible => retraction exists
yeah okay so then I would pick the homotopy AxI -> X that "induces" the homotopy between the inclusion and the constant map
yeah it is right?
Yes
The other thing we need to check is that at the very bottom of AxI it agrees with the overlap in X
Does it?
yeah I guess it does?
There should be no guessing involved everything can be checked here
well I'm not so sure I understand what "agrees with the overlap" means here
hahah then ask!
There no point in me helping u if you dont let me know when im not making sense
Okay so
the subspace X
and the subspace CA
are glued together
along a copy of A
if you define a function on X and a function on CA
in order to make it a function on Z
you need to make sure that the two functions are the same at the glue point
Like let $f_1:X\to B$ and let $f_2:CA\to B$. Then we might try to define a function $f:XuCA\to B$ via $f(x)=f_1(x)$ if $x\in X$ and $f(a)=f_2(a)$ if $a\in CA$. The issue is that I have actually given you two different definitions of $f(a)$ if $a\in X\cap CA=A\times {0}\subset X$.
Mattwell
So you need to check $f_1(a)=f_2(a)$ for all $a\in A\times {0}$.
yeah okay I see
Mattwell
wait sorry lmao but what is f_1 and f_2 here?
$f_1$ is the map we've defined on X
Mattwell
and f_2 is the map we've defined on CA
(in my description above, we are taking B=X)
(but it works for any codomain)
yeah so they agree right?
How do you know
well one is the retraction and the other one is the inclusion
or am I just completely of here?
completely off
Remember at the start of this
we were splitting up XuCA
defining a map X->X
and a map CA->X
and then trying to build a retraction from that
by retraction i mean the second map in X->XuCA->X
Does this general strategy make sense to you?
yeah it does, I just don't remember defining a map X -> X here
.
ah yeah lmao
okay so what is f_1
the identiyty map
what is f_1(a) when a is in A\subset X
well just a
okay correct, now what is f_2
the retraction so they agree
no sorry the inclusion I mean
yeah sorry I'm extremely tired
it was like constant at the top right?
that is one property of it (not particularly interesting since the top of CA is just a point)
Start with the map AxI->X that we defined
do you remember what it was
okay but what was the map itself
it was the homotopy between the inclusion and the constant map
Yes!
Let's call the map h: AxI->X
then CA is just AxI with the top Ax{1} crushed to a point
so we can define h':CA->X
Do you see how? (Hint: first, define h'(a,t) for t<1 then tell me what the very top of the cone does)
okay I guess when t=1 it can be constant
Perfect
now what it the dumbest possible way to define h'(a,t) when t<t
(you know what h(a,t) is)
when t<t?
well just let it be h(a, t)
it's h(a, 0) = a
Okay perfect, now we have a bit of notational difference here
as before i just talked about elements a in A\subset X
but if a is in the original copy of X
do you know what element of CA it is glued to?
well yes but remember the elements of CA are like

