#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 246 of 1
lmao max in advanced mathematics vc just to say homo-toe-pee
but what types of research do undergrads do with topology in general?
lol
homo toe pi
none
hmm ok
i mean to be honest
ill just ask them
you don't know enough
i dont
to actually help a professor
P much ye
!
you can still do reading courses with them and stuff
homo-toe-pee is advanced
and ask them to teach you stuff they are interested in
Profs can find smth an undergrad can help with a lot of the time
and eventually maybe they will give you a problem to think about
And learn in the process
o ok
That's the point of research exposure week at my school
Well maybe not a lot of the time but some of the tirm
cuz i feel like it is necessary for me to compete with other students at my school
reading courses are probably the best thing you can do with a professor
Cou-ho-mo-laa-gee is as well
reading courses seems like fun
this is worringly close to a toxic mentality imo
its like this server
hoe MAW luh gee
good coldi

It's a mentality some schools actively encourage sadly
I think being worried about being "competitive" is bad and will make your relationships with classmates bad
Don't even
Thats a shit mentality and it'll only bring you down
what is the toxic part? competing? Im not only doing it because of competition, I also want the experience
Max pronouncing homotopy:
me: 
you should worry about self enrichment
and improving yourself as much as you can
but it should never be about being "better"
like
ive always tried to be competitive with learning with friends
competitive math majors are the types who don't study together or who won't work on problem sets together or who don't help struggling classmates
ive seen that sometimes
ive seen many
i ask for help often
yeah thats good
sometimes some classmates dont want to join a group chat
those people are lame
and esp corona there was little participation
No but too much emphasis on the competition part can make you either a shit person or very anxious and self hateful since you'll never be good enough
i think you should work hard and learn a lot and enjoy math as a social activity to do with others
that is the best mentality imo
i cant get rid of selfhateful sadly it manifest into regret, but i still enjoy learning math so theres that
Math is my escapism vibes ngl
same
okay this is not good
Holy shit another Osu enjoyer
You might want to talk to someone if mathematics is seriously harming your self esteem or confidence
im not sure how detrimental it is, because i know the past is the past and there is nothing i can do about it, but i still feel regretful. its one of those things that i think will pass with time
im just rly anxious about going to school again
because if i dont do my classes to near perfection imma feel rel shit
I think if these things are left to themselves they can really badly manifest in burnout or anxiety issues
yeah
that is
a very unhealthy mentality
this was me before and now I don't play osu
OK so to be real I have self hate issues too but thankfully math helps me with that
You have to try and seek help since you'll see that it really makes a difference
Yeah I've done a good amount of therapy in my life, and as I am entering grad school I think I will start up again
Good mental health is an incredibly pro-active goal
And it pays huge dividends to care
Imagine not playing Osu
I haven't played in 3 weeks I can already feel the adrenaline pumping through my arteries
ig this is very off topic anyways, but therapy still stigmatized in my family and its not that i think it wont help, its just that i dont feel like spending the time and hopefully when i get older i just forget these feels like how i forget my past feelings most my life
The thing is that
They very likely won't go away
this channel is allowed to be off topic as the moderators and the top/geo people have a stalemate
Anyway
I think stigmatizing therapy is like
very very bad
its a great thing
and like
Stigmatising mental health in general is shit
obviously you can't change how your family feels
but you should really try to internalize it as a legitimate medical practice similar to any other kind of doctor
because it is
And I promise promise promise promise
that like
1 hr of therapy a week
will save you hours and hours of wasted time
and improve your efficiency
and happiness
and just overall have huge returns
(obviouslt therapy can be expensive and hard to come by so i don't want to imply that not doing it is bad, but not doing it for those reasons is bad)
Waiting until you are older to be mentally healthy is, in my opinion, a very sad way to live life
YOLO
And I'd say unrealistic
Since depression and stuff like that won't just go away because you grew old enough to wish them away
They require a lot of work to eliminate

your brain doesn't have an immune system
so unlike a flu or something
mental illness doesn't just go away over time
in some ways, the biggest part of therapy is training you how to sort of "create" an immune system of strategies and thought pattern recognition
ik it seems meme like but i truly dont care about how i feel when im working out or osu or learning/doing math or watching anime. Its only in times where im not doing those things when i have a feeling that i should be doing one of those.
it seems unhealthy though because when im watching movie with family or hanging out with friends i want to do that stuff in back of my mind regardless if im having fun
Is it like an urge that you're being unproductive
maybe, but it puts my mind to rest when im doing that stuff
i still have this big thing about productivity though, i kinda have random urges to want to make something
Well like feeling the urge to do stuff sometimes isn't bad
If it's like constantly in the back of your mind when you're doing anything else then I'd say it's bad
Especially if you start blaming yourself for being lazy
tbh if i go to therapy i predict the conversation will end up on my fear of becoming mentally diseased or homeless so thats why i dont wanna go, those are like my biggest fears in life
Well, therapy isn't about bashing you over the head with your biggest fears
i think my problems root from that though
nothing i can do about them though
i mean i have thought about it for a long time and mental disease is unavoidable so there is nothing i can do
and homelessness just makes me want to work
I mean
there's normally a pretty big gap
between working super hard
and not being homeless
yea i know personally
unless you are already at risk for homelessness
but homelessness really sucks and my safety nets are only sorta there
and if i have to go to a safety net it is by definition a failure on my goals
I think you are trying to convince yourself that there is nothing therapy could help you with
and I can tell you that seeing these thought patterns
I disagree
i think it would help me, but i dont know how permanent
i dont wanna do recurring visits either
i feel like the last straw is when i see that im developing mental health issues
eventually you might be fine without them
You are currently developing mental health issues
no offense
It's 1h a week usually so you'll visit your therapist like a bunch of times
is this topology discussion 
ill repeat
#mental-health
ill go if my school offers free sessions
this channel is free from moderator oversight
and we can do what we want
So has always been the way of #point-set-topology
You should go to therapy BEFORE your problems exacerbate
An ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure
yea i am just messing idc haha but i will interrupt with a topology question: what are filters
What country are you in if you're comfortable saying
Since I'm curious if the fact that your family discourages therapy is cultural
idk of a single country where that isnt a thing
maybe some euro countries?
americans certainly hate therapy
in general
family from uganda+caribbean but its irrelevent anyways
im in US
and second gen
Well I'm in Euro and everybody has always told me yo go to therapy here so I dunno lol
ill consider its severity
You have literally nothing to lose by going
Lost to who lmao
myself xd
This isn't a competition with the world
It's like saying I've failed in life when you break a bone
lol no
i failed in life if i get soft-stuck in homelessness or in trying to reach a big goal, or if i develop a debilitating mental illness
debilitating mental illness might be hereditary though
i have a history of potentially trash mental health
i think you just have to think straight and be aware man if you go to a professional things will only get better
you can fight it man
i got scarlet fever twice each lasting about 2-3 days, and i know what psychosis feels like. also finals week i usually have these thoughts that are incoherent right before i fall asleep, but thats rly it
psychosis sucks big time and if i notice any episodes when im not sick im probably gonna go to doctor+therapist or something, so thats my last straw
i hope lol, everyone in my family over 70 has dementia
some as young as 40
Dementia isn't a mental illness in the usual sense I'd say
these medical things can be improven by lifestyle and diet and so son
on*
nothing is out of reach
you can do it
most of my family is healthy though
and im p fit
thats p good
take care of like the food u put in and stuff
what u do
like what else?
go to a professional
things will just get better
dont stress too much from exams man
i dont conciously stress
Depression and similar
Dementia is literally your brain degrading
While those others are either caused by chemical imbalances or they're of psychological origin
yea the point is
shits chemical and medical
u can fix it
aslong as you are actually aware
and willing to improve man things will get better
inshaallah ill just gameify my mental health and if i lose ill go to doctor, im stubborn when it comes to seeking help with these types of things
hopefully i dont get the usual suspects of depression or anxiety disorders
why
why do u say words like lose and "just"
just be aware that going to a professional will literally make you better
its good u know ur stubborn but do something about it to improve
well im not deep in the shits of mental health yet so being better isnt a big priority
and i dont want to be obsessed with improving my mental health/don't want to think about it too much since i mostly have no control over where it goes unless i am introspective.
):
And it's not a guarantee that you'll feel it declining
It's always better to take preventative measures
I'll say it again, an ounce of prevention is worth a pound of cure
you are completely right
i can't really argue with what you are saying either
This is the kind of stuff you could talk to a therapist about too
does anyone know how to integrate with a manifold as bounds
like
$\int_M w$
i mean int
Muffin Man
i feel like the goal of going is achieved once my two biggest fears go away, but they are likely to stay around until i die. i also cope with not going because millions of people for centuries didnt have mental health and everyone dies with mental issues. all in all i probably wont go unless the situation of the symptoms of disease become apparent. im also aware that i might not be aware of this decline, but i hope others around me will atleast tell me. so yes i am stubborn
how to compute this <@&286206848099549185>
stokes bruh
partition of unity subordinate countably many charts, pull back nth partition function * w along each chart, integrate as usual in R^n, sum.
stokes will only work if either M or omega is d of something
(in other words, you don't)
ye xd
maybe you're lucky and can parametrize M with one chart
umm
honestly probably a lot easier to just split your manifold into some closed pieces which are each diffeo to a subset of R^n and so that any two pieces only intersect on their boundaries
i don't think you really need to do the nasty partition of unity thing even though that's the definition
then pull back on an open neighborhood of the closed piece, but then integrate only on the closed piece.
so if M were a sphere, I would take like the bottom hemisphere and the top hemisphere (both closed). since they share only an equator, this bit won't matter if we're integrating a 2-form.
i guess the point is: there are lots of ways
i'm assuming you can always "cut up" a compact manifold along (n-1)-manifolds and get something which is a subset of R^n
maybe you just triangulate first, cut out all the simplices, and reassemble them along a spanning tree or something
but sometimes this is going to be annoying
Where can I find a full and detailed proof of Hopf Fibration, please ?
Wikipedia has a section on how it's constructed
In the mathematical field of differential topology, the Hopf fibration (also known as the Hopf bundle or Hopf map) describes a 3-sphere (a hypersphere in four-dimensional space) in terms of circles and an ordinary sphere. Discovered by Heinz Hopf in 1931, it is an influential early example of a fiber bundle. Technically, Hopf found a many-to-one...
Also don't curse me for using Wikipedia OK
wikipedia is based
are there vector spaces or modules in algebraic topology?
I thought alg. top. dealt with groups and groupiods.
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In knot theory, the generalized Alexander invariant is an ideal in the module $\mathbb{Z}[t,t^{-1}]$
cgodfrey
Is there a name for the two opposing point the Villarceau circle intersect at? https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Villarceau_circles
In geometry, Villarceau circles () are a pair of circles produced by cutting a torus obliquely through the center at a special angle. Given an arbitrary point on a torus, four circles can be drawn through it. One is in a plane parallel to the equatorial plane of the torus and another perpendicular to that plane (these are analogous to lines of l...
algebraic topology assigns a variety of algebraic gadgets in order to understand them better. The fundamental group and higher homotopy groups are groups (or groupoids if you modify the definition slightly) the homology of a space is a graded module, the cohomology of a space is a graded ring. rational homotopy theory assigns them vector spaces over the rational numbers. and so on.
sure, one answer to what homotopy theory is about is studying (nice) topological spaces up to weak homotopy equivalence. One way to formalize this is that you associate to each (nice) topological space its "fundamental infinity groupoid," and then one proves that two (nice) topological spaces are weakly homotopy equivalent if and only if their fundamental infinite groupoids are isomorphic in the appropriate sense
while infinity groupoids as usually defined are a very algebraic structure, they can be pretty unwieldy. This is why people often consider weaker invariants, like various cohomology theories that capture less about a space but are more computable.
if i got a surface with one of the principal curvatures k1 constant everywhere
and i choose a principal frame e1 e2 so e1 points in the direction of k1's curvature
how tf can i "pull back" to an "e1-curve" so that the e1 curve is a geodesic?
i.e. the principal frame does not twist tangentially as i walk along e1
is this literally just like
warping the surface i'm on
Antipodal maybe?
what book is this
Hatcher
Looking back at this, I don't think I get it. Like I know that an element $\sigma: \Delta^n \to X$ in $C_n$ (which is defined to be the free abelian group with basis th set of singular n-simplicies in $X$ in my book) has a path connected image so it must lie in one of the $C_n(X_\alpha)$. But what I don't get is that $C_n$ equals the direct sum of $C_n(X_\alpha)$. Doesn't the direct sum $C_n(X_\alpha)$ contain tuples and not just elements? If that is the case, then right hand side contains tuples while the left hand side doesn't so there can't be an equality, right?
Tokidoki ✓
Each simplex lies in a single component, so a sum of simplices is a sum of simplices that each lie in a single component
So this says that H_n(X) is a sum of H_n(X_alpha)
Do you follow so far?
wait this is what we are trying to prove, right?
Direct sum is stronger than sum

I mean just sum
well my question really boils down to how a group can be equal to a direct sum of its subgroups because the direct sum of stuff is just a "cartesian product" right?

They agree for abelian groups, and finite sums and products
For infinite they don't agree
We say that A is a direct sum of subgroups B and C if every element of A can be written as b+c, b in B, c in C, uniquely
Kinda like a basis for a vector space, once you fix a basis, a vector space is a direct sum of the subspaces generated by each basis element
More generally if you have a collection B_i of subgroups of A then A is a direct sum of the B_i iff you can write every element of A as ∑ᵢ bᵢ, each bᵢ in B_i, and only finitely many of them non zero
oh lmao. I was under the impression that $A \oplus B$ is a cartesian product of $A$ and $B$. So like $(a, b) \in A \oplus B$
Tokidoki ✓
It is, they are isomorphic
For finitely many things
And if your groups are abelian
For non abelian I don't think direct sum is a thing, there you do free products
(direct sum is coproduct in Ab)
So if you have every element written uniquely as b+c, then you can identify it with (b,c)
That is the isomorphism
With what you called the Cartesian product
But the Cartesian product is the word for set products only I think
There are many group structures you can put on a Cartesian product of 2 groups
The one that makes it into the product group is the direct product
Right okay. So every element of A direct sum B is just a element of the form a+b?
ohhh okay I see lmao
yeah okay then I get it lmao. Thank you so much! I really needed this explanation. I was reading wikipedia about this and I thought that it was just a normal cartesian product lmao 
Direct sum is also called a weak direct product (iirc), it just means that only finitely many entries of any element are nonzero
Kind of like the product topology
Right so you could say that the direct sum is a product topology and that the direct product is the box topology?
Just to make an analogy
Nothing formal lmao
Yea p much
Also technically the homology of the path components aren't subgroups
Since the range of the simplices is different
Though there is a canonical inclusion ofc (induced by the inclusion of the path component)
yeah that's right. Because a element in C_n(X) goes from Delta^n to X and not from Delta^n to the path component. So therefore we have to restrict the range, right?
And restricting the range is kind of doing the same as just taking the canonical inclusion?
oops
The other way around
You take the simplex with restricted range
Then that composed with the inclusion is a simplex in X
So that's the inclusion
Np
basic question here: I can't see why in the topological space (R, O), where the sets in the topology are either the empty set or contain 0, satisfies closure of singleton {0} is the whole space R (i.e. why singleton 0 is dense in this space).
Recall the closure can be defined as the smallest (w.r.t. inclusion) closed set containing (in this case {0}). A closed set is defined as the complement of a set in O, so the only closed sets are R, the empty set or the complement of a set containing 0, that is, the only closed set containing 0 is R
So in particular that is the smallest closed set containing 0
You can also think about it like this: can you show that every point in R-{0} is a limit point of {0}? (By the definition of a limit point)
Are all closed sets always the complement of the open sets in the topology?
ye
thanks for both explanations xD
because if C is closed then X/C is open and X/C is in the topology homie
say it adrian
clarification: in topology, "openness" is a local property w.r.t to a chosen topology? so the open sets are precisely those in the topology?
lol
open sets are elements of the topology ye
so one set may be open in one topology but not in another one
perfect, now it starts making sense xD
where are u learning frfom?
im not 😦 reading an appendix in order to learn measure theory
it's cohn's "measure theory"
great book, but im trying the approach of proving just the results I need later on instead of studying topology separately.
why do you want to learn measure theory
i liked analysis this year and im taking measure theory 1 month from now.
when are you taking topology?
it depends, it's not mandatory at my uni. I might take it next year (at another uni) or just self-study xD
I see it appears in measure theory and functional analysis, both of which im taking this year, so I guess self-study this month the very basics?
when did you take topology?
3rd semester
I think its odd to take those kinda advanced analysis classes without doing any point set topology before
maybe less odd given it's "applied maths" and not "maths/pure maths"?
i have structured my courses differently, since I am considering pure over applied, in general.
from the little probability theory we covered, cant say I found it very interesting. so hmm maybe geometric measure theory?
In particular stuff like functional analysis you will want to talk about eg weak topology etc, this will require a topology background
any rough idea how much to cover from Munkres (or other sources) to properly learn funct anal and measure theory?
or should I simply stick to trying to prove everything in the appendix from the measure theory book and if unable, work through corresponding chapter(s) from Munkres
to be fair my functional analysis didn't really use topology (especially weak ones were never covered)
But yeah in rudin you can see theres a lot of that
I don't think there is much topology that you need in an intro measure theory class, spaces will generally have a norm
But I guess in terms of munkres the good stuff to know is all the point set chapters except maybe the last few (metrization, etc. Tychonoff theorem is sometimes used but I feel like it's not that often. I can't remember the chapters off the top of my head)
question about proof:
when computing the set of limit points, is it usually enough to show only one inclusion instead of both? (for instance, here the direct and inverse inclusions are very similar)
or moreover, can you sometimes work with equivalence?
Usually you'll already have one inclusion. Like here you wanna shoe your entire space is the closure of {0}, so obviously {0}' is contained in R, so you just gotta show the other inclusion
I can't really say generally
It depends
I see. I was thinking it might usually be the case that both inclusions are of the same nature/idea, but it seems not. Thanks!
Tbh I don't get either this or the proof after it
Actually this one isn't even that bad
Mmm thanks
But the next one fucks with my head a bit more
What is it?
1st iso. Theorem
Ah
Those that I can't remember lol
I'll read those two again
Ah OK now it makes sense

Can't believe I still don't know those two off the top of my head ffs
Wait
There are three

Brain dumb
Why we use that dotted line ,can someone please tell me?
It stands for "exists"
So basically "given those morphisms in the diagram, there exist a unique tilde phi such that the diagram commutes"
so does it stand for there exists a unique?
Usually up to context
Often used in universal property statements where it would be unique but sometimes for existence of lifts etc
yeah listen to those guys instead lmao, they are more cat brained than me
Channels moved around 
i think this is accurate
at a certain point you become too into cats
and you face a sharp decline
the hype cycle
because people think you either
(1) program
(2) follow urs on twitter
Why soo?
Why are you scribbling on discord
but if you go all the way then youre actually a legit expert
DiligentClerk 
like mniip being one of the 10 people on earth actually paid to write haskell
asserting dominance
how do I find shit in the appendix lmao
your mere existence is something for me to scribble over
i can simply erase you all
I'm looking for §2.A but there's no §2.A here wtf

Does not seem accurate though
At some point it dips into the negatives
When you do shit like
When teaching induction to HSers
or regurgitating monad as endofunctor etc.
well it's usually programmers tryna seem cool
to most haskell people it's just an obstacle between them and IO
not much lol
I know that List and maybe are monads
But I heard it's used to abstract away some IO stuff

It's useful because it lets you have pure functions working with impure ones
Lol channels back where they were

Will look it up 
I'm trying to google while doing this, but the main thing is the type signature of bind
Don't know what bind is
uhh

lmao I am at "maybe I should read Riehl" right now
Where's the "I shit on category theory because that sounds cool" stage
Or maybe like a little bit over the "wtf do the arrows mean"
Did I miss the part where I can shit on prolog and sing the praises of haskell
Toki you are well past really liking AT
but I still don't know a lot of cat theory that's the thing
yeah I read category theory for programmers, i'm basically a CT guru
Good time to fall
Category theory is just an endofunctor between programming languages and math
what's the category
yeah it does seem difficult lmao
Like everything needed is there, but needs extra familiarity
ah yeah I see
Preferably
I might read chapter 2 tho about the van Kampen but with cat theory language
oh ye
If I manage to understand that lmao
Ye I just read that today lmao
He does it slightly differently from dieck
More generality
Hatcher only does the group version, Dieck only does it for cover with 2 open sets
May does it for groupoids and groups with an infinite cover
With every finite intersection path connected
yeah I might check it out because there's subsections that talk about cat theory in that chapter so I might learn something there too
So there's the groupoid version of van Kampen there too?
Yeah
Group version is an "easy" consequence of the groupoid version
Depending on how familiar you are with manipulating colimits
I see I see 
But May definitely seems better than Dieck lmao
Dieck is fun if you already know both AT and CT

Not fun when learning for the first time
You said may hard
If you don't know cat
I know
Some
(maybe a should read a bit more)

I know
What a functor is
Limits and colimits?
No 
Probably difficult then 
I'll have to read then
Coldilocks unironically recommending May
That is very rude rice, you shouldn't look down on other's preferences
😌
Lol it was recommended to me by others
Yesterday
Yikes.
So it was recommended by one of this channel's resident cranks?
Yes you were shilling here yesterday and toki accidentally said he's interested (I know he isn't he's Hatcher kin)

And he accidentally wrote yes instead of no
Potentially trustworthy source of information for a category brain
I don't need friends, they disappoint me

I am the queen of the universe.

Is this from some reality show 
I read so much, why can't I just fully understand AT? I just finished my 5th read-through of harry potter last week 
So Hatcher states that a chain map $f_#$ induces a homomorphism $f_: H_n(X) \to H_n(Y)$ between two homology groups since it $f_#$ maps cycles to cycles and boundaries to boundaries. But how is it actually defined? Like $f_(b* im(\partial_{n+1})) = f_#(b) * f_#(im(\partial_{n+1}))$?
Tokidoki ✓
yes
$f#(b) * f#(im(\partial{n+1}))$ is an element of $H_n(Y)$ because $f#$ maps cycles to cycles and boundaries to boundaries
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yooo lmao that's kind of cool
but tbh I don't like the font. I would prefer just a standard one
and the theorems etc. don't look that nice in my opinion too
maybe this is the standard font
idk
I dunno if it's distributive tho (also it annoys me immensely that he doesn't explain how it works)
I'll look online gimme a sec since I'm literally on the same page as you
yooo same page gang 😎
But what I mean is that it's defined that way
I just define it that way because then it works
Like the chain map induces exactly that map
yeah okay so if I denote a coset by [g] then f_* = [f_# g]
which is what I wrote but with better notation I think
wait why is it a homomorphism?
wait the chain map is a homomorphism by definition, right?
no he doesn't 
Homotopy is easier wah
But I'm thinking about the part where he says "then extending f_# linearly via..."
Like is that the definition of f_#?
Because then it is automatically a homomorphism
at page 111 at the very top
Maps on the homologues are automatically homomorphisms yeah 
Nobody
Suppose X is a regular convergence space with two points x,y such that u(x) converges to y, where u(x) is the principal ultrafilter generated by x. Is it true that u(y) converges to x?
Hmm... the intersection of u(x) and u(y) also converges to y. And since u(y) contains this intersection, it also converges to y.
I guess I did not need regularity.
homology groups are abelian so the standard notation for the group law is an addition rather than a multiplication
a chain map should be a homomorphism as part of its definition, definitely. if you like, it's a homomorphism of graded Abelian groups (of degree 0) commuting with the boundary operator
i'd never talk about a map between complexes that wasn't additiive lol
yeah okay I see. Thank you so much!
doesn't „map“ always implicitly mean „arrow in whatever is the obvious category“? 😉
dumbest question. Barely starting with projective geometry, F has not been defined, so, uh, what is it?
probably a field. can you give more context?
like, he just defines homogeneous coordinates and boom, F outta nowhere
that's the pont, F is never defined before. We are given V a vector space, P(V) the projective space, then homogenous coordinates, we define U0....but never has F been talked about
what book?
it's literally page 6, and pages 1 to 4 are historical introduction xD
it's great for morale to stumble so close to the beginning xD
page 5
ah jesus fucking christ
thanks and sorry, i shouldn't do math with vaccine fever maybe
All my other curses use K, maybe that trip me over. I'll go do some penitance helping people in pre university or something like that
vaccine fever 
:p not terrible bad, but not fun, thankfully is been passing quite fast, came this morning and it's already fading away
My first course on Alg Geo used k for a field and I hated using a lowercase letter for it
it makes me feel dirty, but in a good kind of way
i've often seen k for a field and K for an algebraic closure of k tbf
I just hate using a lowercase letter for an algebraic structure as a whole, not just an element of one
lie algebras in shambles
imagine trying to justify your notational choices by appeal to language and historical origin rather than just asserting that whatever notation you learned first is correct
for the record Hartshorne uses k.
this is the same with naming conventions. I know a guy who learned algebra out of Gallian as an undergrad and spent like the first two months of undergrad insisting that rings shouldn't have units
The correct notation for a field is $\mathbb{F}_p$
MaxJ #MiuArmy
Wtf rings with units are so nice
But rings without unit are somehow not uncommon
This is a weirdness of mathematics that makes me sad
yet another reason algebra is the superior field
I like my rings commutative, my ideals maximal, and my elements invertible
I don't understand how defining sigma just on those line segments extends it continuously on the whole simplex
the dot above the 2 simplex means boundary btw
and sigma is defined with barycentric coordinates
like what happens inside the shape abdce_1
oh wait
The union of those line segments is the whole simplex
those lines are parametrised by t
As t varies
yea I realised now

do these lines never meet?
wait
why do we need 2 lines actually
why isn't one parametrised line enough
oh wait
But they are parametrizating them using the endpoints
Ye
they'll only meet on e_1
alright gotcha
why is it easy to see that it's continuous though, you can't use the gluing lemma here
You can say that the restriction to the segment connecting e_0 and e_2 is continuous
Then this is projection followed by that restriction
Projection be continuous
what's the projection
Projection of the plane on e_0 e_2
Orthogonally
So all those line segments map to their left end point


btw you can apply this construction for any 3 paths where the endpoints agree right?
No you use the fact that the third thing is f*g here
Because otherwise you won't have the map constant on those t-parameterized lines
(lmao did a double take when i read f*g)

lmao
Ye
ye my b
I wanna say here that the first fact is true since the 2-simplex is homeomorphic to the 2-disk (And there's a homeomorphism that preserves the boundary), but I don't see why the fact that say $\sigma i \vert_{S^1}$ is nullhomotopic (Where i is the homeomorphism) implies that $\sigma\vert_{\partial\triangle^2}$ is nullhomotopic
k The Spring Constant
I guess you might not need this
I mean technically the theorem can be reformulated for any convex set, right?
For any set X and CX, the cone over X
The 2 simplex is homeomorphic to the cone over its boundary
right but that raises the question again of why if it's homeomorphic does the nullhomotopy carry over
that doesn't feel trivial to me
You don't need to worry about S^1 with this
It's just a more general statement
But yeah the nullhomotopy would carry over
oh wait I think I see why
Because you have a homeomorphism of the simplex with the disk that restricts to a homeomorphism of their boundaries
yea
What are you trying to prove with this
this is a remark before hurewicz's theorem
just the remark, that the singular simplex restricted to its boundary is nullhomotopic
isnt that sigma circ i nullhomotopic exactly what you're trying to prove
On the boundary, no?
yea
but i'm using the fact that any map on the unit circle that can be extended to the disc is nullhomotopic
i is not a restriction
I wrote it about
it's a homeomorphism between the unit disc and the 2-simplex
that preserves the boundary

In the definition of polygon, i'm assuming that it's supposed to be
$$\sigma_i(e_1)=\sigma_{i+1}(e_0)$$
Right?
k The Spring Constant
Mod k+1 ofc
would make sense yeah
HYPE
what book is that?
Rotman
snake's lemma proof is on the movie It's my turn
Snake.
I'm not 100% sure if this is the right channel, but suppose I have a polynomial with real coefficients of the form $ax^2 + bxy + cy^2 + dx + ey + h$, is there in general an affine change of coordinates (transforming $(x,y)$ into $(a'x + b'x + e', c'x + d'x + h')$ with $a'd' - b'c'$ nonzero, thus acting on polynomials $\mathbb{R}[x,y]$) that transforms it in into a polynomial of the form $Ax^2 + By^2 + C$ ?
Intel
yes,there always exists such linear isomorphism
what's a nice way to see that?
are you sure that it suffices to require it to be linear rather than affine?
Real symmetric matrices are diagonalizable using orthogonal matrices
So your statement holds even for n variables not just 2 variables
it's been a while since I looked at linear operators on inner product spaces, and I never liked looking at linear transformations as matrices
so this explanation is difficult to follow for me
i'm gonna try to think of it while taking a shower which I need to take anyway, and then i'll come back
Classical results of quadratic form,not hard to catch up
can anyone here pls guide me too Riemannian Geometry/manifold/space/curvature, I'm just beginner(and 13 y/o)?
not much like, I studying it as a sub-field for Theoretical Physics & Mathematical Physics!
do you know real analysis and linear algebra?
I know like linear algebra, I think?
I don't think you have enough mathematical maturity to learn Riemannian geometry.
since you're 13, it would be extraordinary if you did
do you know how to write proofs?
of what?
of mathematical statements
yeah it is, But, it is necessary for learning Topological Black holes.
no.
have you been spending time on the nLab
then that's a good place to start learning higher math
IDK nlab?
there are books like "how to prove it" and "the art of problem solving" that would be a good introduction
ok
You would need (at a minimum) a background in calculus, analysis, and point-set topology
this is the right answer, just making sure
ignore what he said about nlab, that was a joke
(it wasn't a joke but I am glad the answer was no)
Lel
ok, yeah, some ppl suggested me calc. previously!
ok
learning Riemannian geometry not knowing calculus is like learning calculus not knowing addition of natural numbers
all you need to know how to do in riemannian geometry for physics is how to move indices around
Ok not exactly top (well kind of) but I know i'll get some answer here. Let $L$ be a lattice in $\mathbb R^n$. Call a subspace $V \leq \mathbb R^n$ $L$-Rational if $V\cap L$ is a lattice in $V$. Does anyone know a sufficient and necessary condition for a subspace to be $L$-rational (Cuz isomorphisms are continuous we can WLOG assume that $L=\mathbb Z^n$)
k The Spring Constant
my initial intuition is that V intersect L is isomorphic to Z^n for some n which is at most dimV, and V is L-rational precisely when n = dimV
thing is, you could have n independent basis vectors in V intersect L that do not span the lattice V intersect L
you can have a sublattice of the same dimension as the original lattice
Consider the sublattice $span_{\mathbb Z}(2e_1,2e_2)$ of $\mathbb Z^2$
k The Spring Constant
but wouldn't its containment in a subspace be equivalent to containing the original lattice?
Ok I reread what you said, and yes we are requiring lattices to have full rank so it'd have to be isomorphic to Z^dimV
but that doesn't really help me as it's not useful information
Why rational and not whole?
I'm also trying to understand if and when you can extend a rational subspace to a rational subspace of higher dimension
yea ig
@marsh forge You lied to me
Literally in the next chapter, the definition of chain homotopy
generalises this to Comp
lmao
I think he just.proved the snake lemma in Comp but didn't call it that
He did use the term connecting homomorphism tho
Actually idk
Probably
Just in terms of chain maps and homology groups
But I think it's equivalent
hmm, I think I thought of an interesting topological problem.
So, fix some Hausdorff topological ring. For now, let's use the real numbers.
Then for a topological space X, we have the ring Hom(X, R).
Given any subset A of this ring, define V(A) = {x in X | f(x) = 0 for all f in A}.
It is easy to see this must be a close set. (it's the intersection of V({x}) for each x in A, and each of those is the pullback of {0} under a continuous map, and R is Hausdorff)
but actually, those sets obey the axioms for closed sets, which gives you a "weakening" of X with respect to R
so the questions are, how does this weakening work? what spaces, for examples, are not strictly weakened by the real numbers?
Im not really sure exactly what you are asking
It's an open-ended question.
you're putting the topology on X whose closed sets are preimages of the V(A)?
Yeah, that's relates to the ||Stone-Cech compactification||.
I dont think you need stone cech to prove this
Yeah, you don't need it, but it relates to it.
It's kind of the other way around.
You need the fact you mentioned as a motivation for Stone-Cech.
When X is compact, the maximal ideals correspond to points.
Then when it's not, points still give you maximal ideals, but there are more maximal ideals.
And you can get a compactification by adding those ideals as new points.
You sure? Correspond both ways?
Cause when I say correspond I don't mean there's an injection points -> maximal ideals
I mean there's a bijection points -> maximal ideals
Can anyone help? I can't make any progress on this. Let $B_i$ be a sequence of open $n$-balls with radii $r_i$, such that $\sum r_i=\infty$ and $\lim_{i \rightarrow \infty} r_i=0$. Prove that for every n-dimensional box Q, there is a finite disjoint sequence of balls $B'{i_1},B'{i_2},\dots,B'{i_j}$, all contained in Q, such that $B'{i_k}$ is a translation of $B_{i_k}$, and
[\sum_{k=1}^j m(B'_{i_k})>0.99m(Q)]
where $m$ is the Lebesgue measure.
Phorphyrion
@winged badger Just FYI might be worth to post in #advanced-analysis
like additionally
you don't have to delete it
Thanks for the tip
@novel acorn sorry for the ping you but I'm stuck at the proof of theorem 2.16 and I'm wondering if you already read it and understood it because we are kind of at the same place in the book.
I'm talking about Hatcher obviously
I'll look into which one it is exactly in a bit
Oh I haven't gotten to that one yet
I just started with exact sequences
oh well frick
I can't really post the paragraph that I have trouble with too because Hatcher "invests" notation in like the last few pages so I would have to post like multiple pages
yeah okay I will give it a shot!
First pic
Second pic
In the second pic where Hatcher writes ""A homology class in Ker j_* is represented by a cycle b...." how does Hatcher know that b is a cycle?
so on the fourth row after "Proof:" he writes this
Yeah but in this case we are looking at ker(j_*)/im(i_*) and I don't see why dell b = 0
Hatcher uses the fact that dell b = 0 later on in the same "section" of text
and I assume that cycle in this case means that the boundary of it is zero
But H_n(B) is defined to be ker(j_*)/im(i_*) right?
So where does dell come from?
No wait
It's not
no way
lmao
okay yeah I see. I got confused and thought that H_n(B) = ker(j_*)/im(i_*) but this is not the case lmao. Thank you so much!
Basically at the beginning you should learn differential geometry,then Riemann metric. And in terms of differential geometry I know some easy text book such as an introduction to manifolds written by Loring W. Tu
I'm sorry but that was just pure poetry 😄
thanks for the suggestion BTW!
yeah lmao. I have realized that I really need to take at least 10 minute breaks when I study
How do I manage to come to this conclusion 
pewdssssssss
can we still evalute functions in here at values not in I(xy-1)
You mean V(xy-1)?
sorry what does V mean
You can't, because then evaluation is not well defined. For example x and 1/y are both the same in that ring, but their evaluations are clearly not the same everywhere
V is zero set of xy-1?
Set of common zeroes of an ideal. I(some variety) would be the ideal of all things which are 0 on that variety
Yeah
Unless your book is using I(ideal) for set of common zeroes
Yeah, it is the ring of polynomial functions of that type. Polynomial function meaning a function which can be written as a polynomial, but then 2 polynomials may define the same function
So for example in the above case, x and 1/y define the same function even though they are different polynomials
That's why you quotient by all polynomials that evaluate to 0. You are just saying "treat all polynomials that are the same as functions as the same thing"
real topology moment
geometry moment 
Heyo does anyone know anything about dual polyhedra?
sure what about them
If X is a regular top. space with two elements x, y, and the principal ultrafilter u(x) of x converges to y, does that imply that u(y) converges to x?
I'm using a filter definition: X is regular if whenever a filter F converges to x, then filter cl F converges to x. Here, cl F is the filter obtained from F by applying the closure operator cl to all its elements.
In any case, it shouldn't matter.
OK, I think I see how things play out if instead of considering u(x), we consider constant sequences. For example, suppose the sequence x, x, x, ... converges to y. Then this means every open set containing y contains x. We want to show that the sequence y, y, y, ... converges to x, i.e. we need to prove that every open set containing of x also contains y. We can do this via contradiction: If there is an open set U containing x but not containing y, then by regularity I can find open sets separating x and X - U. But the open set containing X - U contains y, so it must contain x.
I guess with filters, the proof goes like this: Since u(x) -> x, y, then also cl u(x) -> x, y. By inspection, cl u(x) contains {x, y}, so it is the filter generated by {x, y}. And since u(y) is finer than cl u(x), u(y) shares the same limits as cl u(x).
Proving with filters is so slick.
wait at which point did you use regularity in this proof
The cl u(x) -> x, y part uses regularity.
(don't have too much experience with filters I'm afraid)
A filter converges to a point x iff every nbhd of x lies in some filter element, right?
Yes. Or to put it another way, F converges to x if F is finer than then neighborhood filter of x.
Wait if it is finer than N(x)
But that would be the other way around, i.e. every neighborhood would have to contain a filter element, right?
"finer" means its a superset.
Ah, I had a question but I just confused filters and filter bases again 🙂
every neighborhood would have to contain a filter element,
This is correct, actually.
Given that my filter proof did not rely on neighborhoods, it works if X is just a regular convergence space.
Okay, so the clue is that we need regularity to show for every nbhdh N that „N contains an Element U in u(x) ⇒ N contains cl(U) for an U in u(x)“?
For me the clue was the cl u(x) will contain {x,y}.
Quick sanity check, so the function $f$ induces a commutative diagram of chain complexes ($S_(A)$ is regarded here as a subcomplex of $S_(X)$)
$$\begin{tikzcd}
0 & {S_(A)} & {S_(X)} & {S_(X)/S_(A)} & 0 \
0 & {S_(B)} & {S_(Y)} & {S_(Y)/S_(B)} & 0
\arrow[from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow[hook, from=1-2, to=1-3]
\arrow[two heads, from=1-3, to=1-4]
\arrow[hook, from=2-2, to=2-3]
\arrow[two heads, from=2-3, to=2-4]
\arrow[from=2-1, to=2-2]
\arrow[from=2-4, to=2-5]
\arrow["{{f\vert_A}{#}}"', from=1-2, to=2-2]
\arrow["{f{#}}"', from=1-3, to=2-3]
\arrow["{\overline{f_{#}}}"', from=1-4, to=2-4]
\end{tikzcd}$$
Where we've seen that the rows are exact (Inclusion is injective, projection onto the quotient is surjective and their kernel and image agree), and $f_{#}$ is the induced chain map, and $\overline{f_{#}}$ is the chain map induced by the quotient, where for every $n$ we have $$\overline{f_{#}}(z + S_n(A)) = fz+S_n(B)$$
And is well defined since we have $f_{#}(S_(A)) \subseteq (S_(B))$ (Where inclusion of complexes is degree-wise of course), and by the naturality of the connecting homomorphism this descends to a commutative diagram of homology groups as in the image, where the rows are exact because of exact triangle (As each row of the original diagram is exact).
I'm being overly pedantic on purpose just to make sure i'm not missing any basic details here.
Deception of Maximilian
Oh I forgot to say why the diagram commutes actually
Let $i,j$ be the inclusions from $S_(A), S_(B)$ to $S_(X),S_(Y)$ respectively, and $p,q$ be the respective projections onto the quotient. For the first square, we have that
$$j \circ {f\vert_A}{#}(z) = j(fz) = fz$$ (Again regarding $S(B)$ as a subcomplex of $S_(Y)$, althrough technically it is only isomorphic to a subcomplex of $S_*(Y)$. If I wanted to be extremely pedantic i'd keep the $j$ and compare the singular complexes attained as functions in the end to see that they are the same function with the same range and domain aswell).
OTOH, we have
$$f_{#}\circ i(z) = fz$$
So clearly this square commutes. For the other square we have
$$\begin{gathered}
q\circ f_{#}(z) = q(fz) = fz + S_n(B) \
\overline{f_{#}}\circ p(z) = \overline{f_{#}}(z + S_n(A)) = fz + S_n(B)
\end{gathered}$$
Deception of Maximilian
Where Since every element of the chain complexes is free abelian and generated by singular simplices, it's sufficient to check commutativity on the generators
So regard z as a singular simplex
similarly the definition I gave for f-hat is only on the basis elements but extending by linearity gives the same thing as the induced map from the chain map
I know it's long but it's all really basic stuff
it's just a lot of stuff all at once
not really sure what channel Lie theory should go in, but I figured I'd try here. Given a Lie group $G$ with lie algebra $\mathfrak{g}$, $x \in \mathfrak{g}$ induces a flow $\phi_t$ on $G$ and we can consider the curve $\gamma : \mathbb{R} \to G$ given by $t \mapsto \phi_t(e)$, where $e \in G$ is the identity element. Why is it true that $\gamma$ is a group homomorphism? It isn't obvious to me that $\gamma(t)\gamma(s) = \gamma(t + s)$. Certainly $\phi_t \circ \phi_s = \phi_{t +s}$, but it's not totally clear to me how the above equality follows from this fact.
craft
$$\gamma(t+s) = \phi_{t+s}(e) = \phi_s\circ\phi_t(e) = \phi_s(\gamma(t)).$$ now show that, for each fixed $t$, the curves $s\mapsto \gamma(t)\gamma(s)$ and $s\mapsto \phi_s(\gamma(t))$ are equal. (use uniqueness of integral curves)
Howl of the Lone Wolf
assuming by "induces a flow" you mean the flow of the left-invariant vector field on G given by pushing x around - just to be sure
@jagged ocean
I believe you can show gamma is equal to $t\mapsto Exp(tX)$?
Oatman
Hn(f)=Hn(g) doesn't imply that f and g are chain homotopic right?
Yes, exactly: and ah I see we’re invoking an ODE uniqueness result, I was wondering if there was a more direct way of showing it, but this makes sense I think
i don't know of a more direct proof (ie not invoking any uniqueness results) but i'd be interested to see one. for matrix groups you can directly compute using the matrix exponential series formula, but not all lie groups are matrix groups...
for all n?
Yea
I think it might
I thought it might but idk if I can prove it
Like I think this is a general property of taking homology of a chain complex of groups
if your chains are valued in a ring and so the chain groups form modules idk if it necessarily holds
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/10974/does-homology-detect-chain-homotopy-equivalence MO overflow post if you want to confirm
its pure hom alg
Seems like none of the solutions are about constructing the chain homotopy explicitly either
Wonder if that's possible
Probably not
freeness is important
I’m having a bit of trouble understanding what exactly a genus is
I saw it defined as the number of “holes” in a shape, but that definition started to break down when I looked at some examples of objects like cube frames
luckily in your book you'll primarily deal with chain complexes of free Abelian groups, so it's fine, but in general you can have a map of chain complexes f : C -> C' that induces an isomorphism on all homology groups but fails to have a homotopy inverse
this weaker condition is called a quasi-isomorphism
another way to think of it is the maximum number of cuts along simple closed curves you can do while keeping the surface connected
Ok ok thanks guys
I just started learning it yesterday so I wanna make sure I’m not going to start off with a rocky foundation
Apparently this is genus 5
Ye
I’m just trying to come up with a more concrete definition for genus
I think I’m starting to see it though
Thanks for the help!
Hello, can someone help me with this one?, i need to find an set X, a collection M ⊂ 2 ^X, such that M is not a basis for the topology generated by M
Subbase moment
What if two things in M intersect to give something not in M? Can you use this idea to produce a situation where you have an open set which is not the union of any elements of M?
If it's not a basis, how is M producing a topology?
And which topology?
I think by 'topology generated by a collection of sets' they mean 'smallest topology containing that collection'
In that case it doesn't even have to be a subbasis
If you define empty intersection to be the whole set, you can define every collection of subsets to be a subbasis 
it's so sad to come to this channel and see that slim has a black name 
How am I supposed to get DN'd now 
why hasn't he been unmuted yet
Did he get muted for DNing someone "important"
metal I think
I feel like taking $M = \R$ and $X = { (n - \varepsilon,, n+\varepsilon ) \mid n \in \N, \varepsilon > 0 }$ might work?
Tormeson
Proof: just look at it
Hi! Probably a dumb question: in an open book of M³, why do we care that we have a fibration M─L→S¹ ? Like, the page thingy is pretty natural, but why is it important that we ask for a fibration and not a mere map?
I can't think of a non-example
(like, something that's not a fibration and we wouldn't want to call it an open book)
Sorry to interrupt the unanswered question but I'm kind of confused with what Hatcher writes here. He writes "define $S: C_n(X) \to C_n(X)$ by setting $S \sigma = \sigma_# S \Delta^n$ for a singular n-simplex $\sigma: \Delta^n \to X$. (Here, $\Delta^n$ is the standard n-simplex and $\sigma_#$ is the induced chain map from $\sigma$). I don't get what $S \Delta^n$ is supposed to mean here. I assume that this is composition, but how are you supposed to compose a simplex with $S$? If it means $S(\Delta^n)$ then this is also weird since $S$ goes from $C_n(X)$ and $\Delta^n$ is not in that set. So what does this mean?
Tokidoki ✓
Context? 
What you said makes sense yeah
Also I think you might overtake me in a couple days 
this is taken from the barycentric subdivision of general chains, page 122
Yeah you will overtake me in 5 mins
Send screenshot lol
I stopped right after excision






