#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 243 of 1
but all of this is just like
notational right?
in practice, these are very very similar things.
(also this probably isn't a topology question, and might make more sense in #groups-rings-fields unless it came up in a topology/geometry context)
Ok I get it then. Didn't know endormorphism referred to the whole space.
Well, It came from a dynamical systems/number-theory context. But yeah you are probably right. Thanks 😄
Endomorphism refers to the domain and codomain being the same but people are often sketchy with ignoring restrictions
Well not sketchy
Its all accurate
I havn't taken any classes in dynamical systems though so I figured topology/geometry was close enough.
ah
that's fine
i mean this is important in topological dynamics
and yeah dynamicists almost always use the "invariant" vocabulary instead of talking about restricted endomorphisms
because the invariant vocabulary offers some nice extensions
like "A is an almost T-invariant subset of X" could easily be taken to mean that T(A)\A is measure zero.
whereas it's basically meaningless to try to define an "almost endomorphism"
and things like this are super important in dynamics
Ah neat. So far I only experienced a quite narrow part of dynamics. But it is actually quite exciting.
Don’t people study like
it's very nice
Almost everywhere defined maps
yeah
you just quotient by almost everywhere equivalence
but this doesn't really help you afaik here
Can someone explain how every nonempty subset of X has a limit point?
X is 'lim point compact' if every infinite subset of X has a limit point
think about what kinds of sets are open in X
Hmm i was thinking the topology of Z+ is power set of Z+ right?
I mean the discrete topology?
if that were the case then no nonempty subset of X would have a limit point (reason: if X is a discrete space, {x} is an neighborhood of x which contains no points other than x)
The problem i m facing is this:
Suppose Y={a,b}. Then Q=(Z_+) × {a} is a subset of X.Let's assume x=(1,a) be a limit point of Q. Then Q intersection {(1,a)} \ {(1,a)} = phi .... so (1,a) is not a limit point of Q.
Yes exactly! Where am i wrong i can't figure out
So what is the topology on Z_+ then?
hint: the only non-empty open set in Y is Y itself, so what can you say about a (basic) open set in X?
Must be U × Y where U is any open set in Z_+
yeah
Yes this much i got...but exactly how do the open sets of Z_+ look...
For here no specific topology is mentioned
Sorry to bother if these were too trivial questions T-T
Thanks for the hints I'll try to take it from here :)
it's the product topology
Yeah...thanks
So for context phi is a map between connected schemes and phi* is the induced map on etale pi_1
at the end of the second part they must mean that phi* and not phi is injective right
Its not in the errata but like... lol
I don't understand what you're asking
No matter the metric an interior point is defined the same
@gritty widget
Yes
For a subset $U \subseteq X$ of a metric space we say $a \in U$ is an Interior Point of $U$ if there exists some $r>0$ such that $$B(a,r)\subseteq U$$, where of course
$$B(a,r)={x \in X: d(a,x)<r}$$
Is the open ball centered at a of radius r
ShiN
Can we say for what r
We know that there exists a r
But can we define that r
Life for r =(a-b)/2
This won't work
Well it depends on the point and the set
But as an example
Sometimes finding the proper r constructively is just really difficult
Set is x^2+y^2<1
It's really dependent on context
you can often find a largest possible r
or at least define one as a supremum
but actually computing it is in general impossible, basically
esp. if you want to compute it like, generically
Yes That's what i was saying
basically just write
$R:=\operatorname{sup}_{r>0} B_r(x)\subset X$
oh
rename the first r
to like
R
lol
Yea
MaxJ #MiuArmy
Yea but I'm in final year of My Undergrad And I haven't seen Thua sup thing
Can you tell me briefly what isbit
sup just means like
Yee
'largest possible choice'
note that R need not exist here
by the way
like i said this only works if you have like
How are you in your final year and don't know what a supremum is
a "hard border"
Or do you just mean you haven't seen the notation cuz I think it's pretty internationally standard
Yeah SHiN kinda said it harshly but I agree I have no idea how you are getting a math degree without seeing supremums
Oh no, my construction is more generic i was being silly, i think it should work in most cases
It's 5th semester
So basically we can't generalize the value of r
For reference supremum was the 3rd definition we learned in my calc 1 course
Where are you from @gritty widget
I mean for like relation of r to the point we want to be interior
India🙂🙂
Something Like This
Anyone familiar with the concept of a topological universe?
I feel like i'm being dumb here. Suppose I have a homotopy $F:f_0 \simeq f_1$ where $f_i$ is the constant map for some point $x_i \in X$. I want to find a continuous path between $x_0$ and $x_1$. Now, I define $$\gamma: [0,1] \rightarrow X$$ by $$\gamma(t)=F(x_0,t)$$. I'm getting stuck on proving that $\gamma$ is continuous though. Should be simple unless i'm missing something, I just can't seem to see what the inverse image of an open set would be. (Taking $x_0$ for convenience but I think it could be any point in $X$ in the definition of $\gamma$)
ShiN
sorry, all the f_i are constant?
You're missing something
the extra condition in the defn of a homotopy requires that $t\mapsto f_t$ is continuous
MaxJ #MiuArmy
so your conclusion is immediate
Only $f_0,f_1$
ShiN
should've clarified, $i=1,2$
ShiN
doesn't it only required that $F(\cdot,t)$ is continuous for all fixed $t$, and that $F(x,t)$ is itself continuous?
ShiN
We're varying over $t$ in this case
ShiN
It is continuous in both variables
If AxB->C is continuous then the induced maps A->Maps(B,C) and B->Maps(A,C) are both continuous. In the case of H:Xx[0,1]->Y we have that X->Paths(Y) is continuous and that the inclusion {x_0}->X->Paths(Y) is continuous
Wait this might be one of those things that is not true in general for Top one second
Here's a better way to see it sorry
Let x be the desired point of X. Then we have a map $[0,1]\cong {x}\times [0,1]\hookrightarrow X\times [0,1]\xrightarrow{H} Y$ and this composition is continuous
MaxJ #MiuArmy
on a point-set level this map is
oh yea I see it now
yeah
Yea ok now that you state it like that it's glaringly obvious
from the continuity of the inclusion
this is maybe more obvious from hatcher's preferred defn of a homotopy
what is that?
Just to make sure, this kind of continuity in each component is necessary but not sufficient
Yes
hatcher says a homotopy is a family $f_t$ of continuous functions with $(x,t)\mapsto f_t(x)$ continuous
MaxJ #MiuArmy
The defn we used is the more common POV in modern alg top
I reckon it's slightly more easy to work with in most contexts
it is also generalizable
cylinder objects end up existing in more contexts that don't have nice point set tools
Ok so just so I make sure I have this 100 percent, if we fix some $t$, then we have the sequence $$X \stackrel{i}{\cong}X \times {t} \stackrel{j}{\hookrightarrow} X \times [0,1] \stackrel{H}{\rightarrow}Y$$, then $$f_t = H \circ i\circ j$$ and therefore continuous
ShiN
this is for why the $f_t$ are continuous
ShiN
You want a path right
This is just in general now
Oh yes
It's the same process for the path tho
That proves f_t continuous
ye ok
I just tend to get caught up on small points like this
so I gotta make sure I understand it 100% before I continue
alright thanks a lot
sorry for the all the images i needed to give proper context lol
but basically i follow the argument up until "they are isomorphic over the generic point"
after that it starts to lose me
I assume that means their fibers are isomorphic but I dont see how this follows from having the same function field?
nor do i really understand the dense open subset argument 
@cedar pebble if ur free and dont mind explaining this 
yea so like in the world of schemes
so long as everything is locally like spec of an integral domain (as would be the case in this situation), then you have a generic point
(it's the prime ideal (0) in Spec of an integral domain)
what it means for something to be defined on the generic point means for something to be defined on some dense open subset

This is in some sense what function fields are doing. Think about the case of a curve, where dense open subsets are complements of finitely many points
for a function to be defined on the generic point this means it's defined on some dense open subset, that is away from some finite set of points
those are the poles of the function
Oh so the follow up statement about being isomorphic over the product w/ a dense open subset is literally the definition of what it means to be isomorphic over the generic point?
mhm!
I see
again this is why schemes are so cool, you have generic points that organize all this information for you
Okay right so we have an isomorphism of the function fields
How does that imply the follow up statement
like how does that imply theyre isomorphic over the generic point
I mean that's just what it means
the function field is the stalk of the structure sheaf over the generic point
so this sentence just says that the stalks of the respective structure sheaves are isomorphic over this point
Uhh why does an isomorphism of stalks imply an isomorphism of X_L times U and Y times U

oh this is fiber product
i cannot read
yea 
tfw illiteracy
Szamuely moment
Uhh hmm ok so why does this iso of the stalks give an iso of these fiber products
Does anybody know how one could define the degree of a map S^n→S^n in an elementary way without reference to top-degree homology?
Because I kind of don't want to use homology to define the boundary map of CW-homology…
you can look at how many leaves you have in the covering
(i.e., the degree-m map S^n -> S^n has m-leaves generically, you are supposed to count the preimages orientedly)
idk if im making any sense
oh, nice
Not sure if I can assure that the map is smooth tho, need to look at it in more detail
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/176399/continuous-maps-between-compact-manifolds-are-homotopic-to-smooth-ones
there is some thm saying you can homotope continuous maps to smooth ones
but if you really dont want to touch smooth stuff, probably just going with homology is the best way to do things? it feels like the cleanest
I mean… none of this must be smooth
nothing has an intrinsic smooth structure 😅
But yeah, I will probably need some result of the sort „there is a nice enough representative in each homotopy class“
e.g. if I just want to define it via the degree of the covering
Okay so I'm reading the proof of this proposition and I can't understand why the set of points where f_1~ and f_2~ agree is both open and closed. How do I know that the set is closed?
So I'm confused by the very last sentence
ohhh okay now I see. Thank you so much!
Okay let me just get this straight. If X is homotopy equivalent to Z, is then X v Y homotopy equivalent to Z v Y? (the v stands for the wedge sum). This isn't true, right? Because if we look at the wedge sum S¹ v S¹ in R², then S¹ is contractible. If the above was true, then S¹ would be homotopy equivalent to S¹ v S¹, but this isn't true because they have different fundamental groups
But maybe I can't view S¹ v S¹ as being in R² because I need to consider that to be a whole space in its one
So what if we look at Z, Y, X as being subspaces of some bigger space?
S^1 is not contractile tho?
I think if everything is CW complex you’re probably fine
And this statement is true
And as we all know those are the only spaces
Wait wait, isn’t every loop in R^2 contractible and so the circle is too?
But I guess that you need to view S^1 as being a single space?
Ah, mess up of language
Yes
The inclusion map S^1 -> R
Is nullhomotopic (or sometimes called contractible)
But S^1 itself is not
Oh okay, so you always need to specify whether you should consider a space to be a subspace of something or that it is its own space?
Yeah essentially. Although most algtop people wouldn’t phrase it as “S^1 is contractible as a sub space of R^2” but rather as “The inclusion map is contractible/nullhomotopic”
Okay great thank you so much! So just to make sure, if I replace X, Y, Z to be CW complexes, then the statement is true? Is there an easy proof of this?
If there is, then please don’t spoil it
And I’m referring to my statement above about the wedge sum thing
Hmmm
The proof will rely on the homotopy extension property
Dunno an easy proof but shouldn’t be too hard?
Oh okay I see. Thank you so much! I will at least give it a shot later and we will see how it goes lmao. I think I have something very cool going on
this isnt exactly advanced but i dont see a geometry channel in the uni section so ill ask here:
why is it x = coscos, y = cos*sin and z=sin?
i thought in spherical coordinates, it's x = cos sin, y = sin sin and z = cos?
Does anyone understand this definition?
Yes, that worked, thanks!
I think yes
@gritty widget I don't quite get why U is a neighbourhood of e though.
Do you know what’s a neighborhood?
Well
I don’t know exactly why, but we’ve an open set throughout point e
I'm having trouble concretely understanding the open sets in the quotient topology. I understand how they're defined, but I usually have a hard time understanding what they are. Here's an example i'm struggling with a bit, the cone over some space $X$, which i'm defining as $$\sfrac{X \times [0,1]}{\sim}$$ where $\sim$ is the equivalence closure of the relation $(x,t)\sim (x',t') \iff t'=t=1$. So clearly for sets not containing the point $[x,1]$, they identify with the open sets of $X\times [0,1]$ in the product topology, but what about the open sets containing $[x,1]$? I'm having a hard time understanding what their structure is
ShiN
so $X\times I$ receives the product topology, right? open sets are of the form $U\times (a,b)$ for $b>a$. or $U\times (a,1]$, etc
diligentClerk
Yup
Here's a maybe stupid question: if $X \subset \bR^m$ is a convex open set, does that immediately imply that it's simply connected?
Irony Incarnate
Basic open sets ofc
Yes since it's contractible
I'm pretty sure
a set in $CX$ is open iff its preimage is open. If $q: X\times I\to CX$ is the quotient map, then $A$ is open iff $q^{-1}(A)$ is open. Assuming $A$ is an open set that contains the distinguished vertex at t=1, then that means $q^{-1}(A)$ contains $X\times 1$. Since $q^{-1}A$ is open, it must contain an open neighborhood of that set in the topology; so if it contains $X\times 1$, then for each $x\in X$ it contains $U \times (1-\varepsilon, 1]$ for some small $\varepsilon$ and $U$ with $x\in U$.
diligentClerk
Ok yea that makes sense, so that's about as concrete as you can get right?
I guess always when you're dealing with the producy topology general open sets are annoying
Since they're a union of basic open sets which themselves are not always so simple
Thanks
yeah i'm trying to think if you could prove it contains $X\times (1-\varepsilon, 1]$ but unless $X$ is compact i don't see why this should hold
diligentClerk
Yea I think it wouldn't hold generally
Rotman says Cones can get a bit freaky when your space isn't compact hausdorff
Linear interpolation
Yeah because the cone is a join it gets weird for spaces which aren’t compactly generated
Hausdorff
Oh I think I can use sequential continuity directly since X and Z as subspaces of R^2 are metrizable by the euclidean metric
Could anyone here recommend a good introduction to topological entropy.
Although what is meant by "identifying the subset {0} x Z_+ to a point"
Quotient by the equvalence relation that relates all of those points to each other
and nothing else
Someone came up with this example a while ago and posted it here lol
Surprising example
oh shit yeah. that's the only weird guy right
Yeah
i don't understand this still
they seem to say that they're identifying that set with 0, right?
but the quotient space also has other elements
Identifying something to a point means you treat that whole set as a single thing
Which is exactly what you do when you quotient
oh okay so they're saying that we need to identify the set {0} x Z+ to a point and let all other points stay as they are
that makes up the quotient space, right?
and how do you see that A is closed
i'm thinking in terms of: x is a limit point of A iff every neighborhood of x intersects A in a point different from x
yes i know
that works
but i'm trying to show that there are no limit points for A
Try to get a neighborhood B_n of x_n which contains no other x_i
it has no convergent subsequences (phrased differently, it’s set of subsequential limits is empty in R^2)
@vast estuary another way to get this, view A as a function N —> X : n —> (1/n,n), this map is continuous because N is a discrete space. since X is hausdorff, then the graph of that map, A, is closed, as every continuous map into a hausdorff space has a closed graph
overkill 101 but amazing
lol ikr, was just thinking about it for some reason
Isn't it enough to show that (x,n) —> x and (x,n) —> x/n are continuous?
But isn't U a subset of X? However e belongs to E.
Is Munkres known to come up with hard examples
Anyway, I'm first trying to see why U_n is open in X x Q. On the X axis it's an open set, (n-1/4,n+1/4), but on Y? (It's the product topology, so, we want a cartesian product of two open sets)
Open sets in the product aren't just products of open sets
They are unions of products
Yeah yeah, products of open sets form the basis
Would it matter if the rectangle's boundary intersects Q or not
It will be a rectangle without boundary
Interesting, so are you suggesting that the rectangle is open in X x Q
Yeah the rectangle is open in R^2. So it is a union of products of open sets
It is a product
What is it a product of
Intersect those 2 open sets with X and Q
Then take product to get open in X x Q
Intervals!
With X nothing changes
With Q it's just all irrational points get deleted
So we get the rectangle in X x Q is open
Yes
Am I right?
So now for every point in that weird shape, we can find an open rectangle around it
The shape is a union of such rectangles
So it's open
This is a question too 😛
Wondering what to expect from the book
Idk munkres is pretty good lol
Always
If a point e is in X and we’ve a neighborhood it’ll keep like a subset of X
Take this article of Wikipedia if you’d lime to know more about this
In topology and related areas of mathematics, a neighbourhood (or neighborhood) is one of the basic concepts in a topological space. It is closely related to the concepts of open set and interior. Intuitively speaking, a neighbourhood of a point is a set of points containing that point where one can move some amount in any direction away from th...
But also we need a Open set around of point e for we’ve a neighborhood U and also this open set A need to be a subset of the set X
Anyone have a graphic for the homotopy equivalence of a 2-dimensional cylinder and the mobius strip?
I understand the definiton of neigbourhoods and open sets, but what I'm pointing out is that the defintion says $e \in E$. Thus I think that must be a typo, because otherwise it doesn't make any sense.
snypehype
Why does that work but retracting it onto its boundary circle is (iirc) impossible?
I'm not familiar with the content lol, so I really can't help. But I would guess they meant s(U) is an open neighbourhood of S
Especially since they continue to say the s(U)'s form a basis
I know the proof more or less, I guess i'm asking more visually why that wouldn't work
I guess yea
Mine isn't either
Anyone familiar with "initial structures" in topology?
Which is why i:m trying to think of these simpler examples
Going to the center circle is easily visualized
Retracting to the boundary would “tear” the Möbius band
Yea I see that now
Yes, that's my guess as well. It should be s(U) instead of U
For example, if X, Y are topological spaces, then the product topology X x Y is the initial topology on X x Y making the projections continuous. But as a product in the categorical sense, X x Y is a terminal object. So I guess it's "initial" in the sense that the projections are from X x Y, but it's "terminal" in the sense that the universal property yields unique morphisms into X x Y.
huh, that's an intereresting distinction. maybe we can also think of the product topology as a terminal topology in the same way that the product is a terminal object - it's terminal among topologies which make all maps Z -> X x Y continuous if the projections Z -> X and Z -> Y are
wait no because you'd always have the indiscrete topology. i guess subject to the constraint that the projections are also continuous
Terminal objects are just initial objects in the opposite category so... hmm...
Dr.Marschett
In general topology and related areas of mathematics, the initial topology (or induced topology or weak topology or limit topology or projective topology) on a set
X
{\displaystyle X}
, with respect to a family of functions on
X
{\displaystyle X}
, is the coarses...
So in the end, initial topologies are basically terminal objects.
🤔
The nomeclature is kind of backwards.
That cannot be the case though. If s is a section then its domain must a set in X
I know
That was a typo
Yes, that's true. Good point.
I’m looking here and in a set draw it doesn’t makes sense @summer jolt
this is pretentious enough that i should probably post it in #category-theory but there are these things called topological categories
which focus on the thing you said about initial topologies
like, the category of topological spaces has the property that if X is a set and {Y_i} is any family of topological spaces (even a proper class) and we have maps f_i : X -> Y_i, there's a unique initial topology on X making these maps all continuous.
and you can reconstruct some interesting aspects of topology in categories with these properties. technically this is really a property of aa forgetful functor p : E-> B with E = Top, B =Sets.
You anticipated me. I am doing research involving topological categories.
i haven't spent too much time with them. they are used in oswald wyler's lectures on quasitopoi
I am generalizing some results of partial group actions on topological spaces to convergence spaces.
I still don't understand partial group actions though.
if for any basis elements B of a given topology and some function f you prove f^{-1}(B) is open
is that enough to prove f is continouous?
i'm almost certain this is true but just in case
I think it follows naturally as the generalization of the delta-epsilon definition.
i suppose the natural way to express the epsilon delta defn in the general case is to say that the preimage of a basic open set is open, so that is actually a nice tie-in to your question
It's also sufficient to prove this on a subbasis
oh good
i needed this to prove that $\mathbb{R}^{X}$ with the product topology was homeomorphic to the set $\mathcal{F}$ of all functions $f: X \to \mathbb{R}$ with the topology of pointwise convergence
d/dx
This problem seems
Too simple
I feel like something isn't right
In my mind identifying this you just get the same torus so the group is $\bZ\times\bZ$
Irony Incarnate
Identifying this does not give you a torus
OK
I got it
You get like a torus on top of another torus
Yeah that’s a nice way to think about it
I don't know why I though you could overlay two tori but at least I got the stupidity out of me
Okay so it's getting late here so this might be a bad idea but I just don't get how the universal cover of a path connected and locally path connected space $X$ is a covering space of every other path connected covering space. So if I assume that $p: \tilde{X} \to X$ is the universal cover (i.e it is simply connected) and $p: X_2 \to X$ is another covering, then I want to show that $\tilde{X}$ is a covering space for $X_2$. Now I can use the lifting criterion since $\pi_1(\tilde{X})$ is trivial to get a lift $\tilde{p}: \tilde{X} \to X_2$ of $p$. But now I need to show that $\tilde{p}$ is a covering space and I can't find a theorem that shows this. Hatcher also just states this as a fact so I feel like this should be trivial.
Tokidoki ✓
(sorry if I interrupted but I typed this in before your question)
No I managed to solve that other one
Okay great! I thought you had another question incoming or something
What did you get btw?
oh wait, I might have misread that lmao
Well the structure what homeomorphic to $S^1\times(S^1\vee S^1)$ So I got that the group was $\bZ \times (\bZ * \bZ)$
Irony Incarnate
At least I hope that's correct
ahhh okay I see. Yeah that makes sense. My solution was written in presentations lmao
and I don't know if my group presentation "simplified" to Z x (Z*Z)
Hm
I assume you got that the 1-skeleton was $S^1\vee S^1 \vee S^1$ and then got the presentation by attaching a 2-cell
Irony Incarnate
Lol I only got back to this now
Got lazy since summer holiday
Mmmmmmmm but I need to build up a better intuition for this stuff
This feels like a pretty elementary question on here, and I'm not even sure if it belongs in the topology section, but I can't exactly figure out how to solve this. This is from the Loomis and Sternberg book, and bases haven't been introduced yet, so all I'm working with are product spaces, projection maps, and injection maps. Anyone have any suggestions? Thanks
do you know that if V and W are finite dimensional vector spaces, then
dim(V oplus W) = dim V + dim W?
because this trivializes the proof
Well, "technically" I know that, but it isn't in the toolkit offered by the book yet, so I'm trying to work within the confines of what's been introduced. All that's been introduced is a basic theory on Hom(V,W), Projection maps $\pi_i$, and injection maps $\theta_i$
Nivellan
isomorphic as vector spaces over R here?
Yeah
you need to find a bijective linear map from R^m x R^n to R^(m + n). think about what elements of each set look like and you might be able to come up with something simple
#linear-algebra next time (for questions like this)
okay thanks
i think that map would be a homeomorphism as well doe
For nice spaces, connected coverings are unique upto isomorphism once you know how their fundamental groups embed into that of X
This proves that the universal cover covers all connected covers
By nice I mean the hypotheses you need to prove the existence of universal covers
why is a circular sector not a triangle
It has a curvy bottom
"Hatcher just states it as a fact" doesn't mean it's trivial, don't worry, Hatcher's just bad at explaining stuff
IIRC Rotman's Alg Top book explains this well
agree
Fun fact: trim’s inflection is a complexified Wythoffian.
isomorphic as sets 
Isomorphic as curvy bottoms 😵💫
Rotman's algtop book explains this well
There's only one part of Rotman's AT book I remember being disappointed with
IIRC it's a small section in the section on higher homotopy groups
He defines a special kind of homotopy, I think? Idk, I just remember it being dense af and very unclear about what we were doing and why
Until I saw a picture in Hatcher and I understood
Also one of the few times Hatcher's been useful
Good point
I understood my mistake moldi

I didn't see that it started from p1 and not p0
i'd be interested to know what you are referencing if you remember
Basically tho it's saying that if you take a set of points in an affine space and then 'center' them back to the origin, they should be linearly independent, right?
where p0 was where the affine space was centered and now is the origin
Like basically if $\mathbb A = p_0 + W$ then we want a set ${p_0,\ldots,p_n}$ in $\mathbb A$ to be independent if the corresponding set in $W$ (without 0) is independent
ShiN
I have to show that a path connected space is the continouous image of a path connected space
just wanted to ask if my strategy is going to work
Yep
Affine independent sets are linearly independent sets translated in a higher dimensional space
hmm I guess that's correctly phrased
Do you mean the converse
The image of a path connected space is path connected
Because what you said is trivial, every path connected space is the image of itself under identity
yes
So take any 2 points in the image, and try to find a path between them. Did you get stuck somewhere with this approach?
okay I think I may or may not have been trying to prove the wrong statement all along
as in, I was trying to prove the trivial converse
wait what trivial converse
I was trying to construct some continuous function between two path connected spaces X,Y with X != Y
.
thats not the converse but I see what you mean
oof
(the converse is false)
the statement is that if f is continuous and A is path connected then f(A) is path connected. The converse of this is not true
Converse depends a lot on what you treat as background set up and what you assume are the hypotheses lol
huh
Like being top spaces is also an assumption but it's part of the set up so we don't involve that in the converse
huh????
I mean silly example
i think ur being silly

I'm not exactly sure why I got so confused lmao
the converse of what I wrote is clear
Tis what I do
all I had to prove was that the cont. image of a path connected space is path connected
Yeah I was defending my statement of what the converse is lol
the moral converse here is clearly "if the image of any path connected set is path connected, then the function is continuous"
this is false i guess?

which is obviously false
what happened to all the quantifiers
are you taking a converse underneath a bunch of quantifiers
The statement is "continuous functions preserve path connectedness"
but not underneath others
So rice is right
wait
Converse is "functions that preserve path connected are continuous"
what's a counterexample to my statement

oh no
wait, so does "functions that preserve connectedness are continuous" work?
i've never thought about this
I would guess no but I have no counterexample in mind
What about discontinuous derivatives?
yeah you're right
just good old sin(1/x), 0 at 0
i think this is a counterexample
so if F is the continuous map X -> Y and g : [0,1] -> X is our path
then just taking h : [0,1] -> Y as h(x) = f(g(x)) works right
Yeah that's the idea but as a proof that's weirdly written
You should start with 2 points in Y instead of a path in X, unless this was supposed to be extremely informal
it was informal

now, off to show R^2 is not homeomorphic to R
probably not going to do the rest of the exercises unless I find one that is super interesting
that's a cute exercise
I've really struggled with convex combinations and simplices in the past, is this intuition correct? We can think of the barycentric coordinates w.r.t some simplex as being inversely proportional to how close you are to that point of the simplex. Like, if one of the coordinates is 1 then you're at that point, if one of the points is 0 you're opposite that point, and if the simplex is spanned by m points, then if all the coordinates are 1/m then you're at the barycenter. Right?
yeah you can think of the coefficient as a weight. higher weights on a vertex pull the point towards that vertex. a weight of 1 is as high as possible, so the gravitational force is overwhelming and it pulls the point all the way to the vertex. when the weights are all 1/n, then the tension from each vertex on the point is equal, which positions it in the center
yea ok that's a good way to think about it
why does rotman define the standard n simplex in Rn+1?
Can't you think of it in Rn?
But you do need n+1 points to define an n simplex
yea ok
ok yea that's what I imagined
weird that he defined it like that but I guess it doesn't really matter
very weird imo
i c

it's more symmetric that way, in $R^{n+1}$ it's just the convex hull of all the basis vectors and you don't have to include the origin I guess?
diligentClerk
it's not a big deal, it's just convention, it's the difference between $\sum a_i =1$ and $\sum a_i \leq 1$
diligentClerk
one thing i'll say is that like, this can be seen as a special case of a technique for giving a geometric realization of any simplicial complex
if you have an abstract simplicial complex $K$ with underlying set of vertices $V$ you can define its geometric realization to be the subset of $\bigoplus_{v\in V} \mathbb{R}_v$ consisting of all finite sums $\sum a_iv_i$, $\sum a_i=1$, where all $v_i$ belong to a common simplex of $K$
diligentClerk
wait wdym about this part
i c
i'm saying that in rotman's formalism the convex hull would be the set of all points $\sum a_i v_i$ with $\sum a_i=1$, and if you were to work in $\mathbb{R}^n$ it would be the set of all points $\sum a_i v_i$ with $\sum a_i \leq 1$
diligentClerk
Ah you're saying that in this case the barycentric and cartesian coordinates coincide
but that in the Rn formulation they don't
right?
uh hmm yes i guess that's true
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
COFFIS CUP
% https://q.uiver.app/?q=WzAsMyxbMiwyLCJYIl0sWzIsMCwiXFx0aWxkZXtYfSJdLFswLDIsIlhfMiJdLFsxLDAsInAiXSxbMSwyLCJcXHRpbGRle3B9Il0sWzIsMCwicF8xIiwyXV0=
[\begin{tikzcd}
&& {\tilde{X}} \
\
{X_2} && X
\arrow["p", from=1-3, to=3-3]
\arrow["{\tilde{p}}", from=1-3, to=3-1]
\arrow["{p_1}"', from=3-1, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}]
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
Tokidoki ✓
okay so we want to show that $\tilde{p}$ is a covering map (which is a lift of the universal covering, $p$, and I can lift it because of the lifting criterion). So let $x_2 \in X$. Now "project" it $p_1(x_2) \in X$. Let $U_x$ be a neighborhood of $p_1(x_2)$ that is evenly covered by both $p$ and $p_1$ (I can do this because that point has a two neighborhoods, one is evenly covered by $p_1$ and the other one by $p$. Now just take the intersection of those two). Let $V_x$ be a slice in $U_x$ by $p_1$ that contains $x_2$. Now $\tilde{p}^{-1}(V_x) = p^{-1}p_1(V_x) = p^{-1}(U_x)$ (the last equality comes from the fact that $V_x$ is homeomorphic to $U_x$ by restricting $p_1$). Since $U_x$ is evenly covered by $p$, we have shown that $V_x$ is the desired neighborhood of $x_2$. Pick $S$ that is a sheet of $V_x$ under $\tilde{p}$. We want to show that this sheet is homeomorphic to $V_x$ by restricting $\tilde{p}$. We can draw a similar diagram
Tokidoki ✓
% https://q.uiver.app/?q=WzAsMyxbMiwyLCJVX3giXSxbMiwwLCJTIl0sWzAsMiwiVl94Il0sWzEsMCwicCJdLFsxLDIsIlxcdGlsZGV7cH0iXSxbMiwwLCJwXzEiLDJdXQ==
[\begin{tikzcd}
&& S \
\
{V_x} && {U_x}
\arrow["p", from=1-3, to=3-3]
\arrow["{\tilde{p}}", from=1-3, to=3-1]
\arrow["{p_1}"', from=3-1, to=3-3]
\end{tikzcd}]
A modern commutative diagram editor with support for tikz-cd.
Tokidoki ✓
(ignore the morphism names)
Now two of them are homeomorphisms, so the third one must too
Toki I gave a solutions to this 
Check your mentions
Different approach though
You're trying to show that universal cover covers all connected coverings right?
yeah path connected
Yeah same thing
okay I read it now but how you know that it covers every other one just because it is unique?
Well you know one of the copies that it covers
And use the isomorphisms to cover all the other ones with the same group
wait I don't really see that
I think that there's something wrong with my proof tho
like how do I know that the restriction from S to U_x is a homeomorphism?
revenge?
For not reading my answer 
yoo I wan't active on discord then
When I got back I got super hyped and just typed it in as fast as I could
okay no it is right because S comes from p
but I still don't reallyt see this, could you maybe explain?
yeah I need to eat now as well lmao

🍴 🥘
Shallow pan of food.
Coldilocks ✓
phi is supposed to be an isomorphism, that's what the squiggle means. They were supposed to be in different lines 
well I gues just phi u?
yeah lol
oh lmao
Draw commutative diagrams 😌
but how do I know that it is a covering map?
it feels like I already done that tho? 
but idk
it feels similar to the thing I did above
Hint is phi goes both ways
wait is phi a covering map or is it just an isomorphism?
yes?
yeah okay I see lmao. So phi is a homeomorphism and so a covering map. Then apply my solution thing I guess
I am not sure what your solution thing is 
Also composition of covering maps is not necessarily covering I think
well my solution basically says that if p and p_1 here are covering maps, then so is tilde p
Hmm seems legit
But you can do a simpler argument in this case
since phi is a homeomorphism
Like just find evenly covered neighbourhoods directly
I don't think your proof works. The line where you say "Now p tilde inv(V_x) = p inv p_1 (V_x)"
That doesn't seem write, because V_x is not saturated with respect to p_1
So applying p_1 will increase the preimage
Okay so let y be in Y. now let U_x be a neighborhood of phi^(-1). Then u^(-1)(U_x) is the desired neighborhood, right?
phi(U_x) is the evenly covered neighbourhood, and its preimage is what you said yes
Here your previous proof doesn't break because the V_x you took is saturated
Every subset is saturated with respect to an injective map
hmm but $p_1 \tilde{p}(V) = p(V)$, and so $\tilde{p}^{-1}(V) = p^{-1} p_1(V)$
Tokidoki ✓
Decide what you wanna say 
lol
so you applied p inv on both sides then p tilde inv and then cancelled the p tilde, is that it
yeah but I didn't cancel p tilde, I just moved it to the other side
okay so $(p_1 \tilde{p})(V) = p(V)$ because the diagram commutes. Now $p_1(V) = (p \tilde{p}^{-1})(V)$ so $(p^{-1} p_1)(V) = \tilde{p}^{-1}(V)$
Tokidoki ✓
You are applying p on V
So V is in that space you wrote at the top
I am not scrolling for the name
Yes
Then how are you applying p_1 on it
Isn't that the map from the bottomological space
Like you have applied all 3 maps to V somehow
That doesn't make sense because at most 2 of the maps have the same domain

You should always always draw diagrams when working with lots of functions that do or don’t commute
I think you should basically always avoid the “algebra of functions” approach
Like just symbolic manipulation
It obscures too many details
Okay roger that 
Also when you said you moved p tilde to the other side, did you do the kind of thing where you have a+b = c and you "move b to the other side" by writing a = c-b?
yes exactly lmao
but p tilde inv(V_x) = p inv p_1 (V_x) still makes sense in the diagram, no?
I mean in this
Can you prove that moving b to the other side is a valid thing to do 
it would, if your set V changed 
maaaan why does Hatcher do this to me

This is something you need to do toki
urgently
Because you said something very wrong about this 
but is that even true? It just becomes weird when I do it, right?
I am asking you to prove that for numbers now

well b is the inverse to -b by definition
exactly
So when I said that p and p inverse aren't actually inverses, so you can't cancel them
ah yeah that's true
oh yeah lmao. I didn't know what you meant by "cancel" so I just ignored it 
🔫
okay well anyway, thank you so much! 
np 
why exactly is it "obvious" that this diagram is commutative based on the axioms from a homology theory?
X,Y are non-empty topological spaces and H is any homology theory
also f is continuous but that should probably be clear already
The diagram commutes when you ignore the homology
Then applying homology should preserve commutativity I suppose
Functors preserve composition so they preserve commutative diagrams
ah yeah thanks that was quite the brainfart lol
is the set of all positive rational numbers whose square is bigger than 2 open or closed or neither in R
Neither
why isn’t it open
I think I’m brain farting here
Doesn’t it satisfy the definition of open set
Can you find a point in it such that an open ball isn’t contained in the set?
oh wait would the set of all reals with square >2 be open
Yes
is “rationals” the problem here since they act all weird in R
Yes
how do you articulate that
Take some point in the set, actually any point will work, so take 2 for example
Ok
Now given any open ball containing 2, can you think of a point not in the set?
Correct
Its related to the irrationals being dense
Them and their complement both
ohh
Rationals being dense and proper subset makes them not closed
Same for the complement
Ah, I meant my answer only for the not open part of the question
ye
Kind of unrelated question but what’s a canonical example of a (sequentially) compact space
Wow
any finite set with the discrete topology
Ye
also true
I think I’ve got some misunderstanding here
Is a_n = 1 for all n a sequence
Would that be like (1,1,1,…)
Yes
Yes
Ok, so isn’t that a sequence in [0,1]? And if so
yep
What is the convergent subsequence
itself
thats a series
@pulsar lynx it's a well known result that any compact metric space is sequentially compact. In fact it's iff
I can produce examples of a compact space that's not sequentially compact and vice versa but they're a bit messy
Compact always implies sequentially compact (compact iff net compact → sequential compact)
If there's a sequence without convergent subsequences, for each point in the space you take a neighborhood of that point containing no points of the sequence other than possibly itself
This is an open cover but each neighborhood contains at most one point of the sequence so can't have a finite subcover
Are you sure? We've done an example in class of a compact but not sequentially compact space
I mean that sounds correct
Yeah I think so
The other one has counterexamples, I think ω₁ with the order topology will be sequentially compact but not compact
Not compact is clear because identity net has no convergent subnet
Or also sets of the form [0, a) form an open cover without finite subcover
Sequentially compact should come from cofinality memes I think, all sequences in this are bounded
This is the example we gave in class, these are my notes so there may be small mistakes
Maybe the equivalence holds if you allow some countability axiom?
Or the implication rather
Pibase seems.to agree with me
That shouldn't be the case because the whole point of nets is that you aren't restricted to ctbl stuff
Interesting to see what side is wrong here, nothing obvious to me
Same here, really weird
Oh you mean for sequential compactness, yeah for that you need first countability I think
Hmm weird
So net compact doesn't imply sequentially compact? 
The only place that could break would be in the definition of subnets of a sequence
So there can be a sequence with convergent subnets but no convergent subsequences? 
Seems like it
I think I see what's going wrong here
Oh the sequence might have a convergent subnet!
That iself is not a sequence
Right?
Yeah I didn't know that subnets and subsequences could disagree like that for sequences 
But it seems to be the case
I feel betrayed
I hate nets now

I did net expect that
This deserves to be pinned imo

What's the thing missing between the sum and the comma here tho?
Lmao this guy went through the exact same confusion
With the exact same arguments

@flint cove it's supposed to be $$\sum_{i=1}^{\infty} \frac{t_i}{2^{i}}$$
ShiN
I forgot the infinity so the $\frac{t_i}{2^i}$ got carried over to the limit of the sum lol
ShiN
so just like, binary expansion
Oh wow 70+ votes on a topology question
All those other people who went through this 😌
Lmao
Turns out, for some circumstances, I need to learn a two semesters worth of geometry/topology in about... 3 weeks. How throughly fucked am I?
Depends on what you already know
Only stuff used in other classes (for example we dived a bit on metric spaces/normes vector spaces/compacts so we could properly define and generalize stuff like continuité/convergence/uniform convergence in terms of compacts, complete spaces stuff like that )
Imma just jump on a train 
I never saw [0,1]^{[0,1]}
anyone know a proof or where I can find a proof of this statement? f induces a group homomorphism from H_1(S^1) to H_1(S^1) which we will both identify with the additive group of integers via the same isomorphism. Therefore we have a homomorphism from Z to Z which is of the form n \to d \times n for some number d, which is the degree. That is our lecture definition of degree applied to S^1 specifically here
Hint: Hurewicz
I mean the idea is that geometrically $z^k$ wraps the unit circle around itself k times
MaxJ #MiuArmy
well I don't think I am specifically allowed to use hurewicz here, since we're supposed to work with any homology theory with coefficient group Z.
Now I know that the degree is independent of the homology theory if the coefficient group is Z, but I think that result only came later in the lecture and without that result I cannot directly use hurewicz here, or at least I do not think so.
I am not sure I understand what you mean
But if I was allowed to do so I guess I just use the fact that H_1(S^1) and the fundamental group are "naturally" isomorphic here since they're both abelian and then just show that the generator (simple loop) is mapped to k times the generator concatenated.
yes
naturality is important here btw
not just a vague word
You can prove this for the various equivalent formulations of singular homology but I think you will end up needing to reference the specific one unless you use hurewicz
well hurewicz works with p-chains if I remember correctly, but we have not specified our homology theory in that exercise.
there is a theory-agnostic construction of Hurewicz
but again if you already know all the theories are the same
there is no reason to tie your hands behind your back
well I just use that the degree is independent of the homology theory in that case anyways
Oh, then just choose a convenient one then
well the one with p-chains does the job, since we have only looked at that one so far and proved hurewicz for it
anyways thanks for the help
I went back to check, and I think it was this part
Yeah, I had to use an old scan on my phone, too
it's an older book
Let $M=[p_0,\ldots,p_m]$ be the m-simplex spanned by the independent points $p_i$, Let $C=C[p_0,\ldots,\hat{p_j},\ldots,p_m]$ be the cone over the face opposite $p_j$. I want to show there is a homeomorphism, just checking, the map $f:M\rightarrow C$ defined by
$$f\left(\sum_i t_ip_i\right)=[\sum_{i\neq j} t_ip_i,t_j]$$
Would suffice right?
I can also construct the inverse
ShiN
The height represents the missing barycentric coordinate in this case, so I think this was the construction they were shooting fore
tho what's the easiest argument for continuity here?
I mean I could define the map $T:[p_0,\ldots,p_m]\rightarrow [p_0,\ldots,\hat{p_j},\ldots,p_m]\times [0,1]$ as
$$T\left(\sum_i t_ipi\right)=(\sum_{i\neq j} t_ip_i,t_j)$$
Then clearly it is continuous in the first component as an affine map (I think it would be affine, but i'm not sure actually what $p_j$ is sent to in this case, since it can't be 0), but in the first component in fact I need to prove that the barycentric coordinates are continuous
and then I can just compose that with the quotient map to get my desired map
ShiN
But how do I prove the barycentric coordinates are continuous without just doing it with epsilonautics
actually I don't even think this construction would work because the map in the first component won't be affine
and it won't send convex combinations to convex combinations since i'm deleting a term so it's not even well-defined
so what can I do to show continuity here?
ok wait this map won't be well-defined either since it's not sending the first component to an element of the m-1 simplex
how can I remedy this?
maybe sending pj to the barycenter of the m-1 simplex would work
still tho how do I prove that the barycentric coordinates are continuous
well still thinking about this ^
but I have a new question
I know that all maps $f,g:Y\rightarrow X$ where $X$ is contractible are (freely) homotopic. I want to show that the fundamental group of a contractible space is trivial. I know I can just do this by showing that a homotopy equivalence induces an isomorphism of fundmental groups, but I want to know if there's a way to do this more constructively
ShiN
so I know any 2 loops are freely homotopic, but how do I show there's a relative homotopy preserving the basepoint?
fix a contraction of X to a point.
show that if f : S^1 -> X is any map, we can use the contraction to extend f to the cone of S^1
then use the fact that the cone of S^1 is homeomorphic to D^2
does that help?
I'm working with the definition of loops being from the unit interval to the space. I know both formulations are equivalent, but I wanna show it expilcitly using that formulation.
If using that formulation then yea i've seen that if such a map can be extended to D^2 then it is nullhomotopic rel some point
a function f : [0, 1] -> X satisfying f(0)=f(1) is equivalent to a function f' : [0,1]/~ -> X. can you tell me why you are not interested in making use of this equivalence?
(where ~ is the equivalence relation generated by 0 ~ 1)
If I show that the induced map on the sphere is nullhomotopic, then how can I turn that into a homotopy of the closed path?
Honestly just to check my understanding
gotcha
if you have a map $D^2\to X$, say with the basepoint $(1,0)$ on the boundary getting sent to $x_0$ in $X$
diligentClerk
diligentClerk
it is obvious that $f$ is homotopic to the constant math at the basepoint, by just shrinking the circle down to the basepoint
diligentClerk
then if you postcompose this with the map $D^2\to X$, you'll get a homotopy to a point
diligentClerk
like if you have $f : I\to (X,x_0)$ which sends both $0,1$ to $x_0$, then if you can prove that $f$ extends along the map $I\to D^2$ I just described, then it's clear $f$ is homotopic to the constant map at $x_0$
diligentClerk
(by a basepoint preserving homotopy)
Yea ok I see it now
thanks
Really the formulation of loops being maps from the circle is usually easier to work with
rotman did show it's equivalent
btw @plain raven any way you can help me with the previous problem? To sum it up all that I need to prove at this point is that the barycentric coordinates of a simplex are continuous. Is there a non annoying way to do this?
a simplex inherits its topology from $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$, in which it is a subspace
and with this, the barycentric coordinates are the projection functions $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}\to \mathbb{R}$
diligentClerk
but the barycentric coordinates don't necessarily coincide with the regular coordinates of the point
if you work in the $n$-simplex which is the convex hull of the basis vectors of $\mathbb{R}^{n+1}$ they should, right?
diligentClerk
oh wait you're right, any affine n-simplex is homeomorphic to the standard simplex
and there barycentric coordinates are just projections
so that's sufficient right?
yeah i think so
eh good enough for me
ok, so I have this diagram, where $\beta:X\rightarrow Y$ is a homotopy equivalence with $\alpha:Y\rightarrow X$ being its homotopy inverse. $\psi$ is the isomorphism induced by the homotopy $\alpha\beta \simeq 1_X$. Rotman uses this to prove injectivity of the induced map $\beta_*$ and says a similar diagram can be used to prove surjectivity
ShiN
but whenever I try to do a similar diagram, since I don't know if $\alpha$ is surjective, I end up with an induced map with different basepoints
ShiN
Like I end up with $\beta_*: \pi_1(X,\alpha\beta(x_0))\rightarrow \pi_1(Y,\beta\alpha\beta(x_0))$ instead of $\pi_1(X,x_0)\rightarrow \pi_1(Y,\beta(x_0))$
ShiN
What am I supposed to choose for the basepoint of $Y$ when doing the second diagram
ShiN
This is the diagram I forgot to post it
and these aren't based maps otherwise this would be obvious
Oh wait I think I got it. Since it's a homotopy Equivalence then the fundamental groups are isomorphic
Like $\pi_1(X,x_0)$ and $\pi_1(X,\alpha/beta(x_0)$
I got that part
I meant the part where beta* is surjective
Which he says can be done with a similar diagram
The basepoints didn't add up but I think it doesn't matter cuz of the isomorphism
Nobody
Ok yea it's surjective onto $\pi_1(X,\alpha\beta(x_0)$ but this means it's surjective onto $\pi_1(X,x_0)$ cuz of the isomorphism right
ShiN
Alright yea. The bit that confused me was just that the induced map is not unique is you're working in Top instead of Top*
Nobody
But it doesn't matter cuz of the isomorphism
Even though it's technically not the same up (up to composition with an isomorphism)
Nobody
hey guys, is there a book or resource that you'd recommend on geometric algebra?
Hestenes
New foundations of classical mechanics
He basically reformulated everything with geometric algebra
Thanks!
To be understood my question, δab is the kronecker delta
what is the * here
Ohh thank you 🙂
and ik that S_* is the herre thing right?
kleene star
i mean
It’s not, no
S appears to be referring to the singular simplicial complex, which is nonstandard notation
Alright. I’ll prove it for you
First, we’ve $\nabla_a \xi_b + \nabla_b \xi_a =0$
Dr.Marschett
I’ll use the manipulation of index with metric tensor, so we get
$g_{ab}\nabla^b g_{ba} \xi^a =-\nabla_b \xi_a$
Dr.Marschett
After it we pass the contravariant nabla to the right and make an integral
So
$g_{ab} g_{ba} \xi^a =-\xi_a \Rightarrow \ g_{ab} \xi_b = - \xi_a \Rightarrow \ \xi_a = -\xi_a$ where $2\xi_a =0$, so $\xi_a =0$
Dr.Marschett
The fundamental Theorem of Derivative says “If the partial derivative is in relation with a constant, it’ll be 0"
So $\nabla_b \xi_a =0$
Dr.Marschett
And with the first equation above, we prove $\nabla_a \xi_b =0$
Dr.Marschett
Now, the problem of the Kronecker delta. It only will be useful if and only if $\delta_{ab} =g_{ab}$
Dr.Marschett


