#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 241 of 1
So that is literally the definition?
well the free product can be defined several ways
you can use a universal property and then it's trivial
or you can use a nitty gritty concrete def with reduced words
and then you define f(abc...d) = f(a)f(b)...f(d), at the surprise of noone
where you pick the f that makes sense for each letter
and you need to check that it's well defined i suppose
Oh lmao. So then f is a homomorphism because f(g_1 g_1' g_2g_2') = a bunch of images of each g = f(g_1 g_1') f(g_2g_2')
Did you get that veryhappy?
and the universal property of the free product basically says that this gives a bijection between Hom(F*G,H) and Hom(F,H)*Hom(G,H)
so a morphism out of a free product is basically the same as a morphism out of each piece
Okay so Hatcher just proved that if Y is obtained from X by attaching 2-cells, then the inclusion X -> Y induces a surjection pi_1(X, x_0) -> pi_1(Y, x_0) so pi_1(Y) = pi_1(X)/N where N is the kernel. I understand everything up to the point where Hatcher says "the 2-cell is attached along the loop given by the product of the commutators of these generators...". What the heck does he mean by that?
Can give a shot at explaining that
So for the torus it should be like [a, b] = aba^-1b^-1. How do I attach a 1-cell given by this product?
Say you have a group term g₁…g_n of generators. You can draw the corresponding loops “flatly” by drawing a line segment and identifying the points.
If you now chain these line segments ---(g₁)---, ---(g₂)---, etc. into an n-gon, then the 2-cell you attach would correspond to the enclosed surface
This ensures that “walking along” g₁, …, g_n becomes contractible, i.e. the loop is homotopy equivalent to a point
ah, sorry @obtuse meteor, I was almost finished typing :/
it's fine lol
So here's a picture of the standard construction of the torus
call the red loop a and the green loop b
The central surface, say S, is attached along a, b, a^{-1}, b^{-1}
where you've started from the left corner
and just gone around the boundary
and so it's attached along this loop aba^{-1}b^{-1}, aka the commutator [a, b]
Hmm well I kind of see it, but not really. I get that if I do a, b, a^(-1), b^(-1) then I just made a loop around the square. But I don't see how that helps us attach something
This is what I'm seeing now and I can't see how aba^-1b^-1 tells me how to glue the rectangle to the 1 skeleton.
let's say that the red loop is a and the blue one is b
You glue the 2-cell to the one-dimensional entity (red-blue-red-blue), i.e. the frame of the square
so this attachment turns your 2-cell literally into the interior of the square
and that makes the frame (or would you say boundary?) of the square – considered as a loop through your 0-cell – contractible
because there suddenly is space inbetween belonging to X to drag this loop through
(I wrote whole paragraphs only to realize your misunderstanding was probably with a different thing lmao)
Hmm okay wait. So using commutators is like saying "okay we are not going to color the rectangle for you. We will instead just give you coordinates like aba^-1b^-1 and that will tell you the color and therefore a way to attach the 2-cell"?
okay maybe I shoud still paste this for some context
You're not “getting the attachment” out of something, you're introducing the attachment to achieve something (here: constructing a space with a given fundamental group).
My mental model of what happens here is as follows:
Essentially you're answering the question „how can I construct a space that has a fundamental group satisfying some set of equations (expressed by means of generators of a group)?“
And then you start seeing that
- You can construct such a space if the set of satisfible equations is empty: That's just the wedge sum of circles, one for each generator. The group we get is the (equation-)free group in blah generators.
- Let's just take this wedge sum as our starting point, and see if we can modify it in some way.
- Every equation (term on the lhs) ≈ (term on the rhs) can be equivalently written in the form e ≈ (term on the rhs) (term on the lhs)⁻¹, so the question of equality reduces to the question of what is equal to the identity (these things are also called relations).
- If we want our fundamental group to satisfy e = (some term) = g₁g₂…g_n (where every g_i is either a generator or its inverse), then by definition of the fundamental group we need to modify our space so that the loop (circle corresponding to g₁)(circle corresponding to g₂)…(circle corresponding to g_n) becomes contractible.
- Wait, we can just achieve that by filling the space covered by this loop! topologically this would just be an attachment of a 2-cell with said loop as boundary.
So this tells us that the space X we constructed has fundamental group π₁(X) = some group with blah generators satisfying our desired equations.
What we don't know yet is why the space we constructed does not satisfy any other equations, i.e. why this is actually the group with the presentation <gens, relations>

And this is the specific case of this general construction by introducing the equations e≈a₁b₁a₁⁻¹b₁⁻¹, i.e. „killing“ the corresponding loop by making it contractible by attaching a 2-cell
(hope I didn't say anything stupid, most people here know way more about AlgTop than myself)
ahhh yes okay I think that I got it now
Thank you so much for taking your time and writing all this out, I really appreciate it! 
yw, whatever keeps me from my numerical analysis exam prep
Lol yeah this is how I started imagining it as well when he said the 1-skeleton is the wedge sum of 2g circles
The thing is that the circles are perpendicular
So let's say (this is just how I intuitively imagined it I dunno how correct it is) we want to construct the torus by attaching a piece of paper to a frame
So the frame were given is the wedge sum of two circles
And they're perpendicular
So we start by attaching the piece of paper to one circle all around. We then reach the other circle and start attaching it to this one as well. So now we've done a loop ab and we're back at the basepoint x_0. But we're not finished yet. So the next step would either be to connect it first to the second circle again. But we can't really reach over to connect it to the other side we need to go back the way we came. So we connect it back along the first circle, this time attaching the paper to "the bottom" by the path a^(-1). And now that we're back to the base point we can attach the paper to "the bottom" of the other circle, but since we already defined the orientation on that circle the first time we went around it now we have to go by the path b^(-1). And that's how we attached a 2-cell to the 1-skeleton of a torus by the path aba^(-1)b^(-1) or the commutator [a,b]
Hello, could someone send to me a pdf about General Topology?
Lol why is there a munkres sticker
library genesis
Swastiga bypass 
Oh crap sorry for not responding, I was afk for a moment. Thank you so much for the explanation!
Do you’ve the link of pdf?
I don't really think the mods condone me sending a pirated copy so I'll just have to refer you to libgen
Np
Although it was pretty ironic that I saw your post since we're basically at the same point in the book
I see
Tbh I'm still kind of stuck at this lmao but it was late as heck yesterday when I asked so I'm back. Why do you need to quotient the whole group with the normal subgroup generated by the generators? Hatcher proved that if Y is obtained from X by attaching 2-cells, then the inclusion X -> Y induces a surjection pi_1(X, x_0) -> pi_1(Y, x_0) so pi_1(Y) = pi_1(X)/N where N is the kernel, but why is N in this case generated by the product of the commutators?
This has probably something to do with what lux explained yesterday but visually, aba^(-1)b^(-1) isn't nullhomotopic in the donut.
It is
assuming a and b are the 2 standard generators
a and b commute with each other
The intuition is that you can break the motion along a path on the donut into 2 components (along the big ring and along the small ring)
And the 2 components of the path can be done in any order, by which I mean, you can travel along b, then along a, or some t length along a, then along b (but rotated) and then continue along a
And that gives a homotopy
Lol I'm really struggling to put this into words
This is a followed by b, except I have just slightly moved them away from the basepoint for clarity on how they connect
This is the path after some time t. You moved some distance along a first, then do a big loop parallel to b, then finish a
I drew b pointing in the wrong direction in the last one lol
should be this
ignore the left arrow 
Hmm okay I think I see. So maybe you can image that when you are going in one direction along a loop, you’re “painting” the distance you have travelled. So if I go around the big loop I fill in that loop with say a red color. Then if I go around the small circle, I fill that in with blue. But then I do the big circle again so I’m un-painting that red color. Then I do b inverse and then I’m un painting that blue colour so now there’s no loop at all?
Meaning that I do aba^(-1)b^(-1)
Yeah you can think like that kinda
or just think like physics
what the above says is that you can break displacement along torus into horizontal and vertical components
and then just do them in either order
Ohhh yeah okay I see
dude! I've also been trying to learn about the torus
So [a, b] is in my kernel. But how I know that the kernel is generated by this commutator?
hold on I will have to catch up on the last discussion 
Okidoki
I am referring to the pi_1 thing and the relations in that
Isn't that exactly what van Kamber says? 😌
I’m trying to use this theorem here
(I don't know much advanced math, I'm just learning about it for fun, but what is the problem you trying to figure out?)
It seems that this is some definition of the genus g orientable surface? 
Like he's saying that that is the cell structure on this surface
So the kernel is all the things that are nullhomotopic in the donut thing, and now I know that [a, b] is nullhomotopic so it is in the kernel, but how do I know that the kernel is generated by the this?
Finding the fundamental group for the orientable surface of genus g
let me just see my copy of Hatcher lol give me a minute
found it 
and proposition 1.26 on p.50 is the one that I'm trying to use here (and Hatcher too I think)
Well assuming that the 2-cell is attached along the loop that Hatcher claims it is
Do you see that this is exactly what 1.26 says?
I mean I know that I need to use it, but I don't see how the N (kernel) is generated by [a,b] if we talk about the torus
What is the definition of N?
That's not the definition



Okay wait so N is generated by all the loops of the form \gamma \varphi \gamma inverse?
yep
Okay and how is that [a, b]

oh
oh okay so N is generated by all loops that are nullhomotopic after we attach the 2 cell. When we do that, then [a, b] are nullhomotopic to this guy generates N right?
no wait
man I can't
Give me a minute lol
I don't know what genus g orientable surfaces look like for g>1 though 
no intuition 
I think jesse sent a picture before let me search it up
Wait
for g = 3 it's a fidget spinner

I see
I was confused though
I cant really imagine a cell complex being cut and still connected
The best visualization is to just out like
G tori next to eachother
g*
And then smoosh
Someone earlier defined it as the maximum number of cuts in a cell complex such that it is still connected, g tori is easier to visualize
It wasnt cell complexes, it was in closed curve
the idea is
you can cut around any "r" loop on that image
and the thing will stay connected
because each hole buys you an extra cut
but once you run out of holes
any cut will clearly disconnect the thing
yes
Ah ok thats easy to think about
anyway toki have you done the 1 torus
i think the 1 torus and the 2 torus are the only ones you need to really understand and then you will hopefully get why the bigger picture works
oh toki lol I got what he is doing
Well not really, I'm trying to figure it out now lol
The gamma here are trivial
Because you don't need to do that change of basepoint thing in this case that he did earlier
See the definition of gamma
And so kernel is just generated by phi here
and phi is the product of commutators [a_i, b_i]
wait why is phi that product?
That's how he is gluing the 2-cell
for whatever reason
I have no visual intuition for this cell structure on the torus lol
ohh okay
I am just going with what he says 😌
Okay so this is easiest to see in my two smaller examples
For the torus, you have two loops, a and b
wedged together
then in order to make a torus out of it, you take a sheet of paper
and start gluing all the way around a
ugh how the hell do i explain this
over text
😵💫
wiat I had a pic of this
Oh i got jt
Isn't there some better cell structure
this?
You start with e0 being one point
this is by far the best cell structure
maybe less efficient but more intuitive
you glue two e1 cells to e0 but glue the intervals perpendicular
Okay I need you to close your eyes and imagine but also keep reading my message
let a be the big circle and b the little circle
cutting holes in my eyelids
you should be picturing like
the innermost donut circle
and any random circle around the other part
we have to glue a cell to make the "shell" of the donut
instead of telling you how to glue the cell
Oh thats way easier
It feels simpler to do that with 2 2-cells lol
thicken both circles a little bit
okay
so
we need glue on both sides of both loops
and we want to do it without picking up our glue gun
so we go around the "top" of a
then we go around the left side of b
then we go around the bottom of a
then we go around the right side of b
hold on 
that is exactly aba^{-1}b^{-1}
Picking up the glue gun after you are done applying all glue to one side?
you need to have the same mental image as me lol

How thick we making these circles we glueing around 👀
Theres a good picture in Hatcher gimme a sec
glue in a circle around g until you get back to h
then go around h until you get back to g
then you are on the unglued side of g
We glueing e^2?
so glue around g until you get back to h
then we are on the unglued side of h
so glue around h until we get back to where we started
note that you switch directions for the second two
then glue around a until you get back to b, on "top" of a
then glue around the left side of b
then you get to the bottom of "a"
but you can't cross b
so you have to glue in the a^{-1} direction
So we are changing orientation of our glueing direction but not picking it up
and then you get back to the unglued side of b
and instead of crossing a
glue in the "b^{-1}"
direction
Yeah, I got it now
thanks @novel acorn
Thanks 
yeah okay and that becomes aba^(-1)b^(-1) right?
yep!
Yes
now if you like
think about a genus g surface
with its 2g loops
you do the same basic thing with your gluing
i would suggest
doing it out for g=2
and then pretending it makes sense for g>2
Realistically compared to that $\pi_1(\mathbb{R}^3-K)$ construction he did this is easy
Irony Incarnate
can do that for sure 😌
in S^3
it's like the torus knots or something
Yeah that gave me PTSD I'm pretty sure
I'm not completely sure about everything he did there but I got like the general idea
hatcher has some horrific knot theorem with a super visual proof that took me and a friend like 20minutes of closing our eyes to picture properly
Oh I get it better, thanks max. So we use b to get the glue for e^2 “bottom side” of a
Why do we go backwards though
Why cant we just glue in a and b direction again
you would end up gluing the 2cell differently and wouldn't get a torus
is my real answer
Ah I see
let me visualize a second
yeah idk if i can give a good explanation other than saying "picture it yourself"
its hard to describe
Lmao
Can't wait

i think its the one you are talking about you should be past the worst part
well
that and lens spaces
to this day i dont fucking understand lens spaces
I know that they are like
Yeah I'm reading about covering spaces and thats pretty chill
I'm almost there at the covering spaces stuff
concept
2 part talk series
@pearl holly and @frigid river present the hatcher level covering stuff
and then @fading vale presents szmauley stuff

do it toki
The best way to understand something is to think about how you would explain it
I need to restart my blog
i keep saying this
and keep doing nothing toward that goal
"present the hatcher level covering stuff" wait what does this mean? Covering spaces?
I visualized having a 2ball and rolling it along the glueing
The problem with glueing my way is that when you cross b from top to bottom it ends up as a jump from the ball
Wow bad word descriptions
But pretty much crossing the boundary from top to bottom of b ends up with you not moving how you want to on the torus
However with your glueing crossing the boundary makes you end up on the antipodal side of the ball
Anyway thank you guys so much! Now I finally understand this!

im still trying exercise 16
I won't be soon lmao. I was stuck on this page for like 2 days and now I finally get it lmao
Imagine doing exercises jk Hatcher has some cool ones
Once you get the idea, those exercises in 16 will be ez
I think my problem is the bad part, its showing that no retraction exist. Im guessing the pattern is to assume one does, then show what goes wrong
But thats the hardest part for me lol, Brouwer fixed point proof is only one that did that
Try to reduce it to a case of a retraction that you know is not possible

S1 has one point that connects the space while R3 you can remove a bunch of points and the space is connected
16 is the infinite genus?
well in turns of the stuff that Hatcher has talked about in chapter 1
Have you seen any impossible retractions so far celina?
Only D2->S1
Right, so don't try to prove this from scratch, it will be harder 
Try to reduce it to the known case
Hmm moldi and I have different solutions in mind I think 
Send a spoiler walled solution 
Mine is ||any such retraction restricted to D² is a retraction D² → S¹ which can't exist||
Oh okay I see. Mine is ||no surjection from 0 to Z||
don't click celina
this is top secret
Tbh most of these can be done that way
Except maybe c)
Is the trick in C) that ||S1 isn't contractile||
Oh wait is it just very similar to the argument he made, assume there is a retraction r
Then let a loop in S1 be f. f is homotopic to constant loop in R3 since R3 is simply connected, let the homotopy be f_t.
Then r being identity when restricted to S1 implies rf_t is a homotopy in S1.
But this is a contradiction because rf_t homotopic to constant loop implies any loop in S1 is constant which contradicts pi1(S1)=Z
Yeah that works
Sort of copy and paste from his proof
How would you use that?
Sort of a first idea but looking at the loop better is isn't really viable
It would work if we needed to show that a retraction T->S1 isn't possible
T being?
Torus
I see
I saw that he uses that for the torus so I started using it as well
Not contractible would probably only give you non deformation retract right?
it is much better to write T^2 for the torus
Also for c I would use the kind of thing toki did for a
The homotopy in R3 is the linear homotopy so,
f: I x I -> R3 f(s,t)=(1-t)f + xt, where x is a basepoint in R3.
So hat r supposes to do is this,
r:R3->S1, rf: I x I -> R3 -> S1.
Let me get this right. Since r when restricted to S1 is the identity, rf=f (Is this f restricted to S1?). And f restricted to S1 supposes a homotopy in S1 from any loop to the constant loop.
Is this right?
Or is it more explicit that rf_0=f_0 and f_1=rf_1=x
Not necessarily that rf_t=f_t since f_t might not be restricted to S1
Part B is showing no retraction from X = S1 x D2 to A = S1 x S1.
Unlike our previous argument, the solid torus isnt convex so it probably isnt simply connected so I cant argue with that, But if a retraction exist
r:X->A then we are saying that r: S1 x D2 -> S1 x S1 exists. I think from one of the theorems shown in the chapter that, pi1(X x Y) is isomorphic to pi1(X) x pi1(Y) if X,Y are path connected which implies that pi1(S1 x D2) is isomorphic to Z and S1 x S1 is isomorphic to Z x Z.
However this would mean that a homotopy class of loops, [f] in pi1(X) when composed with our retraction r gives us the identity when restricted to A. Let f be a loop in [f] and g be a loop in [g] in pi1(A). So rf is homotopic to loop g in A. But this would imply that [f] homotopic to [g] which implies pi1(X)=pi1(A) which is a contradiction.
I think I should explicitly define the homotopies, but im not exactly sure how to for this one.
Nah this all seems wrong because why would rf be homotopic to g
one thing i will say
that i think a few people here would benefit from
is that you should really be a little more willing to live fully in algebra land
once you translate a problem from a topology one to an algebra one
for example
if one attempts to solve b) by finding a contradiction at the level of pi_1
you should just think about Z
not like
Z being made up of maps
✈️ me going to algebra land
Hmm I'm thinking of a algebra proof here
The context of these is fundamental group stuff, right?
Because my first instinct would have been to ||compare (co)homology groups, as they are homotopy invariants ||
didnt learn em yet
Whats the easier way? Thinking about the projection maps from the product?
Well I'm thinking about the retractions and fundamental groups. What do you know about retractions?
so kind of like lux said, I would compare Z to ZxZ (but without any cohomology thing)
A function r:X->A with r(r(x))=r(x)
@pearl holly are you getting at the fact that ||homotopy groups are invariant under homotopy equivalence||?
Hmm not really, my solutions is different
What properties does it have?
I mean if the ||fundamental groups are different then there cannot be any homotopy equivalence hence retraction between the spaces||, right? that should simplify a lot of cases
Or am I being stupid
retractions imply homotopy equivalence is the part im having trouble putting into worda for each case
Hmm that might be true, but not every deformation retraction is a retraction, right?
No but the difference between a retraction and a deformation retract is a homotopy
so you compose the retract with the homotopy
Oh, darn, I never really looked at the subtlety retraction vs. deformation retraction
my bad
Okay so you have two different fundamental groups, Z and ZxZ. You want to compare them. You also know that the incusion is a right inverse to the retraction. Try to translate this info to get something between Z and ZxZ
If you have a map between two spaces, can you translate this map so that it goes between their fundamental groups?
Well yea
Loops in space A going to space B
and the retraction implies that loops in space A retract to something in B, not necessarily a loop
Okay so as you said, the inclusion is a right inverse to the retraction, right?
Yes
the map from i:A->X such that ri=id(A)
And what is that statement equivalent to?
This is the hard part for me
yeah I see. Hatcher talked about this. Maybe replace "translate" with "induces"
Oh it induces a homomorphism pi( A)->pi(X)
And what is this equivalent to?
r composed with loops in A are id(A)
Or
i induces a homomorphism from piA to piX
Because of this
Okay so you know that the retraction has a right inverse. Does the same hold for the homomorphism induced by the retraction?
I don't know if I am doing a good job at this lmao
So you are asking if the homomorphism induced from the retraction has i* as a right inverse where i* is the inclusion map for pi1(A)?
yes
The thing here is that we know that Z and ZxZ are different. We also have some info about the retraction, namely that it is surjective. We want to convert this info into the algebra word so that we can play around with Z and ZxZ
I dont clearly see how it is surjective but I do know that ‘(id(A))*(ri)= r_i_ which should mean that i_ is right inverse of retraction‘
wtf
(underscores need a backslash like \_ for escaping, or they're gonna be used for emphasis)
Yeah that is true. So the induced homomorphism from Z to ZxZ should be surjective
Hmmmm

Ok then we just need a way to show injective and then it becomes a contradiction
injective?
If retract has a left inverse then that leads to a contradiction
because it would imply Z iso Z x Z
yeah I guess, I get your idea. Wouldn't it be easier to show that there can not exist a surjective homomorphism from Z to ZxZ?
I think you're making this too complicated, you just need to show that there's no surjection ℤ→ℤ×ℤ
Lol
is being stupid and needs to think
Nevermind what I wrote earlier and deleted, it was completely wrong.
Whats an easy way to show that, I feel likes its true because if it wasnt then there would be an inverse function from Z x Z to Z that is a right inverse of Z to Z x Z
And then numbers like (1,0) and (0,1) would probably not preserve homomorphism, but I dont see exactly how
Hint
whenever you are working with ZxZ and Z and want to show a homomorphism can't exist
the answer is almost always to pay attention to (1,0) and (0,1) and maybe (1,1)
and find something that makes no sense
Surjection implies there is an a,b that maps f(a)=(1,0) and f(b)=(0,1). Homomorphism implies f(a+b)= f(a)+f(b)
a and b cant be 1 and -1 because f(a)+f(b)=(1,1)
Yes thats true since ri is identity
Hint: ||compare i(0,1) and i(1,0)|| much stronger hint: ||Z is cyclic||
Only opened first hint, I cant really think of what they would map to lol but I would know that it cant be 1,-1.
well
spoiler
there is nothing sensible they can map to
so in particular im not asking you to find it
im asking you to do something with it
That shows a contradiction?
yes
keep in mind
you need to use r for the contradiction to work
because Z^2->Z can exist without an issue
So i(1,0) maps to a and i(0,1) maps to b.
So ri(a+b)=a+b
you dont need (1,1) this time i hadn't solved it when i said that
but yes thats true celina
you want to combine i(1,0), i(0,1) and a very basic fact about Z
where both of those live
Is it something about them generating a subgroup of Z?
But ri(S) = S fails or something?
Oh, (1,0) and (0,1) are generators of Z x Z
And a,b cant be 1 or -1
no you don't have to think about any other elements
just those two
but im not sure youve proven that they can't be 1 or -1 yet
a priori thats not a huge deal, because the map might not be surjective into Z
but comparing Z and ZxZ generators
isnt a bad idea
Since r is surjective i should take generators of Z x Z to generators of Z
why?
I think that would only be true with isomorphisms because if x is a generator then <r(x)>=Z x Z
Ah yes Z is cyclic
I was thinking that a and b are representable by 1^a and 1^b
That’s a good start yes
Can I get one more hint or does it give it away?
Perhaps draw pictures of some homomorphisms
I remember when the teacher did that in class it would make it clear, but I never drew one myself
I think i might be able to give a slightly easier version of this same problem
which might be instructive
Z and ZxZ are quite visual
how is ur linear algebra celina
it might be easier to show that there is no (linear) retraction R^2->R->R^2
and then its the exact same proof basically for Z but you have a little bit of modification
Oh ok
So it the idea to use the fact that with Z there is “multiplication” being repeated addition?
Ive always felt like that was hacky when doing group stuff
keep in mind that f(x^n)=f(x)^n for a group homomorphism
its not hacky
although sometimes people are secretly thinking of Z as a Z-module
which justifies some stuff
You can only view abelian groups as Z modules because of that fact
So the justification has to come from elsewhere
Unless I'm misunderstanding
So r is the homomorphism.
So r(i(1,0)i(0,1))=r(ab)=r(1^a1^b)=a*(0,1) =(0,a) and r(ba)=b*(1,0)=(b,0)
the two comments were unrelated
im talking about treating abelan group homs as z-linear maps
abelian*
oh ok
celina im just gonna go ahead and say now
This feels hacky to me. So 1^a * 1^b is ab and ba in Z
you should really write + for abelian groups
Put the message in backticks to not get italics
So I might as well just keep 1^a as a
yes
I feel like all of you algebra nerds are over complicating this
I am trying not to
wherever 1 maps to, that determines the entire map
yes
i was trying not to solve the problem for them lol

although i don't think thats the best way of phrasing it
I mean the correct intuition here imo
is that Z^2 has two linearly indepedent generators
and Z has one
Yes
so passing through Z
has to ruin a generator
and you have to explain why that makes it impossible for ri=id
It's good intuition for the non existence of a surjection from Z to ZxZ 
That's what I was hinting at with drawing homomorphisms lol
yeah fair maybe i was focusing too much on using the whole theorem
you can show this is impossible with the Z->ZxZ map alone
i feel like that's over complicated but i have a terminal case of analyst brain so 🤷
Draw how though
f(z)=(0,z), f(z)=(z,z)
See the common theme
Right, draw ZxZ
It's a grid of points
See where the images are
Then do the same for some other homomorphisms
the images can only be lines on z x z
where is A
ignore that
ok
I want to recap
Oh I understand when you said enter algebra world
Once we get the induced homomorphism we dont need to think about loops
yes
wait i just realized there is a way easier way to prove this lol
ill save that for later

lets keep with what we have for now
||the first map is easy to give explicitly and isn't injective||
For recap, we have that the induced homomorphism from retraction is injective with the induced homomorphism from inclusion map being its right inverse.
So r is a surjective homomorphism meaning that ri=id(A).
This isnt possible because there is no surjective homomorphism r from Z -> Z x Z
This is because if there was then i(1,0)=a,i(0,1)=b
r(ab)=a(0,1) and r(ba)=b(1,0) and a(0,1) not equal to b(1,0) [Which I feel is the hackiest part, but I sort of understands]
Wow thats nasty lemme clean
uh
that second to last line isn't correct
and has some issues
i(0,1) and (1,0) don't exist in the same group
one is in Z and the other in ZxZ
Yea thats part of the reason why I feel it is hacky because we take a(1,0)= (1,0)+...(a-times)
oh no
its right now
i see what you meant the first time
What part is hacky to you
Only operation defined in a group is addition and then we pull out a shorthand for multiplication being repetition of addition, which I guess it is.
(a,0) = (1+...+1, 0) = (1,0)+...+(1,0)
Multiplication by a is just shorthand
You can re write everything without it if you want

okay
now time for the geometric proof that i told you not to think about because im dumb
the first map T^2->X is explicitly given, it is the inclusion of the boundary
T^2 has two generators, a and b
let b be the big loop
then the image of b in X is nontrivial
but the image of a in X is contractible
because the donut is filled in
hence i_*(a)=0
but then Z^2->Z can't be injective
so Z^2 -> Z -> Z^2 def can't be the identity
basically, filling in the donut kills one of the homotopy generators
Celina you proved a much stronger theorem
there is no retract T^2->X->T^2
Yea
regardless of what the first map is
hatcher lets you assume the first map is the boundary inclusion which lets my easy proof work
Thats part of what I was thinking at first, use the projection map from S1 x S1 -> S1 x D2
But I didnt think past the hence i_*(a)=0
@pearl holly here's a quick usage of that theorem i told you I liked
Clearly the inclusion S^1xS^1 -> S^1 x D^2 allows the "right" loop to extend over D^2 making it contractible
Wait why i_*(a)=0 imply i:Z^2 -> Z cant be injective, Injective implies for x,y in Z x Z, i(x)=i(y) => x=y, since for a_j in img(a), i_*(a_j)=0 implies i(a_1)=i(a_2)=0
Answered myself?
A group homomorphism is injective iff the only element sent to the identity is the identity
Thats a simplier way to put it, and what i wrote is slightly wrong
@pearl holly part c) is wtf.
Its a loop locked with itself, not exactly sure where to start with it
hint: in the last problem it didn't matter that hatcher told you what the first inclusion map was
in this one it does
since S^1 x D^2 does retract onto a circle, just not the one hatcher drew
Wait what
Hatcher didnt tell us the inclusion map in the last one
Its just obvious
no, hatcher told you what subset of S^1 x D^2 you were talking about
thats equivalent to telling you what the inclusion is
He doesnt tell us what A is
he drew it
Just draws a funny picture
he drew enough to solve the problem
Oh man
So I should not try and write what A is exactly, but just assume I have i:A->X
Yeah don't try to come up with an explicit description of the inclusion 
I wonder if I can just work with S1 and his circle instead of thinking of the solid torus and his circle
in theory you can
you don't need to
think about what $[A]$ is in $\pi_1(S^1\times D^2)=\bZ$
texit?
set of loops equivalent under a homotopy on S1?
i(A) is a loop
inside of S^1 x D^2
can you figure out which element of Z is corresponds to once you take homotopy classes
A like our given A?
texit is on vacation 
not visually, but while I try following it with my terrible eyesight I do see it go around twice
does it
Wait
I cant tell if it goes around in one direction and switches directions, or just goes around twice in same direction
I think it switches directions
So it would probably be 0
Ok so it goes around twice in one direction
does it
it goes around 180 degrees
switches back
and then goes back around
and switches back again
180?
Yes but it doesnt go halfway around?
okay a little more than halfway
Am I visually stunted that badly?
I did the exact same
okay start at the red
we go around 4 yellow markers
then switch back
go around the inner part
and then switch back again
and go back to the start
Yes I see it
good hahaha
I was picking a starting point close to the intersection
So it just felt like I was going around twice
i think you might be overcomplicating it
important question
can the loop pass through itself?
That would require passing the "string" through the hole in the doughnut
Like does our loop pass through itself, no. In general they can
okay so
if we want to contract this loop
are we allowed to pass it through itself?
hahaha
But doesnt S1 x D2 retract to S1 by taking x/|x| for x in S1 x D2?
this is why the specific copy of S^1 matters
you have to use the given i
not any i
But by trying to contract our loop A into S1 arent we making i:S1 x {a}-> S1 x D2?
huh
you have $A\subset S^1\times D^2$ which induces $i:S^1\hookrightarrow S^1\times D^2$ where $i(S^1)=A$.
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
you don't know very much about $i$ but you already told me what you need to know about $i_*:\pi_1(S^1)\to \pi_1(S^1\times D^2)$
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
Not exactly sure what I have told you, but some times I can think of are:
r_*:pi1(S1 x D2)->pi1(A) is a homomorphism, so r_*i_*: pi1(S1) -> pi1(S1 x D2) -> pi1(A)
I cant write exactly how, but if you merge the inner and out paths then A contracts to that red point of yours
After deep introspection I am hoping that this problem isnt trying to distinguish S1 being homotopy equivalent to S1 x D2, but the inclusion map doesnt give a homotopy equivalence or something silly like that.
Okay, what is the class of A in $\pi_1(S^1\times D^2)$
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
what loop does it represent, up to homotopy
0
Because it can be dragged to a point is my reasoning
It contracts to a point
Ah
Yes
So because A in S1 x D2 is in homotopic to constant loop by some homotopy h_t and our retract brings loops in S1 x D2 to A we can have rf_0=f_0 is homotopic to a point x where f_0 is a loop in A
This just tells us that A in S1 x D2 is nullhomotopic
You’re thinking about the wrong map
What does this tell you about i_*
What is i(S^1)
We have that i(S1)= A so the induced homomorphism would be i*:pi1(S1)->pi1(A)
So its not true that the induced homomorphism takes loops in the domain to loops in the image?
well it does
uhhh
okay so the definition of the induced homomorphism
is that it takes the domain and codomain of the original map
i.e. if we are thinking about
$i:S^1\to S^1\times D^2$
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
r induces a homomorphism from pi(S1 x D2) -> pi1(A)
sure but we are still talking about i lol
Well what more is there to talk about, dont we wanna show why r can't exist
It will be obvious why r cannot exist once we finish talking about i
do you remember how in the last example, by considering i we showed that no r could exist
because one of the loops ended up being contractible
so, i am telling you now
you can tell me exactly what $i_*$ is
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
from what you already know
I would say that i_* takes loops in S1 to loops in S1 x D2, but I think it should be information regarding A. But before that Since we already know the fundemental groups can we think of i_*:Z -> Z
Okay what is i(S^1)
i(S1)=A, but that doesnt mean that i_*(pi1(S1)) = pi1(A)?
it does not
is i_* injective because r_* acts like a left inverse?
That means there is a deformation retract to a point
$\pi_1(A)$ is not a subset of $\pi_1(S^1\times D^2)$
Irony Incarnate
okay yes but what does it tell you about the image of $i_*$
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
Brother moment?
Okay let's be explicit
i_* goes to constant loop
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
non sensically 0?
nonsensically?
I want to run it back a little
okay
What problem are you on
they are on d i think
Oh no its C)
i_* goes to a constant loop because A is contractible. A contractible means there is a deformation retract to a point. But why would this retract have to be i*
c
huh
Let $\gamma:[0,1]\to S^1$ be a loop in $S^1$. How to we compute $i_*(\gamma)$
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
what is the definition
You mean $i_*([\gamma])$
Irony Incarnate
Yes I think
Mhm
anyway
Where our i_* is from pi(S1)->pi1(S1 x D2)
how do you construct $i_*([\gamma])$
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
whats the definition
Just [i\gamma], where i is normal inclusion map?
So it gamma goes from I -> S1, i goes from S1 -> S1 x D2, So i_*:pi1(S1)->pi1(S1 x D2) has it that i_*(\gamma)=[i\gama]
Okay
Do you know how to describe the map $\gamma:[0,1]\to S^1$ that represents $1\in \bZ$
MaxJ (Glass Animals Arc)
(It's okay to just describe it visually please do not write down any trigonometry)
The loop that goes around once and thats it.
The loop that goes around once in S1 x D2?
Well we know i(S1)=A, so I would say i\gamma are points on A
I'm trying to prove that the intersection of a collection of dense open sets in a compact hausdorff space is nonempty
this is correct
so in particular, i\gamma is....
the loop A itself
okay and that loop is?
that loop is contractible
so [i\gamma]=?
0
so i_*(1) is?
0
oh ok
Then we have that i_*: pi1(S1)-> pi1(S1 x D2) with i_*(x)=0 for x being any homotopy class of loops in S1
This is an issue because ri=id(A)
yep!
Ill write it out more concisely
Let C be a collection of dense open sets in X.
Cl(C_i)=X
Since X is compact hausdorff its normal which means closed sets admit disjoint open neighborhoods.
So Cl(C_i) intersect Cl(C_j) have disjoint open neighborhoods A,B respectively. However since Cl(C_i)=Cl(C_j)=X, how can A intersect B be empty?
oh, thanks
No
I dont know how to solve your problem
I really dont know how A intersect B can be empty
hmm
okay so I was trying to do the analog of the proof you do for complete metric spaces
however not having a notion of convergence is making it a lil hard
What is the proof for complete metric spaces?
you basically start at U_1 at some point s_1, draw an open ball inside it, consider the intersection with U_2, pick a point s_2, so on
Is it, let X be a complete metric space. Show that a colleciton of open dense sets in X have non empty intersection?
ye
The union of those U_a = X
not sure if that holds in general
same here
i'll think about it while at the gym
pov: you're at the gym and you notice a guy staring at absolutely nothing with a blank face
it happens 🙂
Me when new Hatcher chapter is finished
With what
How cna Cl(C_i) and Cl(C_j) have disjoint open neighborhoods if they both equal X
Oh
I think C_i and C_j need to be disjoint closed neighborhoods
Wait nevermind I think I got it.
First we assume that C_i are disjoint collection of dense open sets
Then we have that Cl(C_i) intersect C_j is empty.
That would imply X intersect C_j is empty, which is false
That seems overly complicated. Does it not follow directly from the C_i being dense and open?
Assume there is a retraction $r:S^1 \times D^2\to A$
We also have that $ A \subset S^1 \times D^2$ which has inclusion map $i:S^1 \hookrightarrow S^1\times D^2$ with $i(S^1)=A$
This inclusion map has induced homomorphism being
$i_:\pi_1(S^1)\to\pi_1(S^1\times D^2)$
With imagination we can see that A is contractible to a point by taking the inner path of A and pushing it outwards towards the outer path , then we shrink the paths to a point. We can do this because with homotopies we can cross through our original path.
With the fact that A is contractible we have that for any homotopy class of loops [f] in $\pi_1(S1)$,
$i_([f])=0$
The problem with this is that $ri=\mathbbs{1}=\mathbbs{1}*=(ri)$ Since $r_i_$ is the identity on $\pi_1(S^1\times D^2)$ that means that homotopy classes of loops in $S^1\times D^2$ are sent to themselves, but this cannot be the case if $i_([f])=0$ for all homotopy classes of loops.
mathbb 1 isn't a thing (without extra packages)
It is if you use an extension package it's like mathbbs iirc
celina baeza
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
i see 
But that's Hatcher's notation for the identity
Is my proof ok?
And for clarification i_(f)=0 because i_(f) gets mapped to [if] which is a homotopy class of loops in A. A is contractible which means that the identity map on A is homotopic to a constant loop. So all loops in A are homotopic to constant loop
here ,a morfism from $f:X \rightarrow Y$ to $f':X \rightarrow Y$ is a homotopy $F: X \times I \rightarrow Y$ or is the class of homotopy $[F]$?
Or x1
Homotopy class of F
F
wait what does he mean?
What
He is asking if morphisms in the homotopy category are homotopies from f:X->Y to to f':X->Y, or what?
So the objects are f:X->Y, f':X->Y and the morphisms are the homotopies between them?
I would not call this the homotopy category 
Yes but they're given by the homotopy class
Since not all the maps are homotopic to one another you have to look at the homotopy class to see which ones are
Yes
The img he posted said homtopy category is obtained by identifying morphisms f_0,f_1:X->Y which are homtopic to one another, sorry if I misinterpreted
2 different categories are being defined here
category Map(X,Y)?
yes
The homotopy category I feel would be a category whose objects are homotopy classes
But here he just defines a category of maps
is like a 2-category
mb not sure what that is.
the objects are topological spaces and the morphisms are homotopy classes of maps from X to Y
is a category in wich you have objects, morfism and morfism between morfism
in this case morfism between morfism are homotopy clases
Objects: X,Y,Z
Morphisms: f_0,f_1,f_2
Morphisms between morphisms: Homotopies?
This isnt a 2 category
why?
Why would it be? There are only objects (continuous maps) and morphisms (homotopies of continuous maps)
you can't include topologies as objects, continuous maps are morphisms, and homotopies of continuous maps as morphisms between morphisms?
😌
Also like to be clear here the homotopy is relative to X times partial I because otherwise a homotopy of a homotopy F to a homotopy G does not necessarily preserve the maps F_0 and F_1
Whats happening here is the category Maps(X, Y) has objects continuous maps f: X -> Y and morphisms a homotopy class of homotopies f -> g
think of it as like "any two homotopies from f to g that are homotopic to each other define the same morphism in Maps(X, Y)"
does that make sense
also to be clear this is not the same thing as the naive homotopy category
whose objects are the same as Top and whose morphisms are homotopy classes of maps
So like any homotopies that are in the same homotopy class define the same morphism, being their homotopy class?
they need to be homotopic rel X times boundary I
because like
a homotopy F from f0 to f1
might be homotopic to another homotopy G from g0 to g1
and we dont necessarily have f0 = g0 and f1 = g1
When you say homotopic rel X times boundary I you mean
F: X x I -> Y has F|X x {0} = f_0=g_0 and F|X x {1} = f_1=g_1?
So a homotopy of homotopies is of the form H: X x I x I -> Y
With H:X x I x {0} ->Y = F and H:X x I x {1} - > Y = G
yes, and H x {0} x I = f0 = g0 and H x {1} x I = f1 = g1
Why does this evoke silly in my soul?
all math is silly
My fault this feels disrespectful, if I live another 5 years this might be relevant to my life
how do you people do stuff without a metric jeez
mom I want to go back to my metric spaces
half of the topology section of this book i'm reading is literally
here is why hausdorff spaces are amazing
the thing is i'm trying to prove that the countable intersection of dense open sets in compact hausdorff spaces are nonempty
I can sort of construct a sequence a_i that is in each U_i but I can't show that the sequence has a "limit"
Wait until you read algebraic topology 
I think I got it remember
Let A be the collection of dense open sets that are disjoint
X is normal and Cl(A_i)=X
I think disjointedness is preserved when you take closure
Lol thats called an asspull
But disjointednes is preserved for a single closure
Well we know that disjointedness is preserved for a single closure
So A_i intersect A_j disjoint should imply that Cl(A_i) intersect A_j is disjoint
But X intersect A_j disjoint is impossible
I feel like this would imply that this theorem would hold for basically all topological spaces
but this theorem implies baire
baire category theorem

Not that kind of category
So, let S be a normal space. Suppose S = U T_n where T_n are nowhere dense. Then S= U Cl(T_n) and \emptyset = \bigcup Cl(T_n)'
what is '
is (x)' the complement?
yes
oooo


