#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 227 of 1
We do, because we need finite non empty sets to not be open
Follows from these being a basis I think no? Bc these are all infinite sets
Yep
Yeah
The way it's written suggests that any topology containing them would work
I mean I don't think the author was trying to give details of how the proof goes
well yeah, which are the two things that a "technical" in the proof




also it's not necessary to prove this, is it ?
viewing it as a subbasis should suffice, no ? 🤔
like just take the coarsest topology that contains all the S(a, b) as open sets
but that makes proving the fact that no open set is finite a bit longer, ig ?

You'd want to prove then that finite intersections of those sets can't be finite
And that's pretty much proving that they form a basis
yeah right, good point 
What's an easy way to compute a (Zarisky) orbit closure of some group acting on a matrix?
I'm trying to figure out a way to do it in Macaulay2
I only need the ideal I should say
My study group and I were trying to do this problem (section: connected spaces), but we were completely stumped. Does anyone have any pointers so we can figure this out?
My thought is to focus on the function |f(x)-x|. And I've already shown such a function is continuous. Since [a, b] is connected, so is the range, and so the range must be an interval.
However, the issue I am having is that I am not sure how to show 0 is in the interval 🤔
Hmmm. I see where you're trying to go here. I'm just not sure how to sure there are positive and negative values of f(x)-x
Son of a bitch
Since a is the endpoint, f(a) must either be equal to or bigger than a
The opposite holds for b
Thanks for the help mate!
ty ultra
Yea I know. Tbh, I am not so sure why I struggled with that one: I have done this kinda problem before.
But it's okay. I got it now

okay how do these guys work
like is it just you imagining it as an infinitely stretchy square
and then rotating stuff so that it matches
But ive been having trouble imagining RP^2
and when i googled it ppl were cutting them and stuff so idk
how can that be justified 
wdym "cutting"
it doesn't actually intersect itself as far as I'm aware
oh cutting as in physically constructing
idk if it really helps at all, but you could also pull the corner in a lil bit to make it a disk, and then the gluing is just identifying antipodal points
hmm
maybe it's more helpful to just look at the disk before gluing, and then view the quotient as having portals?
lmao
shoo
okay so im thinking about this stuff and boy
this self intersection shit
is kinda cringe
like ngl
Doesn't this mean that wrt the fundemental polygons
we are gluing more than one thing together 
like more things than we want to glue
so what's the deal with this
or am i missing sth and this is not a problem
bcs with this same idea i can come up with a bunch of different representations of "the" torus that are not homeomorphic, starting with the defining fundemental polygon
yeah that immersion shit
So my main question is how do these fundemental polygons even define
so I believe it is a similar situation as one that you might have heard with a Klein bottle
these topological spaces
the self intersections where we don't want them aren't actually self intersections
they just appear that way because you've put it in R^3
hmm
So the space formed from the fundemental polygon is simply the object in the smallest? dimension such that we have no self intersections?
uh
im not sure about smallest
but the point is that we are doing nothing to the square besides identifying the edges in a particular arrangment/orientation
self-intersection not at these points is explicitly not allowed
idk if that answers ur question
well yea
i mean these were given w/o context in the book
so im trying to clue out the defn
a fundamental polygon defines a cw-complex structure
this helps show the explicit quotientiation, at least
i cee i cee
i still don't intuitively get what a CW complex is 
lol
google 
My go-to mental picture is that of a 1-skeleton (i.e., a graph) where all of a sudden a wild 2-disk appears and gets welded to said skeleton on its boundary
Another mental animation I have is taking a circle as your 1-skeleton, and then imagining the 2-disk slightly different: You make an incision , take the midpoint in your hands and place it above the circle, and then wrap it around a circle to form something like an ice-cream cone. Ofc the incision has to align perfectly once you're done wrapping (so we actually get a continuous map
And then I imagine the same ice cream cone procedure just „wrapped around twice“, i.e. every point on the circle meets two layers of 2-disk-waffle and the incision still ligns up perfectly, and I have my example of an attachment with „double boundary“ (i.e. ∂(that 2-cell) = 2*(Σall the 1-cells))
not sure if that helps you in any way tho.
donut
🍎
squirtlespoof
I figured out the trivialization thing it's really cute
Here's a fun illustration of this
Suppose you have a unipotent vector bundle with flat connection (E,\nabla) on an elliptic curve X=C/(Z+\tau Z) where the monodromy representation π_1(X,0)->GL_2(C) sends \alpha (the straight path from 0 to 1) to the unipotent matrix (1,a;0,1) and sends \beta (the straight path from 0 to \tau) to the unipotent matrix (1,b;0,1).
Show that (E,\nabla) is holomorphically trivial precisely if a\tau-b=0
So this might be an odd question but I've just read the definition of a topology and I am already confused. I've heard that topology studies "rubbery geometry", so how can the definition of a topological space have any connection to the "rubbery geometry"?
Oh okay. So, in simple terms, what does topology study then?
So what are homotopies?
particular pseudoalgebras of sets
a more serious answer is that it studies "qualitative" properties of maps and spaces
well just look at the latin root of the word, homo-topy; same-place. homotopies are just places in topologies that are all the same as each other. yep.
if that sounds really vague
and like it could apply to like
half of math
then yeah
topology is very broad
the most invoked topological property is that of continuity
which youre probably familiar with from analysis.
the topological definition of continuity, however, is divorced from fiddly epsilon delta constructions and whatnot
"a function such that preimages of open sets are open"
So like the classical example of a mug "transforming" into a donut is a homotopy?
thats a homeomorphism.
oh
homotopy talks about functions
homeomorphisms about spaces
you can view a homeomorphism as a special case of a homotopy for that reason
Man, it really feels like I am getting into topology without even knowing what it is... I hope this will be fun
Well I am trying to self study it without even knowing the reason behind my choice
many of the more abstract fields in maths are just like. in order to work out what you can do with it you have to understand it
topology is very useful tho
Hey, I'm trying to understand the solution to this question about finding lines on a cubic surface.
The question given is the following
I don't understand the last line in the picture above
Why must every line intersect the line $L_1$?
snypehype
You mean something like $\mathbb{P}^1 \rightarrow \mathbb{P}^3 : [u:v] \mapsto [0:0:au+bv:cu+dv:eu+fv]$?
I don't see how that helps
snypehype
I meant $\mathbb{P}^1 \rightarrow \mathbb{P}^3 : [u:v] \mapsto [0:0:au+bv:cu+dv:eu+fv]$
snypehype
Question
why isn't every CW complex contractable
say i have this guy
I can contract the disk guy into a point 
hmm

it's paint
oh word?
i guess that's why
Yeah you're right
I need to get used to spheres being the boundaries
and stuff
why so 
I thought that
you could contract the disk down to a point
then you'd have S^1 
And i guess i erroneously thought that was contractible too
hrm
but regardless when we contract the disk to a point doesn't that bring the edges of the lines closer together? Like necessarily?
yeah

Like the peanut looking thing is supposed to be a disk
up to bad drawing 
it's supposed to be D^3 glued to D^1 at two points 
hrm
one sec lemme look back at notes
oh word
yeah that's right

sorry just learning about this stuff
so sorta new 
Yeah these look much less general than what i thought they were
so for instance like
I mean in the sense of
simple things
I thought these would just be a generalization of strings and balls etc just attached
And they don't generalize that entirely 
could you elaborate on this 
yesterday i was having trouble visualizing RP^n too
Ah i see
*RP^2

Hrm
what about that boy's surface thingy
immersion not embedding
you can imagine RP^2 as a circle bundle on the circle
or wait can you
no you cant
sorry
I've heard the name, what are they?
yeah
Hmm
So it's just a generalization then
So G(n+1,1) is RP^n
i see i see
G(2,0) would be normal plane?
err no
what are 0-dim subspaces
grASSmannian
Grassmainians have a nice embedding in the form of the Plucker embedding too
In the alternating product
They essentially live as points on a quadratic in higher dimensional spaces
The coordinate free version is hard but I think it's not too bad just to think of the Plucker coordinates as maximal minors of some Matrix
bdobba
Wow typing latex on mobile sucks
Im trying to apply Lee theorem 6.35 to the function $F: X$x$R^n \rightarrow R^n$ given by $F(x,v)=x+v$
『Urahairywizard』
Im having trouble showing this function is transverse to Y
Do we know the automorphism group of affine space? This is equivalent to knowing what Aut(k[x1,...,xn]) is, and I think this might be the Jacobian conjecture lol
Could someone help me with the following problem:
bim
this should be in #groups-rings-fields but try to construct the valuation directly (hint consider Z_p)
I took a guess since this is a problem from a course in algebraic geometry
Just talk about Spec(R) then you're good ;)
So a subbasis S for a topology X is a collection of subsets of X whose union equals X. So a subbasis is a set that contains sets and those sets contain sets?
So what does the union refer to? Is it that the union of S should be X?
Or is it that the union of sets in S should be X?
This
Like collection of all open intervals in R for example
Or for a topological space, the topology itself is a subbasis for itself
So the union refers to ALL the elements of S? Or just some arbitrary sets of S?
Yeah
Okay thank you! One more thing, if B is the collection of all finite intersections of elements of S then given x in X it belongs to an element S. But how do you know that x is in some element of B?
Finite intersections includes the intersections of just 1 set
Which is doing nothing, you just get that set itself
Okay so every element in S is also in B?
Yep
But what does it even mean to take the intersection of just 1 set?
You can view it as intersecting that set with itself if you want
But another way to view it is just $\bigcap_{i=1}^1 X_i$
Moldilocks
Oh okay I get it. So if A is in S then A intersect A should be in B, right?
Yep
Okay well now I get it! Thank you so much! This is just so confusing. It will be fun they said... But they all lied
Lol np
It becomes fun when you get to actual theorems instead of just set theoretic definitions
Yeah I hope so. I just have a hard time grasping and remember the definitions and without a teacher guiding me it's becoming harder and harder
"In topology, a subbase (or subbasis) for a topological space X with topology T is a subcollection B of T that generates T, in the sense that T is the smallest topology containing B. "
Yeah it will be a bit abstract initially, but you'll see examples and it will become clearer
what's the problem with this definition provided by wikipedia
I don't see any
Maybe you're having trouble with how some operations on a set can generate a larger set which is closed under those operations?
Well this definition is a lot easier to understand, but how can this definition be equivalent to the one I presented?
Well I guess that this is somehow connected to prime fields? In the different definitions
"Sometimes, a slightly different definition of subbase is given which requires that the subbase ℬ cover X.[1] In this case, X is the union of all sets contained in ℬ. This means that there can be no confusion regarding the use of nullary intersections in the definition.
However, this definition is not always equivalent to the two definitions above. "
also from wikipedia
Yep this
looks like your prof is using a non-standard definition
Not really non standard both are pretty standard
Unfortunately, I have no professor. I am still in high school reading Munkres
The difference is that if you allow nullary intersections, you get X automatically, as not intersecting any sets just gives you the whole space
oh true, actually, you're right
So in that case, any collection of subsets forms a subbasis as finite intersections would always give you a basis
who even thinks about not allowing nullary intersections
In general finite intersection and union operations are a hack
If you notice in topology nothing ever depends on the finite operation
Apart from this difference, it's essentially the same. The B you described earlier is clearly the smallest basis for a topology that contains a given subbasis S, and let's say that B generates a topology T by unions. Then T is the smallest topology containing B and hence also the smallest containing S.
It's just there cause we want finite intersections and no other reason
The difference being that you're defining a subbasis before the existence of a topology, then using the subbasis to generate the topology
While in the other case you'd be given a topology and checking whether a subcollection is a subbasis
Ohh okay I think that I get it!
and also if you're just learning topology I would add that the definitions won't make any conceptual sense from the POV of open sets
open sets have some nice properties related to this: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Invariance_of_domain
Invariance of domain is a theorem in topology about homeomorphic subsets of Euclidean space
R
n
{\displaystyle \mathbb {R} ^{n}}
.
It states:
If U is an open subset of
R
...
But closed sets are the ones that actually make sense
Okay but are there any other way of thinking about open sets instead of some fancy math definition?
they are the complements of closed sets
I just like to think in terms of metric spaces
That's what motivates topology in the first place
with a topology the main idea is that you have some closed sets and an intersection operation
and then you also have a vestigial finite union operation
There are many equivalent ways of looking at a topology (you can also look at kuratowski's definition in which a topology is just a unary operator on P(X)) but what you find best will depend on your background
I think it's just something you get used to lol. I remember being confused for quite some time before it started being to make sense.
Almost all books use open sets
I mean that's a terrible reason
Because most students are comfortable with working with those in metric spaces, and you don't have to think of any algebraic closure operators etc
So in a metric space, what would an open set represent?
The way you described topology is way too abstract given the apparent background here
To think in terms of operators abstractly like that
No it's just the direct explanation for why you would consider a topology
I would really suggest you see metric spaces before topology
Yeah I have looked at it a bit before but I don't know how much I actually need
Or at least see a bit of theory with them, because topological spaces generalize things like continuity for when you don't have a distance function but only a notion of relative closeness
Like continuity is defined using the distance by using epsilons and deltas
I don't know, I think both approaches have their pros and cons. By learning metric stuff first you kinda get used to having a metric and don't really get the 'general' case (at least thats how I felt)
This is historical precedent but it's largely unhelpful for getting the big picture
But you don't actually need exact distances, intuitively you can say that things that are very close stay very close
Without metric spaces I cannot see how you would motivate something like continuity
The topological definition of continuity seems very weird compared to the one in metric spaces, but it's easy to prove that they are equivalent for metric spaces
It's because pointset topology is poorly understood
Maybe you're right, although I think Munkres explained point set pretty well. (response to Moldilocks)
the definition in pointset topology is convoluted
there's another definition of continuity in general topology which is intuitive
Okay so I have two book that I borrowed. One is Munkres which is the one I am reading now. The second one is "Introduction to topology" by Theodore W. Gamelin which starts out with metric spaces instead of topology directly. With one would "better" to start with for an "intuitive"/better understanding?
Honestly, try both and see what you like more (just read first chapter or sth).
I feel metric spaces provide the visualisation, without which it might seem like just a bunch of formal notions
In pointset topology you have two semi-lattices. P(X) and T
A morphism of topologies is therefore two maps
one on X and one on T
so a continuous function is a function on X that induces a function on T which has some property
which is why that definition is hard to understand
for any function f on X the function that you get on T is cl o image_f
if that makes sense
No idea
Sorry but I honestly don't understand anything
Are you mapping the lattice T_X to the lattice T_Y or what
yeah
And is T_X the collection of closed sets
yeah
@pearl holly Ignore them lmao.
Well I am going to read a bit of both. Thank you all so much!
But closed sets may not go to closed sets
that's why u use the closure
But the real property of continuity is that the induced map f_T is a left adjoint
Bruh
which may sound complicated
You wanna do cat thy before metric spaces
but actually means that you have a first isomorphism theorem type result
you don't need to do any category theory for this
So you just specialise to the specific case?
still not sure if Nikita is trolling or not 
uhhuh
So the first isomorphism theorem
it states that the image map and the pre-image map are left and right adjoints
of P(X) and P(Y)
Are you trying to see how far you can go before I realise you're trolling or are you actually saying this legit
but basically this result only requires the fact that P(X) and P(Y) are semi-lattices
lool
I should just type it up so that people have a good resource for it
Yeah because as it is I do not see how this could help when seeing topology for the first time when people already find it too abstract with the usual definition
I mean how is the first isomorphism theorem not intuitive
i havent worked my way thru a full semester of point set topo yet and i think its because i just dont understand cat theory yet
Idk bruh I find the epsilon delta thing way more concrete and from there it's very easy to see equivalence to topological continuity
A morphism should always be a thing such that the first isomorphism theorem holds
I wouldn't say it's easy but atleast it's not abstract nonsense moldilocks 
I've never seen a first isomorphism kinda thing for continuous functions so idk
Wait are you talking about quotient topologies
Or is this a first isomorphism theorem on lattices
i always found myself feeling numb when looking at topo continuity bc it doesnt feel real
yeah so a quotient of T_X is isomorphic to a subobject of T_Y
that's what I mean here
I see
Yeah well I don't immediately see the link so will probably have to think about it
But I like how you said this
XD

For 1, does'nt A=U?
A could just be any neighbourhood contained in U
such that x € (x-epsilon_x, x-epsilon_x) C (0,1)
Be gone frenchman!
so it'd be open
I changed my notation
epic embed fail
How to embed

anyway did you understand @pearl holly ?

wait
Ok I'm dumb
I understood your question wrong
🤔


so a better answer:
take (0, 1)
again
and you have 1/2 \in (1/3, 2/3) C (0, 1)
but (0,1) != (1/3, 2/3)
Yeah now I understand. I read the question wrong lmao
so I'm not the only one who can't read 
So I want to show that if ${\tau_{\alpha}}$ is a family of topologies on X then $\cap \tau_{\alpha}$ is a topology on X. So let $A_i \in \cap \tau_{\alpha}$ and let $x_i \in \cap_{i = 1}^n A_i$. This means that $x_i$ is in every single of of the $A_i$'s. Since $A_i$ per definition is in $\cap \tau_{\alpha}$ I have shown that $\cap \tau_{\alpha}$ is closed under finite intersections, right?
older sister
And the same method can be used for finite unions and we also know that X and the empty set is in the set so it is a topology. Is this right?
Maybe you mean the intersection of A_i is in each tau_alpha and thus in the intersection of the tau_alphas?
Well I don't really know what I meant, but is my solution correct?
Because I have shown that each element of the intersections of A_i is indeed in a set of the topology, right?
You don't really need to consider elements, you just have to check that finite intersections of A_i's are in intersection of tau_alpha
Same for arbitrary unions
Yeah but don't I need the elements for that?
Oh wait. The intersection of every A_i (where A_i is in the intersection of every tau) is in the intersection of every tau since every A_i must be in each tau and tau is per definition closed under intersections?
sounds right
Okay great! Thank you! But just out of curiosity, is my earlier solution correct?
no
Why not? I really feels like I have shown that every element in the intersection of A_i is in some set of the topology, which means that the intersection is in the topology, no?
Oh actually, I think I see what you're saying
well yeah it's right, too. I guess its just a very simple problem that you should try to highlight key things in a proof
so you just didnt state the conclusion of the part of your argument that uses x_i's
Yeah that's true. I will keep this in mind. Thank you!
sanity check - I consider cts maps f:\cup A_i -> {0,1} and use induction to conclude that f(A_i) must be equal to the same singular point for each i. So f(\cup A_i) is equal to that singular point so f is constant so \cup A_i is connected. Is that all correct?
had something in the back of my mind saying that didn't work for some reason
seems good to me
Can a non-orientable surface be a cover for an orientable surface?
Specifically, I have to find 3-fold connected covers of X= torus-{disk}. I used the property of Euler characteristic to conclude that the Euler characteristic of a cover of X must be -3.
But I'm not sure how to rule out all the options that I'm getting based on this information alone.
hello guys, im going to try to give a good explanation of my question !
I have a theory on a possible solution to my master thesis that is about genetic algorithms (no need to understand what that is to understand my question, but geometry and topology is one of the main advanced components that are deeply rooted into this topic)...
in order to achieve and test my hypothesis I need to be able to, in any n-dimensional sphere, calculate the cartesian coordinates of each point in the line that unites the center of that sphere with its boundary with a certain angle... my objective is create a spherical scan (assuming im not doing only this line im exemplifying but all possible lines in the 360 degrees possible) that possesses every point in that line
think of it like you're finding all the points that are inside that red line... if I want to check all the space that is in that line I need to get all of the points of that line (assume r = 100, I have to get the cartesian coordinates of every unit "1,2,3...till 100" --> assuming the smaller distance is one unit)
then I will change the angle (assume the smaller unit is 1degree) and if I do that for all the 45 lines i will get each and every point on that quadrant cartesian coordinates)
😦
Not sure what you're asking man....
basically im asking how can I get cartesian coordinates of a point in 32d for example
n-d
Are you trying to get points on a sphere that are spread out approximately at a uniform distance from one another?
why don't you just generate some random points and delete ones that are too close to each other until you get what you want
hmm not sure i can do that in my problem
by close enought
enough, i mean in the same direction
like a straight line but in nd
cartesian coordinates of a 2d line within a nd space
I think you should also draw the situation in 3d
this is probably a tensor problem not sure
it sounds like youre just trying to generate points uniformly on the sphere
you can just generate points uniformly in the cube [-1,1]^n and then scale them to be on the sphere
If you just want a great circle in n-d space that's not too hard. you just pick two perpendicular directions and then it's the same as the 2D case.
yeah, but that would be only in the direction of each axis... for example if I have something 5D and i make 3 points lets say [1, 0,0,0,0] ,[2, 0,0,0,0],[3, 0,0,0,0] this would be in the same direction
but if I only scale 1 of the dimensions I would be only searching in each axis direction
and we know there are more... ofc
what do you mean?
I'm saying to generate points randomly in [-1,1]^n
all coordinates are between -1 and 1
and then scale them so they lie on the sphere
i want to search a space, point by point, in a single direction (a straight 2d line through the space), then if i dont find anything, ill look on another direction that is like changing an angle in a 2d circle radius (radius being an example of a straigh line through a 2d space)
pick two vectors on that circle, call them u and v
then cos(theta)*u + sin(theta)*v will parametrize the circle
are you wanting to know how to go through spherical coordinates in higher dimensions or something? can you articulate what is preventing you from doing what you want to accomplish
multiply by r and you get lines
this yeah
like it would be easy to show you context
im sure this isnt a hard problem
In mathematics, an n-sphere is a topological space that is homeomorphic to a standard n-sphere, which is the set of points in (n + 1)-dimensional Euclidean space that are situated at a constant distance r from a fixed point, called the center. It is the generalization of an ordinary sphere in the ordinary three-dimensional space. The "radius" of...
ok that might help!
because I'm basically wanting to do that in order to analyse points (data points) through a landscape
but not in a random way
they literally have to be on the same line since the center till the border of that n-d sphere
and then, if i cant find anything within a certain threshold (a rule) I must change that line to one that is point towards a close to the previous space
sounds like he wants to systematically go through the angular components, and for each angle, go from 0 to R along the radial component
yeah, what you're saying is really making sense to me
and do this for discrete points in a certain order
but I cant imagine how i do that in a 32D for example
so you need a way to detect what the next point is
as you rotate through an angle, what's the next point
or set of points
well, I suppose you could just convert from rectangular to spherical coordinates
then sort by the angles in the way you want to move through the list
for instance in 3D your points will be like (r, theta, phi) you could sort them like:
(.2, 0, 0)
(.42, 0,0)
(1, pi/3, pi/7)
(.3, pi/5, pi/2)
...
so that you are looking at going through theta first, then phi, but for those fixed angles the same you go from smaller r to larger r
once you've converted to spherical coordinates in n-d then it's just about sorting a list how you like to go through the angles
good luck
ok, that last sentence was one of my problems and I can see how u are solving it but how should I change the angles, but if we have like a 15d space, we will have how many angles?
im obligated to keep them as rectangular (cartesian) coordinates...
14?
so I would have (r, theta, phi, x,y,z,p,j...., 14th angle) right?
and I would need to maintain the choice of angles throughout the dynamic R
that makes sense for me
but is there a way in which i can do that but for rectangular coordinates?
use the wikipedia link from earlier
it shows how to convert from rectangular to spherical
if you want to sort by spherical coordinates, I would just convert it
maybe there's some trick to doing it in rectangular coordinates that sorts it as if it's spherical coordinates directly but idk
yeah, I was hoping that trick would be maybe tensor related?
nah no tensors
something like a matrix operation of those starting coordinates that would simulate what we are trying
(a direction through space)
all I'm describing is a change of coordinates
and then sorting the coordinates
there's no magic tensor stuff happening
you're not the first person in the world to want to do something like this I'm sure
once im able to do that in my code, i will be able to test it
try googling for something like 'sorting points with rectangular coordinates by their angles' or something
How much diffgeo do I need to make it though a module on Lie algebras
I’m thinking of either that or a module on reflection groups (my advisor has mentioned that either one of these two things would help for a potential project)
I feel like the Lie Algebras course is more general but it’s going to end up way more work
Anyone?
No because the orientation on the orientable surface would induce an orientation on the surface covering it.
Can you elaborate just a little bit more?
Just take any loop on the cover surface, it's image is a loop on the orientable surface.
you can assign an orientation to every loop on the cover surface based on the orientation of its image.
Is it correct to define a principal bundle as a map $\pi:P\to X$ together with a fiber-preserving and free right $G$-action on $P$ which acts transitively on each fiber? More precisely, does this automatically imply that $\pi$ is a quotient map, so that $X$ is homeomorphic to the quotient space $P/G$?
gustavn64
I have a strange topological challenge of sorts. I think I need help with it.
Let me know if you're interested and I'd be happy to discuss my problem. I'll reply in a bit, bout to drive.
slimvesus
I can see the independence from A_0, because if a loop goes around the origin some zeta times in R2, then an orientation preserving invertible linear map is just like distorting the axes slightly. A proper way to see it will be as a composition of 3 maps. If e1 and e2 are standard basis of R2, one would be sending e2 somewhere in the upper half plane, another is rotation by some angle and another is rescaling, and all 3 preserve zeta.
I'm also confused by the zeta + 2deg alpha thing. Visually it seems to me that there should be an eta instead of a 2.
Ohhh
I was just thinking of RP1 as S1 itself because they're homeomorphic lol but I guess the homeomorphism has degree 2
Still don't see why there's no factor of eta in that term tho 
So do you see why a loop in RP1 won't change degree by application of A_0
Think of R2
Rotation won't change the number of times a loop goes around the origin
The whole loop just gets rotated
Loops in RP1 starting at [1] are just paths in R2 minus 0 that start at 1 and end at ±1
Well if alpha is the identity map, the longitudinal loop on the torus gets one meridional twist it seems
I'm thinking of first coordinate as longitude
Oh wait no that actually agrees with the example
Take the constant loop
It's image is the constant loop regardless of deg alpha
So 2 deg alpha seems wrong 
Because it corresponds to (0,0) in the fundamental group
Should be 2 eta deg alpha I think but I only have visualisation not a proof yet 
Yeah so what I'm thinking is that F twists each meridian in the torus by alpha(x), so if alpha has deg 1, the loop going around the torus once along the longitude will get 1 meridional twist
And if you go around the longitude n times, you end up with n meridional twists
That's why I say 2 eta deg alpha
n meridional twists = actually 2n because RP1
Because a meridional twist is unaffected
Like if x is fixed
Yeah I'm being very reliant on my visualisation lol
Assume for now that A_0 is identity. So if you have the loop (1, e^2ti pi), thinking of S1 x S1 for convenience, then F maps this to (f(1), e^(2ti pi + alpha (1)))
Since alpha(1) is a constant, you're just rotating this loop, that doesn't change its degree
Ah right
t in [0,1]
Yeah so I think I can actually prove it formally now
Just give me some time
rotation by 2pi alpha(x) you mean?
slimvesus
I didnt get it
Let $a(t) = (1,[e^{i\pi t}])$ and $b(t) = (t, [1])$ be loops $[0,1]\to S^1\times \mathbb{RP}^1$ based at $(1,[1])$ ($t$ is a loop in $S^1 = \mathbb R/\mathbb Z$, not putting []). Then their equivalence classes generate $\pi_1(S^1\times\mathbb{RP}^1,(1,[1]))$, so it is enough to see the effect of $F^*$ on these.\\
$(F\circ a)(t) = (f(1), [A_0 e^{i\pi t + 2\pi\alpha(1)}])$. $A_0$ doesn't affect the equivalence class because it doesn't affect the equivalence class of the standard generator of $\pi_1(\mathbb{RP}^1,[1])$, which is $[e^{i\pi t}]$, because this loop remains monotonous (because of orientation preservation) and only visits $[1]$ at its end points. So $(F\circ a)(t) \sim (f(1), [e^{i\pi t + \alpha(1)}])$, which corresponds to $(0,1)\in \mathbb Z\oplus \mathbb Z$.\\
$(F\circ b)(t)\= (f(t), [A_0e^{2\pi\alpha(t)}])$\$\sim (f(t),[A_0e^{2\pi\alpha(0)}]) \cdot (f(1), [A_0 e^{2\pi\alpha(t)}]) $\$\sim a'^{\deg f} \cdot b'^{2\deg\alpha(t)}$\
where $a'$ and $b'$ are $a$ and $b$ but rotated/translated so that the basepoint becomes $F(1,[1])$.
Moldilocks
good thing I didnt type this in discord directly 
Decompose any loop as a product of a and b
And apply F*, you'll get the result
You will get 2 eta deg alpha
Np nice problem
So let's say that X is a metric space with a subset Y. Then x_1 is not adherent to Y (because the space is too small to contain a ball that reaches Y) but x_2 is. Have I understood the concept correctly?
To be sure, is the canonical line bundle on the projective space P_k^n the same as O(1) ?
Nope. A point x is not called adherent to Y if there is some open set of x intersecting Y, but if every open set containing x intersects Y. Another way to think about it is that if I give you a positive real number r, you can find a point in Y which is within r of x (so that any open ball around x of radius r contains at least one point of r, which is exactly the earlier definition)
Ohhh okay. So x_1 is adherent to Y because I don't need to draw a circle but instead some curved path consisting of circles?
No, as you've drawn it, neither is adherent to Y
Because for both, you can find an open set not intersection Y
Oh okay, I got it
Whether it has to be a circle or a general open set turns out to not matter
another way to think about adherent point is distance of x from the set Y\{x} should be 0
Because if every ball around x intersects Y, then every open set around x (which must contain a ball around x) also intersects Y
So the closure of Y is literally Y with it's boundary?
Yep
(it also contains its interior...)
Not only, it could also contain the stuff in the interior
@marble socket where's the eevee emoji wtf
(lol i didn't help at all)
(i use the emoji to say "thanks for thanking me", "the current problem is over" and "look eevee is so cute")
Hey, I'm trying to understand the solution to this question here (part b)
First of all what is w' ? Is just a loop or is the composition of two loops?
The solution is the following
I don't quite how they worked out part b
I asked my question in the question channel earlier, but it was probably the wrong place to go. I am studying the topology book off munkres, and i am trying to find an example of two sets X and Y, aswell as a subset $Z\subseteq X\times Y$ such that the projections of Z onto X and Y are both open, but Z itself is closed wrt. the product topology. I really can't wrap my head around how this could be possible, could anyone give me hints to work out an example?
Frozaken
Sorry this is correct, it should say "not open" and not closed
I am fairly sure an open disc minus a smaller open disc would satisfy this right? that is my best guess atleast
However i find it really really hard to prove that this is correct
it would not be open since it has a boundary towards the interior, however this is intuition that comes from analysis, and i am not sure how i would ever show this in the context of the product topology
would Z=X×Y not work?
sort of trivially
and closed
oh did they say not open
mb didn't see
The projections would be open since they are just the projections of the larger open disc onto both subsets i think
both sets*
X and Y
Perhaps this example is simpler?
Let $X$ and $Y$ both be $\mathbb{R}$. and let $Z$ be the union of the x and y axis. $\pi_X(Z)=\pi_Y(Z)=\mathbb{R}$, thus both are open.
Frozaken
however the union of both axes is clearly not open
I really struggle to argue this from the product topology though, i guess i have been working with the analysis way of looking at openness for too long
I guess i first use that it is written as a union of two axes(we can because it is a topology) and the use that either axis cannot be written as a union of cartesian products of two open sets (since the singleton {0}) is not open in the standard topology on R
that is an incorrect proof, openness of the union of a bunch of sets does not imply openness of each set in the bunch
Take any point in the union, eg 0, and show that theres no neighbourhood of this in the union of the 2 axes. If there were, then some point of the form (x,x) would be there for a non zero x
they're proving closure
er
dammit I thought it was "closed and not open"
yeah they changed it later
Those 2 are the same thing, a composition of loops is also a loop
For b part, instead of RP^n, think of S^n. Conveniently enough, w' lifts to a loop in S^n, based at 1 (do you see this?). On S^n, for n>1, you might know that all loops are contractible, so you can extend the map to a map from the disk to S^n. Take the composition of this map with the quotient map to get the desired map from D^2. What that solution is doing is just writing down the extension to D^2 unnecessarily explicitly
w' lifts to a loop in S^n
what do you mean by lift?
On S^n, for n>1, you might know that all loops are contractible, so you can extend the map to a map from the disk to S^n.
I'm aware that all loop are contractible but why does this imply that we can do such extension?
are you familiar with quotients?
one way to think about it in this specific case is to say that the loop is an equatorial loop in S^n and so you can map the disk to one of the hemispheres, but this isnt the most obvious for n>2
I always struggled with them, it took me a week to understand the universal property of the quotient😂
oof
Well a homotopy between the loop and the constant loop is a map from the cylinder S^1 x [0,1] to S^n such that S^1 x {0} is the given loop and S^1 x [0,1] is the constant loop. You can then quotient by the equivalence relation that identifies all points of S^1 x {1} to a single point (making the cylinder into a cone) and by the universal property, the homotopy factors through the cone so you get a map from the cone to S^n which maps the base of the cone to the given map, so this is the extension of the loop to the cone. But the cone is homeomorphic to the disk with homeomorphisms that dont affect the circle, so you get an extension to the disk
this can be done without quotients, lmk if you cant visualise the quotient
Ah yes I see so the cone is homeomorphic to the disk! I forgot about that.
Huh interesting, how about this case though where i know from the get go that my set is the union of two sets, if i show that none of them are open then Z cant be open though? Or am i misunderstanding
Wow okay i did not think of this. Im not sure i can just look at the neighbourhood, as this is mostly the analysis way of showing it i believe, but i should rather use the basis of the product topology
You can view it as a product topology proof too. Any neighbourhood of 0 will contain a basis element (a,b) x (c,d)
then if r = min{-a,b,-c,d}, then (r/2, r/2) is there in that basic open set
ultimately any proof would rely on the metric of R, because thats how the topology on R is defined
well not necessarily, you could view it as an order topology and the above as a proof based only on the order and archimedean property of R rather than on the metric of R, if you want to look at it as less analytic
Alright thanks, i only recently started looking into topology, so this is very helpful, thanks
A more analysis example. Union (-1, 0] and [0, 1)
Could i not just use that for $U$ to be open in $X\times Y$ we must have for each $x\in U$ a basis element $B$ such that $x\in B$ and $B\subseteq U$, however from the definition of the order topology, on $X\times Y$, all of the basis elements are on the form $A\times B$ where $A$ and $B$ are open wrt the standard topology on $\mathbb{R}$, we can now simply pick an arbitrary $x$ in our set consisting of the union of two axes, and show that it is in fact imossible to find a basis element where it also holds that $B\subseteq U$, since all of the basis elements are "too thick"
Frozaken
yep thats essentially what ive done, just a bit more explicitly
I guess just using your intuition of picking out a single point and showing that its neighbourhood is contained is very useful, ill work the details out myself i think 👍
How can I prove that the ring of germs of holomorphic functions $\mathcal{O}_{X}$ on $x$ defined on an open subset $X \subset \mathbb{C}^{n}$ and $x \in X$ is a local ring?
MisterSystem
,tex Is it true that the connected components of an open set $U\subset \mathbb{R}^n$ are open sets of $\mathbb{R}^n$, thus path-connected?
RaD0N
MisterSystem
In a local ring, the maximal ideal is exactly the set of non units. Can you characterize units?
Oh yeah
The units of $\mathcal{O}_{X}$ in this case are germs of holomorphic functions of the form $\frac{1}{f}$ where $f : X \subset \mathbb{C}^{n} \rightarrow \mathbb{C}$ is holomorphic and non zero at $x$.
MisterSystem
yeah, and whenever a germ is non zero at x, it will be a unit
But how do I prove this maximal ideal is indeed unique?
If the set of non units is an ideal, then any proper ideal (which cannot contain units) must be a subset of the ideal of non units
Thx
,tex I thought that it is true because $\mathbb{R}^n$ is locally path-connected. It is sufficient to be locally connected?
RaD0N
You only need the fact that $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ is locally connected to prove that given any open subset $U \subset \mathbb{R}^{n}$ and a connected component $G$ of $U$, then $G$ is open.
MisterSystem
But in order to prove that, indeed this component $G$ is also path connected, then indeed you need to use the fact that $\mathbb{R}^{n}$ is locally path-connected, because in a locally path-connected space open and connected implies path connected.
Get it?
MisterSystem
Proving this is also not that hard btw
Got it. Thanks!
How are A and B mobius bands when m=n=2? Seems to me that A and B are bands with 2 edges, just that one of the edges is twisted twice over and overlapped with itself (or being turned into RP^1)
I dont see the klein bottle thing either. I tried thinking in terms of CW decompositions but they seemed very different
hint: for m=n=2 you're getting this folding
I dont see it, isnt the top blue edge going to paste onto itself rather than onto the bottom blue edge?
because points with second coordinate 0 are being identified with points with second coordinate 0 and same with 1
no
you're gluing the red edges together and the blue edges together
this gives you a Klein bottle
I meant in the given description
I dont see how that matches this picture
gluing the red edges gives you the S^1 part of this
gluing the blue edges gives you this remaining quotient
This is what I am getting from the description of the equivalence relation
ignore the blue arrowhead on the red arrow
right
what you have drawn is like
two copies of this fundamental polygon glued together
so as to obtain the fundamental polygon of a torus
wait im not drawing this
the top edge and bottom edge are different colours
blue and green
hmm
wait this has got to be a typo then
so it should change the second coordinate in both cases?
you see how you get the picture I'm posting if you identify (x,1) with (-x,0) and (x,0) with (-x,1)?
yeah
yea okay
hah okay I see why this was confusing now 
I've literally done this with a paper where I didn't realize the author made a typo and confused myself for like 2 weeks straight
RIP 
What are N and n? 
No idea what the principal normal is 
Sooo it's well known that if $G$ is a Lie group with Lie algebra $\mathfrak{g}$, then the exponential $\exp : \mathfrak{g} \to G$ is a diffeomorphism onto its image if restricted to a small enough neighbourhood $U \subset \mathfrak{g}$ around the identity $0 \in \mathfrak{g}$. Can one choose this neighbourhood to be Ad-invariant, so $\text{Ad}_g U = U$ for all $g \in G$?
Lartomato
Intuitively this feels like a very stronk requirement and if it holds, probably only in some really special cases like compact or semisimple groups, but idk
hmm
So I want to think about the case of a compact group
Because in that case, you can choose a bi invariant metric and turn this into a RG thing
And RG has a good description of like, the amount of stuff you need to get an injective/surjective exponential
I also wonder whether like exp(U) is conjugation invariant
Like I think C_g(exp(X)) = exp(Ad_g(X)) in exp(U) if X in U
Ye that should be right if you think about matrix lie groups
Yup
The exponent map is natural
okay so that's something
If V = exp(U) then V is conjugation invariant
The subgroup generated by V will be normal
well that's not super interesting, it's going to be the connected component of the identity I think?
Oh that sounds like a good point though
Yeah, I feel like V being conjugation invariant is key
Since we're basically assuming the infinitesimal version of that
If the subgroup is normal and your Lie group is, say simple and connected, then the subgroup has to be the whole group, and then you're basically demanding that your exponential map is a global diffeomorphism between the Lie algebra and G
which I guess can't be
No but at some point I took the subgroup generated by something
The exponential won't be surjective
Hmmm, ah yeah, i guess exp(U) isn't automatically a group
Awright, but this is still a good perspective, I'll think about that for a bit
Yeah, it will rarely be such
Sure, but unfortunately exp(U) generating the connected component of the identity is just always true
The subgroup generated by an open subset is open and open subgroups are actually clopen
Haha true
Oh I guess I'm assuming U is connected
Which is probably bad
Since your assumption is about U
But still
It's going to be a union of components maybe
Instead of a single component
Anyways yeah my first instinct is to look at the compact case by trying to fit into the RG framework
Choose a bi invariant metric and look at the injectivity radius
Yup, alright, will do! Thanks
[1, 2) is not in the K-topology on R because [1, 2) can't be written as an open interval, right?
Isn't the proof that the K-topology and the lower limit topology (both on R) are not comparable kind of "trivial", at least not too difficult?
well kind of...
yea its pretty simple... you just need to find a set which is open in one and not in other and vice versa.
But do I need to prove that [1, 2) is not in the K-topology or is it "trivial"?
just prove it with definitions?
(its trivial in the sense that proof isn't hard at all... but you still need to give a proof)
Oh okay, let me think about it
Well [1, 2) can't be written as (a, b) U ((a, b) - K)
well i can just say (1, 2) u (2, 3) u (3, 4) can't be written as those... does that mean its not open?
(also (a, b) u (a, b) \ K = (a, b))
So I want to show that [1, 2) intersect something in the K-topology can't be in the K-topology?
just show [1,2) is not in K-topology?
you just made the question one step longer?
if you can show that for every something, then you can show it for something = (-5, 5)
Yeah sorry I got carried away. But there's no interval in the K-topology that is equal to [1, 2) so what is there to prove?
well like i said there is no interval in K-topology that is (1,2)u(2,3)... then why is the second thing still open?
Well that is a union of open intervals that also is the empty set. But the K topology can't contain half open intervals, right? It only contains open intervals, right?
that's not the empty set
oh sorry, I thought that it was intersections
well you need to prove that... the definition of topology is by a basis. so it tells you a few open sets... it doesn't tell you what are not open sets
we want to show [1,2) isn't open
and you can intuitively see that the problem is at that "closed-ness" at 1
how do you define a set to be open given the basis?
Okay so each basis element is of the form (a, b) U (a', b') - K. Then the open sets are unions of these. But the unions of these can't be half opened sets, right?
The union of some basis elements, right?
i can see why but not completely happy. since you didn't really explicitly use anything about K. if K = [0, 1) then this statement is false... (0,2) \ K = [1, 2)
But what does this give me?
how do the basis elements that contain 1 look like?
Like this:
?
lol what
lmao sorry but I have no idea
yeah so (a, b) must contain 1
but then it also contains stuff less than 1!!!
if this was true, then we would find a basis element contained in [1, 2) which also contains 1
do you see the problem?
no
oh okay I see now
So for example if one basis element contained 1 then the basis element should look something like (-1, 2) U (a, b) \ K.
(okay maybe we've read different texts... my book defined the basis as {(a,b) | a < b} u {(a, b)\K | a<b})
that's a minor problem though...
my book does it as well
(you kept saying this... so i kinda got confused)
this is not a basis element... its union of 2 basis elements.
(a, b) U (a', b') - K
I'll summarise the argument:
[a, b) is not open because if it was then there would be a basic open set L containing a and contained in [a, b). But then L = (c, d) or L = (c, d)\K. in either case, one can find an element x in L smaller than a. But this contradicts that L was contained in [a, b)
"L containing a and contained in [a, b)" how do you know this?
we defined open-ness as union of basis elements
if [a, b) = union of {L_alpha | alpha in some indexing set} where each L_alpha is a basis element
Yeah I think that I know why L must contain a, but how do you know that L must be contained in [a, b)?
now a must be in some L_alpha on right right
well union of those L_alpha is all of [a, b)
how can they not be a subset of [a, b)
ohhhhhhhhhhhhhhh
you probably saw this type of open-ness definition while doing metric spaces
a set is open if each of its point is contained in a small enough open ball which is entirely in the set
Yeah I read that somewhere before
here the open balls serves as a basis
Okay okay I get it now..... I really feel like a moron lmao. Thank you for helping me, seriously!
it's Daijobou 
Moth In Shambles
is this somehow equivalent?
or i guess maybe its like
a(i_0(X)) = j(id(X)) so in the first your shooting the first X into X x {0} and identifying that with the top of the cylinder
and a(i_1(X)) = J(f(X)) so you identify the second X with f(X) in Y
yea i think that makes sense
gamer moment part 2: they mean qj = id and qJ = f right??
because J sends f(X) in X + Y into Z(f) while j sends X into Z(f)
Yes
No, it seems correct. j embeds X into the cylinder by x \mapsto (x,0), which then maps to f(x) under q, and J is y \mapsto y on which q acts as identity
yeah i got confused because it typoes as f decomposing into q and J instead of q and j
but other than that it makes sense
yea it's equiv you'll see this diagram in ch5 on cofibrations xd
Is it true that the upper limit topology (has all (a, b] as basis) is not comparable with the K-topology on R?
I have used this lemma but I am not sure if I got anything wrong
Yes they aren't comparable
Okay thank you!
Oh
Yeah I proved that with some help of det
0 will be the only potentially problematic point
See if you can write basic nbhds of 0 as unions of basis elements of the K topology
There are only 2 kinds of basic nbhds of 0
what is the K-Topology?
I did it like this using the lemma. Let x be a real number. All bases in the K-topology that contain x are in the form (a, b) where a<x<b or (a, b)-K. But then there doesn't exist a basis B in the upper limit topology such that x is in B and B is a subet of (a, b) or B is a subset of (a, b) -K
And K topology has the basis {(a,b)} u {(a,b) \ K}
ah, thanks
This would work if (a, b) - K would "dissapear"
There is a B in both cases 
In the (a,b) case, (a, (b-x)/2] works
Or rather even (a,x] lol
So closed sets in the K-Top are the usual closed sets as well as K (and intersections ofc). Interesting. 🤔
yeah I thought about that, but what about the (a, b) -K part?
Yep, it's just introducing a new closed set essentially
If x is less than or equal to 0, same thing works. If x is greater than 0, it will either lie between two 1/n's or be greater than 1 so you can probably see how you can handle that
Oh yeah, I could somehow just chose a small enough interval that does contain x but not the 1/n parts
Yep
Okay thank you so much! I will try to formalise this in some way
Hey, I'm trying to understand rel {0,1} homotopies and came across this:
Given paths $\alpha, \beta :I \rightarrow G$ and $e$ the constant closed path given by $e: I \rightarrow G; t \mapsto 1$, construct the rel {0,1} homotopy
$$m(\alpha) : \alpha \bullet e \simeq \alpha : [0,1] \rightarrow G$$
where $\bullet$ denotes the concatenation path.
Now, the answer turns out to be:
$$m(\alpha)(s,t) =
\begin{cases}
\alpha(\frac{2s}{1+t},t)&\text{if}, 0\leq s \leq \frac{1+t}{2}, 0\leq t\leq1\
1&\text{if}, \frac{1+t}{2}\leq s \leq 1, 0\leq t\leq1\
\end{cases}$$
There is a few points about this construction that are confusing to me:
- How was this constructed?
- $\alpha(t)$ seems two require two inputs rather than one, which I don't get because the domain of $\alpha(t)$ is the unit interval so it should only require one input variable.
snypehype
This is my guess on how alpha was constructed
but I still don't get why it needs two inputs
Moldilocks
Or at least that's the one that you've drawn
And bounds might need to be changed if they're going for something else entirely
But there shouldn't be 2 inputs definitely
Actually bounds stay the same
You just put this expression and you get exactly what you've drawn
but shouldn't $m(s,t) = \alpha(t)$ for s =1 at all times?
snypehype
For s = 1 it should be constant e
For t = 1 it should be alpha(s)
So we're just working with exchanged coordinates
But I think this is the convention, the second coordinate t is thought of as the time coordinate, when you think of the homotopy as a deformation over time
Ok so $m(1,t) = \alpha(1) = e$ right?
snypehype
Yeah
and we have $m(0,t) = \alpha(0) = e$
snypehype
Yes
Wait alpha(0) is not given to be e
Alpha could start at any point we just know it ends at identity
snypehype
That is just saying in this diagram, the whole left edge and the right edge are constant
But they could be different constants
alpha • e and alpha both have the same starting point, but it doesn't have to be the identity
Ok but with your formula $\alpha((2-t)s$ we get $m(1,t) = \alpha(2-t)$ right?
snypehype
Only when t is 1
See the bounds
Because 2-t is greater than 1 whenever t is less than 1, so it won't be in domain alpha for t less than 1
Moldilocks
ok so what is $m(1,t)$? It's not clear to me that it is a constant
snypehype
If t<1, then it fall into case 2, so m(1,t) = 1
If t = 1 then m(1,1) = alpha((2-1)1) = alpha(1) = 1
Ah I see
Is this channel free now?
You can post
I have to calculate connected 3-fold covering spaces of RP^2 \vee RP^2 up to covering space isomorphism.
I did the analysis with the action of the fundamental group on {1,2,3} and I got one diagram
But I'm kinda confused with the "covering space iso" part
Hmm, no. Identifying antipodal points on the 2-sphere. It's fundamental group is Z/2Z.
Ah right
just making sure im not confused: this is what the homotopy pushout looks like right
you have f: A -> B, g: A -> C, and then glue the bottom of A x I along f(A) and the top along g(A)
u know honestly i think im just gonna accept the church of blackboxing ugly homotopies
why is it so hard to find a topological space that fulfills T3 and T4 but not T2 
@fading vale yes, while the usual pushout is a gluing construction, the homotopy pushout is a gluing up to homotopy; see example 2.2 in Dugger's primer:
check pibase @maiden oracle
pibase ?
yea i saw this i think
like we define it this way because you can have A htpic to A', B to B', C to C' but the pushout of A->B, A->C might not be homotopic to the pushout of A'->B', A'->C'
so the homotopy pushout fixes that basically
yes exactly
no
only if T1
pi base disagrees here

does literally anyone care about T3 but not hausdorff
it depends on how you define it
pretty much any reasonable source defines T_3 as T_1 + other conditions
having Tn not imply Tm for m < n is stupid

well i in the lecture notes i have T3 is defined as "for every point x and every closed set with x not in A there are disjoint open subsets that contain A and x respectively
and it is explicitly stated that T4 => T3 => T2 when T1 is fulfilled or equivalently if singleton sets are closed
that's a pretty cool resource tho, thanks for sharing

bruh, im a little salty for not coming up with the first one but hey i think i tried long enough
i tried a lot longer already before i wrote into this discord
sometimes it's the super trivial examples that we all miss
general topology bad
find a T_475749959 space that isn't T_4040000010010
i think this is finally the assignment where i include the famous quote from poincare
xd
.pin
is it just me or are the other pins gone
Ye I only see this
i dont think so, the last pin i see before that was from may 1st
or well not i dont think so but not for me

@sleek thicket WELCOME BACK

👋

