#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 213 of 1
it's interesting because i actually have a clue what a momentum map does now
nice
thinking of a symplectic manifold as a ""phase space"" and a symplectic group action
momentum maps find quantities conserved by the action
I saw no disagreement, so I consider that an "you got it." đ
the term momentum map comes from the example of SO(3) acting on R^3 x R^3 (coordinates position, momentum)
the conserved quantity being angular momentum apparently
oh nice you care about it for the same reasons then
and the momentum map comes out to be precisely that
(after making a million identifications)
another example being that of $S^1$ on $\bC$ by rotation. the momentum map comes out to be $\mu(z) = \pm |z|^2 + \mathrm{const.},$ which is definitely something that's preserved under the action
(T*Terra, dqⱠ⧠dpᔹ)
(plus-minus because the sign varies in the literature)
why C instead of R^2?
writing things in complex coordinates is convenient
fair
that example directly generalizes to the torus (S^1)^n acting on C^n
and that's interesting because then with the right choice of constant (any one works here), the zero level set of the momentum map is just the sphere
oh it might have to be |z|^2 / 2
and then if you quotient out by the symmetries of the group action ("symplectic reduction") you get complex projective space 
spooky
this is probably incorrectly worded so take it with a grain of salt
ah symplectic reduction is when you quotient out the zero level set by the restricted action 
and that's about all i have to say
ty :o
I've been googling the physical interpretations of this stuff and now my brain is melting out my ears
mathematically it's all somewhat straightforward
but physically? 
something something symmetries and particles idk im not a physicist 
idk I saw a bunch of word spam like jacobi fields and homological
jacobi fields 
will understand in a few years I hope lmao
jacobi fields are a riemannian geometry thing
i wonder how they intersect into symplectic 
arnold's classical mechanics book has a chapter on symplectic geometry that might have a good explanation or two
oh oops jacobi and fields showed up in two disjoint places idk why i fused them
yeah I've been meaning to give it a read, it seems rly good
the book by mcduff and salamon might also have some stuff
it's more on the mathematical side of things but it has a section or two devoted to building up to symplectic geometry from only classical mechanics
i havent actually taken a careful look at arnold's book but i really hope it mixes in physical explanations with mathematical ones
i wanna know what's actually happening not just how to move symbols around 
I haven't read much of it but I think it's not as rigorous as it could be at times
but ig it's a semi physics book so that's ok
rigor is for the weak
like I was reading out of goldstein (a classmech book) and the derivation of euler lagrange felt fucked
just differentiate under the integral 
so I went and looked at arnold because it was supposedly a math book but it didn't spell out the analysis in detail
v sad
yeah that's how it ends up working out but I wanted to understand what it actually was
and it ended up being a frechet derivative or something I think?

i took an optimization class that did this
i actually don't remember
i differentiated under the integral a lot in that course
based
so it probably comes up 
the joy when i learned in riemannian geometry that geodesics are just solutions to a variational problem
geodesic equations are just euler lagrange equations for the energy functional 
i wonder if the jacobi equation J'' + R(J, c')c' = 0 can be interpreted as the euler lagrange equation(s) to something 
anyways im just vomiting words at this point
nice talking to ya, i should probably go back to preparing for the pile of midterms I have this week 
ty, I'll need it 
Hey sorry to like butt in but i just sort of had this thought that differential k-forms are like the dual vectors of singular k-chains. Does this actually work? Perhaps with the assumption that everything is nice and smooth? Could we then define the exterior derivative as like the dual operator of the boundary operator? Are there any nice applications of this, like direct arguments for Stoke's theorem or PoincarĂ© duality or anything like that? I'd love to read some articles on this perspective if any exist, and also sorry if this is trivial or something its not really my main area of research đ
check out chapters 17 and 18 of lee's intro to smooth manifolds
I want to show that two divisors are linearly equivalent. So I have to show that their difference is a principal divisor.
so I need to construct a meromorphic function with given roots and a given poles
I'm really not how to do this. If we were on C this would be easy, but on an a Riemann surface we won't have global coordinates
Here is the full question from Mirandas Algebraic Curves
where does it say "riemann surface" in the question ?
good point
presumably you can do things like you would for manifolds
and define the meromorphic functions locally
and check it agrees on the chart
okay i think this might work
3p0 is is the intersectin divisor with z=0
the other one is the intersectin divisor for y=0
and two intersection divisors are linearly equivalent
Hello, i hope i don't intrerupt anyone. I come in a moment of despair because i know nothing about geometry, and i promised i would help a friend of mine with some collage-grade geometry. She is supposed to solve two exercises, one of them being trough carthesian and afinoid repers
i have some indications, hoping that would help
but atm i don't have any drafts of my friend's work so far.
could you be a bit more specific?
im not sure what you mean by "carthesian and afinoid repers"
hmm
i don't either, hope i am not that problematic, but i am parallel and equidistant with mathematics. I just want to help xD i study modern applied languages so. Let me try to find a way to explain
i have some guides but i will try to translate them myself from romanian
Cartesian landmark and affinoid landmark i think this is the correct form
oh oops
Translation: Show that the ratio of points A B C and D is -1. (Circle of Apollonius)
i am willing to help you with whatever i am able to in order to make it easier for you, i am not looking for someone to solve these exercises, i am looking more to explain what my friend has to do in order to solve and understand them
apologies, i'm unfamiliar with techniques of euclidean geometry; maybe someone else will be able to help
oh, it's alright
thanks for letting me know
hope tese notes can help for whoever stumbles upon this request
what do you know about complete subspaces of R^2?
A good hint is to recall the definition of complete
and also consider (-1,1) as a subset of R and check if that is complete
or check that is is incomplete if you want a better hint
Does anyone have an idea for this?
I have a curve C and a line L in CP^2. Take a point p not on the line, we can define the projection of CP^2-p to the line which sends a point q, to the intersection of L and PQ (where PQ is the line joining p and q)
this map is holomorphic, and restricts to a holomorphic map C-p to L
how can we extend this map to be holomorphic on C ?
is the answer just the intersection of L with the tangent line of C at p?
Is the subset D closed?
That may be the best hint I can give ya without just giving away the answer.
maybe but I don't see this? im not even sure how to properly extend the function?
ooh
this is just the only clever line to pick
i just thought about q approaching p on C, which has the projection approaching the tangent line's intersection with L
okay well that helps alot
now i just need to check that this is infact holomorphic
The fact you two have the same profile picture makes tracking this conversation super confusing
compact mode gang
what is nitro?
i saw someone offering to buy someone else nitro on a different server
i think it lets you use emotes from particular servers anywhere. imagine paying for discord tho haha
imagine not using the default little green dude
Is cech cohomology $\v{H}(X;A)$ a functor?
i.e., is there a well-defined pullback?
lux
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
I'm having a hard time coming up with something natural, since covers can only be pulled back, hence functions from (thing derived from cover) to A can only be pushed forward
Wiki casually states that Cech is ânaturally isomorphicâ to De Rham (CW homotopy type), but does not in any place discuss how that is a functor.
likely a very small brain answer
but i would guess yes
if its naturally isomrphic to singular homology or deRham
a natural isomorphism is a map between functors
so I
i'm not sure how you could define a natural transformation without having functors
soz if this wasn't helpful
Homology forms a functor
In particular, theyâre delta functors, so I think theyâre isomorphic as delta functors is what it means
Pretty sure the functor is covariant
You form Äech cohomology by making a complex and taking cohomology right?
If you had a sheaf map F -> G you can just apply this on each of the things in the complex (taking massive products)
And then this gives you a map on cohomology
On a fixed cover UU, yes, then direct limit
Are you defining Äech cohomology as the direct limit?
Even if you are, you can do it on each cover element and form a map between direct systems
Then you get a map on the direct limits
Yes.
The context of what I know is purely topological and does not use the word âsheafâ. Although I know the basics of that
on a space X, we're taking the sheaf of continuous functions Î(-,G)
so a sheaf map would be what in that case?
(let G=†as an example)
let's fix f: XâY first
Just be aware that my advisor already told me âyou don't wanna do thisâ
Yeah idk
I just didn't want to shut you down đ
Sorry, I only know how to do Äech cohomology on sheaves
In this case itâs more like
You fix a soace X
And imagine you vary what functions youâre looking at
And consider different sheaves over X, right?
I see, that makes sense
What youâre trying to do sounds like something scarier
It reminds me of the Leray Spectral Sequence type stuff
This relates Sheaf cohomology on a topological space with its pushforward
fun fact
what I'm trying to prove eventually is injectivity of the pullback P(E)âX for a bundle EâX
multiple authors just refer to the Leray SS (or the Serre SS)
Lol
I'm currently seeing whether there are simpler arguments
Well, I guess Iâm on the right track
In my experience thinfs which are best done with a Spectral Sequence tend to be best done with Spectral Sequences
Just out of curiosity, what is your intuitive image of the Leray SS that made your conceptual pattern matching trigger here?
Which is a tautology, but really I think that when theyâre used
itâs for a reason
Basically the leray spectral sequence relates cohomology of a sheaf on X with its push forward.
So like letâs use the continuous function one
pushforward along what
So if you had topological spaces X and Y
and a map f:X -> Y
You could define a sheaf on Y by saying that f_*F(U) = F^-1(U)
So like
In the continuous functions on X case
What you do is map to U, the continuous functions from f^-1(U) -> G
From what I saw you were doing earlier
Then you can look at cohomology of this (which is related to the Äech cohomology)
This is that âsections functor is not exact, take derived functorsâ-stuff, isn't it?
Right
So you end up getting a spectral sequence relating H^i(X,F) and H^j(Y,f_*F)
If youâve seen the Grothendieck spectral sequence
You can construct it this way
Youâre looking at the f_* and Gamma(X,-) functors (I guess really what youâre doing is observing that Gamma(Y,-)âąf_* = Gamma(X,-) by construction)
Oh lol
Iâm looking at the Wikipedia and the classical construction was for Äech stuff
(btw, my long-term goal is to understand the core statement in the special case of the projective bundle. I def want to understand how SS work and what the intuition behind some of them is, but I will refrain from using that as far as possible to remain accessible to someone knowing only basic cohomology)
well then you know geometry 
Hey, could someone give me a few pointers about algebraic group $PGL_2$?
I'm working with Milne's etale cohomology.
Following Milne, we let $PGL_n$ be the representable functor s.t $PGL_n(S) = Aut(M_n(\mathcal{O}_S))$ where we consider automorphisms of $\mathcal{O}_S$-algebra.
Now, in the case where $S$ is the spectrum of a local ring $R$, Skolem-Noether theorem works and tells us that $PGL_n(S) = GL_n(R)/R^*$.
On general scheme, this only works locally, and so we only get an exact sequence:
$$1 \rightarrow \mathbb{G}_m \rightarrow GL_n \rightarrow PGL_n \rightarrow 1$$
According to Milne, this sequence is exact as a sequence of sheaves for the Zariski, Etale and Flat topology.
Montessiel
But I'm interested in a very specific case: I want to understand PGL_2 (and its cohomology) on quadratic orders.
So I'm trying to figure out what's happening there.
If I look at the long exact sequence, I get:
$GL_2(R) \rightarrow PGL_2(R) \rightarrow H^1(R,\mathbb{G}_m)$
with the last group (it's a group since the multiplicative group is abelian) being the Picard group
Montessiel
If I'm not mistaken, for quadratic orders (or at least for those that are integrally closed), this H1 is non other that the ideal class group, which may very well be non trivial
So $PGL_2(R)$ will not simply be a quotient $GL_2(R)/R^*$.
Montessiel
But is is Zariski-locally, so it shouldn't be that bad. Is there a way to describe the elements of $PGL_2(R)$ ?
The obstruction to surjectivity is a finite group so I'm also hoping that is might make my life easier, but so far I failed to find information on this in the litterature
Montessiel
hey, what is the relative interior of a set and why do we need this? This comes up during convex analysis
alright I found a nice answer if anyone else is curious: https://math.stackexchange.com/a/2774285/243316
Hatcher might have what you're looking for
section 4D does a version of the leray-hirsch theorem
and if you're doing this to obtain the splitting principle, then I think you can obtain a weaker result (than the usual splitting principle) by meming around with lambda rings
Riight, Thanks for the reminder. I also found something else where I feel the injectivity is proven directly for compact spaces by induction over cover size.
I need to take some time and work through all variants here, haven't managed to do that yet.
Btw, does someone have a quick example of a space you see âin the wildâ that is not homotopy equivalent to something compact?
just compact?
Yes, all my mental examples detract to, say, a circle or a point or something like that
My instincts say maybe the long line?
I really need to expand my landscape of examples there :>
you can very easily get weirder examples than this
like the p-adics
but that's still compact
Was that R^2 with the lexicographic order topology?
No, it's a weird construction involving the first uncountable ordinal
Basically you glue uncountably many intervals to eachother along their ends
Let me look it up quickly. I should know this.
I think the reason I'm thinking of it is that the homotopy groups all vanish but it's not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex
oh wait does Q work?
It's sort of too long for things about it to be detected by homotopy
oof
Oh maybe that's not so bad
Homotopies are constant
right? (edit: no, wrong)
also just an infinite disjoint union of points should work
Oh lol that is much simpler
||that's what she said|| sorry, needed to get that out of my system
Hmm, but there the connected components are compact, so all cohomology results for compact spaces should easily be transferable, right?
Good for her
sure ig
Uh that sounds good
Z_p is horrible as a top space
You're horrible as a top space
I'm trying to get a feel for when it can go wrong to show something for compact spaces, mumble something about âparacompactnessâ and âsimilar argumentâ and just continue, lol
Probably depends on the argument ÂŻ\_(ă)_/ÂŻ
Although reducing from compact to paracompact seems weird to me
Seems to me like many arguments for bundles work like this (although I probably forgot Hausdorffness)
in my head the arguments for bundles don't really go through compactness, it's more about using paracompactness to reduce to the situation where you're working on a trivial bundle
Like usually (from my perspective) you don't even change/go local on the base, just the bundle
Hm, I should retract that statement I guess.
But I feel like for some things, it's easier to convince me that / how an argument works by looking at compact spaces first, since often that case needs less technical fiddling
Yeah, definitely
Homotopy invariance of the pullback was one example
Why would a smaller collection be coarser than a larger one? I feel like it'd be the opposite đ€
So T_1 contains less open sets than T_2
munkres had a nice analogy with pebbles or something
the open sets are the pebbles
if you crush the pebbles you create a finer topology
That analogy makes sense to me
yeah, crush up the open sets of T_1 to make smaller ones
So at it's most basic, we can compare the discrete and indiscrete topologies on X.
So since the indiscrete topology is just X and the empty set, we can 'crush' X to become every open set, which forms the discrete topology.
Wait, I think I went the opposite direction
There we go.
Is that line of thinking valid?
ok quick quiz, what's the finest and coarest topology you can put on a set?
The ones I just mentioned.
The coarsest would be indiscrete ${\emptyset,X}$, and the finest would be discrete: all open subsets of X.
sorry I just went to get something to drink and didn't read what you wrote at all lmao
funny coincidence
dackid
Well, I think that means I was right :p
yep
So the way I am interpreting it is kind of like a microscope. At the end of the day, we are looking in the same space, but the greater the magnification, the more detail we get out of it, and so the finer the topology.
Yes!
Sweet. Tbh, going from metric spaces to topological spaces was not nearly as big a jump as I thought.
So far, this is pretty understandable
Thank you for the help. I'm definitely going to pick at this more tomorrow.
For instance, a question in my book wants me to show the intersection of the topologies T_1 and T_2 are also a topology, but the union may not be.
That second part is messing with my head. But, the more I think about it, the more I have an idea as to why. I think I just need sleep.
I think ||the union of open sets from T_1 and T_2 can possibly not be contained in either of them.||
I agree. I think the thing that would really break it is that the intersections of some of the open sets may not be in T_1 and T_2 anymore
No, I think all finite intersections would be contained, but unions of open sets would break down
Hmmm, or possibly yes
Maybe working with an explicit example would help here

For instance. If $T_1={\emptyset, \mathbb{R}, (3,5)}$, and $T_2={\emptyset,\mathbb{R}, (4,8)}$, so then by taking the intersection of (3,5) and (4,8), we get (4,5), which is not in $T_1\cup T_2$
dackid
Precisely! :D
And then the intersection part of the problem should be clear as all the empty sets satisfy the 3 axioms for both T_1 and T_2.
Absolutely!
This argument seems to be in the same spirit as proving intersection of vector subspaces or subgroups is again a vector subspace or subgroup
Part of the question also asks if it is true for an arbitrary intersecrion of topologies, and I think with this reasoning, the answer should be yes.
Both topologies at least agree on the set itself(X) and the empty set
Yes, that is definitely key. That'd be a problem if it didn't :p
Hmmmmmm, arbitrary intersections are beyond my understanding haha
I was gonna go to bed, but.... topology đ
Is that a book?
Yes haha
Wilson A. Sutherland
they're just like finite intersections- $\bigcap_{\alpha \in A} X_{\alpha}$ is the set of points $\qty{x|\forall {\alpha \in A}; x\in X{\alpha}}$
~S^1
use lee itm 
It doesn't have point-set 
In that case, it is definitely true!
Yeah, but it gets a bit weird with nested interval and things like that in R, right?
lee has all the point set anyone who isn't an analyst cares about 

Anyway I'll look into ITM after I'm done with Pugh
Maybe I need some more mathematical maturity to parse the things he says
Like at the very beginning he talks about dimension of spheres and balls
And that didn't really get through me

This probably illustrates that if we pick a topology, and a possibly finer topology, then chances are that intersection of open sets in the two topologies would not be an open set in either.
Would this be a reasonable way to go about this argument?
Uhhh
You should probably show how it agrees with the axioms haha
Like, write it out in a bit more detail
wat
But if $U\in T_1$ and $U\in T_2$, the fact it follows the axioms should be automatic
dackid
you need to show that T_1 cap T_2 is a topology
Automatic how
what does that entail?
checking that
- it contains the empty set, and the whole of X
- it is closed under unions
- it is closed under finite intersections
T_1 cap T_2 is a collection of subsets of X, equal to those subsets of X which are in both T_1 and T_2
Yea, I agree with that
so "the topological space axioms" don't apply to this particular set U you've chosen from T_1 cap T_2
you need to prove these three things about T_1 cap T_2
But that U is in T_1 and T_2 đ€
but how does this show any of 1 to 3?
Better?
Yeet
For verifying a topology is closed under finite intersections it suffices to look at just pairwise intersections btw
This might be helpful if you want to prove a particular thing is a topology
This follows by induction and associativity of the intersection
So by just looking at two sets instead?
Oh okay. Does Yeet mean it looks good?
Yeah
Sweet!
Isn't "yeet" some slang for throwing something away?

That's why I was confused đ

I figured that XD
Thanks for calling out my shit now, don't want to make that mistake later đ
I definitely see where I went wrong. It's just taking me a minute to start thinking about collections of open sets instead of the sets themselves.

uhh ok so consider like
what i need to do is show that this is a homeomorphism but im not really even sure where to begin tbh
like even injectivity and surjectivity idk how to do
actually wait
injectivity isnt hard
ok yea injectivity and surjectivity are fine
idk how to do continuity/openness
compact open topology hard

Hi ! I don't understand Saveliev's proof of this statement... (from his book, "Lectures on the topology of 3-manifolds")... It seems to me that he is glossing over a lot of details, as can be seen from Hatcher's notes on 3-manifolds : https://pi.math.cornell.edu/~hatcher/3M/3M.pdf. What am I getting wrong ?
(also he is working in Top, and Hatcher in Diff, which may make things a lot different, but idk, Saveliev's proof is still a bit shady to me)
I haven't used LES for a while; how do I form a LES from which I can split a sequence 0 -> H(X V Y) -> H(X xY) -> H(X smash Y) -> 0
assuming that X V Y is a strong deformation retract of it's nbd
Okay, so this was my first stab at a real topology problem. Do you think I handled it okay? If not, where did I go wrong?
I think you might've flipped it? You want to show that it's closed under arbitrary unions, but finite intersections
oh wait nvm misread ignore me lmao
I took care of both possibilities for the union đ
what part do you dislike
Hi ! Starting from "there exists a homeomorphism carrying D1 to the upper hemisphere"
I mean, what is the homeo defined on ? What is the codomain ? And why does it exist ?
god these algtop problems are spicy
hmm
D1 not D2?
oh D_1 not D^1
I can read
This is more like geometric topology actually, which I like a lot less than AT ! But yeah, it's spicy đ
I was talking about my midterm this week and the review actually :P
Oh I'm sorry ! :x
based
the converse of practice problem 1. is true for finite covering maps, which is neat
cool diagrams tho
I mean Sham part of that is the content of 2!
oh lmfao
nice
i did not read further than 1
because my friend was texting me
4(b) literally always catches me off guard lol
and there's a simple proof too!
just doesn't stick in my brain
it's just the symplectic reduction of the standard torus action on C^n
Ah, I knew @obtuse meteor has babababa in profile status, is this about composing loops and homotopy stuff?
yeah i would reccomend thinking about the CP^n thing
if only because you will facepalm
hmm
think I got it?
CP^0 and S^1
S^1 can't cover a point
big brain proof is
Z is not a subgroup of 0
đ§
đ§
small brain proof is any open nbhd in S^1 contains lots of points
Not sure if the prof wants me to think in general
but
what about other n though
yes
oh fair
i will spoil it because i was to and it's a meme
okie
go to evenly covered open sets
then
some open subset of CP^n is homeomrophic to some open subset of S^(2n+1)
sure
CP^n is 2n-dimensional and S^(2n+1) is (2n+1)-dimensional
ah indeed
so invariance of dimension for manifolds says this is impossible
(to justify invariance of dimension if yall haven't done that, take charts and look at the homology of the space minus a point)
psh
formality
this is algtop
we don't do formality in this class
me: <draws a cover>
me: hmmm, looks regular to me
me: <draws another cover>
me: not regular. Bingo!
related fun problem
22 is nice
and I solved it :o
mhm
ah, so equivalently
is there a normal subgroup N in Z * Z and a normal subgroup K in N with K not normal in Z * Z
yeah but doing it
with that
is cringe
do it with geometry
fucking algebra nerds
this happens in D8
which has a presentaiton with two generators
so you can pull back
I hate you
ok make a cover like this
two vertices
a transposition
for one of the loops
and identity loops for the other one
now make a cover
I don't understand what you mean by a transposition for one the loops
ummm
so we have two vertices
lol
this is clearly regular
bc just like
rotate
and it's regularly covered by this guy
via flipping horizontally
but that guy doesn't regularly cover the wedge of two circles
because you have a loop on the left and right vertices but not on the center vertices
so there's no graph automorphism taking them there
I think that makes sense (to me, I'm not doubting that your construction works)
you have a right to your opinion
the whole point of math is to turn things into algebra so you can do algebra on them
no

false
look it's not called topological topology
if you were supposed to do topology
it wouldn't be called algebraic topology
now would it
:^)
anyways these problems are cool
and absolutely not helpful for me for studying for my analysis final, which is what I should be doing
ascending algebraic topology
honestly it's fucked up that the universal covering space is only uniqueish
and similarly the algebraic closure
automorphisms should be illegal imo
(im looking at 12b)
lol
this would kill a lot of bundle theory tho
sacrifices must be made
it's time for a new name anyway
ah, algebraic topology đ
faye is not allowed to criticize my proof now
catwiggle
I really don't wanna do this problem lol
rip

by the contrapositive
i am not faye's homie 
lmao i thought this looked similar to something i put on my algebra problem sets
http://untyped.me/problem_sets/winter3.pdf practice problem 1
and
practice problem 2 is the example of non-transitivity of regularity of a cover
that I gave

wait wtf is problem 20
this seems incorrect
ah no
im being dumb
this makes sense
lol
it fizzled this year bc pandemic
i didn't want to push them
(or commit to organizing stuff for them really)


i think you can do it purely group theoretically
I guess one part is easy
Sham, you know what this means, it is time for you to leave #groups-rings-fields
shock
20b is false
someone said A&M earlier and I didn't recognize the book title lol
yeah
not that it's ill posed
ye
yee 20(b) is false by easy group theory
20(a) is false by hard group theory (I think)
:o
thonk
thonk
ah wait I think my proof is wrong, rip
:c
this is hard
oh wait no
my original proof works i was just being silly lol
i went local on S^1 v S^1 for no particular reason
just because I felt like it
okay, do you want to hear my Correct, Actually proof for 20(a)?
(proof that there is no such cover)
I want to think
đ
so like
problem should be the center point
intuitively what I believe is that like
a neighborhood of the torus if you take a point out is still path-connected or has some # of path components or something
but if you take the center point you get 4 components
wondering
if something similar happenns
for homotopy equivalents for torus
that's pretty much my proof, yeah
look local away from singularity => 2-manifold homeomorphic to 1 manifold => problems because of removing a point after going local
yup
can be weird
can be fucked up
Oh wait this is immediate from Nielsen schrier
You even said something like that above lol
ZĂZ is abelian, so if it were a free group it would be free on one generator, which it just isn't
sorry :(
it ok :P
it happens
I didn't realize at all
more mad at myself for not realizing this
I didn't realize you had a proof when you said this
and yeah i don't think there will be a nice topology answer
probably
hmm or perhaps...
lmao that definition of X is a meme
and I definitely don't want to compute its conjugacy classes
should it be a clear space
im not talking about the quotient
but the one point compactification of R^3 is a space you know
S^3?
yup!
yes
it's like
very bad
but fucked up
do that
lmao
actually im not sure it is like RP^3 that much
on the complement
because we're taking the antipode in R^3 and not in S^3 <= R^4
oh yeah lol
oof
hmm
maybe there's a way to give a nice CW complex structure on it
I guess I'll find out at office hours

are they at 4:30?
gotcha
but I'm in class rn
good luck!
and then they're for 2 hours
so
fun
exam tomorrow
very scared
me when someone hands me an orbit space:
my analysis class's exam ends at 6:30pm pacific
do analysis!!!
but i got permission to take it with another student tomorrow at 9am
bc of my talk
yeah haha it started at 2:30
if i were going to do it today i would be mega fucked
srtarting 2 hours late

oop
Ooh we doing problems now
yes and ???
still thonking on that
oh
i think maybe if you take X \ 0 and X \ infty
I already realized that but have no idea if it helps
What's the problem exactly?
they should be R^3/weird action
I'm trying to show that (X smash Y) smash Z is isomorphic to X smash Y smash Z when X,Y,Z are locally compact hausdorff. I can't figure out the mapping, any help?
Oh this looks like RP^3 but it's not lol
yeah haha
so it's like
take R^3 and mod out by x ~ -x
glue two of those together
along x |-> 1/x
so it's RP^3 but(!) first you identify positive and negative numbers
which is very weird
err
wait
not 1/x
that doesn't make sense
was thinking 1 dimension lower....
see ya!
That's the one I'm trying to ultimately show but through this definition https://puu.sh/Hq6vc/2718a25796.png
ahh gotcha
i regret to inform you that this looks very annoying and I do not want to think about it, sorry pahus
Somehow it feels like the problem is basically a matter of, if a loop goes around 0 or infinity something funny is afoot
Haha xD my feelings exatly, no probs dude
so my thinking is
this space is covered by two copies of R^3/~
where we glue positives to negatives
and the intersection is (R^3\{0})/~, which is homeomorphic to RP^2 which has fundamental group Z/2Z since it's the quotient of the manifold R^3\{0} by a very nice (free etc) group action of Z/2Z which is R x RP^2
so you can seifert van kampen maybe
what's the space R^3/~ though? I'm not sure
R x projective plane perhaps
for (R^3 \ {0} ) / ~
yes
upstairs you can homotope the identity to the origin by H(x,t) = tx
and this descends
t(-x) = -tx
so yeah
it should be a simply connected space
by svkt
@obtuse meteor focus on your office hours/don't reply but I think the answer to 21 is that Y is simply connected, so there's exactly one iso class of connected covers
this seems like a bad question
like it's a trick question, right?
the screenshotted statement (a) is false but I wouldn't call it a trick?
a simply connected space is it's own universal cover and there can't be any intermediate ones
i would not say its a very interesting question
or that anyone would get it wrong for an interesting reason
I'm trying to understand this https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/251646/splitting-of-the-tangent-bundle-of-a-vector-bundle/2276379
but it seems that its much easier to actually explicitly define such a map
but now because what ive done is easier i assume its wrong
*i assume what i have done is wrong
@obtuse meteor how was oh?
good!
Nice!
do any symplectic kings or queens know how to see that the canonical form on the cotangent bundle agrees with the canonical from from the spillting of the tanget space of the cotangent bundle
hahahah
Good luck!
cursed times
so one could approach this problem with algebra
but I think
it's better to do it by like
just drawing covers
and being like "these are the only regular ones by (handwave)"
idk of a way to make that rigorous off the top of my head
idk it feels like if u r intentionally avoiding the algebra in AT ur missing the point to me hahaha
Oh I thought about that one
I couldn't do it with algebra
I think I showed there are 4 covers
exploit the fact that like it's given by graph automorphisms
and those have symmetry requirements
But it seems like the prof wants explicit covers
well if you know how many there are
its not that hard to like draw them all given sufficient time
i guess
I mean I know they're given by subgroups of rank 4
but it's just like
how do I compute the normal subgroups of F_2 of rank 4

I don't know algebra
Wdym rank 4?
I have it in my notes
I computed it by saying F -> F/K is a surjective group homomorphism onto a group of order 3 with kernel K
yeah?
But F/K â Z/3Z
Since there's only one group of order 3
ah
So it suffices to determine the possible kernels of a surjection F -> Z/3Z
You've been practicing for a while!
When one does math for a long time one's brain turns into cornflakes that have been soaking in milk for 3 hours
yeah it's annoying
Like
I love these questions as long as they're not graded lol
yeah but I took an hour thirty minute break sham lol
Fair
can we consider S^0 a symplectic manifold?
huh, weird
I guess so yeah
Take the unique 2 form on it
It's nondegenerate because everything is degenerate lol
Jenny told me
"PLEASE COMPUTE"
https://estrogen.fun/i/238z.png
i relaise this was stupid
do you by chance now how to see that the canonical form on the cotangent bundle
is the same as the canonical form on T_pM \times T_pM^*
oh $\phi^\omega=\phi^ d\lambda=\lambda(d\phi)
so, im trying to compute the de rham cohomology of the circle. We have $\Omega^0(S^1) \xrightarrow d \Omega^1(S^1) \xrightarrow d 0$ so i pretty much just need to compute the image of $d: \Omega^0 \to \Omega^1$.
kxrider
I believe this map is supposed to be surjective, but I'm not really sure how to prove it.
If this map were surjective the 1th de rham cohomology would be zero
right kxrider?
(ty for the backup tterra đȘ)
i suppose. is that bad? 
Well sort of
The point of homology and cohomology is to detect n dimensional holes
(I'm simplifying, but this was the origin historically and is still a good motivation)
The circle has a 1 dimensional hole in it
so we should expect H^1(S^1) to be nontrivial
Anyways, it's not true that d is surjective
I can tell you the dimension of H^1(S^ 1) if you end up wanting to check your answer
Idk why I'm having this conversation with a homophobe
also here's another perspective: you may not have seen this yet, but de rham cohomology is homotopy invariant, so we have an iso H^1(R^2 \ {0}) â H^1(S^1). Then if H^1(S^1) = 0 we would have H^1(R^2 \ {0}) = 0. This says that closed iff exact for vector fields in the plane. Does that last claim sound right to you @little hemlock ?
This says that closed iff exact for vector fields in the plane.
even though you've removed the origin?
Yeah, I'm saying that this is a reason the cohomology group shouldn't vanish
Because it would imply this statement about vector fields on the punctured plane (the statement "closed iff exact")
are there any other ways we can prove/see \pi_k(S^n)=0 for k<n other then freudenthal
@ max
ah, i see what you mean. my intuition isn't exactly great. Not sure if its obvious that closed iff exact is false for vector fields on the punctured plane
Whitney approximation+sard's theorem
interesting
I mean I can prove it rn
please that would be really cool
Any map is homotopic to a smooth map and the basepoints will line up and all
yeah?
mhm
So it suffices to show smooth maps S^k -> S^n are homotopic to the constant map
sard's theorem implies that the image of such a smooth map is measure zero in S^n
Sard's theorem implies this about any smooth map from a lower dimensional manifold to a higher dimensional one
yeah?
ok yes
And then it's easy
Just remove a point outside the image and you factor the map through a contractible space
Yeah, it's neat!
Here's another similar proof
In algebraic topology, in the cellular approximation theorem, a map between CW-complexes can always be taken to be of a specific type. Concretely, if X and Y are CW-complexes, and f : X â Y is a continuous map, then f is said to be cellular, if f takes the n-skeleton of X to the n-skeleton of Y for all n, i.e. if
f
...
that is neat
You have cw structures on sphere where there's a single 0 cell and a single n cell
a cellular map S^k -> S^n will be constant
Any map is homotopic to a cellular map
Similar vibe as the smooth argument
Sorry, I don't think it's obvious
But it's something that I think most people see in a vector calculus class
Sorry for assuming
Basically you can make issues happen by having stuff blow up at the origin
1/z on the complex plane minus the origin
Is closed but not exact
By which I mean, if you let f(x, y) = 1/(x+iy) = p(x, y) + i q(x, y) then the differential form p(x, y) dx + q(x, y) dy is closed but not exact
Closedness is pretty much the cauchy riemann equations, if you've seen any complex analysis
But it's not exact since the line integral around the unit circle is nonzero
Hurewicz thm
i like the sard way that is pretty cool
Yeah!!!
Smooth = good
Max was very down on this argument when I said it to him lmao
ah yea, i think i remember. There are path independent vector fields on a non-simply connected domain which are not conservative, or something like that.
category of smooth manifolds is amazing wtf you talking about

I would not go this far
The category is kind of ass lol
But the objects are very good
Hmm, not exactly. Iirc that's the definition of conservative (but I may be wrong)
yes i know joking but damn that proof is just so satisfying
g is conservative if there is f such that df = g, i.e. g is exact, right?
Ah I saw it defined by being path independent. They're equivalent on any smooth manifold
(even with boundary!)
But you may have df = 0 and f not path independent
On a non simply connected domain
Like the circle
Which says exactly thst H^1(S^1) = 0!
Sard's theorem is so good haha
It's like
"Oh no, how do I know this works??"
"well if you choose a random option it'll fail with probability 0"
$\frac{xdy - ydx}{(x^2+y^2)}$ is closed but not exact on the punctured plane
"so there's gotta be some way to make it work"
~S^1
yes, this is the 1/z form I defined above
oop I missed that
Err, it's not quite actually
There's like a multiplication by -1
But that doesn't really change anything, same idea
society if 1/z dz integrated to 0 on a loop around the origin
Np haha. I can only remember the explicit generator of H^1(S^1) if I think of it as 1/z
The formula is too awkward
It's easier to remember it as the flux form of the vector field $\frac{\vec{\bm{x}}}{|\bm{x}|^n}$
~S^1
imo
what was that funny interior thing you showed me a while back?
ah okay this isn't actually bad, that's just 1/(z conjugate)
stick it into volume form
Hmm, not sure what you mean
like let $\mathbf{F}$ be a vector field on $\mathbb{R}^{n}$. Its flux form is the $n-1$ form given by $\Phi_{\mathbf{F}}(\mathbf{v}1, \dots, \mathbf{v}{n-1}) = \det[\mathbf{F}, \mathbf{v}1, \dots,\mathbf{v}{n-1}]$
~S^1
so in coordinates the variants of the closed but not exact form would be $$\frac{1}{(x_1^2 + \dots + x_n^2)^{\frac{n}{2}}}\sum_{i=1}^n (-1)^{i-1}x_i dx_{1}\wedge\dots \wedge \hat{dx_i}\wedge \dots \wedge dx_n$$
~S^1
Yup
that hat is 2 smol

