#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 191 of 1
in the opposite of a pose with H the inclusion this says y contains H(xi)
an object A where A contains U and V
that is you have arrows
U <- A -> V
because that works with n = 1 in the definition
what is our y here
any nbhd of x
in the scheme case you're trying to work out
ok
a neighborhood of x which contains the distinguished opens U and V
we want to find a distinguished open which contains U and V and is contained in the neighborhood of x
ok this is fucked up
alternatively we can like
chain things together
but that scares me
for what should be obvious reasons
lol same
1 is the only natural

if you come up with a counterexample for n = 1
we will try to meme together something for like n = 2 or n = 3
and if that doesn't work
we'll complain about stacks project
perfect plan
LOL
let $X = \mathbb{A}^2$ and $U = X \setminus {0}$. Then $D(x) \subseteq U$ and $D(y) \subseteq U$. If $D(x) \subseteq D(f) \subseteq U$ then $(x) \subseteq (f)$ so $f$ divides $x$, which means $f = x$ or $f = 1$ (up to units), so $D(f) = D(x)$ or $D(f) = X$, and in the second case $D(f) \not\subseteq U$. So if we have arrows $U \to D(f) \to D(x)$ in $\mathsf{Open}(X)^{op}$ then $D(f) \to D(x)$ is the identity. Same logic applies to $D(y)$, so if there was a chain like in (2) then we'd have $D(x) = D(y)$, which is false
shamifold
this should be a counterexample for any chain
basically if you take the plane minus a line sitting inside the plane minus a point, there's no intermediate distinguished opens at all
So the nice categorical lemma I proved isn't actually relevant here -_-
A2 over C?
lol
X is basically the smallest/simplest example of a non affine open subset of an affine scheme/variety
Which is why it's showing up here
hrrrmmm
okay I think I might agree with you one second let me check my brain
and look at stacks again
aha
sham
you're gonna laugh
but I think this works
U = U -> A <- V = V
What's A here?
take it to be the intersection of U and V
rip moment
So we have those maps in the opposite category
Yes
But the maps in stacks go the other way
no they don't
you have x0 = U x1 = U x2 = U cap V x3 = V x4 = V
n = 2
U <- U -> U cap V <- V -> V
right
🧠
me not understanding how this helps in alg geo but being able to spot the dumb solution
as a category theorist
Well basically the structure sheaf is terrible but it's nice on a basis (and that basis is closed under intersections)
ah
So I would rather compute a colimit over that basis than a general one
This is mega sick lmfao
I can make sense of structure sheaf on basis
Thank youuuu
right exactly
So this lets you say prove the stalk at x is colim A_f over f in A\x
since f in A\x iff x in D(f)
We go from the stalk being computed over all nbhds of x to just the distinguished ones
oh super based yeah
And then you can use commutative algebra to say that colimit of A_f is the localization at x
that's great
"and then you can use commutative algebra"
see you lost me there :P
Yeah!! And this kind of cofinality argument with distinguished opens comes up a lot
Hahaha
sham
what are the odds
that in a poset
condition (2)
reduces to n = 1 or n = 2
Err like upper bounds under a fixed thing
sub-poset has upper bounds
slice category
has upper bounds
@gritty widget
wait lol
Lmao
I didn't mean to do that sorry
Okay so like the slice of the subcat over an object of the supercat
Weird
Anyways yeah
mhm
this is neato
wait no you don't even need upper bounds under a fixed thing
because if you have x -> z <- x'
and y -> x and y -> x'
you naturally have y -> z
Ooh yes
transitivity
Nice Nice Nice
I was getting confused by duality again lol
¯_(ツ)_/¯
happens
you need upper / lower (one of the two) under a fixed thing
and the other one you just need existence
I think is the point right?
like if you're trying to get x <- z -> x' then you need an explicit y -> z
otherwise you're frick-fracked
Yes, I think so
If I understand
oh also we didn't even need to know that U cap V is a basis element here
You could take any basis element W contained in U cap V which contains x
So in the general case this says you can compute stalks on a basis
"Guy who calls all basis elements coordinate neighborhoods"

Sheaf on a basis? You mean defining something in coordinates?
If you couldn't tell from this and my tweet I'm trying to learn AG again lol
lol
I should try that again
¯_(ツ)_/¯
I feel like
I have been slowly absorbing
all the sheafy knowledge and stuff I'm going to need when I tackle the bear
and the algebra knowledge too
and eventually I'll actually be able to do it lmao
AG good
@tough imp bugs me about ag problems all the time so I feel like I should just learn it at this point
Oh lol
lol
I was about to summon you
I predicted
algebra is a huge weak point for me rn
linear boisssss
Hmm doubt
Algebra actually ez when you have two good resource
1: commutative algebra book
2: @sleek thicket
algebra easy when you cite commutative algebra book w/o proof
That's the way to do it
No the real based thing is
list of "commutative algebra things that are true"
If u need result
"this reduces to problem in commutative algebra"
See if you only need a little bit to prove
If so, learn it
If it requires a lot
Black box and promises your self you will learn it
Student who reduces AG problems to the local case and then calls it a day
It’s like taking out a loan
you won't
no comm alg for me thanks
based
Lmao
Once something is a statement about affines
He just says “follows by commutative algebra@
Doesn’t know what commutative algebra it follows from
The student is chmonkey and "calls it a day" means "dm sham"
lsadjhfahs
lol
Then I come to you when stuck
Look I have held off asking you something
But now you have caused it
Do you know what regular sequence is
Oh no
Okay so let M be a module with a length n regular sequence in an ideal I
Can I embed M into some injective module N
Such that N/M has a length n - 1 regular sequence in a
Answer: I think no
But I don’t know how else to solve this ;(
Reason is I think if A is local and I = m, then any injective has depth 0 lol
hmm
sees commutative algebra
Have u tried an example
flees
Via LES 😎
Lol
”If $D(x) \subseteq D(f) \subseteq U$ then $(x) \subseteq (f)$ so $f$ divides $x$, which means $f = x$ or $f = 1$ (up to units)
tolaria
I'm thinning over Q
This isnt true btw
Over Q?
Oh yeah tolaria you're right, sorry
It works out because I can replace work with the radical
Over Z Alex
With injectives being Q or Q/Z
Oh
The logic that D(x) = D(f) or D(f) = A^2 still holds, I think?
Since the radical of (f) contains the maximal ideal (x)
Err wait
No
That's wrong
hmm
(x) isn't maximal
I think the radical here should be the ideal generated by the squarefree part of f
Since we're in k[x, y]
So it should still work(?)
hey there's probably a way to construct a counterexample for n = 1
but we solved it using n = 2
so don't worry
:)
It is still a counterexample I think, my logic was just off
But yeah "we" solved it for n = 2 haha
Thanks
I see how to do it
But have you now fully done Spec A?
Pog
The argument max made is perfectly clear now
Well we sort of talked about how it works
So because D(f) = Spec A_f it suffices to check the sheaf condition on global covers
and you can reduce to finite many distinguished opens covering it by compactness
Right but I mean like
This is saying that $0 \to A \to \prod_{i=1}^n A_{f_i} \to \prod_{i=1}^n \prod_{j=1}^n A_{f_i f_j}$ is exact
I know the argument now thanks to you
shamifold
I just meant I don’t remember max doing this
Ahh yeah
He definitely did because I wouldn't have come up with this lmao
Then I thought it kinda ended at that
Nah I remember faithful flatness
And after you brought it up I remembered the chain homotopy
yeah I had just come back from AM pilling myself
I didn’t learn that really till spring break
so I had the definition of faithfully flat fresh in mind
Ohhh
Definition: A scheme is a locally closed subset of projective n space over an algebraically closed field
Im high on coffee, but I must ask just to make sure Im not thinking complete bs. the index of a singularity of a vector field is the degree of the gauss map at the boundary of a nonzero disk around it. should I be able to just use the degree of the vector field itself instead?
I've never worked with hyperbolic geometry before, so can someone help me with drawing (displaying with a computer) an infinite tree in the Poincare disk like on the left side of the cover of this book
woah whats this
that cover looks cool af
I love putting integers inside of disks
If you dig through Andrew Putmans Twitter you can find software that does it
So uhh
There's an institution here where I live that each summer offers tons of free courses in lots of areas of mathematics.
I'm think about either studying one entitled ''fundamental group and recovering spaces'' or Functional Analysis.
I have a certain idea of what algebraic topology is, because I've read some of it in Munkre's Topology book.
But I'm not entirely sure if I'm prepared to study it yet.
A real first course in AT would require a decent understating of groups/rings/modules and point set topology
I've got a good understanding of topology because I've read Munkres' book already, but I've also used it a lot through real, complex and functional analysis.
So I'm quite used to it
But I'm not sure if I know algebra enough
I've only read a bit of Dummit and Foote's book
mainly the first chapter dealing with groups
that's my main theoretical knowledge of algebra
Yeah I’d say you want at least group theory and linear algebra down well
But rings and modules really are better
You can’t use any textbook directly without understanding rings/modules
even tho I know what's a ring and a module, I don't know the main results in the theory of these two algebraic structures.
idt you need rings and modules if you're just doing intro stuff to like
pi_1 and covering theory
I don’t count that
I think a course needs to cover (co)homology to be considered a “real first class”
And you can do cohomology over fields only
But that’s not accessible via any textbook I know of
yea but theyre talking about a summer program called "fundamental group and recovering spaces''
yeah
Yeah group theory is sufficient
u probably want to know what a free group and a presentation is
the content that they cover is the following:
I can’t imagine they won’t cover that
it could be covered in the class tho
max my full semester of AT didnt even reach covering theory

That’s just an incorrect name
At that point
They only wanted to discuss a subgroup of the ideas
pain
we spent half the time on point set lol
it was a little silly tbh he said he was sad he had to cover so much but i feel like if thats the case he could have assigned some of it as reading
Homotopy, Fundamental Group, Examples and Applications: fundamental group of the sphere S^n, projective spaces, classical groups, Seifert-Van Kampen Theorem, Covering Spaces, the relations between covering and the fundamental group, universal covering, fundamental group of compact surfaces, orientation double cover, other topics.
It's in portuguese, so I made a free translation

Talking about orientation before introducing homology is broke
But yeah you should be fine
Tbh the group theory involved in AT is usually very basic
i just started that section in hatcher max lol
I guess that they do that because they introduce homology in a course on Manifolds
and this course on Manifolds is mainly taught before algebraic topology in general
here
they have a lecture on the subject
You might want to take that first if they expect you to be familiar w objects like manifolds
Programa de Mestrado - Análise em Variedades - Aula 22:
Álgebra homológica: complexos de (co-)cadeias, sequências exatas, e homomorfismo de conexão.
Professor: Luis Adrian Florit
Página do curso:
https://impa.br/
Download dos vídeos:
http://video.impa.br/index.php?page=programa-de-mestrado-2014-analise-em-variedades
Pré-requisito: Análise no...
But courses in manifolds tend to talk too much about smooth stuff no one cares about
(this is sarcastic only I don’t care)
I have some understading of manifolds mainly because of A Comprehensive Introduction to Differential Geometry
Vol 1
Lol
Didn't read the other books
That sounds fine then
It was directed at ultra’s hodge theory comment
Michael Spivak
tbh half the humor on this server is "lol what if [statement] but formulated in [more complicated theory than traditionally used]"
which is based because it indirectly exposes me to random shit

btw would it sound dumb if I asked what is hodge theory really about? I mean, I have heard it is some way to study cohomology groups on smooth manifolds using PDEs. But other people have said it somehow makes a connection between lots of stuff in algebraic geometry and differential geometry. For some reason I also think it has lot to do with complex analysis so I'm not sure.
oh? i dont know anything about hodge theory so i wouldnt know
this is traditionally where you explain the basic notions behind hodge theory to me in an accessible manner btw
and me
there are no jokes on this server only opportunities for sucking knowledge from the marrow
I mean, I'm a self studying person so I got introduced to a lot of concepts in mathematics because of dumb memes lmao
first time I heard Grothendieck was because of something related to him being like a mage or something.
not sure
Anyway thanks
Still not sure if I join the course on functional analysis or that one on algebraic topology
I mean, I guess functional analysis is going to be easier maybe
is there fake math in deleuze?
The main reference for the course is Peter Lax's book.
oh no
and from what I know, the content of the course may be something in this line of reasoning:
It starts with pretty basic concepts
Basically a reminding of basic concepts you study in linear algebra.
That's how Peter Lax's books starts btw
You think so because I feel more confident studying it?
Yeah, I've read about 100 pages of Peter Lax's book and it looks promising enough.
iirc these Functional Analysis lectures follow Lax's book very closely
yup
Yeah, I use these as a way to make sure I understand what I just in the book.
aight so
I have a quick question
what is orientation
ok that was phrased poorly
more like, how come orientation is a thing?
If changing coordinate systems doesn't matter and preserves the end result, how does the orientation of basis vectors matter
from what perspective are you looking at orientation from?
it sounds like youre talking about orientation of a vector space?
you care about orienting vector spaces because it ultimately ends up being involved in integrating forms on manifolds and making sure that's well-defined
For me, it is the ability of a manifold to preserve the left and the right. You can define this rigourosly by saying that locally, you can chose a canonical left and right (think of a 2-dimensional manifold, locally it is R^2 and you can chose left and right), this is formalized with a sheaf. The ability to well orient the whole manifold is measured by taking the 1st cohomology group of this sheaf (or less abstractly, you can take some local coodinates cover of your manifold and compute the Cech cohomology of this cover). If the cohomology group is trivial, it means that you can correctly glue one by one open sets of your cover "orientationwise".
For instance it does not work on a Mobius strip. Take a, cover of two simply connected open sets. You can locally choose a basis, thus an orientations on both of them but you can't glue them properly. If it is glued properly on one side it wouldn't be glued properly on the other side ! You can see it by figuring out that if you do one turn of your Mobius strip, your left becomes your right.
@blissful dune
Is there an abstract criterion for when a sheaf of modules is (quasi)-coherent over a (Noetherian) scheme?
I’m thinking of something like the various criterion for affineness of a scheme, not just “show locally it’s M~ for modules M”
Let $M$ be an $n$-dimensional orientable manifold with boundary $\partial M$. Lefschetz duality gives isomorphisms $H_i(M) \cong H^{n-i}(M, \partial M)$ and $H_i(M, \partial M) \cong H^{n-i}(M)$. Over the rational numbers, using the universal coefficient theorem we obtain a perfect pairing $H_i(M) \otimes H_{n-i}(M) \to \mathbb{Q}$. Consider the long exact sequence associated to the inclusion $\partial M \hookrightarrow M$, more specifically the resulting arrows $p_k: H_k(M) \to H_k(M, \partial M)$. I have read in multiple places that the Lefschetz pairings induce perfect pairings on $\operatorname{im} p_i \otimes \operatorname{im} p_{n-i}$, but I have been unable to prove this. I would appreciate if somebody who had more knowledge of the inner workings of Lefschetz duality could help me out here.
Erder
The comment made by Tom Goodwillie on this MO post gives a sketch of a proof which works as follows:
- Restrict the perfect pairing $H_i(M) \otimes H_{n-i}(M, \partial M) \to \mathbb{Q}$ to a pairing $H_i(M) \otimes \operatorname{im} p_{n-i}$.
- This pairing factors through $(H_i(M) / \operatorname{ker} p_i) \otimes \operatorname{im} p_{n-i}$, hence through $\operatorname{im} p_i \otimes \operatorname{im} p_{n-i}$.
- The resulting pairing is perfect.
I got stuck showing 2.
Let's call the pairing $b$ and consider it as a bilinear map, then what I tried to show was that $b(x, y) = 0$ for all $x \in \operatorname{ker} p_i$ and $y = p_{n-i}(z) \in \operatorname{im}p_{n-i}$. I noticed that by exactness of the long exact sequence, one has $\operatorname{ker} p_i = \operatorname{im} q_i$, where $q_i: H_i(\partial M) \to H_i(M)$ is the inclusion map in the long exact sequence. Since the pairing on homology morally counts intersections of chains, it is sensible that $b$ should vanish on all pairs of the form $(q_i(w), p_{n-i}(z))$, as the former is represented by a chain which lies in the boundary of $M$, while the latter is represented by a chain in $M$ which avoids the boundary. However, I don't know if one can literally interpret the pairing on homology like that, let alone how one would prove this.
Erder
corrigendum: Pairs of the form $(q_i(w), p_{n-i}(z))$
Erder
Oh that makes sense thanks
Yeah I am
this paragraph is causing me great strife
the whole thing
P is a planar curve
or, well, a plane
what exactly are these tangent vectors
like what sort of object or action do they correspond to with respect to the plane P
and why does the component with the basis moving in the x direction get ascribed a coefficient dy
instead of dx
here's an illustration
it doesn't really help me with this point
wait hold on
can you clarify your question
wdym what are they
They're the derivatives of the map
ok let me step slowly
because my brain isnt latching on well to this construction
so we need a basis for the tangent space at a point p
the tangent space is just all arrows starting at the point p
the derivatives in the direction of each coordinate are a natural easy way to get a basis for the tangent space because they are localized to the point p
and they span the entire space
ok so now
i have
wait wait dont jump ahead this is the part i am hating
i have the two objects
kwadoo
ok
what exactly is this, first of all
that's the derivative of the point
in what sense
so if you have a map, a(t)
a map from a parameter t
a(t) = (x(t), y(t))
to a point on the plane
yeah
at that specific point, (x, y)
you take the derivative and define it as a vector
yeah
ok
how does that relate
to the derivative of a function on the plane
at a point
a'(t)
$$a'(t) = (x'(t), y'(t))$$
Merry Chief
this is a vector
yep
a'(p) = (x'(p), y'(p))
yeah
the tangent vector IS the derivative at that point
wait... processing
yeah
processing
processing
let me stare off at the wall for a few seconds brb
oh my god
do you get it lol
it was right there under my nose the whole time
yeah exactly lol
i was already doing this
yup
I mean, if you want to think of it like that, sure?
like
im trying to consider how this works like
if you embed a curve in R2
the tangent space is only defined at points along the curve right
like theres no ambient notion of a tangent vector at all
yeah
it's only defined at points along the curve ig
yea the original curve is just kinda like the integral of the tangent curve
ok
ok ok
yeah i think you were just overthinking it
yeah that makes sense
hmm ok next piece
now what exactly are we doing here
dx * y'(p) + dy * x'(p)
why is this the way the coefficients are plugged in
ok so
I'm not entirely sure, but
wait no I think I might get it
I think it's because of how you write it out
like when you want to get dy/dx it affects the sign order
I think
honestly I'm not entirely sure on this one
yeah i get what you mean
and i see plugging in the result of the symbolic execution to the visual graph
and it makes sense
yeah im also trying to figure this one out
but my god it does not make sense when you look at the coordinates and the curve together
🤷♂️
idk just think about it for a couple hours and it'll make sense
so it points normal to the x coordinate
OH
LOL
You're right!
that sucks so bad
holy hell i hate it
what even
why is x'(p) vertical
so... dy is how much y is changing proportionally to the x component of the gradient?
wait. recoup
what exactly is d(x+t, y)/dt
it's just a coordinate curve
well
a unit vector pointing in the positive direction
which is colinear with the coordinate curve
so that's
friick
that's... a horizontal vector wrt x and y
i.e. horizontal in R2
but it's vertical in the tangent space
oh good god
so really we can define a tangent space as a property of the ambient original space
we just cant ascribe any actual vector to it
unless a curve lies at that point
and indeed for curves which cross over themselves at points q
they will have multiple tangent vectors at the point q
oh shiiit
so theres no restrictions for how many vectors 'live' within the tangent space at a point
but I'M STILL CONFUSED. WHY is the coordinate curve for x vertical in the tangent space?
unit vector along the coordinate curve
= x'(p)
= <1,0>
ok the coordinate curve for x is not the same thing as the coordinate curve for dy
that much is now clear to me
differentiation spits out this like
thing
in tangent space

if we parametrize the x coordinate curve by t s.t. we get (x+t, y)
then the tangent vectors to each point along this curve
are given by dy
wat
this is nonsense
mathematicians are trolling
this is a no-fly zone for rational explanation
i think u just have to accept this point and move on without really deeply understanding the mechanics of this transformation
tterra please help
why on earth
when i differentiate the coordinate curve for x
do i get dy
why is dy a tangent vector to (x+t, y)
at constant x and y
what's the question?
lemme latex it
bachman constructs the coordinate system of the tangent space to a plane at a point p as:
kwadoo
kwadoo
this notation makes no sense to me, sorry
same
they just shoehorn in a t
Merry Christmas if that's your thing
that's tomorrow i think
i got a copy of irm for christmas 😌
merry christmas #point-set-topology
to get a parametrization for a coordinate curve
yea but not all are alive at a given time
or in use
or whatever u want to say
kwadoo
But then what is t lol
ah, so the tangent space here is given by the tangent vectors to curves passing through that point. given a point p = (x, y), you want to come up with a "canonical" basis for T_pR^2. to do so, you want curves that go through (x, y) that give you things that look like e_1 and e_2, and (x+t,y) and (x,y+t) do the job

like it checks out in the picture
but
WHY does it check out
cuz symbolically it confuses the hell outta me
what do you mean by paired with?
hmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmmm
That feels like a typo? The dx <0,1> + dy <1,0> does
nope
ya it feels like it's a typo tbh
umm

Yeah haha
holy fuck that sucks
Well it's a 2 symbol typo
i lost 2 whole days of thinking on this
lol my textbook next quarter is NOTORIOUS for typos and I'm scared
I've lost days on it before (with this book)
ok so
good luck.
f u weibel
you guys have done differential forms before right like
i like to think i am comfortable with them
this tangent coordinate system is not complex
like
you're sure the transformation to the tangent space
or whatever you'd call it
can be thought of as
dx * d(x+t, y)/dt
and same for the other component?
Every tangent vector in R^2 can be written uniquely in this form
sorry you had to spend so much time on the typo 😔
hehe
always sucks
i'll post a correction to it in my review after i'm done
does it have an errata?
just look up "author (book) errata"
couldn't find any
make one 
will do cap'n
I hope this question is suitable here: How transitive is the action of Homeo R on R?
I know it's at least doubly transitive (we can construct a linear function...)
Also, is Homeo R isomorphic to a familiar group?
it's probably not triply transitive -- i'm sorta guessing that means any two ordered triples are connected by a homeomorphism, yes? seems false since a homeomorphism should kinda-sorta preserve ordering.
for instance, i doubt there is a homemorphism which sends (0,1,2) to (0,2,1)
Yeah, that's clear since a homeomorphism of the reals needs to be strictly monotonous
But at least if you restrict to pairs (a_1,..., a_n) and (b_1, ... , b_n) which are both "equally" ordered, i.e. there is a permutation of the (a_1,..,a_n) which strictly orders both the a's and the b's simultaneously, then I think homeomorphisms act transitively on those, independent of n
You can show by constructing piecewise linear functions, for example. I guess that's as strong as it gets in terms of transitivity
what exactly are the natural maps in this case?
Can you remind me what | means moth? Is it H_n(M, M\{x})?
If so we have a map of pairs (M, M\B) -> (M, M{y}) given by the identity
yea
does that make sense then ?
yea kinda
like i understand why we have maps from H(M | B) -> H(M | y) it makes sense that theyre both Z but its confusing to me concretely how this relates to the choice of generator
is this supposed to be like we have a ball around each point x such that all the y in B have the same choice of generator?
all 1 or all -1?
if ur map from H(M | B) -> H(M | y) is always the identity then i dont get how else the local consistency condition can be fulfilled
oh
ok hahahaha
Well it's not the identity
That makes sense but I can't pin down the reason why. Is it because R has the order topology?
It's induced by the identity on the space M
But it's not the identity map of pairs
Sorry moth I lost connection haha
i did too lol
so its the map from (M, M \ B) -> (M, M \ y) that acts as the identity on the first and i guess the embedding on the second?
A homeomorphism on the reals is in particular a bijective continuous map on the reals; if it was not monotonous, then by continuity, we can use the intermediate value property to find two elements x,y, mapping to the same f(x) = f(y)
and it induces a map on the relative homology?
Yup!
does this map end up as the identity on homology?
cuz if it doesnt then i think the local consistency condition is more complicated than all the same choice of generator, isnt it?
ugh i dont have paper i have to imagine the diagram
I don't know much about the order topology but it might very well be related; I'm guessing that equipping a space with an order topology makes it possible to prove intermediate value theorems on it
sry 4 mixed conversations don't get distracted bbygirls
Moth I don't know what you mean by the identity on homology
It's a map between two different groups tho
slfj i mean like
it sends the 1 of the first infinite cyclic group to the 1 of the 2nd infinite cyclic group
But there's not a unique 1
The whole thing about orientation is that infinite cyclic groups have a nonunique generator
yea
mhm
We have a given choice of generator on these groups
right
If you use that generator to identify each with Z then it's the identity
But I think this is more confusing than the original condition lol
i kind of get it i think
okay mhm
i think i just need to see an example here cuz its not super clear to me how this all relates to the topology of any given space
like i dont get why exactly we cant do this for RP2
or why we can for S^2
good question, lemme think about it
I tend to think of orientation in terms of smooth structures which isn't useful here
yea
the way im thinking abt it rn is super like
im just imagining arrows at each point sjflksf
Yeah that's called a tangent space :P
mhm
it kind of works if you think about it like
for each point you have a sphere with arrows pointing outwards at each point
and then rotating will keep arrows pointing outwards while reflecting will cause them to point inwards
oh yeah so you're actually onto something here lol
If M is an oriented riemannian manifold and M' a hypersurface in M, and we have a normal vector N to M' then we get an orientation on M'
idk what that means but sounds cool 
so somehow the orientation on the sphere comes from the fact that we can choose a smoothly varying normal vector
Yup
mhm
Codimension 1 submanifold
right
this makes some intuitive sense actually
like no matter how you lay out your arrows on RP^2 you can expect to see a problem where like if you pick a point there should be a ball around it where half are pointing "out" and half "in" i guess
you kind of need some notion of direction though ugh like
hmmmmmm
locally, you can orient any manifold as it's locally euclidean. the problem is extending local orientations over the whole manifold.
yeah i understand the general idea its just hard for me to see how local consistency relates to the topology of the manifold
like i can kind of see why RP^2 cant be oriented if i fudge everything and think abt arrows but
hh
itd be really nice to see an example of an orientation put on like idk the sphere
in terms of the local orientations as generators of homology and such
tterra moment
i think you can see that there is a chain of open sets which sorta returns to itself, but in the journey, the local consistency requirement violates the global condition.
maybe think about the mobius strip.
im not sure what you mean by a chain of open sets here
(you can phrase the whole local orientations+local consistency business in terms of a sheaf)
oh god
Don't worry about it lol
yeah, the orientation sheaf.
algebraic geometry arrives from the future
I do not think it would be helpful to introduce the orientation sheaf here
tterra and not knowing AT name a more iconic duo 🐺
Okay moth how about this
Take a generator β of H_2(S^2)
You should be able to cook up an orientation from this
is our ball around any point S^2 - x?
for the local consistency condition dont you need an open ball B within a neighborhood of each point
Yeah but we need to define the orientation at each point first
well like, we can't check consistency if we don't have generators at each point to begin with
Yeah?
So we're gonna take a global generator of the homology
mhm
and then restrict to each point, sort of
Like we have a map Hn(S^2) -> Hn(S^2|x) right?
Like in LES of a pair there's a map into the relative homology group
do we let the local homology at x be the image of beta under the map induced by (S^2, null) -> (S^2, S^2 - x)?
ok thank you wifi very cool!
there we go
right yea
woke
These are both infinite cyclic groups tho!
Right
so the idea is now that if you take a ball around any point the induced maps Hn(S^2|x) -> Hn(S^2|y) will preserve these generators
Since they're all coming from a global generator β
i think that makes sense
like if you pull out the sequence the induced map on homology gets u a commutative diagram
between the two LES
yea this makes sense i feel
i gtg now for a couple of minutes but ty! i think i get it much better now
So this commutes by functorality
hmm
lemma 3.27 is used to prove thm 3.26
it says that part (c) follows immediately from part b of the lemma but im not rly sure how
i get that we get isomorphisms H_i(A; R) -> H_i(M; R) but im not sure how we're supposed to know that H_i(A; R) = 0
wait nvm u can let A = M
oops
what does the sum of sections and scalar multiply of section actually mean here
i guess i kind of see it
if we have f : x |-> a_x and g : x |-> b_x the sum is just the normal sum of two functions right?
and likewise w/ scalars
this book just kind of says random things and doesn't justify them at all
if we think evaluating a 1-form $w$ on a tangent vector $v$ as a dot product of the two, the book says this is equivalent to projecting $v$ onto a line $l$ which has a basis vector $\frac{w}{|w|^2}$
kwadoo
and it says that using that particular basis vector makes the projection ( or the 1-form, rather) coordinate independent
how can this possibly be
if i dot w and v i get
kwadoo
if we represent a vector along the line l as
kwadoo
and i try to get w * v to relate to this parametrization of l
well first getting a scalar out of the line i get
kwadoo
now what does it mean to project v onto l
hmm I guess we want to find t for the projection
$w \cdot v = |w| \cdot \text{comp}_l v$
kwadoo
if we take $|l(t)|=\text{comp}_l v$ then we get...
kwadoo
$w \cdot v = t$
kwadoo
o_o
ok i guess that qualifies as coordinate independence lol
but what a wacky way to arrive at that
these are the worst words in the english language
Hatcher
@fading vale but it divides a polygon up into triangles by forming new triangles with the barycenter, subly
i think the name is fair (even tho i also don't like that you call it "barycenter" in english)
Anyone got a good method for computing degree of the followong map CP^1 to CP^1 where in affine coords we send z to f(z)/g(z) where f and g are polynomials of degree n and m respecitvely
Doing it by local degree seems quite tedious
Was wondering wether you could somehow use the zero dim cohomologies
And then poincare duality
The other way sorry
0 dim homologies
unrelated but this is adorable https://twitter.com/AudreyRosevear/status/1342483539376353283?s=19 (check the replies too, Hatcher actually gave her mom a gift idea)
Also computing local homology doesn't seem that bad to me? I think you can compute it at the zeroes of g since then you're sort of mapping into the plane
It's been a while so that might be wrong lol

first displayed equation is making me thonk a little nvm that's what i get for not reading every part of the long-ass chapter 2
but whatever
lol
the only thing to remember about the stereographic projection is that it exists, nicely
and the picture ofc
what else tho
OH i guess if you're into conformal things then you might wanna work with it all the time

yes
any finite T_1 space is discrete
proof: let X be a finite T_1 space
let A be a subset of X we wish to show that A is open in X
to do this we can show that A' is closed
now A' is finite --> A' = {a_1,a_2,...,a_n}
decompose A' into the singletons a_is
each one of them is closed ( as this is a T_1 space )
A' is the finite union of closed sets --> A' is closed
--> A is open
is this right
I don't understand the A' step and don't see why it's necessary. We already have A as a union of finitely many closed sets (singletons), so it is closed. Since all sets are closed, all sets are open.
what
what
watt💡
like if i know measure theory
do i see quotient spaces in another way
will they be better understood
idk i was talking to the prof about the book not having quotient spaces
and he just went quotient spaces are importnat but they will be better understood if you learn measure theory
and i was just wondering what could be there
does any1? if any
@gritty widget how many math courses are you taking? Because you are also in the complex variables channel.

