#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 187 of 1
Is K algebraically closed? it would have to be for it to be true
but ye theres a really natural parametrization
Not sure how to proceed, I tried looking in the chart Y=1, and was trying to check if (t,1,t^3)+(s,1,s^3) was equal to (s+t,1,(s+t)^3) but it didn't really work out I think
Yeah K is algebraically closed
nonprojective case we essentially have y^2=x^3
can you find a reallly simple rational parametrization x(t)=?, y(t)=?
Yeah t^2,t^3
yup
It looks like I made a mistake though, I forgot to change signs
Thanks!
yw
So the conversation about T^2\pt being homotopy equivalent to a wedge of two circles was a couple hours ago
But
I feel like it was missing an important visualization about the homotopy
It's goatse
I should do more topology
geometry is kind of bad, actually
embrace the love-hate relationship with rg
lol
it can be cringe sometimes
thank god that seems like the last extreme computation ill have to do in this course
differential operators eww
Differential operators uwu
shit like this is why you pretend everything is C\infty
RG is nice modulo computations like this
where you're just mindlessly applying definitions
some things are disgusting but lead to really nice results
like the formulas for variations of energy give you bonnet myers
variations of energy wtf lol
dont think so
I might try to sneak into a few lectures
TTerra:
well by take derivatives i mean
consider a family of curves
blah blah blah
it's not pretty
I will stick to just using RG theorems for now
the proofs are hard af
and the definitions for a lot of things are so much simpler in the algebraic case
Yeah, sometimes these things get rather complicated
yeah I'll be happy if I can retain just the Hodge decomposition and chern-weil theory from my class
screw the rest
are you gonna take the other 226s?
I don't think they're being offered this year
this is your brain on RG
are you taking AG?
took it last year
Did totaro teach it?
yup
I had totaro for 131H
lol
That was wild
wild how?
His exams were fucking insane
well, which G then
no G is not an option
Now they look easy, but at the time it was like holy fk
who did you take for 131H?
Oh she's good
yup
I had totaro, garnett, then gangbo
oh you did 131c?
or 245?
Back when it was measure, I did 131C
I know they changed it since some of my friends are there
yup
I did 246ABC and 226A for grad courses
who taught 246?
Garnett, Garnett, Terry
yA, his wait list is long. I preferred garnett over terry
really? I think there's empty spots in his class rn
there's a zillion people in the lecture tho
ofc. he's terry!
I liked Garnett more because I understood the way garnett does and processes mathematics better
terry's too big brain for me
Also garnett had homework due every 2 weeks instead of 1 week
Which I also preferred
What are you planning for next quarter?
not sure yet
homological algebra
maybe topics in alg top
maybe fukaya categories
You're so far in the algebra direction oh jeez
I feel like the LA students are either very heavily in the Alg. camp
or the analysis camp
ye pretty much
I was on the analysis side of things, obviously
I'm interested in analysis tho
I didn't even finish 110C, I disliked the courses so much
lmao
226 conflicted with 110
So I was like fk this I might enjoy RG
So I went to that instead
the 210 sequence was great
did you do 110H?
yup
Who was the 210 prof?
merkurjev
Oh merkurjev. ppl say he's good
yup
well that's the only class I've had with him, so it's automatically his best and worst one
rip
did he make y'all classify all groups up to some pretty high order or something on the final?
Yeah, it wasn't good at all
I did so bad on that final
I don't even wanna remember
I wouldn't be surprised if it was like in the hundreds or so
There was one student that got a near perfect on the final
how tf do you classify all up to 100 on a final
Have you seen his 110H finals? They're insane
He gives at least 20 problems or so
Of varying points. He says "get to 100 points"
konstantin?
oh ok
ah
IDK if you knew john, but he was also not a fan of algebra
There’s no way you can classify groups up to order 100
Groups of order 64 are so numerous
https://www.amazon.com/Groups-Order-Senior-J-K-Hall/dp/B002GQQ11S
This book does groups of order 2^n up to n = 6 aka 64
And it’s gigantic and costs 500 dollars lol
Dude, his fucking finals were crazy
He's put open problems on finals before
You can put it on there just to see how far students will get
I've heard the classify all groups up to some large order legend from multiple sources now lol
3 sources
...
and Ken Ono is one of them
maybe
Stony Brook Mathematics Colloquium Video
Can't you just feel the Moonshine?
Ken Ono, Emory University
March 30, 2017
http://www.math.stonybrook.edu/Videos/Colloquium/video.php?f=20170330-Ono
there ya go
the link takes you to the part where he mentions it
But why...
I could do up to 16 maybe
With effort
And then some random bits interspersed
The main issues are when the prime decomposition has high powers
That’s when things get... messy
up to 15 isnt bad at all
Yeah
16 idk
8 and 16 are the first sort of big road blocks
I think there’s 9 of 16?
8 isn’t bad once you learn semi direct products
yup
there's more
14 lol
rip anyone in that class
51 groups of order 32
lmao
How many abelian are there?
5?
Yeah there’s 5 abelian I think
So 9 was referring to the non abelian ones which are all rhat matter
😎
I remember 9 being related to groups of order 16
classify all groups up to order 100
what the fuck?
????
thats literally easily over a thousand
it might be way way more
haha gap.finite group brrrr
idek if gap has everything up to order 100
You can probably grind it out if you turn your brain off and spam sylow
I had a group theory course where the final class project was classifying as much groups as we could up to order 500 (we worked in pairs, 20 orders for each pair), but we skipped most powers of 2 lmao
it was fun tbh, I wouldn't have learnt as much otherwise
though half of it was checking our answers in https://people.maths.bris.ac.uk/~matyd/GroupNames/
Lmao 20 orders for each pair
If the orders were interspersed that seems not too bad
else people that got like "460-480" got mega fucked
vs "1 - 20"
tfw group theory in #point-set-topology
Yes moth
i worded that poorly
but you can construct up to weak htpy equivalence a CW space with any group G as its nth homotopy group
you know it's good when the first google result is nlab 
why did i say fundamental space??
lens spaces


Ultra do I actually have to care about lens spaces
they are so ugly
something something S^infty/(Z/q) or whatever???
geometra = algebra + gluing data
lens spaces are so cool
schultens 3 manifold topology has a good intro I think
Let C1 and C2 be projective curves. For any irreducible curve D \neq C1 on C1 X C2, is the intersection number with C1 positive?
What have you tried? Have you looked at exampless?
Okay, so if ${X_\alpha}$ is a family of topological spaces, and ${Y_\alpha}$ with $Y_\alpha \subset X_\alpha$ for each $\alpha$, there are two ways to put a topology on $Y = \prod Y_\alpha$. You can give each $Y_\alpha$ the subspace topology and then give $Y$ the product topology, or you can give $Y$ the subspace topology from $\prod X_\alpha$ (with the product topology). Call the former $Y_a$ and the latter $Y_b$. I am trying to show that these are homeomorphic using only the universal properties. i.e. i am trying to show that $\operatorname{id}_Y$ is a homeomorphism from $Y_a \to Y_b$.
kxrider:
To show $\operatorname{id}_Y : Y_a \to Y_b$ is continuous, it suffices to show that the composition of $\operatorname{id}Y$ with the inclusion $i: Y_b \to \prod X\alpha$ is continuous, and to show that $i\operatorname{id}Y $ is continuous, it suffices to show that the composition of $i\operatorname{id}Y $ with each projection $\pi\alpha$ is continuous, but I don't really see why \emph{just from the universal properties} that $\pi\alpha i \operatorname{id}_Y$ is continuous. I reach a similar impasse trying to show $\operatorname{id}_Y : Y_b \to Y_a$ is continuous.
kxrider:
Let i_α : Y_α -> X_α. You essentially want to show π_α ° i = i_α, yeah ?
I guess I don't see what you mean by via universal properties
hmm
actually sorry I think I'm too sleepy to help here, I hope you can figure it out
its np, have a gn sham
okay i think i got it. $\pi_\alpha i \operatorname{id}Y : Y_a \to X\alpha$ is the same as $i_Y \pi_\alpha^Y$ where $\pi_\alpha^Y : Y_a \to Y_\alpha$ is the projection (which is continuous by assumption), and $i_Y : Y_\alpha \hookrightarrow X_\alpha$ is the inclusion which is also continuous by assumption.
kxrider:
map theoretic stuff is cool but kind of messes with my head lol
I have a question from an exercise about complete measure spaces
If, given a measure space $(X,\mathcal{A},\mu)$, I'm trying to prove that ${A\cup N : A\in \mathcal{A}, N \text{ is a subset of some } \mathcal{A}\text{ measurable null set}}$ is a $\sigma$-algebra, how do I show that the complement $(A\cup N)^c = (A^c\cap N^c)$ is also a part of that sigma algebra?
maple:
I think what I am asking boils down to showing that $(A\cup N)^c$ is $A'\cup N'$ for a different pair of sets, but I'm having trouble with that.
@sleek scaffold this probably belongs in #advanced-analysis (gonna think about it though give me a minute)
maple:
OK
ah ok think i got it
it helps to draw a picture
draw A, N, and a null set M containing M
Should I draw with intersection between A and N?
yeah since that's fully general
OK
draw it in a box X
and shade in (A U N)^c
hopefully your picture looks something like that
you should be able to see that (A U N)^c is the union of a measurable set with something contained in a null set...
just stare until you see it lol
no problem 🙂
Hey, people, I’m struggling to prove that $TS^n \times \mathbb{R}$ is diffeomorphic to $S^n \times \mathbb{R}^{n+1}$. Does anyone know an approach to this problem?
pmorelli:
@crimson imp there's a straightforward map you can define taking you from $S^{n} \times \mathbb{R}^{n+1} \to TS^n \times \mathbb{R}$. have you checked if that's a diffeomorphism?
doubledual:
what's the map? I was trying to think of one and I couldn't
Because S^n isn't parallelizable
Oh sorry I think I see, you use the embedding of S^n into Euclidean space

let me expand a little since maybe the map isn't so straightforward
you're given a point on S^n and a vector in R^{n+1}
and you're thinking of S^n as being embedded in R^{n+1}, and the tangent plane as living in R^{n+1} too
how do you turn a point on S^{n} and a vector in R^{n+1} into a point in TS^n x R?
thinking of everything as being embedded is key
So if you have (p, v) you can write v = w + tp for w, p orthogonal, and φ(p, v) = ((p, w), t)
I think you can compute the Jacobian of this as a map Rn+1 × Rn+1 -> Rn+1 × Rn+1 × R
yeah that's it
lol sorry i disconnected but it sounds like this is the same thing I came up with
oh or instead of computing the Jacobian just write down an inverse
I That’s a great strategy, I didn’t think about looking for a map defined on $S^n\times \mathbb{R}^{n+1}$
pmorelli:
I will try to write down an argument
Is this map well defined? I mean, is it possible to find other t’s and w’s that satisfie v=w+tp?
@crimson imp yes, we're projecting onto the subspace spanned by p
The fact that w and p are orthogonal is what makes this unique
t = <v, p> and w = v - <v, p> p
In the highlighted section, should $T \pi_{TM}$ be simply $\pi_{TM}$? It's from Lee's Manifolds and Differential Geometry. I'm pretty sure it's a typo (many typos in that book) but I can't find it in the errata, so I might be just having a brain fart.
"a nice map"
Yeah not sure what he means by that either
frittata:
no i mean like this thing
Ahhh yes that's the tangent map
Which restricts to the differentials on the fibers of the tangent bundle
wow that's fucking cancer to look at
TTerra:
and it doesnt make sense to say they're the same
in which case it does make sense to say they're the same
TTerra:
as you say
although i haven't done the exercise so idk
yeah there shouldn't be any T\pi_{TM}'s
neither equation makes any sense
@nimble salmon
okay now for actually defining s...
christ
that's aids
so if $(p,v) \in T_pM$ then you can describe the elements of $T_{(p,v)}TM$ using curves: pick a curve $\alpha : (-\delta,\delta) \to TM$ with $\alpha(s)=(p(s),v(s))$, $p(0)=p$,$v(0)=v$. then you have the tangent vector $\alpha'(0) \in T_{(p,v)}TM$ which you can write like $$\alpha'(0) = ((p,v),\alpha'(0))$$ i guess?
TTerra:
but one must ask themselves: why
and then uhh you can look at how \pi_{TM} and T\pi act on this and try to come up with a definition of s
yes moth
especially with weird ass problems like these
wait does s = id work 
on page 2
this seems to be it but i don't wanna read into the details 🤢
@gritty widget post pfp
Cute
yeah
#competition-math message
i said something about never looking in the preuni or early uni channels and then arch did this
that's sick
season two in january 
have not actually
yes they're going to cover the manga arc
where they find out the killer
and whatnot
my favorite part of the manga
i hope they only cover that because it drops off a bit after
anyways i'm hungry so i'm gonna leave this here then go make food, rg prof told us to read it because it has our homework answers 
Sorry I was away! Yeah so it looks that the statement had a typo lol. Btw my solution is that
frittata:
yeah i was working on the problem and i figured it was a swap type thing (i mean, your book's author calls it s for swap lol)
got lazy and googled it 
Nice, it didn't occur to me that s stands for swap
And thank you for the paper link, gonna read through it (if it doesn't burn my eyes too much)
repost
ah okay you got it
ye this talks about that map s a bit i guess
the notation looks awful in this lol
Yeah honestly notation is what keeps me away from diff geo
Or should I say notation_s_, since each branch of math and physics use their notation for it
I think somebody once described differential geometry as the branch of mathematics which is invariant under change of notation
What book is this?
Manifolds are everywhere. These generalizations of curves and surfaces to arbitrarily many dimensions provide the mathematical context for under standing "space" in all of its manifestations. Today, the tools of manifold theory are indispensable in most major subfields of pure mathematics, and...
note that the book you're reading is also by a lee
but it's not the same one
yours is the jeff lee
As if diff geo couldn't get more confusing lol, I thought the two books were by the same author!

y'know while looking at your exercise i was like "why the fuck would anyone do this"
but
that paper confirms it
people actually care about shit like TTTM
frittata:
cotangent bundle of the cotangent bundle 
scary
i was going to say something about how that should morally happen but i decided not to
oh yeah?
modulo honorable abuse
if moth deletes this message they're gay
@ moderators power abuse
theyre gay
I thought that you used morally true to mean true
aren't you intuit gang
I'm p sure max once said morally true false things are truer than morally false true things
ok its like
you have morally true statements like "topological spaces are semilocally simply connected/path connected/locally path connected"
lol
where its like a restriction of the general case
and you have morally true statements that dont correspond to reality at all but are a descriptor of what reality should be
This fits my theory that morally true is a synonym for false
its not!
no other connotations
no!
okay so unrelated
I was doing this year's manifolds qual at my uni (for fun)
*uni
Wanted to discuss/check my solutions
But also, I used riemannian geometry on 8 and you're maybe not allowed to use that/not supposed to know it when taking the qual
Like, it's not taught in the manifolds course
LOL imagine thinking “topological spaces have sort of nice property” is morally true
Your brain on 0 AG hurb
So I was wondering if anyone had a nice way of seeing the following: if $G$ is a compact, connected Lie group then $\det(Ad(g)) = 1$ for all $g\in G$
shhmonkey
shamrock:
Hurb
my proof is that by compactness we can choose a bi-invariant metric, where $Ad(G) \subseteq O(\mathfrak{g})$
shamrock:
Topology is too weak to deal with big strong AG things hence Groth had to generalize topological spaces
So they all have determinant ±1
Then by connectedness and the fact that $\det(Ad(e)) = 1$ we see it's always 1
shamrock:
Does anyone have a way of seeing this without using RG?
“Topology couldn’t handle a wide array of things because it’s strong”
Hurb
like on any compact lie group the adjoint representation always has det ±1
nerd

Wait wat did TTerra skip smooth manifolds to do RG?
No he just didn't do lie groups
Oh
yeah my manifolds course did not mention lie groups once LOL
Hurb
kind of a shame
they're nice
so everything i know is from talking with sham
e.g.
theyre complete
or something
All vector fields are complete
some funny stuff about left/right/biinvariant metrics
If you don’t know Lie groups you won’t know Lie algebras and then Algebraic groups won’t make sense to you
They might not be complete as riemannian manifolds unless they have a bi invariant metric
ah i see
That’s kind of a shame they would shoot you in the foot like that
Eh
Like our manifolds course is very very long and fast and stuff
Like
It's pretty hard and maybe not the best way to teach it
ISM is more comprehensive than most books
Yeah I mean I don't think every class has to do ISM
Do you think there’s Negi-type people who ask if there’s an orbifold-theoretic approach to all this so they can just subsume manifold theory
We did ISM over like 6 months or so and it was insane
really really hard to keep up with
I don't know that I learned it as well as if we went slower
anyways, my question
You should repost it lol since it got buried
It can't? Tterra?
that's what I figured
RP^2 = CP^1 = Riemann Sphere 
nvm nope im going in circles, it is preissman. if it had a metric of negative curvature then preissman's theorem says every nontrivial abelian subgroup of pi_1 would be isomorphic to Z, not the case
yeah, it has a C2
synge concerns positive curvature
anyways sham repost for the third time
i will go
moon is having dumplings with red wine

Sham is having cocktails
Okay so my question
On any compact lie group the adjoint representation always has det ±1
I can prove this by choosing a bi-invariant riemannian metric, but I'd like to do it more elementarily. Like, just the contents of ISM lol
define the adjoint representation?
Can you make a path connectedness argument?
I've seen things like you go around on points, on each neighborhood you get a result
but you have a connected chain so the result holds
So for any g in G, we have a conjugation action G -> G. The derivative of this is an automorphism of the lie algebra, so it's a representation of G on the lie algebra
shot in the dark if something like that would work
You can reduce to a nbhd of the identity on which the exponential map is surjective
oh hm no that's only for the case of G connected
So I'm not sure you can use path stuff
Hrmm
I'm not sure what ISM methods would entail
That was my go to nuke in a few courses
anything without a metric
Well the actual test problem is for the connected case
Can you do it on each path connected component
I just realized that the RG proof does more than I need
and then try to patch together with AT?
Can you assume it's not 1 at a point
then do a nbhd argument
with complements
I'm just throwing paint at a wall
I mean, maybe? I don't see why the set where it's 1 would be open too
hoping to get a solid color
So you can reduce to a nbhd of e onto which the exponential map is surjective
and it suffices to show det(Ad(exp(X))) = 1 for any X in the lie algebra
But I didnt see a nice way to compute Ad ° exp...
Hrm I guess idk
I'd have to look at a lie theory text
Nothing stuck to my head when I took Lie Theory
Tterra any thoughts?
i'd have to recall the definitions of these things
i don't play with lie groups a lot so
i'm not comfortable/familiar with things like ad and Ad
I did try to use ad but it didn't work
hmm okay maybe I should ask about other problems first and then this later
Okay so
Problems from qual I just did
I had a really cute solution to 5
so like
TTerra:
$$(\gamma(1) \cdot \alpha \cdot \gamma(1)^{-1})'(0)$$
TTerra:
Right
like
Yup
But that didn't seem nice lol
anyways
Other problems
So for 5
If $γ$ is an integral curve it satisfies $γ'(t) = A γ(t)$, where $A = \begin{bmatrix} 0 & c & - b \ -c & 0 & a \ b & -a & 0\end{bmatrix}$
shamrock:
By the theory of linear ODEs, the solution with initial condition $γ(0) = p$ is $γ(t) = e^{At} p$
shamrock:
so $Θ_t$ is a linear transformation, namely $e^{A t}$
shamrock:
now why is this in $SO(3)$?
shamrock:
By definition
?
Oh is that the
You can diagonalize but it's ass
$$ \Lambda D \Lambda ^{-1} $$
MoonBears-C-:
right, and D is actually complex too (to make it worse)
Jesus I haven't done that since lower division

Well you need to compute arbitrary powers of A to find the exponential
Since it's a power series
That's one way
Or you can give a matrix representation
wym?
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/1949814/adjoint-representation-of-exponential-on-lie-group
maybe you can use this to compute the thing i was trying to do earlier sham
You can see directly from the definition of $A$ that $\tr A = 0$, so $A \in \mathfrak{sl}(3)$ and it's skew symmetric $A^T + A = 0$ so $A \in \mathfrak{o}(3)$. Because $SL(3)$ and $O(3)$ are lie subgroups of $GL(\R, 3)$, we have $\exp(tA) \in SL(3) \cap O(3) = SO(3)$
shamrock:
isn't that sick??
You can completely avoid thinking about the flow
You just need to know the lie algebra of SO(3)
It's traceless skew symmetric matrices
Which A is
Also you can compute directly that $A (a, b, c) = 0$, so the same is true for all powers, and by using the power series definition $\exp(tA) (a, b, c) = 1$
shamrock:
so you can skip computing Θ at all!
Just using the matrix exponential and a tiny bit of lie theory
that is slick
Yeah lol I felt very smort
How long is the computation
I feel it would take like ~ 2 mins
You just gotta combine terms in $aX + bY + cZ$
shamrock:
That's literally the only computation
but ofc I spent like 15 minutes of time trying to diagonalize
A born geometer
tfw you don't have wolfram alpha acces on a qual 😔
For problem 6a I said that $\omega$ is cohomologous to $\frac{-y dx + x dy}{x^2 + y^2}$ since that's a closed but not exact form and $H^1(\R^2\setminus{0})$ so if $C$ is the circle of radius $\varepsilon$ then $\int_C \omega = \int_C \frac{-y dx + x dy}{x^2 + y^2} = 2\pi$. But we can also compute $\int_C \omega = \varepsilon \int_0^{2\pi} \cos(t) g(\gamma(t)) - \sin(t) f(\gamma(t)) dt$, so if $|f|, |g|$ are bounded by $K$ we have $\abs{\int_C \omega} \leq \varepsilon \int_0^{2\pi} B + B = 4B\pi \varepsilon$. Thus $2\pi \leq 4B\pi \varepsilon$ for all $\varepsilon > 0$, which is a contradiction
shamrock:
yA
Looks like you're ready for quals
Just bug UW till they let you take it
lol
The Analysis ones are weird
i mean they told me they'd let me into the masters program no question asked
I could probably get into the PhD program, they like admitting their own students
Oh really?
Yup
Dude fuck UCLA, I should've gone to UW
I know a bunch of people
UCLA actively discourages their own students from going there
by not admitting them or low-balling their stipends
The UCLA Mathematics Department encourages students to change their educational institution between their Bachelor and PhD degrees to broaden their horizons. In particular, no admissions advantage is given to UCLA undergraduates.
graduate admissions Frequently Asked Questions More information for international students Dear Prospective Applicant, Thank you for your interest in graduate studies in the Department of Mathematics at UCLA. Applications are accepted for Fall quarter matriculation only. The application deadline is December 15. Application review process begins ...
It's on the fucking website
anyways
Yeah!
Yup
I met a girl whose first name was berkeley-davis
You can guess where their parents went to school
Berkeley because it's Berkeley and also my parents live here
lol
live in the bay area at least
I could Bart/drive over
so 7 is secretly easy. T_e G = T_e R^n (+) T_e GL(n) = R^n (+) GL(n)
The subspaces have the usual lie algebra structure
So you just gotta compute $[(0,A), (v, 0)] = ad((0,A)) (v, 0) = \frac{d}{dt} Ad((0,tA)) (v, 0) = \frac{d}{dt}\frac{d}{ds} (0,tA) (sv, 0) (0, t^-1A^-1) = \frac{d}{dt}\frac{d}{ds}(s t A v, 0) = (Av, 0)$
shamrock:
And finally I have a riemannian manifolds argument for 8, which may or may not be valid
I got this all in 1.5/4 hours so I think I would've solidly passed the qual!
Oh yeah so
Oh wait ttera had a proof
Not you lol

The stack exchange proof
oh

doing qual problems
when is it time for me to take the qual pill
inb4 "now"
So it suffices to show $ad(X) \in \mathfrak{sl}(\mathfrak{g})$
Ie it's traceless
hmm
shamrock:
@gritty widget I'm mostly just doing it for fun
And to test how well I understood my manifolds course
nice
seems like you understand it pretty well
i should look at some of my uni's manifolds qual problems
anyways continue ur problem
I feel so too
So like
In the past I tried this for previous years
And it was too hard/I got scared
But after actually finishing the class I think I'm in a good spot
I didn't like prep for this
@gritty widget you should look at uw ones
I think they're really good
otoh lie groups...
Shamrock has moved on from cocktails
To white wine
the grad courses here split into two semesters
e.g. topology i is differential, ii algebraic
this is reflected in the exams
except for grad complex, which is one semester
Ahh yeah that made sense
The second seemed very differential lol
Uw has a post quals course on AT
Year long, every other year
First two quarters are like basic AT/homology/cohomology and then I think it terminates in either homotopy theory or vector bundles/applications to manifolds stuff
shamrock:
Why is $ad(X)$ traceless
shamrock:

I guess like, what are the eigenvalues?
We can extend $X$ to a basis $X = X_1, \ldots, X_n$ and write $[X_i, X_j] = c_{ij}^k X_k$, so $ad(X)$ has matrix $(c_{1,j}^i)$
shamrock:
Then I want to show $\sum_{i=1}^n c_{1i}^i = 0$
shamrock:
Oh wait
This isn't algebraic
I have to use compactness somehow
hmm
Can you detect when a lie algebra is the lie algebra of a compact lie group?
Real
what's the killing form?
I don't know lie algebra theory, sorry
oh I looked it up
Hm
So my original problem
Is to show Tr(ad(X)) = 0 in Lie(G) for G a compact connected lie group
Or really that det(Ad(g)) = 0 for g in G
What does unitary invariant mean?
like
I don't have a metric
Oh okay
I don't see why this implies it vanishes on ad(X)?
ad(X)Y = [X, Y]
oh I see your confusion
I'm looking at tr(ad(X))
Not tr(ad(X) Y)
I'm also not in a matrix lie algebra (I mean I can embed but I can't embed the lie group so I lose compactness...)
ad(X) is a linear map \g -> \g
And \g is a finite dimensional vector space
Yeah but I lose information that way
re:compactness of G
So I'm not sure it holds in an arbitrary lie algebra
Oh sure okay
I would like to only use things I know though lol
This was a problem on the manifolds qual at UW in fall
I solved it with riemannian geometry
But I didn't know riemannian geometry when the test was administered
And it isn't covered in the class so my proof might not be admissible
the RG proof is that a compact lie group automatically has a bi invariant metric, and Ad(g) in O(\g) wrt a bi invariant metric, so det(Ad(g)) = ±1 for all X. Using connectedness and det(Ad(e)) = 1 we get that det(Ad(X)) = 1 everywhere
I'm not really sure what to do here
or what this problem is asking for exactly
like i mean
oh maybe its like
h_n is isomorphic to H_n or something
lets find out
yeah
i think i didnt realize at first that its assuming C_n(X) is a Z module
but i see now
it is isomorphic in the case G = Z
i think just zero
yup
You're a Z-module moth


Since we can define grassmanians in a coordinate free way as hilbert schemes, can we do something similar for proj?
are you asking if it can be defined by a universal property?
Or just intristically, without gluing or similar
an open source textbook and reference work on algebraic geometry
The scheme quotient way of introducing proj seems to not be coordinate free either
Thanks I’ll try to unwind that
axioms here are these btw i know theyre different
so im pretty sure (3) works and im guess that this fails for (2)?
but im not rly sure how to show it
hmm
yeah : |
angry at self but also everything else
also I lied on Twitter for clout
I only have half a bottle of tequila
wdym according to your twitter you are a minor with no tequilla smh
I should play minecraft
but
I need to set up my desktop
takes work
I'm thinking maybe you X/A acyclic
But maybe not
Or like
One of them should be acyclic
For simplicity
Like what about X = disk, A = circle
Simple example
Ahh no
If all homotopy groups are free I think it just holds
you prolly want some torsion in there
So what about a projective plane somewhere
yeah
yeah
oh so like
X = RP^2, A = S^1
Then X/A = S^2
you have Hom(H^3(A), Z) -> Hom(H^2(X/A),Z) -> Hom(H^2(X),Z) exact right
wait uhh
This must be wrong
It feels right though...
Like
Isn't that 0 -> Z -> 0?
@fading vale what do you think of this
hrm
the map is going from 3 to 2?
oh i think this is a typo but it should be H_i not H^i
but. yeah
i guess this proves that its not exact?
oh hm
i think actually H_2(RP^2) = Z so Hom(H^2(X), Z) = Hom(Z, Z) = Z
so
hn
counterexample might not work
H2(Rp2) = 0
sorry
okay yeah it works
H1(X)* is 0
H1(A)* is Z
H2(X/A)* is 0
by * I mean hom(_, Z)
so you get 0 --> Z --> 0
oh fuck no
H2(X/A)=Z
yea
but we dont even need to do that i dont think
exactness breaks at Hom(H2(S^2), Z)
the time I got the most drunk in my life and threw up and my roommates got mad I did an algebra final for the undergrad class at my school
It was so easy
I don't get it
does it?
mhm because its 0 -> Z -> 0
uh you do
Hom(H3(S^1), Z) -> Hom(H2(S^2), Z) -> Hom(H2(RP^2), Z)
wait
fuck
fuuuuuck
the map goes from 2 to 3
not 3 to 2
yeah its Hom(H_i(X, A), Z) -> Hom(H_i(X), A) -> Hom(H_i(A), Z) ->
Q_Q
cohomology goes up instead of down
thank you for not being patronizing moth
Also no I'm gonna play minecraft with my brother
Because he can't be jere
or play mc!
Because of covid
You aren't!! I like that!!

Also I am drunk and if I call you dude I hope you know it's because I'm drunk and not because I think you're q man
Like
I have been calling a lot of people dude rittht now
the well-known gender neutral pronoun "dude"
my personal replacement for that is "fam"
at least online, it replaces it perfectly
that is true, and i don't put it in my mouth
I mean this is gonna sound like bullshit
but online it's perfect
But I do use guys and dudes in a gender neutral fashion
And it takes mental effort to not do that
"hey do you fuck dudes"
also the context
in that context because you're introducing something gendered here (sex) dudes suddenly has a gendered connotation
because words have different meanings depending on context
mhm
like always
Sorry all I meant was
I have a mental filter
This is common and good for interacting with other humands
lol
And I am bad at keeping it up when drunkv
Probably not often Ultra
@limpid vault no ultra it's just an example
But if they theoretically did





