#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 146 of 1
So the first uncountable ordinal is exactly the set of countable ordinals, ordered by inclusion.
Now for any sequence of countable ordinals, their union is again a countable ordinal. So every sequence here has a supremum.
When you have a sequence with a limsup it's not hard to make a subsequence that converges to that limsup
For example just pick whatever element is larger than all already chosen elements that are smaller than the limsup
I get the subsequence part but it's not clear to me what "first uncountable ordinal with the order topology" means exactly
(Just because the sequence has a supremum doesn't immediately mean it also has a limsup, though. It feels like there's a missing step in this argument saying something like the sequence cannot continue decreasing because ordinals).
An ordinal is defined to be the set of all ordinals smaller than it.
So the first uncountable ordinal is exactly the set of countable ordinals.
Yeah, you always have infimums of ordinals and limsup is defined as the infimum of the supremums
OK, I'll buy that.
Alright sure but what does the "with the order topology" add to that?
The order topology is a particular standard way to construct a topology on a totally ordered set.
So it's just that we consider an order defined by inclusion?
In the order topology a sequence converges if limsup = liminf (assuming they exist) as you may know for real numbers
Basically you take all subsets of the form {x | a < x } and { x | x < b } to be a subbasis for a topology, where a and b are arbitrary elements of the ordered set.
Yes, that's the standard way to compare ordinals.
(the usual topology for the real numbers is the order topology)
the collection [0,x) forms an open cover but has no finite subcover
This is generally true about the order topology on a total order with no largest element. (Or no smallest element).
The surprising thing about first-uncountable-ordinal is that it is sequentially compact.
Just being infinite is not enough, though. omega+1 = {0,1,2,3,...} u {omega} is infinite but compact under the order topology.
Yeah I'm actually looking at https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/First_uncountable_ordinal#Topological_properties which I believe says the same
I was saying omega + 1 rather than omega_1 + 1, but both examples work.
So, just making sure:
- "omega", aka the first infinite ordinal, is just a shorthand for the set {0, 1, ...}, which is N the natural numbers
- then "omega+1" is {0, 1, ..., omega}
- "omega_1" is the first uncountable ordinal, and represents some set that includes all countable ordinals but not omega_1 itself, and so it's not compact
- then "omega_1 + 1" is that same set but with omega_1 included, and so it would be compact?
Alright thank you very much
(The "1" subscript in omega_1 comes from a more general notation where omega_n is the smallest ordinal of cardinality aleph_n. As such, plain old omega can also be written omega_0.)
Yes, that is the continuum hypothesis. omega_1 always has cardinality aleph_1, but aleph_1 may or may not be the cardinality of P(omega).
(If you read a formal development, the definitions generally go in the other direction: First take every infinite ordinal that is not in bijection with any earlier ordinal. Put them all in a (transfinite) sequence according to the natural order of ordinals, and give each of them the name omega_n where n indicates its position in the sequence. Finally define aleph_n to be the cardinality of omega_n.)
What could topological analysis of a data reveal? Would it prove as exceptionally efficient than the traditional math we have been using in data science? In industries like healthcare for example?
It’s not a substitute for data science
But the idea is that sometimes there are topological features of the data space that can tell you certain properties of the thing you are getting data from that would be hard to measure otherwise
For a really informal introduction to what this might look like here’s a cool video illustrating how topology shows up when you do data analysis
https://youtu.be/YGLNyHd2w10?si=pPacWIHf8V4Fnpkg
A conference I went to presented a result where they found a 2d manifold in 20 dimensional space, so I guess it's useful like that
TIL that a topological space X is compact in the category-theoretical sense (Hom(X,-) : Top -> Set preserving filtered colimits) not iff it is compact in the usual sense, but iff it is discrete and finite
that's unfortunate, I'm trying to understand when e.g. a map of [0,1] into the space of germs of maps X -> Y around x could be understood as a germ of a map X x [0,1] -> Y around {x} x [0,1], but apparently if that even works it needs a far more specific argument than just [0,1] being compact
yea, this was a bit weird when i first learned of it too. Top is not the most well-behaved category...
but um
if i recall correctly, this works nicely for more algebraic categories
I wonder what the original etymology is.
You have that the compact objects of the category of open sets in X are the compact (open) sets, but this is not the typical category one would consider compact objects.
In a triangulated category you have that X is compact if any map to a coproduct factors through a finite coproduct, which mimics reducing to a finite cover, but this definition doesn't generalize.
I don't if there is some natural homotopy category where compact objects are exactly compact spaces...
i believe it comes from compact objects in lattices
Makes sense
by the way, I've since learned that you can actually characterise the compact objects of Top really simply, just not in the way you'd hope
turns out a topological space is categorically compact iff it is finite and discrete
you can do something similar for non-empty connected spaces (a non-empty space X is connected iff Top(X,-) preserves coproducts)
Sort of surprising that discrete is necessary
yep, I wouldn't have thought so either
this is where I got that bit of information from: https://golem.ph.utexas.edu/category/2009/05/journal_club_geometric_infinit_3.html#c023790
he didn't mention finiteness, but it's not hard to check that it is both also necessary and sufficient when combined with discreteness
nlab also has this lemma as a useful special case where things actually work out nicely:
but I don't know if it's possible to also apply a similar lemma for colimits along quotient maps, because e.g. [0,1] can be written as a colimit of a sequence of totally disconnected compact Hausdorff spaces along quotient maps, and the identity map obviously does not lift
The closest result I know of is that in the ∞-category of spaces, the compact objects are those with finite CW models (which will be the compact CW complexes) and retracts of those (which need not be compact)
by which I mean that the mapping space Hom(X, -) now commutes with colimits over filtered simplicial sets
I think it can be shorter
A base of the subspace topology on U x V (seen as a subspace of X x Y) is the set of all subsets S of U x V which can be written S = p_X^{-1}(Q) \cap p_Y^{-1}(R) \cap (U x V) where p_X, p_Y are the projections, and Q, R open subsets of X and Y. But clearly p_X^{-1}(Q) \cap p_Y^{-1}(R) \cap (U x V) = p_X^{-1}(Q \cap U) \cap p_Y^{-1}(R \cap V), which is the description of the elements of the basis of the product topology on U x V.
this generalizes to any finite product since the product-intersection distributivity works
ah minor typo i meant to write (for some A x B sseq X x Y open) but apparently forgot half of that
yea, there is a universal property way to look at this
where you don't have to get into the nitty-gritty point-set details
can we ban cat theorists from this channel
that was my first thought, show the product topology has the universal property of the susbspace topology
or the other way around
you can work it out using these two properties
the universal property of the subspace topology is that for S \subseteq X, a function f : Z -> S is continuous iff i_S o f : Z -> S -> X is continuous.
the universal property of the product topology is that maps into A x B correspond to maps into each factor.
yea, its not too bad
sorry im still like
very naive with topology and very very naive with categories
so im not particularly interested in categorifying this just yet
i know 0 category theory
very cool though
idk you don't have to know category theory to use universal properties
like if c squared pinged me rn and said "tell me the definition of a category or you're dead", im cooked
well universal properties are also not something i really know
tell me the definition of a category or you're dead
bro replied tot he wrong message
they are just characterizations of familiar properties with morphisms instead of internal details
yea. its a spicy graph
thankfully im not dead
eff word
yeah i understand the concept of what a universal property seeks to do
just still very naive with it
understandable
know is also a bad word
cat theory language is just hard to digest at times
the universal property of the quotient space is pretty fun
ye
it gives a nice way to show different spaces are homeomorphic
ik you have probably heard it a million times by this point, but it really is good to get used to thinking about things via universal characterizations.
if you want something concrete and accessible that doesn't mention category theory but still discusses universal characterizations/properties, check out Lee's ITM
he discusses universal properties of subspace, product, and quotient topologies without reference to category theory
hmm ok
doesnt that book do alg top as well?
yes
ill add it to my list
but yea, don't wanna keep beating a dead horse, i just like thinking about things categorically
every universal property is like, every morphism from the diagram to somewhereland factors uniquely through the universal object
and everything on the page commutes
universal arrows!
an object is initial/final in some accessory category
the quotient is such that maps from a set to the quotient to the image factors most optimally
if it were any other set, you'd need another arrow
yea, so i think to rephrase, among maps which identify equivalent points, the quotient map is initial
yeah
there is a unique morphism between the quotient and every element of the image
that's true only of the quotient
wdym by "every element of the image"?
mb i phrased it wrong
there is a nice way to think about this. so, lets stay concrete and work with just topological spaces.
if you have a set X and an equivalence relation R on X, then R is a subset of X x X.
there are two projections p_1,p_2: R -> X x X -> X.
the quotient map q: X -> X/R is such that for any other cts map f: X -> Y satisfying f o p_1 = f o p_2 (that is, f identifies R-equivalent points), then there is a unique morphism g: X/R -> Y such that g o q = f.
this is the sense in which it is initial
mfw colimit of parallel pair
0-category theory ... so preorders
this is particularly cool because every congruence/equivalence relation in Top is the kernel pair of its quotient map
also adding on to the list of people who thought to prove the subspace topology on products thing using the universal properties
I almost sent a sketch earlier but decided I didn't want to be late to class lol
also ik this is a joke lol but worth noting how intertwined category theory and topology are historically, so good luck with that lol
Tbf that’s more a #alg-top-geo-top thing than a #point-set-topology thing
It is but the algtop people also know pointset topology lmaoo
given some homotopy theorists I know I wouldn’t be so certain /j
💀💀
pointless topology
well I don't think this is a contradiction because I'm one of those annoying homotopy theorists who says homotopy theory is not algtop 💀
Correct opinion 🙃
As someone who’s much closer spiritually to low dim topology
I was going to say algtop people know and care about pointset topology but decided to toss out the last part since I think that's not true LOL
like the kinds of spaces in algtop are reasonable and don't have pointset problems
Coequalizer jumpscare
The tangent bundle is a coequalizer :3
Would these peeps call themselves alg top peeps tho smh
Potato has breeched the algebra channel containment barrier again
mishu no know
mishu just want nibl them
Oops
I am in the topology department at my uni
I’m sorry to hear that hopefully you will recover soon
breeched
Dw we will make you see the light of ggt :3
There's a topology department??
well presumably the topology research group
at very least there are a reasonable number of topologists at potato's institution
So when n = 3, is it projective plane?
n=2
RP^2 is the projective plane
Oh right
But there is a definition that the plane where each line intersects, right?
I mean in usual R^3 parallel lines doesn't meet, but we add the point 'infinity' where these all parallel lines meet
it's not a nice definition, you should think of it as just a nice property of projective space
Oh
But how is this definition implies all lines intersect
I mean any two lines intersect
you can go through the definitions and check it, but it's kind of a waste of time
This definition of RP2 constructs it only up to homeomorphism -- it doesn't even say what "lines" are.
A line on the sphere is a great circle. Ie. Given by a the intersection with a plane through the center.
Two planes through the center will intersect at a line through the center which then intersects the circle at antipodal points
What does this mean
You could say any definition constructs only up to homeomorphism
No, because RP2 also has a canonical projective structure.
In other words it is more than just a topological space.
To be fair, you can inherit all the nice structure from S^2 using this construction. Even though the image only mentions the topology
What does this mean
It should have a set of lines such that every pair of points is contained in a unique line and every pair of lines intersect in a unique point

I.e. you need to specify what the lines are
suppose $X = [0, 1) \cup {2}$. then $(0.5, 2]$ should be open in $X$ and refer to $(0.5, 1) \cup {2}$ right?
that all seems correct
one way to think about this topology is that it's homeomorphic to [0, 1] with the order topology
so the open sets will look similar
havent gotten to homeomorphisms yet
im trying tos how the subspsace topology na dorder topology are not equal
but i am a bit scatterbrained rn cuz of other things
this is a good example yeah
a simple thing to look at is the set {2}
oh i see
{2} is open in the subspace topology
but obviously not in the order topology
wait
yeah
(1.5, 2.5) cap Y = {2}
so its open there
but you cant get {2} with the order topology
cuz 2 is the maximum, and all open sets that contain a maximum are rays
munkres needs more fun exercises.
there is a fun exercise on Kuratotowski’s closure&complement problem in chapter 2.
Algebra in my topology channel. Explode
oh wdym?
Kuratotowski’s closure axioms are algebraic :3
Not much fun in pointset unless you have something undiagnosed
i think its fun
da answer is finer yeah
its not strict cuz the additional elements in tau' when intersected with Y may collapse into an element of tau interssected with Y
yee
I disagreed with the first half of this message, but, alas, the second half may be true
creature spotted
hi gray 
👀
oh i did this exercise today. super cool
the 14ness hinges on the fact that (X |-> closure of interior of X) is idempotent
do i need to justify more why i can move the pi inside the union
a pretty basic thing about functions, I wouldn’t worry about it
yea thats what i thought
-# left adjoints preserve colimits 
category theory brainrot is real
sybau 😂 ✌️
atp, it’s only you and holo who i pester with this non-sense
lol yeah this was my thought too amazing
i can invite you if you want ?
ah dw lol i just wondered if it was some big server lol
it's a private server
this should be a subseteq instead of equality
er wait
its like that for intersections

yea
$A^\complement$, $A^c$, $A^C$, $\bar{A}$, $\complement A$, $\complement_U A$
which is best for complement of a set
well i guess 4th is out cuz it conflicts with closure
(X \setminus A)
nBladeoid

I sometimes use A^c if the notation is dense. Such as this:
ugly n verbose
µ
gooooood i want to do measure theory already
but i cant do so many books at once
I prefer using \setminus over A^c whenever possible. I personally think X \setminus A looks better than A^c.
tho I don't have a good reason for this lol
$\emptyset^C$
kinda cursed
$\varnothing^c$
Euiseok (Class of 3029)
I never use X - A cuz it can also mean a translate notation in topological vector spaces.
Euiseok (Class of 3029)
yeah, study point-set topology and multivariable real analysis before measure theory 🔥
paradox named russell:
i have literally never seen \complement used before lol. would definitely go with X\A or X-A or A^c (if the ambient set is very clear)
i personally use X\A most often but i think if i were more based i would do X-A
🫡
after i finish ch2 munkres ill go back to shurman
i want to finish both books by early july
well idk about the alg top part of munkres
July? Ambitiouz
well idm if i go past it
I write X \ A and read it as "X minus A" 
lol noob
donuts and cups are homeomoprhic 😎
my cups don't have handles
oof
But they can be made into spheres. And as we all know, the hair on your cup cannot be combed.
anything closed is a sphere yes?
Anything without a "hole" can be made into a sphere of the same dimension
closed means without a hole right?
thats the poincare conjecturee
proven by that crazy guy rightg?
closed just means compact and without boundary, these need not be spheres.
Also what is the rigorous version of the statement you are claiming kaynex?
@small obsidian
Make sure you differentiate a closed manifold from a closed set though
Something something homology
Just say it in terms of homotopy groups such as the first homotopy group of S^2 being trivial which establishes if something is homeomorphic to the sphere or not @small obsidian
thats why I asked kaynex, the statement is kind of different in different dimensions
That's fair, I was thinking in lower dimensions. Which, come to think of it, isn't even true in two dimensions
Hello topology
@delicate siren So, classification of surfaces is not too hard
The idea is that every surface is homeomorphic to either a sphere with handles or RP^2 with handles
Or, I mean every closed connected surface
The only one of those which is simply connected is S^2
Poincare says that even in 3 dimensions, a simply connected closed 3-manifold is homeomorphic to S^3
That's the hard result, and the main guy involved was Perelman. I might hesitate to say he's crazy, I know little about him, but he's... odd
I mean there was some controversy from I what I hear, supposedly Yau tried to downplay his role in the proof in favor of Hamilton (though I think he rejected the million dollar award because he felt Hamilton's work on Ricci flow/surgeries was more important). In any event some kinda mess happened, he ended up rejecting the Field's medal and left the public eye, I think even quit math
Yup he turned down the Fields Medal because he said it would mean that he has to go 3days without doing Maths
No, that's not quite true, he rejected it because he felt like the math spoke for itself and he didn't want to be idolized
Hmm honorable man!
Can I trouble anyone with a question? How do I prove that the n-Torus embeds into R^(n+1)? I'm new to topology and the hint given just says to find a way to use induction
I know thats by writing T^n = S^1 x ... x S^1 and using the product of inclusion maps on S^1, gives me that T^n embeds into R^2n but how do I get the dimension it embeds into to decrease?
"Emptiness is everywhere and it can be calculated, which gives us a great opportunity. I know how to control the universe. So tell me, why should I run for a million?" Grigori Perelman
holy
ty wogo
Can somebody help me with my question above?
@warm rose S¹ embeds into R²,
then S¹×R embeds into R³
then hmm
like somehow turn R into S¹ 🤔
But we want n-copies S^1 x ... x S^1
I also tried assuming T^n-1 embeds into R^n so there exists a continous, injective, open map call it f, that is homeomorphism from T^n-1 to the image of f
Now I want to consider T^(n-1) x S^1 and we need to show that there exists a new continuous, injective, open map from T^(n-1) x S^1 to R^(n+1) this will gaureente that map is a topological embedding.
the map I THINK we need is the product map something like (f x sigma) where sigma : S^1 to Reals, is the streographic projection map. But there is a problem because S^1 is not injective to R, but it is to R U {infinty}
oh I see, need to add a point
So i was so close but I think this throws a wrench in the whole approach of considering T^(n-1) x S^1
Yeah but I'm not just allowed to add the point at infinty 😌
Do you know anyway if extending this to higher dimensions?
🆙 | HyberCube leveled up!
woah donut surface
Any way to extend this map F to higher dimensions?
probably
we can probably make a generating (n-1) torus
for example:
$$\mathbb{T}^1 = \mathbb{S}^1$$ given by $$x_1^2+x_2^2=r_1^2$$
then do
Might this G^-1 map help us?
the donut surface does uhh

I found a stack exchange post:
the answer has an n-donut construction
but I do not fully parse it
Thank you I'll check it out!
np
if a manifold M has the property (*): every point in M has a neighborhood diffeomorphic to an open subset of Rⁿ
does this imply M is a smooth manifold?
full disclosure: I am super not familiar with manifolds & smooth manifolds. (the only ones I have worked with are Rⁿ and matrix lie groups, that's about it)
I read a few stackexchange posts saying smooth manifold implies (*)
but nothing about the converse
For you to talk about being diffeomorphic you need to put a smooth structure on M first. Otherwise its like asking if the set X is isomorphic to the group G, is X a group?
@keen cliff
Nope, that's my point 😃
ok thanks (derp)
np
Also the statement that a smooth manifold satisfies (*) is baaasically a definitional one.
= 🍺
Technically that cup if full, it can contain beer but the torus cant. So the torus is not homeomorphic to a fulled cup 😋
Is**
property of being able to to contain beer is not necessarily preserved under homeomorphism
Hi, I was wondering about a non-complete metric space that does satisfy the least upper bound property
I can't seem to think of one if someone could else me out?
Wait so you want an ordered set satisfying the sup property, and you want to put some metric structure on it which is not complete
How does the metric interplay with the ordering?
yes
sorry I'm not really sure how to respond
What do you mean by metric interplay with the ordering?
LUB property implies Cauchy completeness.
Have to go to a seminar but try and prove this yourself.
The converse is close to being true, but needs an additional property, that the field is Archimedean.
ahh
So I would have to find a cauchy complete set that does not obey the archimedean property
so maybe something that involves things like infinitessimals
the example that comes to the top of my head does not involve infinitesimals, but see what you can cook up
Wait a field?
I thought it was just an ordered set which was also a metric space, so my question was how the metric was defined exactly. If it's an ordered field with the sup property then it's isomorphic to R
no just a set with a metric that is cauchy complete but does not have the LUB property
You need to be talking about totally ordered fields for the Q to make sense.
What does the metric have to do with the ordering?
You can consider R as an ordered set and put a stupid metric on it which isn't complete
A priori they have nothing to do with each other
Yeah I will explain what I am getting at when out of this seminar.
Oh I'm talking to mmmmy here
🐱
I'm just wondering if maybe he has a certain construction in mind for getting a metric out of an arbitrary (totally) ordered set
If it's an ordered field then yeah, it's R. If there's something else then maybe it's more interesting
It's not a literal metric, in that it doesnt take real values.
non-neg elts of your field
wen i was littel ßoye my momma tol me yu no ned to type gud but talk gud so people felt heart warmong round yu
hmm i'm just confused a little bit because my HW has a question that references the sup of a subset of a complete metric space
and then asks to find a counter example to show that the property does not hold with a non complete metric space
where completeness refers to cauchy complete
Wait can you post the question verbatim? That'll help us understand
Yes, it is for homework so I dont want to get any answers but the question is essentially 3.21 of rudin with the added question of finding a counter example for non complete sets
question 3.21 can be found on this website
Exercise 3.21 doesn't have anything to do with LUBs, it is in an abstract metric space. Which part of the question confuses you?
@wicked spruce
@nimble jolt since it references the diam of the set E_n, then it must have the LUB property (other wise how would you take the supremum ) right?
perhaps im confused
diam is the sup of the set of distances between points in your set.
the thing you are taking the sup of is a collection of real numbers
not a collection of points in your metric space
yeah lol
Hey i have a comprehension problem
Let E= ]1,2[ U [3,5]
Int (E) = ]1,2[U]3,5[
And Adh(E)=[1,2]U[3,5]
Does that mean that by example 2 is at the same time in Int(E) and Adh(E) ? <@&286206848099549185>
Wait a minimum of 15 minutes after posting the problem before pinging helpers.
What is ]1,2[
Interval in R
Yes
Ah, then wdym by example 2
wdym ?
Ok
Hem
i'm working on R
And i want to know that if E = ] 1, 2 [ U [3,5] is an open
or a closed set
maybe if i tell you that i'm working with the usual topology on R would help ?
@gritty widget
Oh, E is not open then ofc
My teacher is using adherence and interior notion
Interiors?
hem
"The interior of a set is the largest open set contained in the original set. "
He said that
As a proof
3 is in adh(E)\E and 1 is in E\int(E)
But i know that int(E) = ]1,2{U]3,5[ and adh(E)=[1,2]U[3,5]
So 3 is in int(E) and 3 is in adh(E), as well...
no ?
I dont really understand
wtf ?
3 is not in Int(E)
Also if you read it again, you'd know if E and Int(E) are different E is not open.
Yup
Similar for closed I think
is E\adh(E) the same ?
Adh(E) is not E
Yeah because i saw that my teacher using open ball
(dont know if it is the same vocabulary in english)
That is.. more of a neighborhood in metric space
Anyone familiar with the fundamental group of a topogical space?
The group of paths one can draw on a space, where two paths are equivalent if there exists a homotopy between them
I'm not very strong on the concept but maybe I can answer something @merry shale
I'm just looking for what it would look like in simple cases. I know it's Z on a circle
I'm having trouble imagining it for a thing with two holes
like, if I poke one hole in the complex plane (that basically becomes a circle), I get the paths that can get back to a point (mapped to 0) then those that circle n times around the hole in one way (sense? direction? my english is bad) and m times the other way (mapped to n-m )
and these are homotopic because the hole fucks me if I want to get them back to anything else
More or less yeah
now for two holes I don't have any idea
I'm thinking probably Z², but give me a sec to reason it out
is there some canonical/simple way to choose thos paths?
inside their homotopy class?
There's always homology that is a bit of a more "rigid" method
what's that?
Reconstruct the space out of triangles and do the same thing, except an algebra finds the paths for you
No wait, going over both holes is a combination of going over each hole.
how?
can you give me the homotopy?
(the idea, formulas would get shitty)
the way i see it you need to break the path
oh wait I started with a discontinuous path XD
seems to me like Z^3 yeah
oh yeah I see what you mean
Going over both holes is the same as going over the first, then going over the second
So yeah, any path fits into Z²
Very easy way to show that the plane with one hole is not homeomorphic to the plane with two holes
are you saying these are homotopic?
(I don't think it's that easy, the book I'm reading goes over a lot of trouble to even show that a circle is mapped to Z even tho the intuition is easy)
(but yeah you don't have to use the group to show that, just exibit that it can't be mapped to Z)
Where's your starting point? It's usually easier to assume one
oh, you can take the junction in the second, and modify the first to have the top line bend over to join it
(btw have you seen the proof of d'alembert-gauss using these laces?)
circle with two holes does not have fundamental group Z^2 or Z^3, its fundamental group is the free group on two generators.
In particular it is not abelian.
If a denotes winding around one hole and b denotes winding around the other
aba^-1b^-1 is not the identity
cool
yeah there is
Oop, yeah definitely not Z² if non-abelian
oh i get the visualisation. basically you can knot your lace in shitty ways around the two holes that can't be unknotted
is a sphere contractile?
contractible? nope
(identity homotopic to a constant function)
I know
(yeah, just to check if french contractile is english contractible)
ah I see
I don't think I visualize contractibleness right then
😃
My intuition gives me something like connected by arcs implies contractible and that's full of shit
yeah, thinking directly in terms of homotopies and deformation retracts is more accurate imo.
can you continuously map your space into a family of subspaces which tend to a point.
sloppy wording, and vague, but I hope you get what I mean.
If you punctured your sphere you could do it
just enlarge the hole, flatten out what remains of your space, it will be like a disk then
like the diferential version of that would be something like explanable?
and contractible in an obvious way.
explanable? have not encountered a differential version of this concept I don't think.
I mean you could phrase the concept in terms of smooth homotopies, and for spaces nice enough that that makes sense, I imagine it coincides with the purely topological notion.
well it has not much to do with contractibleness but with the method you say. like this method would not work anymore to explane something. (explanable is "you can model it in paper")
like you can put a plane on it
well with the roots of that word
yep
But anyway, am no much of a topologist, so that deformation retract explanation is probably the best I can offer for what contractible means.
It's an easy property to detect once you have something like homology at your disposal, because homotopy equivalence preserves homology groups.
i mean seeing the image of the function as a space you morph continuously seems good enough
yep, and importantly this image is a subspace of your orginal space.
cool, I'm just studying this with a book so it's nice to chat about it a bit
that d'alembert-gauss proof tho
fundamental theorem of algebra? oh yeah the most visually nice proofs of that are from AT.
I can explain them to a high school student, although heavy AT machinery is needed to make some statements rigorous.
using laces and the fact that their group is Z on the sphere
yeah it's so ez to intuition
well here hs student don't even know d'alembert gauss tho
The one I was thinking most of was:
Let P be a nonconstant poly. Then consider the image of the circle of radius r about 0 under P. For small r, this curve is near the constant coefficient of P which can be assumed nonzero, for large r, this is roughly the image of the circle of radius r under the leading term of the polynomial, which is some az^n. The winding number of P(C_r) transitions from 0 to n and so P(C_r) must intersect {0} for some r.
Not the easiest proof to make rigorous, but very visual.
the one I saw was:
let P be a polynomial of degree k
let's also assume it has no roots on the sphere,
we can define a lace p of the sphere by normalizing P(z) for z on the sphere
if there are no roots inside the ball, we define an homotopy (that collapses the lace on a point) from p to a point : p is of degree 0
if there are none outside, we define another homotopy ( using t^kP(z) normalized) and show that p is of degree k
we conclude by unicity of the degree of a lace
Ah yes I think we had that one on our AT exam actually.
Or maybe it just asked us to prove FTA, and that is the way I did it.
I just started reading AT stuff today and it's already looking like a lot of cool stuff
yeah its very powerful
am more of an analyst myself, but I did enjoy AT and use it from time to time.
I'm doing measure theory in class rn, but we are still far from even defining lebesgue measure
I saw a lot of cool stuff in analysis but without measure theory it gets shitty
and I just get lost in the vocabulary when reading up on my own
yeah you are a bit limited before you have measure theory.
btw, what's dx in a lebesgue integral? (i mean it's the lebesgue measure, but why do we write it like that, is there an intuition for that?)
what would be d(x^2 or whatever) ?
It is the measure induced by the differential form dx
which happens to be the Lebesgue measure
Have to leave to lecture, but the general chain of ideas is than on an orientable smooth manifold, if we have a top level form, we get a volume form, which by riesz-markov-kakutani gives us a measure.
ty I'll look into it, good lecture
ty
In my class we write m for the lebesgue measure and so integrals are with respect to m, and there are dm's after the integrands
\mu is common too.
we use lambda for lebesgue, and mu when a measure is arbitrary
i think our teacher will write d\mu to not get the same question tho
We use \mu for arbitrary measure
Prove that if a connected set intersects the interior and exterior of a set it also intersects the boundary
<@&286206848099549185>
No its not
Interior and exterior are disjoint
Interior exterior and boundary from a partition of the whole space
If it did not intersect the boundary, then the interior and exterior would give you a disconnection of your supposedly connected set. I.e. we have written a connected set as a disjoint union of nonempty clopen sets. @frigid patrol
Oof that kind of exterior

Hey, if A satisfies Baire's property, is every closed set of A satisfies the Baire's property too ? I think not and does anyone has a counter example of it ?
some dumb counterexample is like X = R, A = X, and B = {0} the closed subset of A, or i am being stupid
I think you need to have that for every B part of A, the border of B is meager?
@rugged swan @dreamy valley
i'm not exactly following what you're claiming: can you give a full statement? sorry
baire property is "is called an almost open set, if it differs from an open set by a meager set"
my Baire's property is that A satisfies Baire's property iif for all sequence of open and dense sets of A, the intersection is dense in A
I've found one counter example
Take E = R^2
X = R+* x R U {0}xQ
X satisfies Baire's property
but his closed set {0}xQ doesn't
ohh, is this "baire's property" what i would call "comeager"/"second category"?
i had the wrong definition in my head i guess (the one hazen was using)
I think my definition is equivalent, but idk about meager set x)
meager = countable unions of nowhere dense sets
my counter example is here : http://www.les-mathematiques.net/phorum/read.php?14,410001,411274
Bonsoir à tous, Quelqu'un pourra t il m'expliquer le théorème de Baire? j'ai trop du mal à faire des exos la dessus ! j'ai donc besoin de votre aide! que l'on me l'explique (si possible) par la façon la plus simple possible..! 2ème question : J'ai vu un résultat très ...
(french x))
d'acc
:p
oh ok it is maybe not quite the same, but i was confused about what definition you meant
it is the same, the whole point of baire is to say that meagre parts are still nowhere dense i think
it's not quite the same under the words i normally use, for stupid reasons, like, the disjoint union of R and Q is second category (it's not meagre) but you don't want to call it a baire space because the Q part is dumb
i like the $$R_+^* \times R \cup \lbrace 0 \rbrace \times Q$$ example, gives a good picture of what might go wrong
(globalement, un fermé d'interieur vide c'est petit, une union denombrable de ces trucs ça reste petit mais quand même un peu plus gros : on les apelle maigres. un truc très gros ça deviens un truc comaigre (dont le complèmentaire est maigre). la propriété de baire revient a être presque ouvert a ce sens là)
I think "baire space" is wrong tho. the baire property applies to parts of a topological space, it is not intrinsic?
the thing zak is calling "Baire's property" ("for all sequence of open and dense sets of A, the intersection is dense in A") is what people call "Baire space", right? Like, this is a definition of "A is a Baire space"
yeah that makes sense
and it's just not in general directly related to A being "almost open" in X? (though maybe a set with Baire property inside a Baire space is a Baire space or something)
oh baire space != baire property, okay
baire property = almost open part / baire space = what you said
in a baire space, baire parts are dense
what's a baire part?
open sets aren't dense in a baire space, so idk what you mean maybe?
oh i see
is the claim that they're contained in an open set in which they are dense?
even the claim that they have a meagre difference with an open that contains them is nonobvious to me
they are unions of dense opens of some open, so their complementary in this open is an intersection of no-interior closed sets
it's that comp(AuB) = comp(A)nComp(B) thing
their complementary in this open is an intersection of no-interior closed sets <=> "they have a meagre difference from an open set"
i'm still a bit lost, maybe i should think a bit
take a countable union of dense opens in the topology induced by A on X and prove it's complementary in A is a countable intersection of nowhere dense (no interior) closed parts of A with it's topology induced from X
that should shed some light
Latex ?
another intuition:
nowhere dense parts of an open set A of X are "small"
a countable union of small things is still small but bigger, we call it meager
a complementary of a small thing is big
a complementary of a meager thing is big but a bit smaller, we call it comeagre
this notion of bigness is tied to topology
and in a baire space it is nice enough to use
("nice enough" <=> almost opens form a sigma-algebra (tho I'm not sure you need a baire space for that) )
the thing that i don't understand is, i think you claim that "baire property sets are dense in the open set they differ from", but baire property sets aren't a priori guaranteed to be contained in an open set whose difference with them is meagre, so i got confused
everything is in induced topology in what I said
so you need a subspace of X
simplest way is to take an open set of X
it will guarantee the local topology looks like the topology of X
you're saying that if a baire property set A differs from an open set U by a meagre set, then A \cap U is dense in U?
A \cap U?
intersection
I'm saying AnU = U because it is implied in the definition of a baire property part that it lies in an open set
but yeah
that isn't obvious to me
i am using wikipedia's definition atm, since i'm not particularly familiar with baire property
what you said can be a definition too
there exists an U such that a defers from U by a lmeagre set
what I'm saying is that you can work directly in U
with the induced topology
sorry what is the definition of baire property you are using
there exists an U such that A defers from U by a meagre set
it's just how I interpret it
A is comeagre in U
with U seen as a topological space
so certainly it's not the case that for any such U, that A is contained in U
yeah you just have one
i don't see at the moment why there even needs to exist one such open set
to define almost open
Like, okay, counterexample I think
$$X = \mathbb{R}$$, and $$A = \lbrace 0 \rbrace$$. Then $$A$$ has the Baire property (it differs from $$\emptyset$$ by a meager set), but it's not contained in any open that it differs from by a meager set.
the purpose of defining an almost open set is to say formally that our notion of bigness (comeagreness) respects topology (if the notion of almost open is nice enough we will have that)
no set is meager in $$\emptyset$$
Sorry, $$\emptyset$$ is open and $$\emptyset \triangle \lbrace 0 \rbrace$$ is meager, right?
inside $$\mathbb{R}$$, that's a fair question
right
ohhh
comeagre = union of dense opens where?
like dense in what?
okay found it
dense interior***
right, but for comeagre i think you need intersections
A subset B of X is nowhere dense if for each neighbourhood U of X, the set B ∩ U {\displaystyle B\cap U} {\displaystyle B\cap U} is not dense in U.
comeagre = countable intersection of sets with dense interiors?
that's the, uh, mindless switching of the words in the definition of meager but i didn't think about it hard
yeah, wiki says : Given a topological space X, a subset A of X is meagre if it can be expressed as the union of countably many nowhere dense subsets of X. Dually, a comeagre set is one whose complement is meagre, or equivalently, the intersection of countably many sets with dense interiors.
and a complementary of a nowhere dense is a set with a dense interior
so it's intrinsical
baire space = unions of nowhere dense CLOSED sets are still nowhere dense
and the complementary of that statement
so intersections of dense-interior OPENS are still of dense interior
that sounds believeable
that should give you that almost opens are stable by countable intersection, making it a nice sigma-algebra to work with
ofc every "intersection" is to take as "countable intersection" if I forgot
Is my classification of captial English widthless letters upto homeomorphism correct?
The diagrams are partitions of a closed interval whose quotient space along those partitions give the associated letters
I do not quite understand the diagrams yet, but it seems to me that Q and R, at least, have the same homomorphism type, at least the way you've drawn them?
Oh dang that's true
I think I agree with the rest
what
Lol
😂
There's two point of his R that are separated and have the property: if you erase them you cut R in two connected components, while there are none in Q
@dreamy valley
So i don't think they are homeomorphic
They are homotopic tho
Oh I read the two legs of the R as coming from the same point
But either R is homomorphic to Q or A, right?
I think the graph to the right of the R suggests they meant it to have the Q homomorphism type, but yes I see how it is not necessarily clear
So removing the point gives 3 connected components. Yeah those exercices are just intuition builders anyway
Oh
This R is clearly homomorphic to Q we agree
(If you are picturing bending one into the other, picture doing the deformation in 3-space so that you can get inside the loop.)
I just imagine moving in the R and drawing the Q as a function of that that I can reverse
So yeah, Homeomorph
The diagrams are weird
They seem ambiguous
i think if read correctly they clearly define topological spaces? i was sort of picturing each as like, "directions for how to write the letter"
i don't think each letter gives a unique such diagram or anything, but that's no worry
Oh okay there's a trick
They should define a partition of (0,1) which does define enough spaces for those letters
I just don't understand the partition in the diagram
And also how to quotient (0,1) to get A
so imagine writing A on a sheet of paper with a single stroke
that defines a map from [0, 1] to "A"
and then just write down which points get sent to the same points
i'm a little unsure why the word "partition" is getting used, but yeah, it's not just like, an equivalence on a few points
you have to identify intervals with other intervals
An equivalence can be seen through the partition given by its classes
That's the partition
partition of what? i'm confused
Let R be a relation on E, you can build a partition of E such that xRy <=> x and y are in the same subset of the partition
If R is an equivalence rel
D and O are the only topological manifolds I guess
yeah if you add "with boundary" then all the ones that look like CGLMNSUVWZ are good
Yeah
blinks
The diagrams are like this: Identify marked points, before that identify marked line segments so that their arrows align
Yeah I figured it out with the "draw the thing and look where you write twice and in what direction"
Thingy
i like topology because you can bend the rules with shapes and sides and make things like "3 sided squares"
yep
you could also get a 5 sided square by using a pseudosphere
cause of its constant negative curvature
pseudosphere is an apple right 😉
scree
That ain't topology if you have angles tho
I'm still learning about it im attempting to teach myself algebraic parts of it (sets, metric spaces, etc)
not really accurate to talk about them as being algebraic parts of topology, especially with the subject of algebraic topology being a thing.
sets are omnipresent, a topological space is nothing more than a set equipped with a topology.
metric spaces are just a special kind of topological space that you would have encountered in calculus/analysis before trying to generalise appropriate notions to topological spaces.
@nimble jolt deRham cohomology of some degree is a quotient algebra right?
then collectively it's like a diagram with all of them and there are certain morphisms induced by exterior derivative and pullbacks?
@calm shuttle am I totally off here
I don't see that but I'm not very familar with de rham cohomology
who is even
huh
sorry, you're not the first you tell me that today
i am somewhat familiar if i can help
pls
you mean quotient algebra in the sense of universal algebra right?
I thought it's literally an algebra
what is the multiplication supposed to be?
wedge
that shifts degrees, so you don't get an algebra structure on the cohomology of a fixed degree
ye
yeah, modules over the ring of smooth functions, the whole thing is an algebra; on cohomology the exterior derivative is technically a morphism but it's not interesting (it's zero :P )
when you say quotient algebra what do you mean?
do you mean the quotient of an algebra or a quotient algebra in the sense of universal algebra
In mathematics, a quotient algebra, (where algebra means algebraic structure in the sense of universal algebra), also called a factor algebra, is obtained by partitioning the elements of an algebra into equivalence classes given by a congruence relation, that is an equivalenc...
well I think for any given degree it'd be the quotient module of closed forms equivalent up to an exact form
when is a form not closed
yeah other people have pretty much answered
analysis sucks, just saying
you suck, just saying.
that's also true
yeah time crunch exams suck. was nice to be done with them
si, senor @honest narwhal
The point is that f is supported on [a,b]
So outside of [a,b], f = 0, so df/dx = 0
F has compact support so it's not null exactly on a compact of R but compacts of R are bounded closed sets, so they must lie in an interval. Hence f is null except on an interval, then use the above
Don't forget that compacts of R are exactly the subsets of R which are bounded and closed
(This is true in every finite dimension normed vectorial space)
I'm not sure it answers you cause of the crop. (And after what i said it's just fondamental theorem of analysis)
hold on
so the statement is that
$$H_c^1(\mathbf R) = \dfrac{\Omega_c^1(\mathbf R)}{\ker \int _{\mathbf R}}$$
this is very much a statement about R i am realizing
was mostly not realizing why everything was a closed form
my mentor had a really nice geometric interpretation of closed & exact forms which I'm trying to convince myself is true
One thing depended only on the boundary, but the other one you needed to check homotopy stuff
gonna try to write things down properly
Oh it's a way to reason modulo null measure sets
Like "this is almost everywhere true"
Would be the same as "it's true for pi(f) in H" where pi is the canonical projection in quotient sets
Pi(f) is the class of every g almost equal to f
Its a freaking equivalence relation i didn't know i love lebesgue i wanna have kids with its integral
I think you'd need to provide some more contexts. It's not completely clear what's your question.
Don't worry about measure theory for now
The point is this
Your definition is
$$H^1_c(\mathbb{R}) = \frac{\ker d}{\text{im } d}$$
Where you're restricting d to compactly supported forms
Now if you can show that every compactly supported form is closed, and a 1-form is exact iff its integral over R is 0, then you can show what you said above
Now the point is this. If you have a compactly supported exact form $$f' dx$$, then you take some $$[a,b]$$ such that $$f'$$ is $$0$$ at the endpoints and only non-zero inside. Then the integral over $$\mathbb{R}$$ is the integral over [a,b], now use FTC, gg
So compactly supported exact forms are in the ker
wait rudin says that for a "k-surface" $$\Phi: \in \hom(D (\subset \mathbf R^k) \to E (\subset \mathbf R^n))$$
$$\omega(\Phi) = \int_\Phi \omega$$
mathbot..
@nimble jolt what going on here
@honest narwhal
@merry shale since you mentioned integrals

Hi @meager pagoda
what @still aspen
High
what's new
The other bot that does LaTeX
you?
Stupid question here
How does he get the part above red?
How does he know that exists?
Have they already proven that every element is part of a basis element?
That's always true, btw. Try proving it, it's pretty natural
What's (1)? I may use different notation
(1) on the definition of Basis
Uh... Ok, maybe I'm ahving issues because they defined "basis for a topology". But they haven't defined in my screesnhots "basis for a topology T".
I think it means ⊆
What is ⊆ of what?
Because you're right, there may not always be a basis element that is a proper subset of U
I'm using Munkres. I might be being pedantic but I don't see the Munkres using "basis for a topology T" anywhere before the Lemma. So...
(It's the paragraph after the definition you posted)
Since I'm having these stupid issues can you tell me the proof you had in mind?
Language wise though he says "topology T generated by B".
Are you telling me he means to say that those two are exactly the same thing?
A basis B creates a topology on T. A topology T can be equipped with a basis B
Agreed
A basis is usually an easy way to write a topology, and they come with some nice properties
I've studied topology before but i noticed I suck at it now. I was trying to prove some basic theorems rigorously.
"rigorously". By that I mean very carefully
Lel yeah I could go through some of the stuff myself. Not an expert
Yeah, I see that munkres is kind of loose with the language. Saying "the basis B generates the topology T" and "B is a basis for the topology T" should mean the same thing, although the points of view are different (in the first case, you are imagining "starting with" the basis and "constructing" T, whereas in the second, you're imagining "starting with" T and then finding a "smaller" set that carries all the information inside). I am triple checking to make sure I am not crazy here
In the general situation that makes 114% sense.
But I didn't realize Munkres was doing that at the start
thanks
I wonder why they don't use the word generating set though. 🤔
Well... I guess that can ahve a different meaning
The set generated by a generating set is usually a set you obtain by repeated use of operations. And hopefully a finite number of times.
But a set generated by a generating set can be the smallest desired set closed under those operations. Which is kinda different I guess
but yeah
Isn't that roughly the same? Here you want the coarsest topology (fewest open sets) such that every basis element is open
The problem is that if you obey the 1st definition you might still not obey the second.
Because a finite number of use of the operations is not enough. You might need an ordinal amount of operation uses.
Like the sigma algebra generated by all intervals isn't all possible counable unions of intervals, and all complement sets of intervals.
They're a basis according to my 2nd definition but not by the first.
Because actually you need to apply countable unions and complementation on intervals an ordinal amount of times.
Otherwise you'd be able to construct a non measurable set. Which you can't
You need AC for that jazz
I don't think I know what "first" and "2nd" definitions refer to here
1st: The set generated by a generating set is usually a set you obtain by repeated use of operations. And hopefully a finite number of times.
2nd: But a set generated by a generating set can be the smallest desired set closed under those operations. Which is kinda different I guess
Also 5am here, sorry if I'm being incoherent. The time of the day is always a good excuse....
ye
i can't say i really follow, but it is not as if i disagree with anything in particular so :p
Well have you learned sigma algebras?
I can't think of an interesting topology example.
But for example. If you start with the intervals, S. And then you obtain a set S1, by getting all coutnable unions of intervals and all complements of intervals. Then S2 by getting all countable unions of S1, and complements of S1.
And S_n etc.
Also S_omega. etc
When do you get to the Borel sigma algebra on R?
It's kinda interesting
Yes, I know sigma algebras
well, I should say I know what a sigma algebra is and I understand the transfinite construction you are describing, more or less
Apparently it's ordinal corresponding to the cardinality of the reals. I'm using this language because I don't understand ordinals too well.
But yeah, I found that pretty cool
Ah, I am not sure that's quite right -- I think you get to stop at the first uncountable ordinal (which is |c| iff the continuum hypothesis)
yeah :D
Yeah, I tend to always work in ContHyp tbh
God knows I'm right
You'll see when you die
:P
Hey, I've got a problem that I'm not really sure how to go about proving (or if there's a counterexample, that works too---I'm pretty sure it's true though).
Consider an infinite nested sequence of connected subsets $$C_1 \subset C_2 \subset \dots$$ of a topological space $$X$$. Then the set $$C = \bigcap_{i = 1}^\infty U_i$$ is connected
It's trivially true for the finite case, but I'm not sure how to work with the infinite one. I tried working with it by contradiction, but $$U$$ being disconnected doesn't really give anything revealing about the sets in which it's contained as far as I can tell. Any hints on where to start?
I presume that's $C = \bigcap^\infty_{i=1} C_i$?
(we're just using the naïve definition of connectedness that has \emptyset be connected)
Puerøsola:
oops, yeah sorry
Shouldn't that just be $C_1$ though, even in the infinite case ?
Puerøsola:
oh, i meant \supset not \subset
Ohh right
with the typos fixed, haha:
Consider an infinite nested sequence of connected subsets $$C_1 \supset C_2 \supset \dots$$ of a topological space $$X$$. Then the set $$C = \bigcap_{i = 1}^\infty C_i$$ is connected



