#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 142 of 1
Is a limit point a point where it makes sense to take limits and you’re guaranteed to get uniqueness of limits?
At least in metric space
a limit point p of a set X is such that every open neighborhood of p intersects X \ p
uniqueness of limits is given by any hausdorff space, and metric spaces are hausdorff, but i don't think there's anything special here wrt limit points
moreso for a limit point p of a set X, you can construct a sequence of points in X \ p that converges to p
i think what i mean is the following
if $p$ is a non-limit point, then $\lim_{x \to p} f(x)$ can be whatever you want
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
That's just because it satisfies the limit trivially right? If a is an isolated point of a set A, then lim x -> a f(x) = L for any L since lim x->a f(x) = L means for any nbhd of L there is a nbhd U of a such that f(x) in V for all x in U - {a}. Since a is an isolated point, there is a nbhd that contains no x at all so its always trivially satisfied
yeah
yeah that works in any top space
hm so maybe it'd be better to say
the definition of limit point is to make $\lim_{x \to p} f(x) = L$ a nontrivial condition?
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
im not sure about the definition being to make lim x -> p f(x) = L nontrivial, we need p to be a limit point for it to be nontrivial yes but the definition of a limit point is just saying "points get arbitrarily close" i think
If you know nets then in topological spaces you have p is a limit point iff there exists a net converging to it
where the elements of the net can't include p, right?
yeah
it's $p \in \overline{(X \backslash {p})}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
i dont understand
p is in the closure of X minus {p}
oh that's a limit point of X, i was a bit confused because i thought we were talking about a limit point of a subset A of X but yeah
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yeah if p is a limit point then every nbhd of p intersects A - {p}, so in particular intersects the closure of (A - {p}). Conversely, if p in closure then any nbhd of p intersects A - {p} so it is a limit point.
what are some ways to go about proving a topological space isnt C1?
First countable space
In topology, a branch of mathematics, a first-countable space is a topological space satisfying the "first axiom of countability". Specifically, a space
X
{\displaystyle X}
is said to be first-countable if each point has a countable neighbourhood basis (local base). That is, for each point
...
first time i see it called C1
uhh
well the easiest way is to find a point that doesnt have a countable base
if there is one
yeah lol but like how do you properly proof that you need uncountable amount of sets to get a base?
no, base at a point
it usually goes like "suppose there is a countable base \Tau_x at x, we can construct an open nbhd of x that does not lie inside any of the sets in \Tau_x"
alrighty i will try that
Alternatively, show that the space doesn't have some kind of property that a first countable space should have.
Like finding a set whose sequential closure is different from topological closure
Often you do this by doing something with sequences that doesn't work in general
like finding a function that is sequentially continuous but not continuous or what outsider said
compactness proofs are so hard
Which ones are you trying
even trying to understand heine borel
or how the sequential definition matches with the open cover definition
(in a metric space)
it's easy to disprove compactness
it just feels like the definition is very difficult to work with
much more so than connectedness
if you want to prove something is connected, you suppose there is a clopen set and prove that it's either empty or the entire set
if you want to prove something is disconnected, you demonstrate a non-trivial clopen set
that's pretty easy
The open cover definition of compactness is hard to work with, yes, because you have to prove that every open cover has a finite subcover. There could be uncountably many such open covers, so for most cases, proper definition of compactness is never used. We usually use easier to prove equivalent definitions for it. This isn’t unique to compactness, really.
Yeah it’s helpful to show
Compact <=> sequentially compact <=> complete and totally bounded
what are some easier definitions to use?
I assume you mean the proof of heine-borel
Of compactness in metric spaces?
Ah, then
There’s the formulation of compactness in terms of closed sets
If you have a family of closed sets where every finite intersection is nonempty, then the infinite intersection must be nonempty
There’s also compactness as an induction principle
And there’s also net-compactness which generalises sequential compactness
Question2: Let $(X,T_x)$ and $(Y,Ty)$ be topological spaces. Let ${C\alpha}{\alpha \in A}$ be a collection of closed subsets of X such that their union is equal to $X$. Let $f: X \rightarrow Y$ be a function. Assume that $f|{C_\alpha}$ is continous for every $\alpha \in A$
you_are_me
I proved that f is continious if A is finite
We call a collection {C_alpha}_a(alpha in A) local finite if for every x in X there is an open neighborhood such that U intersect C_alpha for a finite amount of alpha.
prove that f is continious
iù trying to use some lemma that f ius continious if and only if or every x in X an for every open neighborhood V of f(x) there exists an open neighborhood U of x such that f(U) is a supspace of V
but imkinda not moving forward i dont rlly see anything
work with the neighborhood local finiteness gives you
and refer to this
Yeah I took U an open neighborhood that fulfils the finite intersect requirement and then f|_U has to be continious due to that other thing i proved but then i get stuck because idk how to relate this to f being continious as a whole
continuity is local, so you are done
if you know f|_U is continuous, then for an open V around f(x), its preimage under f|_U is U \cap f^{-1}(V) which is open, and then you can take unions
just curious, what is this in your text lol
Proposition 2.1.14 ("Continuity is local on the domain")
and then thing with an open covering and continous restrictions
Ok one last question
So i proved that f is continious if A is finite but now they ask me to give a counterexample for if A is infinite
I can find a counterexample if A is uncountable infinite but im looking for one if it is countable infinite
I tried something with the closed intervals from [n,n+1] but that didn’t give me anything useful cuz you have that point of overlap and it doesnt work to make it discontinuous then
Well at least i fail to make it discontinuous
I was also thinking abt something with the discrete topology on Y but couldn’t find anything of that either
Let X = Q and all the C_\alpha be singletons.
but what topology do you define on Q?
The usual one.
The one induced by the metric |x-y|.
(That is, the subspace topology it inherits from the usual topology on R).
So an extended metric satisfies the normal requirements to be a metric on a set, except that it can also map to infinity. And from what im reading, spaces with an extended metric are, at least for topological purposes, just as good as plain metric spaces.
Except clearly im not understanding some aspect of metric spaces or one of the related topological properties correctly.
Consider the long line. Its not metrizable. No metric exists on it, too long. Wikipedia and pi-base do both agree with my notion that the long line is locally metrizable.
So I consider that I should be able to equip it with an extended metric. Locally it agrees with the naive metric or whatever, and takes on infinity for two points separated by more than a countable number of intervals.
So like. Was that last sentence actually contradictory if i go through it formally? Cuz otherwise it seems people say that this extended metric should be equivalent to a plain metric, which cant exist for the long line.
and then, is there a different variation of metric I could reason about? A "extended metrizable" topological property that is distinct from normal metrizability?
I think your intuition for extended metrics is not quite right
If X is an extended metric space, then you can define an equivalence relation by $x\sim y$ if $d(x,y)<\infty$. The equivalence classes are sometimes called "universes" and X breaks up as a topological disjoint union of each of the universes
in particular each universe is clopen
Blake
The long line doesn't really fit with this because although you have points that are "really far" from each other, it is still connected
wait, any two points with infinite distance according to an extended metric, cant be on a connected component of the topological space?
yeah
...well dang thats unfortunate
As you said there aren't any topological properties that separate metric spaces from extended metric spaces
Obviously there are metric properties because an extended metric takes on the value infinity, other than that I'm not sure I guess
i think the topology of metric spaces derives sorta from the "behavior near 0" in the sense that metric spaces are also equivalent to like. [0, 1]-valued stuff
well ok i guess what i said can't fully be correct cuz there's a difference between ultrametrics and metrics even in topology
but eh idk
wait doesnt that mean if you have a collection of metric spaces you can form an extended metric space
where each space of the collection embeds isometrically into a universe
i think quasimetrics are cool, they're what happens if you also drop the symmetry requirement, then you get a partially ordered set
of "reachability"
i.e. that d(x, y) = d(y, x)
Yes exactly, that's just the disjoint union
one of the reasons for working with extended metrics is that you get a nice disjoint union
that’s cool
then the extended metric is uniquely determined by this too so it’s quite cool
Hi!, In the definition of topology, why is the union arbitrary but the intersection has to be finite?
Basically because that's how open sets in R^n behave, and those are what we're generalizing with the abstract concept of a topology.
Thanks 🙂
If we only required finite unions of open sets to be open, then the collection of closed sets in R^n would also be a topology, so we could only hope for the general theory to extend results from R^n that still hold after exchanging "open" and "closed" everywhere -- which are not very many.
matches the notion of "open iff neighbourhood of all your points"
if we allow countable intersection, and if the topology is metrizable, then you get (almost) all the borel subsets
and usually this is too big
and as it has been said, we can see that it works like that in R^n, so we tried to generalise what was understood from the usual spaces
but it was historically very difficult to decide the axioms of a topology
actually im pretty sure you get all of them
It is to extend notions more familiar from R. Like, for example, allowing countable intersecions gives $\bigcap_{n = 1}^\infty(a-\frac1n, b +\frac1n) = [a,b]$, so you get like countable intersections of open intervals giving closed intervals, so infinite intersections need not preserve the "openness" even in R.
Běta (YesHead)
Similar thing works for infinite unions of closed intervals. So, arbitrary intersections for open and arbitrary union for closed sets are just not desirable, really. At least, for being able to define continuity and other topological notions.
i think its this
they worked backwards
started from the more intuitive definition and noticed it could be made simpler
this is correct. clearly you end up with a set closed under countable union and intersection. to show closure under complements show that closed sets are G_delta then apply de Morgan's. this implies its a sigma algebra generated by open intervals, so it's the borel sets.
Lets say I have a collection of functions f_i : A_i -> Y that are continuous, where the collection of A_i's is an infinite closed cover of X (X and Y are topological spaces.) Also, Ai are all disjoint. I know that I can have a function from f : X -> Y where each f|A_i = f_i.
Something Im trying to wrap my head around is that since X is a topological space, then X is an element of the Topology for X. However, if I take the inverse image of Y with f, then this inverse image is the union of an infinite number of closed sets which not an element of the Topology of X... so its almost like I have a contradiction here.
The motivation here was to show that the gluing lemma doesnt hold for a infinite closed cover of X... so Im not sure if what Im thinking about is the root of this, or if Im misunderstanding something that is unrelated.
NOTE: Please dont spoil the counter example Im trying that I need to show that the gluing lemma fails in this case. Just want guidance on my current thought.
if you take the inverse image of the entirety of Y, as you observed the preimage is just X, which is certainly an open set and there is no issue there
you are on the right idea of there being an infinite union of closed sets somehow not being open, but you'll have to take the preimage of something smaller
also, are you trying to prove this in general? It would be much easier to just construct a counterexample
Yeah, Im just trying to provide a counter example 🙂
ah in that case it is much easier
Rereading what I stated above, I think I see something that is indeed incorrect:
"an infinite number of closed sets which not an element of the Topology of X"
This isnt true. For sure a union of a finite number of closed sets is an element of the topology, but I cant say an element of a topology isnt included if it is a infinite union of other elements.
or, actually, here is a more useful detail that I should point out:
if f is continuous from A_i to Y, the preimage of an open set of Y is open in A_i.
yes so what is true is
in general, an infinite union of closed sets is not in the topology
but when your cover is infinite, that does not necessarily mean that that open set in A_i passes into a honest-to-god open set in X.
and indeed, this is the point of failure of the gluing lemma
but it can be sometimes
also welcome back pseudo
so real
recall the proof of why, if the cover is finite, being open in A_i implies open in X
and now what I said about the infinite intersection of open sets not being open should make a lot more sense
also it may be helpful to prove the following formula
let $S \subset A$ and $\iota : S \to A$ be the inclusion map. then for any $B \subset A$, we have $\iota^{-1}(B) = S \cap B$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
trying to make sure that i can prove part a
C is closed being the intersection of a bunch of closed sets
if x and y are in C, then you can find x < z < y with z not in C, by considering base-3 expansions and ensuring z has some 1s in its expansion
so C has empty interior, meaning it's nowhere-dense
also it's compact since it's bounded
in R the connected subsets are intervals, so the only connected subsets of C have to be single points, meaning C is totally disconnected
easier than base 3 expansions is considering the width of each interval at every iteration, imo
yep all looks good
and again by considering base-3 expansion, you can find points y in C arbitrarily close to some x in C with x not equal to y
so C doesn't have isolated points
hm true
that's probably a better general strategy, thanks
yeah that's fine. cheaty solution for empty interior is that any set with interior has positive lebesgue measure
so (b) technically gives it to you for free lol
hm true, though that wouldn't work for generalised cantor sets
cantor set like constructions are beautifully cursed
i saw something like it used in my complex analysis textbook to construct a jordan curve with positive area
why did that appear in complex analysis?
they prove jordan curve theorem there
you can get a proof through algebraic topology ofc, but cauchy's theorem already gives you all the necessary tools and in some way its just saying the same thing in a different language
hm, i see..
so the fact you can get a proof via complex analysis is not terribly surprising
i wish to avoid saying the wrong things because my specialty is not algebra, but the essence of cauchy's theorem is that holomorphic functions on a simply connected domain have primitives, which i dont think is that far off from the idea of de rham cohomology
ah, i'm trying to learn de rham cohomology atm
the notion of winding number can also be defined purely through complex analysis
yes though i thought that was for C^1 curves..
ah I see, so the rough sketch is that you show that the connected components are exactly the regions where the winding numbers are constant?
i have no idea how to show that you can actually integrate over an arbitrary jordan curve, though
technically speaking you can sort of try to define this notion for any closed curve, although its pretty awful (see cartan for example)
It's not clear to me that you can -- "arbitrary Jordan curves" allows curves that are not rectifiable (such as the graph of a Weierstrass function), and I don't think there's a canonical way to select a finite parameterization of them that you can integrate over.
but doesn't the statement of the jordan curve theorem hold for arbitrary paths in R^2?
it does
how the hell are you gonna use complex analysis to prove it then
or can you only prove it under the weaker rectificable assumption
The Jordan curve theorem doesn't speak about integration, though.
you dont need rectifiability either
the proof is not what id call enlightening though
if you want the actual textbook i am pulling it from go to marshall's complex analysis
there is a proof given in chapter 12
too many details that i dont know enough about to recite it by heart
the point is that complex analysis gives you a way to identify "badly behaved" sets through cauchy's theorem
which is exactly what AT tries to do
they both give you ways to identify holes in your domain
which turns out to be the main thing you need to actually prove JCT
this reminds me of non-lebesgue measurable sets, which are pathological enough such that their existence relies on axiom of choice. Wonder if standard complex analysis bits like cauchy's theorem are by themselves able to try to describe a closed loop that spikes around a vitali set.
If you admit the negation of the choice, then every subset of R is Lebesgue-mesurable
You can read more here if you're interested in (the document is available online)
Shouldn't it more be that "there exists a model of ZF such that every subset of R is Lebesgue measurable"
Yeah I don't think the existence of non-measurable sets is equivalent to choice. That seems a bit strong
Sounds like you're saying ZF and negation of choice proves every subset of R is Lebesgue measurable, which should be false
(Like make the axiom of choice hold for enough sets that this theorem goes through but make AC fail for some other sets)
Yes, sorry for that lack of precision, indeed it is that it is consistent with the negation of the choice
It is terribly badly said in my message
Np np
If I recall well, it’s worse than that: it’s in the metatheory “ZFC + there exists an inaccessible cardinal” that there exists a model of ZF + “all sets are Lebesgue measurable” (Solovay model). To the best of my knowledge, it’s still an open problem to show the existence of such a model with the metatheory/tools of ZFC only. The existence of an inaccessible cardinal cannot be shown in ZFC but "is thought" (so still open problem) to likely never be refutable (though in theory it could, if someone found a model of ZFC without one).
TLDR : Assuming consistency of ZFC, if you manage to construct a non Lebesgue measurable set without Choice, you would refute the existence of an inaccessible cardinal and likely collapse the hierarchy of large cardinals. But in essence, its not known if such a set exists but it is unlikely.
The existence of an inaccessible cardinal cannot be shown in ZFC but "is thought" (so still open problem) to likely never be refutable (though in theory it could, if someone found a model of ZFC without one).
Since the existence of an inaccessible cardinal cannot be shown in ZFC (due to Gödel-Rosser), there must be a model of ZFC that doesn't have one.
Furthermore, if I recall correctly: if M is a model with an inaccessible cardinal, then that model's V_kappa where kappa is the smallest inaccessible cardinal in M, is a model of ZFC + "there are no inaccessible cardinals".
Yep indeed, i didn't double check, thanks : i think, but to recheck, the constructible universe L doesn't have one, although your construction is very elegant.
I wanted to say that : its not known if the negation (nonexistence) can be shown in ZFC so there is a slight chance that they may not even exist. One possibility to show that is my TLDR.
I genuinely have to wonder who falls for these mrbeast scams
Discord is mostly 13 year olds
Also tbh even if you know it's a scam sometimes you get morbidly curious about how the scam works... that got me once
I don't think it's really the mrbeast scam that does people in, they just install malware (because of 🏴☠️ for example) and then their accounts get hijacked and start spamming this kind of post
it wouldn't be done if it didn't work
I'm pretty sure the scam is designed as a token stealer, so when you try to "claim your crypto" it steals all your active logins, both to take your crypto from you and then spam it with your discord account
I mean yea if they make enough money from it then there's no reason not to do it, I just don't think that's how people usually get infected
I'm pretty sure Shelah proved that if there's a model of Dependent-Choice + All sets are measurable, then there's a model of ZFC with an inaccessible. So maybe we don't know if just "all sets are measurables" is stronger than ZFC (I'm not sure), adding DC is equiconsistent with an inaccessible so that can't be proven in ZFC
I don't have a reference in schlof though
so just to be sure, is any banach space locally simply connected and contractible? I know theyre path connected, baire, homogenous, and some others
oh and that they are locally compact IFF they are finite dimensional
every normed space is locally convex and hence locally contractible, so in particular locally simply connected
I'm not sure about general topological vector spaces
should follow just from continuity of scalar multiplication
although actually I guess maybe not your open sets might be too big
right, I just realised. in a general TVS it still follows easily that every neighbourhood of the origin contains a balanced neigbourhood, and those are while not convex at least star-shaped
yeah every neighborhood of 0 contains a balanced neighborhood then you can just define a deformation retract onto 0 in the obvious way
To say something is completion of metric space X it is enough to show that it is complete metric space and X is dense in it, right?
Greetings. I'm trying to construct a counterexample for the statement $A \subseteq X,$ $X$ a topological space, $Int(A)$ connected, $Bd(A) $connected but $A$ disconnected. But I'm struggling. Is there any you know? Or is the statement true?
Gol D Roger
What if you take A = Q in X = R ?
So, $Int ( \mathbb{Q}) = \emptyset$?
Gol D Roger
Yes
Which is connected vacuously?
Yes
I would add isometry
That there exists an isometric embedding
For example if you change the usual metric for another one
It is
Two different completions are always isometric, if the metric on X is fixed
There are different conventions for whether the empty set is considered to be connected -- often it isn't. It would be a more robust solution to take, for example, A = Q union [42, infty).
I hate to be the guy sharing an nlab article, but there’s genuinely very good discussion about this in here
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/empty+space
naively it does seem like it should be, but In practice it’s more convenient to exclude it, and this is what most people do in my experience (on the algebraic side of things)
Nlab is inevitable
It is, but the children should be shielded and protected for as long as possible
But yeah both of these articles are great
Nlab is really annoying because 99% of its articles are completely garbage and then there’s the 1% that’s like genuinely insightful
So you can’t just disregard the entire website
The “too simple to be simple” article is in the 1%
truth supernova
i also love concept with an attitude
it feels like nlab has a lot of folklore articles
Wow I’ve just read this for the first time and it is quite good
Nlab is actually really good most people just don’t need it. I mostly just joke because the “basic” articles are ridiculous and it’s slightly silly/annoying when stuff like that gets sent to people who obviously aren’t ready for it
But I tend to find if you have an actual reason to be on there it’s very good. And the too simple to be simple stuff is just really really good for everyone
I don’t quite think this is true. They have articles written on subjects that I am perfectly qualified in, understand everything they say about, and yet I still think those articles are bad. This is often due to a mixture of omitting important pieces, factual errors, or copy-pasted content between related articles
i do think some technical nlab articles are really nice, especially on niche subjects that other websites wouldn't cover
Now admittedly I am an algebraic number theorist, which is not really the original intention of nlab, and many of the articles on that subject are sort of “unplanned bloat”. But even when I am reading an article on a category-theoretic concept I don’t think it’s very good
also it's a fine reference ime
There's definitely a lot of bad articles on there. But 99% being garbage is perhaps an overstatement
Perhaps
as a not professional in the slightest, i stinking love nlab
Also their typesetting is a crime
This is far from the most important criticism but it annoys me
This is a very different thing to 99% of the articles are garbage though
This I agree with, and is apparently somewhat controversial. The category theory site should have better ways of displaying diagrams
heh. I actually have a whole collection of nlab screenshots like that
those three might be my favourites
wow i bet you'd be friends with the guy in the SOME server that i stole that image from
oh wait that wasnt actually specifically you
that was a different user and we simply both thought it was funny
lol. I've posted it a couple of times there, might well be someone who found it funny and reposted it
not that there's anything wrong with that of course, it's always nice to see good memes spread
channel quality immediately gains a minus sign
Idk lol like most homotopy theory people I talk to dunk on it
Including me lol
It was most useful for me when I started doing a lil cat theory ig
Well ig this is just me lol
Do you have some examples?
I occasionally edit nlab articles myself and would definitely be up for improving it
i usually edit to fix the mistakes if they're pretty simple but this article https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/ring+of+integers probably needs a complete rewrite
Ah ok, I don’t know enough number theory to rewrite that
it gives an excessively general definition of ring of integers that
- no one has ever used
- is wrong in significant amounts of cases, including ones mentioned in the article
oh and then after giving the wrong definition they mindlessly copy the function field analogy table with no additional context
I'm confused why is the definition wrong
it doesnt work for local fields
What's the correct one
I'm not really an algebra person but I've always seen algebraic integer to mean root of a polynomial with coefficients in Z
the definitzion they give in section 4, or to put it more in line with the language used in section 1, the integral closure of Z_p in the local field
ah ok
so you'd want to take an algebraic element not over Z but over Z_p in that case
whenever this definition is used, its probably restricted to algebraic extensions of Q, to avoid the conflict with language for local rings
but whoever wrote the nlab article tried to make it maximaly general, and in the process didnt realize it was causing problems
Yeah that does seem to happen sometimes
also, if I were to say "ring of integers in a global function field", number theorists would probably understand it to mean something different than whats in the nlab article
though many people would probably completely avoid that language
Is there even a nice unifying definition for this?
Like maybe take the (topological) closure of the integral closure or something?
Is there even a nice unifying definition for this?
imo probably not
topological closure of the integral closure of the integers works for characteristic 0, but gives the wrong answer for function fields
though maybe we dont care about function fields because #point-set-topology message
So what's the right answer for function fields, and what do you get?
Given a finite extension K/F_q(t), the "ring of integers" of K is the integral closure of F_q[t] in K
so replace Z with F_q[t]
Hmm, maybe the right idea is to fix some PID that you do ring of integers relative to...
but then at this point you might as well just write this definition:
"If (A,K) is a pair of a PID and its field of fractions, and L/K is a finite extension, then the ring of A-integers in L is the integral closure of A in L"
and then when you don't say A, there is a "standard" choice the reader is supposed to assume, whether that be Z, Z_p, or F_q[t]
this is what people actually use
I think whoever wrote the definition on nlab probably didnt like how ad-hoc this one seems. But there's a reason it is this way
Seems like one can almost fix the article by adding a remark below the definition
But it examplafies the issue was your point I guess
Hi!, I'm wondering what is the difference between the definition of interior point and a neighborhood, because, by formal definition they look the same to me.
Also, my book mentions that there is a relationship between the concept of interior and the concept of open, I don't clearly see this relationship, Could anyone clarify?
thanks in advance
Feel free to ping me
okay, so what is your definition of interior point, open set, and neighbourhoof?
Second image is the definition of neighbourhood, in which "tal que" is the spanish traduction to "such that", and well, I don't have very clear if it's talking about open sets or just "opens", like the elements of the topology
I think it's talking about opens which definition is, it's open if G \in T
The relationship is that x is an interior point of N iff N is a neighbourhood of x
I always confuse between open sets and "opens", my teacher say they are not the same
So interior point and neighbourhood are closely related
Yes, the difference is just which one you focus on
Okey, that's what I was thinking but I wanted validation xD
just in case
And what is the relationship between interior and open?
And, another question, does all elements of the topology have an infinite amout of neighbourhoods, or that's the case for metric spaces?
x is an interior point of N iff there is an open subset U with x in U and U subset N
A subset U is open iff every x in U is an interior point of U
iff U is a neighbourhood of all its points
So it's the same case as before, it depends in which one you focus?
Yes
That’s hasty generalisation
Not necessarily, even in metric spaces
Well, all the questions I've done you always answered them xDDD
I have been learning some algtop recently so needed to brush up on gentop
mmm I see, that may be more advanced that what I've seen so far, rn for me, in a metric space, the opens have infinite neighbourhoods
Consider finite metric spaces though
What is your recommendation in studying gentop? I'm struggling a lot with the exercises
Draw lots of pictures as you’re working through Qs
I'm spanish sorry, what's Qs?
It’s also helpful to keep a standard list of topologies in mind
Questions
Both metrizable and non-metrizable examples
So far I now know that the indiscrete topology is non metrizable
And that a topological space is metrizable if you can define open balls around x (which is an open) and they still in the topology
I don't know what galev is writing but I'm scared
Im currently trying to prove that a finite product of open maps is open.
Let $f: \prod_{i =1}^n X_i \to \prod_{i=1}^n Y_i$ and let $f_i: X_i \to Y_i$ be open maps. Then any open set $U \subset \prod_{i=1}^n X_i$ can be written as $U= \bigcup_{j \in J} \left( \prod_{i=1}^n U_{i,j} \right)$ where $\prod_{i=1}^n U_{i,j}$ are elements in the Basis $\mathcal{B}X$ for all $j \in J$. With basic set theory, we get that $f(U) = \bigcup{j \in J} \left( \prod_{i=1}^n f_i(U_{i,j}) \right)$ and $\prod_{i=1}^n f_i(U_{i,j})$ is an element in the Basis $\mathcal{B}Y$ of the product topology $\prod{i=1}^n Y_i \$.
But this proof should also work if we start with closed instead of open maps and subsets.
The problem is that $g: \mathbb{R} \to {0}$ and $f: \mathbb{R} \to \mathbb{R}$ with $f(x) = x$ are both closed maps but $f \times g$ isn't. So where did i go wrong?
I cant find any mistake in my proof above
galev
You can’t write a closed set as an arbitrary union like that
You can write it as a big intersection, but direct images don’t generally preserve intersections, only unions
yeah but let say we have a open set U, than we could get the closed set via X/U and now we could work with the intersection
Oh right
Im dumb
Preimages preserve all subset operations however
Yes, finite products of open maps are always open
Thank you ❤️
@limber wyvern I would also say topology has lots of equivalent ways of saying the same thing
It would do well for you to familiarise yourself with these, even make your own if that helps
For example, a subset S is dense iff the closure of S is the whole space
It's almost confusing😅
This turns out to be equivalence to
I knew this
I really like how John Lee is visualizing a lot of his theorems in his book topological manifolds.
For every nonempty open set U, S intersect U is nonempty
I have heard good things about Lee, e.g. from @iron violet
It's harder for me too see the same here that from the first definition
It’s not obvious, but a good exercise to prove this
Working with these equivalent perspectives and knowing which one to choose goes a long way in topology
Yeah, he also has a lot of exercises so i often don't really know which ones i should do because i'm not in the mood to do 30 or more exercises each chapter xD
Ah right, atm I’ve just been doing every exercise from folland
I see
I'm sorry to ask this again but, in a topological space, the opens from the topology doesn't have always a neighbourhood?
By viewing the book recommended by galev I see this, and I see that they have a neighbourhoodness
or it's just to specify they are open sets?
I would say this is a type error
Given a point p and a subset N, you can ask whether or not N is a neighbourhood of p
But “neighbourhood of an open set” isn’t really a sensible notion (at least not until later)
To be fair the picture is not about neighbourhood of sets
It's to visualize that a point is in Ext A iff it has a neighbourhood contained in X/A where A is any subset of X
mmm, when I talk about opens it's not about open sets but about the elements of a topology
I don't know if it's the same
xD
And similiar for Int A and Par A
My professor says it's not the same
that's the same thing
literally the definition of an open set is "an element of the topology"
i think he means elements of the open set
I mean, let me correct myself, he doesn't says it's not the same, he says that "open" is the name for the elements of the topology, but it's not like a open set
But this is the same
I don't know what your professor is cooking, these are the same thing
I mean, let X = {1,2} and a topology T = { \empty, X, {1} }, that {1} is what he calls "open"
{1} is very much an open set in T
... and he wouldn't call \empty and X open?
Thats like, what an open set is
yeah yeah, for sure
I just said 1 for taking an example
ok
at least in English there isn't a thing we call "an open," only "open sets"
I see
So it can be treated literally like an open set
But it's not like a normal open set in R, because, how you interpret an open like {1,3,9}
I mean I have definitely seen open used as a noun like that a lot
really?
where
An element of a topology is just called an open set. This is a generalisation of the thing you already knew to be open on R, this is where the terminology comes from
Idk anywhere that talks about covers, the authors often say things like "covered by opens" or something
I think this is quite common, ive definently heard like "A union of compact opens" or orwhatever
i have never heard this in my life 😭
It just gets super annoying to always write set
i mean, what do you mean when you say this is "an open?"
So, what do you mean is just called open set, it has something to do with the definition of open set in R?
or it's just the name
You're conflating R as a set with R as a topological space with some topology
It's an element of the topology
which topology?
it's not an element of the eucliden topology
An open set of R depends on the chosen topology, if you equip R with the discrete topology every subset is open
I don't know, i just invented that example
😭
An open is is by definition any element of a topology. You maybe saw at other points sets like (0,1) in R be called open, but these are just the open sets in the usual (metric) topology on R
so if its an element of a topology its an open set in that topology
Theyre called open because it generalises that idea on R to other sets, and even just different topologies on R
Wow
I see
So a point set like (0,1) it's an open for R, but it's a specific case
just for the usual topology
(And when I say element of a topology I mean an element of T, not of the underlying space X)
Yeah, this is the motivation for the terminology
Closed sets in R look like [0,1], but they could look different in general, theyre just compliments of open sets in whatever topology you have
I see
but
Just to wrap this up
and sorry to sound redundant, they are called open sets just because this idea comes from R, but it does not have nothing in common with being an open set for R like (0,1)
Sorry for asking this again but I've been studying topology a lot today and I have my brain in liquid state
well, the open subsets of R in the metric sense also form a topology, so it's not that there's nothing in common
Well, it's only common for R
Yeah they need not have anything in common. Take for example any finite topological space, say the set X={0,1}, and put the topology {\empty,X,1} on it. Then {1} is open in this, but it doesnt really look like an interval on the real line.
The idea here is that open sets in some appropriate sense encode what it means for things to be close to each other, sort of like how they do in R, and hence why this generalises the idea. But yeah like (0,1) is an open set on R in the topological sense (with the usual topology)
but the general definition "open set (in a topology)" is an element of said topology
When I think about open sets I think about a set of numbers, which does not include the beginning nor the end: (0,1)
Its not open under say the indiscrete topology
Yeah this is the motivation, but you need to let yourself expand that picture a bit now if youre learning topology
I'm sorry to ask more, but, what do you mean by "appropriate sense encode what it means for things to be close to each other" isn't this something exclusive to metric spaces?
I mean, the sense of close or far
I dont mean anything too precise beyond that it is the generalisation of that idea. If you have a metric on your space that gives a natrual topology by making the open balls open sets. But of course in general for any topological space that idea might not make a lot of sense, look back on my example with {0,1}
Im just trying to motivate where these things come from. For any given topological space what it really means for things to be "close" probably isnt all that meaningful, we can just talk about open sets
Closed sets in R look like [0,1]
Yes, the Cantor set in particular
The definition my books give for close, is:
A set is close if the complementary is open -_-
Well I mean zoom in close enough....
... and you're still seeing the Cantor set
This is the definition though, a set is closed if its compliment is open
To be fair, it's one of the definitions, closed sets are often defined in terms of limit points etc.
And a newcomer might not see it obvious why those are equivalent to the complement being open
Its cantor all the way down, they just keep taking away the middle third of my set 
Yeah good point
Just out of curiosity, in what year of your math degree did you coursed general topology?
Should be seeing it next semester, so in 4th year. But I have seen topological concepts in other courses such as Analysis on Rn, Metric Spaces, Geometric Topology and Calculus on Manifolds.
But yeah I guess if theres something to take away from this its this: Your intiution about what open and closed mean in R is good to have in the back of your mind as a vauge motivation for this, but dont cling on too tightly because you will be studying spaces which actually look quite different to this. An open set is just an element of a topology, and theres many different topologies out there, and mnay of them can be quite whacky
it's my first year in uni and I'm seeing topology
and I feel I lack a looooot of background
I've heard of some universities who substitutes full on Analysis for Calculus and General Topology for an Analysis course.
So far I've just coursed Calculus I, and linear algebra xD
I mean, I've coursed statistics and physics too, but It doesn't help to study topology
I feel like a PS Topology course as a first year is somewhat insane. Especially if you haven't taken any Proofs class.
You're using Munkres?
Well, I'm using a lot of books to try and understand topology, In my uni they have a custom book
But yeah, in my free time I'm with munkres
I see.
Well, thank you everyone for the help and your time, you'll see me living in this channel xD
Second year for me.
We have topology of R^n in our second year but we don't have a course on general topology
second year also
That's pretty much the standard case in most universities
third semester, point set topology. Not fun that earilier.
I mean, nice if at least prof used one book, but he followed Viro Irodov. Not a sane experience
Eh? Which uni is that?
Also, if someone can help me, in which topology scenario is $S^1 \cong [0, 2 \pi)$?
Gol D Roger
there is a continuous bijection $[0, 2\pi) \to S^1$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
however it doesn't have a continuous inverse
in fact this is the standard example of a continuous bijection that isn't a homeomorphism
Gol D Roger
Or as itself a space?
either works
it's a good exercise to check if you haven't done so already that these give the same def
$S^1$ as subspace and as itself a space?
Gol D Roger
yeah
Oh well, thanks
Also, this might be interesting for you https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4671250/making-0-2-pi-homeomorphic-to-s1-circle-in-a-plane
somehow with transport of structure they presented another topology.
I'm just so lazy to check it rn.
oh yeah with transport of structure you can cheat
you can make $S^1 \cong S^{67}$ with that
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
Ah I like how you went for a prime number
Yeah, im having a pretty insane experience
Its my second quad-mester and I'm having topology without knowing nothing about analysis nor proofs
It's being pretty hard to follow
All my colleages are in the same position as me so :/
Not cool
😭
topology before analysis is wild
i think it's doable but probably not the best idea
topology without either analysis or proofs though...
everything must feel so unmotivated though. After all, what we now know as topology was first developed as a tool for analysis
well historical accuracy isn't always pedagogically the best, but yea I wouldn't do it
I read a bit of topology before starting analysis and I didn't like it
though you can probably still get reasonably far
true, but in this case, at least from my experience, it is nice to have an understanding of particularly metric spaces to get a sense for why we are defining the things we are in topology
yea metric spaces first would be a good idea
Which uni is that?
I would say most topological invariants are not that diff to digest
But getting to infinite products without knowing what a sequence is is wild
At least in the order Munkres deals with the topics
And Munkres is arguably the most pedagogic Topology book
I just picked up a copy of Munkres to go through some of the exercises
Maybe this is a hot take but Munkres is so... boring
I tried to read a chapter of it when I was learning topology and gave up
Do you recommend any books for learning topology
I feel like I learned a lot of it from osmosis, but I remember someone on the server recommended John Lee's Introduction to Topological Manifolds to me, where the first three or four chapters do a reasonably quick intro to general topology
That was really helpful (I never read the rest of the book)
I know Hatcher also has a short intro to topology that people throw around, not sure if it's any good
i kind of liked willard
i did metric spaces first, got pretty far but now i'm struggling with compactness 😭
jacob lurie higher topos theory /j
munkres was alright and is very well-organized
I would be surprised
the quotient topology notes there are good
I don't think so, as a reference book, probably, like a dictionary. Not pedagogical
Indeed
I mean, manifolds after analysis and some vector calculus course is a good introduction to most useful concepts un topology
I thought that, but it depends on how you take a topology course for it. Self study with it surely is boring, but there are good profs who know how to extract the best of the book
At least that's how I passed Topology
After failing it at first using Viro Irodov as main book
But, I don't think Munkres is the best even for starters, there are better books, more challenging and pedagogical
And with colours
which book would you recommend?
wow thats long
wait so you dont recommend it 😭
is this the more challenging and pedagogical book with colors
I do, nice book, awesome colours
These
is there another?
Nice book
Are all those really ones you have permission to redistribute?
(Assuming they are not, I think the <@&268886789983436800> need to clean them up).
Yea that's fair
I'll delete them anyway, I'll write the names only
The #rules definitely state "We cannot allow posting links or files with pirated content."
Thanks, I forgot about it
Indeed lol
I think I deleted them, if not, please do so.
They seem to be gone alright.
Thanks
So, the authors are (sorry If I misspell someone)
Alexandroff
Croom
Dugundji
Vipul Kakkar
Ronald Brown
George F Simmons
Lefschetz
Min Yan
Robert Messer
Emil Milewski
Andre
Gamelin
Ghirst
Herve
Kalajdzievski
Kuramesan
Kosniowski
Not in a particular order though
Those are the ones I know so far
Personally I like Kalajdzievski's Topology book a lot.
Is very complete and illustrative
Did you encounter compactness within metric spaces or topology first?
i saw in metric spaces but i didn’t absorb it
Yeah that's fair enough, I definitely did struggl (and still do) with compactness more in topology than metric spaces
What about compactness
Terry Tao has an amazing explainer about compactness https://www.math.ucla.edu/~tao/preprints/compactness.pdf
just wrapping my head around the proofs of facts about it
like heine-borel
Are compactness and limit point compactness equivalent in a second countable space?
I was able to prove this to be true if the space is T_1 but I don't know if this still holds for an arbitrary second countable space.
Here is my proof for $T_1$ case. Clearly compactness implies limit point compactness for any topological space. Now suppose $X$ is $T_1$, second countable, and limit point compact. Let $\mathcal{A}$ be an open cover of $X$. Since second countability implies Lindelofness, we may assume that $\mathcal{A} = {U_n}{n=1}^\infty$ is countable. Suppose for contradiction that ${U_n}{n=1}^\infty$ has no finite subcover. Then for every $n \in \mathbb{Z}^+$, we can choose
$$
x_n \in X \setminus \bigcup_{k=1}^n{U_k}.
$$
We claim that $E = {x_n : n \in \mathbb{Z}^+ }$ has no limit point. Indeed, if $x \in X$, choose $U_N$ that contains $x$, and we end up having $E \cap U_N$ being finite by construction. So $x$ cannot be a limit point of $E$, since $X$ is $T_1$. But this contradicts the fact that $X$ is limit point compact.
Euiseok (Class of 2100)
any good arXiv papers on Alexandrov topology and Heyting algebras/interior operators?
This is more subjective, but are there any times when you would equip a banach space with a topology that is not metrizable?
i know the metric that comes with the definition of a banach space can induce a topology thats obviously metrizable (and completely metrizable at that) but idk how much i can just declare that the space itself is metrizable
calling something metrizable only makes sense if you have a topology in the first place
regardless if you have a banach space X then you can consider its weak topology, which is in general not metrizable
these come up frequently in analysis
the idea is that weaker topology => more compact sets => easier to extract convergent subsequences
Is "weaker" synonymous with "coarser"?
in my book it is at least
by definition the weak topology is the coarsest topology on X for which all elements of X* are continuous, so in my head the connection is reasonable
there are natural topological vector spaces that aren't metrisable
for example, the set of signed measures on a compact subset of R^n with the weak topology
Most vector spaces with the weak/weak* topology aren't metrizable.
Although it might be worth mentioning that the unit ball of this space (and consequently the set of probability measures on that compact subset) is metrizable.
yep
I've always found it mildly unintuitive that the unit ball is metrizable but the whole space is not
i assume by unit ball we mean those measures such that |m(K)| <= 1, since ofc the entire topology is not metrisable lol
Yeah, or equivalently |m|(K) \leq 1 (total variation)
I think it's because the topology is not the norm topology. So from the perspective of the topology, the "unit ball" is some random subset, albeit closed(?) and absorbing. But this doesn't help my intuition that much.
I think of it as a subbasis though, like the weak topology induces a subbasis
For sequences in X*
But I can't remember it exactly
Though this summary from David Lecomte may be useful: https://perso.crans.org/lecomte/Math/WeakTopologies.pdf
For measures I always wondered why ppl say weak instead of weakstar lol
This is the same as the unit ball wrt the dual norm
Since the dual norm is sup of action on functions with infty norm <= 1
And that’s the same as the radon measure of the set
the weak* topology is on the dual space right? if your perspective is that the set of measures is your base space then I think that's where the difference arises
Well when people say weak wrt measures they usually mean weak wrt actions on some space of functions which is actually weak star
The weak would be dual space of space of measures which has too many opens
It’s too strong
I mean you can do it but I’ve basically never seen it there’s not really a reason
Yeah, I agree with this, whenever I've seen this used, it was when treating the space of meaures as the dual of a continuous function space (via the Riesz-Markov-Kakutani representation theorem), so the topology considered would indeed be weak*
You can proove that any infinite dimension Banach space is not metrizable for the weak or weak* topology (if it is a dual)
But as a nice exercise, you can show that R[X]* is metrizable for the weak* topology (for the II.II_1 on R[X])
I was hedging because I was dimly recalling Schur's theorem (in l^1, weak convergence is equivalent to norm convergence)
But I now remember that while convergence there is equivalent, the topology is still distinct
Yep, the topology are the same only if they are metrizable
This theorem is wild
Double weak?
But then the original space V is also double weak, isn't it?
No I mean that if you use the term weak consistently to refer to measures you’re not referring to duality with functions but duality with the dual space of the space of measures, which contains functions but is bigger
Since Eg L^1 or C^infty are not reflexive
In practice, when people say weak convergence of measures they’re almost surely talking about weak star
Yeah I agree, the star is just dropped because it's assumed
Hi!, can someone clarify me, what is the local structure of a point in a open set?
wdym by "local structure" exactly?
tbh I don't know, in my book it talks about local structure in the points of a open set
but it does not explain what it is
could you send a screenshot maybe
it is in spanish
might still help
It also talks about local concepts
it explains that a local concept is a property that can be explain point by point
Okay, by filtering the word I got down in the book and found the definition of it xD
is how the set behave around each of its points
Well there is a notion of a property being true near a point p
I would imagine this is referring to the neighborhood filter at a point
which is just the set of neighborhoods of the point
I came back to see if my understanding on this concepts are correct:
Im trying to answer the question: "Why is Q dense in R".
And well, I know the answer in a Calculus I style but now that I'm with topology I want to do it in a topological way.
So, a set Q is dense if his clausure it's the whole space R. Knowing that an adjacent point is a point which is infinetly close to another point.
I try to answer this question by saying: Q is dense in R, because there is a infinetly close point to a point in Q which is in R
Is my answer right?
I mean, I know by Calculus 1 that is dense because every open set contains a rational number between the lower and upper bound
that's not how i'd phrase density
this is the correct argument
How would you?
The general definition is that a set D is dense if $$ \overline{D} = X $$
it's $\overline{D} = X$
but we don't use "infinitely close"
And how do you imagine an adjacent point?
I mean, I thinked of infinitely close by myself and I don't know if it's a correct way to think about it
i mean my definition of closure is "smallest closed set containing our set"
and you don't think of that like a set pretty close to the set?
not really, no?
but mmm, I think of it as points not as ser
Like, using your definition: "The smallest closed set containing our point"
well, yeah, there is no close nor far in a topology without a metric but, if it's the smallest closed set
I imagine it as being close to the poing
that's the closure of a singleton set
$\overline{D}$ is the smallest closed set containing all of $D$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
wow
this just says $x \in \overline{A}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
"infinitely close" is a bit imprecise, but I think it makes sense to say that if D is dense in X, then every point in X is arbitrarily close to a point in D
Let $A \subset X$ and $x \in X$. We say that $x$ is adherent to $A$ if for all $G \in \mathcal{T}$ such that $x \in G$, we have $A \cap G \ne \emptyset$.
S0S4
this is my formal definition of adjacent point
Yeah, I know it's imprecise because there is no such thing as distance in a topological space with no metric in it, but it's just a way to make it make sense in my head😅
Yeah, but it's a good intuition IMO. I think almost all intuition/visualization you can have for topological spaces comes from metric spaces
So, having that in mind, how would someone explain that Q is dense in R
knowing this
Is like, every real is arbitrarily close to a rational right?
Yep 👍
What do you think Pseudo?
so you have to be a little careful with the quantifiers here
what is true is that for every $x \in \mathbb{R}$ and every $\epsilon > 0$ there exists a rational $q \in \mathbb{Q}$ with $|x - q| < \epsilon$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so "there are rationals arbitrarily close to any real number"
however, what is not true is the following
for every $x \in \mathbb{R}$ there exists a rational $q \in \mathbb{Q}$ such that for every $\epsilon > 0$ we have $|x - q| < \epsilon$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
which is "for every real, there exists a rational number that is arbitrarily close to it"
do you see the difference?
so in particular, it is not true that "for every real number, there exists a rational number infinitely close to it"
so it's like the opposite of what i said
Yeah, its most like, there are rationals arbitrarily close to any real number, but not for every real number there exists a rational number infinitely close to it
is it good?
yeah
this is why i don't really like the "infinitely close" language
because there are subtleties that are easy to miss
okay, thanks to both of you for the help
well according to nonstandard analysis, ...
So when is homemorphic used and when is isomorphic used (cause I just saw homeomorphic used to describe equivalences of trees)
an isomorphism usually refers to two objects being identical in structure but perhaps different in name. for example, the set {1, 2, 3} is isomorphic to {4, 5, 6}, just with 1 relabelled as 4, 2 relabelled as 5, 3 relabelled as 6
in the same sense, two graphs are isomorphic if the structure of the graph is the same (same placement of nodes and same connections between them), but perhaps the names on the nodes are different or something
A homeomorphism is just an isomorphism of topological spaces
not sure what a homeomorphism of graphs is
it's just an isomorphism in this case
Any graph can be viewed as a topological space, so perhaps that
kruskal's tree theorem
well, two graphs can be homeomorphic as topological space without being isomorphism as graphs
so it does depend what it means
for instance any cycle is homeomorphic to a circle
so all cycles are homeomorphic to each other
If that's what they mean by homeomorphic then yeah, would have to see the rest of the paper to know
.... do you not know what kruskal's tree theorem is? (it's the TREE(3) thing)
No I've never heard of that
If I understand the tree theorem correctly, "homeomorphic embedding" is actually the topological concept if homeomorphism -- in particular, such an embedding is allowed to map an edge to an entire path in the larger tree, as long as the intermediate nodes are not used for anything else.
The same kinds of embeddings are used to characterize planar graphs in Kuratowski's theorem.
The minimum of two things is whichever one is smaller
so either d(x,y) is smaller, meaning B(x,y) = d(x,y), or 1 is smaller, meaning B(x,y) = 1 < d(x,y). Either way, B(x,y) ≤ d(x,y).
As as sanity check, these are equal right?
X n ( Y \ Z) = (X n Y) \ Z = (X n Y) \ (X n Z)
Yup, all follows from associativity of intersections
Since you can write C = X cup Y cup Z (just so they share a common ambient) then A\B = A cap C\B for A subset of C
Hi!, what is the difference between a neighbourhood and a open ball?
(in the context of metric spaces) a neighborhood is a set that contains an open ball.
So a neighbourhood is more generic than a open ball?
In the sense that an open ball is a neighbourhood, sure.
Thanks
I need to prove that every metric space is a Hausdorff topological space. I have this so far:
Let $(M,d)$ be a metric space. Let $x \in M$ and $y \in M$ with $x \neq y$. Let $d(x,y) = r$. Then I need to prove that there exist neighbourhoods $V_x$ and $V_y$ for $x$ and $y$ respectively.
Let $k \in \mathbb{R}$ with $k < \frac{r}{2}$. Then $B(x,k) \cap B(y,k) = \emptyset$, because assume there exists $a \in B(x,k) \cap B(y,k)$, then $d(x,y) \leq d(a,x) + d(a,y) < 2k < r$, a contradiction.
Nico
Is this a valid proof?
And here obv, $V_x = B(x,k)$ and $V_y = B(y,k)$
Nico
yeah, looks good.
maybe say k is positive tho this is obvious by context.
What is a basis and local basis for a topological space?
I don't quite understand that
A basis is basically a building block for the topology (i.e. every open set). More specifically, it is a collection of open sets, called basis elements, such that every open set in X can be written as a union of basis elements (it can be an infinite union or finite union).
In a metric space (X,d), the collection of all open balls forms a basis of the "metric topology" on X i.e. you can use open balls to describe any open set in X as a union of open balls (which is obvious).
For a local basis, here is the definition:
You can think of a local basis at a point x as a collection of neighborhoods of x that captures all the ways of being “close” to x since any neighborhood of x is just a "larger version" of one of these local basis elements. This is why we use the word "local" basis.
One example where this is used is in the notion of a first countable space. In such spaces, sequences behave well enough that they capture all the important limiting behavior, so you can describe closures and continuity purely in terms of sequences like you did in metric spaces. In fact, first countable spaces generalize metric spaces, so you still retain these nice sequential properties in a more general setting.
And how do I prove:
Let $\mathscr{B} \subseteq \tau$. $\mathscr{B}$ is a basis for $\tau$ iff $(\forall x \in X)({U \in \mathscr{B} : x \in U }$ is a local basis for $x$?
Nico
$\mathcal{B}$ is a basis iff for every $x \in X$ , the collection $\mathcal{B}_x = { B \in \mathcal{B} : x \in B }$ is a local basis at $x$.
Proof.
The forward implication is immediate. For the converse, it is immediate that $X = \bigcup \mathcal{B}$, so it remains to check that if $x \in X$ and $B_1, B_2 \in \mathcal{B}$ such that $x \in B_1 \cap B_2$, then there exists $B_3 \in \mathcal{B}$ such that $x \in B_3 \subseteq B_1 \cap B_2$. Now note that $\mathcal{B}_x$ form a local basis at $x$ by hypothesis and that $B_1 \cap B_2$ is a neighborhood of $x$. This means that we can choose $B_3 \in \mathcal{B}_x$ such that $B_3 \subseteq B_1 \cap B_2$. This completes the proof.
Euiseok (Class of 2100)
@fading meteor I just found a typo in the definition (which came from my tex notes). In the condition (ii), it should be fixed so that the intersection of B_1 and B_2 contains x.
With drug
I also struggled a lot (the motivation part)
I actually haven't taken any topology class yet.
Then how did you study it?
But I found Munkres' Topology book really good
I just self-studied.
Damn
Point-set topology itself is really dry, and you just need to study more and more math to really see and understand the motivation. Many of the concepts introduced in the early part of Munkres' book are motivated by analysis (ofc not everything), at least that's how I understood. The proofs in Munkres' book are very detailed and not hard to read, and it has many exercises.
Yeah, my topology course also has a lot of motivation from analysis
Lots of pictures help
I also think topology has a lot of equivalent characterisations of things
And it’s useful to know many different ways to say the same thing
Last year for example we saw a lot of theorems for multivariable calculus and now we're generalising stuff to topological spaces
Because they can be useful in different contexts
Yeah, my syllabus doesn't really have that
For example, a very useful characterisation of openness is “neighbourhood of all its points”
I’ve used this a lot in practice because it can be easier than checking a set is open directly
What do you mean by directly?
Using the definition of the topology
If I need to check whether a set is open or not, I just check of all of its points are internal (is this the right word?)
Interior, and yes that’s equivalent to what I said
How do I prove that if $X$ is a topological space and $U \subseteq Y \subseteq X$, then the closure of $U$ in $Y$ is $\bar{U} \cap Y$, where $\bar{U}$ is the closure of $U$ in $X$?
Nico
Before proving it, I'll use the notation A instead of U, cuz I always use U as an open set (it's just my habit).
note that every closed set in Y is the intersection of Y with a closed set in X :)
I think that's enough for a hint
Isn't this then just the definition of subspace?
Well I think you should give a more explicit argument
Like, can you explicitly provide your argument that the closure of U in Y equals the closure of U in X, intersect Y?
We first show that $A \subseteq Y$ is closed in $Y$ if and only if $A = C \cap Y$ for some closed set $C$ in $X$.
Suppose $A$ is closed in $Y$. Then $Y \setminus A$ is open in $Y$, so $ Y \setminus A = U \cap Y$ for some open set $U$ in $X$ by the definition of subspace topology. Set $C = X \setminus U$, which is closed in $X$, and we have
$$
A = Y \setminus (U \cap Y) = Y \setminus U = C \cap Y.
$$
Conversely, suppose $A = C \cap Y$ for some closed set $C$ in $X$. Then
$$
Y \setminus A = Y \setminus (C \cap Y) = Y \setminus C = (X \setminus C) \cap Y,
$$
which is open in $Y$. Hence $A$ is closed in $Y$.
Now we prove the result. Clearly $\operatorname{cl}_Y(A) \subseteq \operatorname{cl}_X(A) \cap Y$. Conversely, let $C$ be a closed set in $X$ such that $\operatorname{cl}_Y(A) = C \cap Y$. Because $A \subseteq C$, we have $\operatorname{cl}_X(A) \subseteq C$. Hence $\operatorname{cl}_X(A) \cap Y \subseteq C \cap Y = \operatorname{cl}_Y(A)$.
Euiseok (Class of 2100)
not really it still requires a bit of work to prove :)
I said the hint because the closure is defined as the intersection of all closed sets intersecting U...
any point in any space has a local basis
first countable means every point has a countable local basis
second countable is stronger
Really?
yes again, by taking every element of the countable basis containing your point
that gives a countable local basis
yep, second countable implies first countable
How do I prove this: every FIP-sequence of closed subsets of $X$ has a non-empty intersection iff every countable open cover of $X$ has a finite subcover?
Nico
Nvm
you got it?
Yeah
nice
I asked because I didn't understand the proof in my syllabus, but I got it after all
i like the proof by contrapositive in both directions
I've only done 37 pages of my syllabus so far today, but it feels more like 100
I hate this subject
(No offense)
take a break 😭
i am studying micro economics - and the concepts of open, closed, compact, bounded, convex and other such topics come up - any good online source to get a good understanding of these topics so that i can proceed with microeconomics study??
micro economics??
Radu read about stochastic processes in economics with me to impress ur gf with ur money making abilities ;)
I dunno what a stock option is I only know stacks x)
I prefer snacks, personally
my understanding of economics is that the more line go up, the more snacks I can afford
If you want videos, there are a lot of good real analysis playlists on YouTube, I would use one of those
bright side 
What's an example of an Alexandrov compactification?
It sounds so weird tbh
Also how do I prove this: If $(X, \tau)$ is a non compact, local compact Hausdorff space, then $X_\infty := X \sqcup \infty$ with the topology
[
\tau_\infty := \tau \cup {X_\infty \backslash K : K \text{is a compact subset of } X }
]
is a Hausdorff Alexandrov compactification of $X$
Nico
the circle S^1 is the one point compactification of R
How?
take the real line
imagine a point sitting above it
drag -oo and oo to that point
you get a circle
yea
yes
that’s just S^2
S^2?
well you need to just check that the properties are satisfied
So I just need to check if it is Hausdorff and compact?
and some more things:
X is a subspace of it
X is dense in it
Yeah ofc X is in it
right, but X being a subspace means that the subspace topology inherited by X from X_\infty is the same as the topology on X. This may be obvious but its part of the requirement
(this amounts to the inclusion map being continuous)
how did you define "Alexandrov Compactification"? just check that this construction satisfies those properties
A compactification X' of a topological space X is a one point compactification if X'\X contains exactly 1 point
So I thought I'd just check if X_\infty is a compactification of X, and that X_\infty \ X is a singleton
Right
correct, and checking that X_\infty is a compactification is just doing this + checking that it is compact which you mentioned
well just keep unfolding the definitions
Isn't is just that we take the limit of all convergent series in X?
*sequences
Like, the set that contains the limits of all convergent sequences in X
Not even convergent
The set that contains the limits of all the sequences (a_n) where all a_i are in X
Isn't that \bar{X}?
And that needs to equal X_\infty
Or is this not the right approach?
Maybe not, considering the next chapter is about completeness
here is what i recommend:
X_\infty \ X obviously only has one point
Now you need to check that X_\infty is compact, Hausdorff and X is a subspace of X_\infty, and X is dense in it.
start by showing that X_\infty is compact (you dont need any sequences for this, just follow the open cover definition)
next show that X is a subspace of X_\infty. This means that the subspace topology inherited by X as a subspace of X_\infty is the same as the topology of X
next show that X is dense in X_\infty, i.e that cl(X)=X_\infty
check that X_\infty is hausdorff
Compact means that every cover of X_\infty has a finite subcover, right?
Or smth like that
"every open cover.." , but im assuming you mean that when you say "every cover"
Yes, we define cover by open subsets
Cover is just open cover and closed cover is cover with closed subsets
Or at least in my syllabus
Ok so here's what I got
X is locally compact, so that means that every point in x has a compact neighbourhood
So if x is in X, then we can just cover that up with some finite open cover for that neighbourhood
And if x is infty, then we can cover it with X_infty \ K, for any compact subset of X, because that's open and finite?
And then the union of all of these open covers is a finite cover for X_infty
Does that sound right?
What you said may not even be finite because X may have infinitely many points
Okay
Then I was thinking about this theorem
X is compact iff ever FIP family of closed subsets of X has a non-empty intersection
But idk how to apply it to this one
well you are kind of close
you dont need this FIP definition.
take any open cover of X_\infty. This means there is some open set containing infinity. What can you say about the complement of this open set? (look at how the open sets containing infinity are constructed)
It's just one of the sets that we added in tau_infty
yes, but all those sets you added have a certain property
They are the complements of compact sets?
correct, so their complement is a compact set in X
so the complement can be covered with finitely many open sets of the open cover
Okay, but taking the complement of that cover gives us a closed set
it will be closed, but more importantly it is compact
Why
because the complement of any open set containing infinity will be compact
||Construct an open cover F of C in X using the open cover A of X^*. Then choose finite subcover of C from F. Here X^* \setminus C contain the inifnite point||
ok, tell me if this makes sense
let U be open cover of X_\infty. we need to show there is a finite subcover. Because U is a cover, there is an open set V in U containing \infty. This means X_\infty \ V = K where K is a compact subset of X. Cover K with finitely many open sets U1,..,Un from U. Then V, U1,..,Un is a finite cover of X_\infty
Oh damn
Yeah now I get it
Also, what does this mean again: $\mathscr{S}(K,\mathbb{C})$?
Nico
Idk if it's a topology thing, but it keeps appearing here and there in my syllabus
That's a C!?
set of all continuous functions from K to C
and I guess K is compact.
maybe ur syllabus is talking about Arzela-Ascoli theorem
Yes, but only very later on
cuz it is about finding a compact subset of this function space
Ok not that much later, only 10 pages from where I am currently
what class r u taking? Just curious lol.
I'm here now
And I don't understand it at all
you can think of it as classifying the (pre)compact subsets of C(K)
What is precompact?
a subset $S$ of a topological space $X$ is precompact if $\overline{S}$ is compact
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
What's the difference with complete?
completeness only makes sense for metric spaces, no?
the main results i know for that are
let $M$ be a metric space. then if a subspace $S$ is complete, it is closed in $M$
I've not heard precompact before
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
conversely, let $M$ be a complete metric space. then if a subspace $S$ is closed, it is complete
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
it's a topological term
I saw this one, yeah
it's equivalent to "total boundedness"
that is, let $M$ be a metric space. then a subspace $S$ is precompact if and only if it is totally bounded
Yes
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so it's a kind of topological generalization of total boundedness
What's the difference between basis and subbasis?
You can use a subbasis to build a basis.
I still don't see the difference with a normal basis
well for a basis, you have an intersection condition at each point. If B1, B2 are basis elements containing x, there is B3 a basis element containing x and inside B1 intersection B2
Looking at it from the other direction where we already have a topology and ask what would be a basis/subbasis for it:
For a basis you require that every open set is a (possibly infinite) union of basis sets.
A subbasis also allows finite intersections of them.
So if $S$ is a subbasis, then every open set $U$ is of the form $U =\bigcap_{i\in I} S_i$?
Nico
And unions between them
there are more general definitions of basis and subbasis, that dont depend on a topology (these are used when defining topologies generated by a basis, subbasis), so any notion of open doesnt exist yet.
Usually, in those definitions, a basis is defined as:
a collection of sets B such that U_{V\in B} V = X
for every x in X, B1,B2\in B containing X you have B3 in B with x \in B1\cap B2
a subbasis is defined as any collection of sets S such that U_{V\in S} V = X
Yes. -- with the constraint that the I's must be finite.
this makes the distinction very clear as well, between a basis and a subbasis
For example the set of all open intervals of length 1 is a subbasis for the ordinary topology on R, but not a basis.
We defined subbasis as: $\mathscr{S} \subseteq \tau$ is a subbasis of a topology $\tau$ if ${ U_1 \cap \cdots \cap U_n : U_j \in \mathscr{S}, n \in \mathbb{N}}$ is a basis for $\tau$
Nico
What does this mean?
Because this is what's in my syllabus and I don't really understand it
Also, can we have infinite intersections?
What in it do you find unclear?
Infinite intersections of open sets are not necessarily open, so that won't work.
Because you're defining a basis
What?
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