#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 141 of 1
Nice for your sequences to have limit points I guess
all of the constructions you mentioned on the other hand, like the suspensions, joins, cones and simplices are not just based on R but also more specifically the unit interval
so I feel like that goes back to "why is the unit interval the parameter space used in homotopies"
and that I don't really have a good answer to other than "it's the space of all things you go through to go from 0 to 1"... idk if that's helpful to you
There is a good question here in that you can do homotopy theory (which was mentioned above in the list of stuff, stuff like spectra) purely combinatorially but can also use topological spaces to model stuff
yeah spectra and simplicial sets are part of the reason i ended up asking this question.
like R and [0, 1] are very good at modeling many different constructions that are important even when you dont think just about R.
I guess flipping the question, how are you motivating simplicial sets without (geometric) simplicial complexes?
How are you motivating spectra without topological spaces / subsets of R^n?
How can one care about geometry without knowing what a line segment is?
isnt scheme theory something like that though
well the order structure on R induces the topology
good question. maybe ill know the answer after i learn more homotopy theory and topos theory
so those other reasons to care about R connect
I wouldn't say so no.
This is still just taking subsets of R^n (and C^n) turning the geometry into algebra, then going full tilt with the algebra
Why R^n and C^n lol
Okay sure I guess you mean that is where you start from with motivation
Shapes are things in R^n, that's what it all comes down to
how are you motivating simplicial sets without (geometric) simplicial complexes?
maybe (weak) Kan complexes can be motivated via infty-groupoids (or infty-catergories).
Well, then I'm very intrigued how you're motivating infinity-categories without homotopies
Well homotopy feels a bit orthogonal as you can have homotopies in simplicial sets etc
Idk how you can do this lol cause every model of oo-category i know invokves simplicial sets or topological spaces
in some sense yes. but you could argue that simplices are so important precisely because they're used as the domains of higher-dimensional homotopies
if you take the singular simplicial set of a topological space you're encoding precisely the information of all points, all paths (homotopies between points), all homotopies between paths etc. in it
It generally refers to ahem
A compact connected metric space.
Continuum theory is a whole area of study
But I view continuum as usually a broad intuitive notion in this context, how to codify the idea of a continuous space
And also R wouldnt be continuum ig because its not compact lol
But you can make it locally compact instead
I mean you definitely don't need to explain this lol I do homotopy theory
Different definitions for different folks
I definitely think you need topological spaces or smth to motivate stuff lol
?
Im not talking to you?
Sorry was talking to undefined, I am also not talking to you lol
Ah sorry

Continuum theory and dimension theory are some of the older branches of point set topology and kind of related
but lemme think on this
I think a more specific question to ask first is why do we use intervals in homotopy theory, as that will then answer for instance why we define deformation retraction and path-connectedness the way we do
i found this answer that might be of interest that essentially says ther interval I is effectively the 'smallest' compact Hausdorff space to join two points.
I've heard of a notion of something known as an 'interval object' in categories, maybe someone can shed some light on other intervals one could (usefully) use?
i think its a very good question that's not so easy to answer i mean obviously topology is gonna be abstraction of spaces we care about
could you imagine some other wacked out topologies of use though?
topological category? the goal is to avoid R, not to avoid topological spaces altogether
Ah lol fair then
Though that is the worst model probably and definitely for getting to simplicial sets
and yeah, I definitely expect that you know all of this already :)
it just seemed relevant, and sometimes for questions like this reframing the basics in some particular way can already be half the answer ig
i have no idea if it's related but i always found it amusing that you can define homotopies of discrete graphs purely using the graph that looks like * - *
its very tempting for me to speak about path connectedness or deformation retract properties but I worry of sounding a lil circular. Since, path connectedness in terms of I (it is conceivable to use I ∩ Q as your interval, then boom Q is path connected). One main reason not to do this is I ∩ Q isn't compact and limits of an increasing sequence need not exist.
If then we have justified this compact condition as important, then I is the smallest way of talking about path connectedness.
Then, it's somewhat immediate why lots of R things show up because R like things are 'continuous spaces' in the sense I can get from one point to another via a path.
Then stuff like fundamental groups fall out naturally. Deformation retract falls out naturally too when you consider it as 'family of paths' with suitable continuity conditions.
every space is path-connected with respect to I ∩ Q. you can send [0,1/√2) to one end and (1/√2,1] to the other
that's kind of why connectedness or R is so important. without your interval being connected, your notion of path-connectedness won't be related to standard connectedness
then, in many such 'R defined spaces' the pieces used to build them are locally contractible in the sense there exists a neighbor hood which is contractible
which, effectively means all 'topological properties' are going to be arising from the more global connections of the space which is a desirable property. basically it means are space can be 'locally' squishy and deformed.
true
great point
but then ig we are now asking why continuity is defined the way it is
I was going to just say "no" or "I'm not" in response to that :p - but actually, good point
like i don't see a way to do it without the reals hence why the reals were created but i think one should feel in a sense that the function y=x is continuous but the step function at sqrt(2) is not
local Lipschitz continuity maybe? that seems like it would work, though of course only in very specific contexts
gotta go
(also lol sorry if my message came across as agressive oops (not that your reply looks like you are annoyed w me or anything))
no worries, it didn't read as agressive to me
yes
so that at least stops us from gluing on topologically indistinguishable points
I don't care about constraints
All relevant topologies separate points anyway
or are the Zariski topology, which still separate points in a weaker way
zariski is still T1 iirc
Yeah, give two points, each has a neighborhood not containing the other
||which is essentially the same as saying there are varieties that pass one point and not the other||
not the "good" zariski tbh
the good zariski is sober instead of T1
the Spec one?
is there an upper bound for cardinality of closure
in a reasonably well-behaved topology
if by closure you mean SCC, it's always bounded by 2^2^|X| iirc
but i'm not that well versed with SCC so specialists could probably tell you more about it
gosh such big boi talks
the SCC doesn't touch compact spaces so $\beta[0,1]$ is just $[0,1]$ itself but $\beta[0,1)$ is completely horrible 💀
PKThoron
{1} holding up the world here
beta(N) is itself horrible to begin with
i guess the {1} in [0,1] forces continuity of functions from [0,1) to behave in exactly one way
and if you get rid of that constraint it explodes?
also does munkres talk about any of this
idk either
supposedly the "maps into the interval" construction is supposed to be the intuitive one but i haven't understood it yet
mfw you glue all compact surjections and get shit
it is intuitive in the sense that it lets you "accept" it exists
these compactifications look like magic to me
i thiiiiiink the idea is that given a space X, you want all limits of sequences (or filters or nets) of X to be adjoined
so you ask a nice CHaus space K for help by mapping X into K and asking K what limit points it offers
like N into [0,1] might give you a formal limit via the sequence (1/n), but another one through a different, more oscillatory or pathological sequence which might need a different adjoined limit point (this is the part where i get a little unsure)
i honestly just went like "well i guess this is like the topology version of completion of algebraic structures" and moved on
wdym by “completion of algebraic structures”
i guess this is sort of like making an ACF by adjoining roots of every polynomial
I've been speedrunning reviewing munkres
let's go to R-Mod. an R-module I is called injective if its contravariant hom-functor Hom(_,I) preserves exact sequences
except not really because you can still make a bigger ACF
three weeks in and im at chapter 6
so if 0 -> A -> B -> C -> 0 is exact, then 0 -> Hom(C, I) -> Hom (B, I) -> Hom(A, I) -> 0 is exact
i see
I hate saying it like this 
i gtg so ill read all this later
projective modules are usually not much bigger than the base ring (like all free modules R^n are projective), but injective modules are quite different
Like ok it's true, but give the intuition before on what that means
over Z, stuff like Q and Q/Z is injective
Damn bro
note that Q/Z looks a lot like the topological interval [0,1] and it will take its role here
and i think the injective hull of a module M checks all maps into Q/Z and takes a massive product yadda yadda
and it's like the SCC
so it's maybe vaguely more enlightening than the SCC but not much
ive had a two-semester class on topology (although that was like 3 years ago due to military shit) so i should already know the stuff
but alas my brain is not braining and id forgotten what compactness is
yaa i hate this thing
oh wow this site is good
fun combinatorics problem for yall
for $n \in \mathbb N$, how many non-homeomorphic $T_0$ spaces of order $n$ are there?
lexi
1 right lol
Oh I read T0 as T1, I am stupid
"yeah you are stupid" jk
noooo
i'm jokingg dw
isnt it equal to the number of non-isomorphic posets of n elements
i think you have to be careful with number of open sets but thats probably on the right track
and maybe replace poset with lattice?
what is this refering to? edit: found #math-discussion message
that there is an upper bound on the cardinality of a space a (well-behaved) space is dense in
yeah
Ill look at yhat, is there an algebriac topology website like that
Say x < y if y is in the closure of {x} should give you a correspondence with posets
Let x <= y if every nbd of x contains y -- reflexivity is obvious, x <= y and y <= z implies x <= z (every nbd of x is a nbd of y, so is a nbd of z) and antisymmetry is given by T0. Suppose that a topology T generates a partial order <=. For each x, define U(x) = {y >= x ; y in X}. Since U(x) is the intersection of all nbds of x, it is open under T. We claim that T consists of all upper sets under <=. Indeed, any open set V is clearly an upper set, while if V is an upper set, V is the union of U(x) for x in V. Hence there is a one-to-one correspondence between partial orders and T0 topologies.
yeah thats what i was thinking
What is this from
what is what from
Whered you get the justification from
uh from my keyboard
I'm genuinely lost for part b), could anyone explain what the question is asking for and some hints on how to prove it?
Any thoughts are greatly appreciated 👍
^ I managed to prove that x_n(lambda) is cauchy, using the identity provided in part a) I guess.
wait
Okay I think I have a decent idea. The uniform continuous bit requires n0 to be independent of lambda, so I reckon that n0 should be somewhat related to M, and I can exploit the fact that it's a uniform contraction.
Okay I think I got it. Nvm!
im lost at this bit, this is a sequence
what's written there is not uniform continuity but just the definition of x_n(lambda) converging to x(lambda)
its a sequence of functions that uniformly converge
the M here is going to play the role of this expression
pretty cool exercise
d(x0, x1) has a maximum value
Well
d(x0(lambda), x1) is bounded by a finite value
So yeah then you have L^n/(1 - L) * M and then this converges to 0, so I think this is the general idea 👍
yep
the proof should look basically the same
you just have to replace certain expressions and the argument goes through verbatim
the assumption does 90% of the work for you because the constants are independent of lambda
np
Thank you for posting that
are two points topologically indistinguishable if they have the same closure?
Topologically indistinguishable means?
You mean we can't separate them by disjoint open sets
i mean they have the same set of neighborhoods
so violating T0 axiom
i believe so, yes.
i’m trying to come up with a proof
maybe showing closed nhoods are precisely the closed sets containing the closure?
and so the same for both points
say that x and y have the same closure.
let U be an open nbhd of x. if y is in X - U, then the closure of y is contained in X - U, contradiction.
this is because the closure of y is the intersection of all closed sets containing y, and X - U is closed.
ahh ok
but wait doesnt this only imply the space is not T_1
ah wait no
silly me
Is the empty set considered connected? Is it a bit 'cheap' to use that fact to obtain a counterexample?
Obviously, by definition it is connected, but I was wondering if it's considered an edge case or something and shouldn't really be used to disprove something for general sets.
uh it isn't connected
because 0 = 0 cup 0
and 0 cap 0 = 0
i.e. you can write it as the disjoint union of two empty sets
disconnected requires the sets to be non-empty right?
disjoint union of two non-empty open sets
hm okay that's fair
yes otherwise it would be a trivial notion
yeah true lol
every space $X$ would be disconnected as $X=\varnothing\sqcup X$
Convergant
anyway to answer the question at hand
it should surely be on the author of the theorem to exclude the empty set
Ideally yes. It's an exercise, stated very vaguely:
- Does the connectedness of A \cup B and A \cap B imply that of A and B?
It's easy to construct a counterexample by just choosing A and B disjoint. But it feels cheap considering A \cap B = \emptyset as connected
then i would suggest considering what happens in the case where A,B are not chosen to be disjoint
it isn't cheap as a counterexample but i think it would still be helpful
Oh right yeah it's just as easy to construct a counterexample: A = (0,1) \cup (1,2), B = [1,2), standard topology. Feels strange when you can just define A disconnected from the start.
I appreciate the help : )
It's a matter of convention, but I think there are some good reasons it should not be considered connected.
One is the same reason 1 is not prime: "a locally connected space is uniquely a disjoint union of connected sets".
Another is this alternate characterization of connected: X is connected iff Hom(X, -) preserves disjoint unions. The empty set fails this.
Mfw Hom(X, -) preserves coproducts
Neat, is this a rephrasing of the gluing lemma (in the case where the sets don't overlap)?
I've never heard this way of saying it before
I guess that's a silly question, the whole point of the gluing lemma is that the sets can overlap
where can i learn about finite topology?
like, topologies on finite sets?
they happen to be equivalent to preorders
In general topology, an Alexandrov topology is a topology in which the intersection of an arbitrary family of open sets is open (while the definition of a topology only requires this for a finite family). Equivalently, an Alexandrov topology is one whose open sets are the upper sets for some preorder on the space.
Spaces with an Alexandrov topol...
this is a good summary
that’s what i’ve learned so far
huh, today I've learned that https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Finite_topological_space is also an article that exists
is there somewhere i can learn more, like about how continuous maps behave and that sort of thing
there's actually a category equivalence, so cts. maps are precisely monotonic ones
tbh it's actually a good exercise
alright ill think about it some more 
i / wikipedia can provide hints if needed
oh yea, oeis probably has some fun factoids
nvm i just checked and it doesn't
but it does have references so idk you could dig through those maybe ?!
idk
alr im going to start taking notes and writing proofs
It's essentially just that the image of a connected set is connected
Oh wait disjoint union in the codomain not the domain duh
Omg Keith Conrad is on mathcord??!?
Awesome! 
It's actually Keith Starmer
i wish
UK prime minister Keir Starmer? 
I mean, they didn't deny it
you actually did it (I'm the instigator)
#help-10 message also fits here
awww
||isolated point?||
err wait
maybe not
yeah
i havent seen that notation before
An isolated point of A is a point that belongs to A but exists in a punctured neighborhood where no other point of A is located.
Yeah what is that notation with the empty circle? I'm not familiar either
i think that's supposed to mean "open ball of radius delta"
De-mind Neighborhood
i don't know is that correct in English
$U(x_0, \delta)={x\in S|d(x,x_0)\lt \delta}$
ComradeKonata
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
what
Oh right, yeah so just the open ball of radius delta about x_0
might be \lt, I haven't seen that before
yes, in Euclidian space
some space they don't say open ball, i don't know why either
im used to "isolated point" of a set as an adherent point of a set that is not a limit point
a point in a metric space is isolated iff its character is 1
character of a point is the lowest cardinality for a base at that point
ah
me either
character of a space is the supremum of the cardinalities of its points
so space is first countable iff its character is \leq \aleph_0
i see
oh
and an isolated point has a character of 1 because it is clopen?
in the subspace topology of the set
yea so the singleton of the point is open
not necessarily
at least in a metric space
yea

spaces in which all points have a smallest nbhd are called Alexandrov spaces and they are pretty fun
omg i love alexandrov spaces
aka pre-ordered sets
lol
posets if they happen to be T0
alexandrov spaces are spaces where an arbitrary intersection of open sets is open
not just finite intersection
and so infinite union of closed sets is closed, as well
Like an inductive set?
omg
a T1 alexandrov space is always discrete (every set is open)
I've only just begun to understand metric spaces, normed spaces, and inner product spaces.
so T1 alexandrov spaces are not very interesting
how is this different from Hausdorff? Excuse me if thats a dumb question, I'm also new to PStop
it’s slightly weaker than being Hausdorff
Ah wait so is T2 Hausdorff?
Yes.
yes
that's cool
T2 and Hausdorff refer to the same separation axiom.
T0 is "for any two points x,y there is a open set containing one that does not contain the other"
oh hell man, I just want to understand mathematical analysis
i believe the Zariski topology has closed points but isn’t Hausdorff (in general)
😭
i think of T0 as a basic sanity check on topological spaces
Alright thanks I'll have a look
non-T0 spaces are nasty
a very good example of a T1 space that is not hausdorff is the cofinite topology
i think the SpecR incarnation of zariski can have non-closed points
at least on R^n it holds
the 'normal' roots of polynomials one is just cofinite topology in the 1D case
yea
i’m not so familiar with spec stuff or algebraic geometry
theres the weird SpecR zariski where prime ideals that are non-maximal are non-closed points
me either
weird
algebraic geometry is scary
dont put a topology on the set of ideals of a ring
its weird
quit zariski today
i like reading about topologies in between T0 and T1
or between T0 and T2
you can certainly get some interesting ones
any poset gives you a free T0 alexandroff topology
do you have a copy of Counterexamples in Topology?
no... i really want one
ah, yea. it’s a fun one
yeah, put it on the prime ideals instead
put it on the maximal ideals to ragebait modern ag purists
Today I wrote in my memoire a part about Stone-Čech's compactifcation of N, which is a compact hausdorff space and separable but which doesn't have a countable basis of open sets. So you still don't have a copy of the book you wish but I hope you learnt something from my message 🙂
Oh, or another funny one : there are Banach space which have isometric duals but which are not even isomorphic to each other
in a sense, it's the maximal chaus separable space
Like C(K) where K is countable metrizable compact
Yes it is, so it shouldn't be metrizable 
Life is painfull sometimes
i guess countability has something to do with metrizability. i wonder if there's some program/yoga to examine filtrations of non-metrizable things in the same way that some people are out to add axioms about cardinalities other than countable and uncountable.
"Something to do with" is simple: metrizable spaces are always first countable.
If I have a Manifold M that has a boundary (dM) and an open subset of U of M, is it true that the subspace of U n dM of U is the same topology as U n dM that is a subspace of dM?
I want to say that:
1.) U n dM can be a subspace of U and U can be subspace of M
2.) U n dM can be a subspace of dM and dM can be a subspace of M
=> both "versions" of U n dM "agree" in terms of their topologies because they are just subspaces of M. Is this accurate?
Yes, whenever you have subspaces U < V < W, the subspace topology on U is the same wether you think of it as a subspace of V or W
one of the many little topology lemmas like that that are used everywhere but rarely ever explicitly stated
Indeed, instead construct a locale whose points happen to be the prime ideals of the ring.
Hey, can someone help me on something in DMs?
why not ask the question here
one day i'll understand locales
oh its just a complete lattice without infinitary infs
its just the uhh
poset lattice of open sets
and its bounded
"product of locales" is the categorical product?
limit of two-object discrete diagram
i mean the "finite product of locales" they describe is the product object in the category of locales they give on the first slide
ah, no
oh i forgot lattices are categories
oh wait they actually have a really clean definition
small, thin, skeletal category with all products and coproducts
how does this multiplication make any sense
you define a times b to be a repeated operation applied to a
but how many times?
b times? b is an element of a topological space, that makes no sense
Uhh, well, non-standard clearly isn't an excuse either, uhh, damn.
also what's even the point of any of this
did you write this?
Yes, I'll show you where it leads me.
also how do you define this delta operation, you say it isn't a measure but then what is it?
I'll "try" to elaborate as far as my understanding goes, the Heine-Borel theorem, it states that a compact set is closed and bounded, think of it this way, the general definition of compactness recreates the effect of "boundedness" for general topological spaces, that's what I was leaning on.
Now look, forgive the innacuracy of terms for a moment, I'm still just beginning doing this.
i see
A solution to all of these issues would be to have a measure on the space and consider real valued functions, but then that's just the Lebesgue integral of course
is this for pointless topology?
Um, well measures break in exotic spaces, you get my point?
And I'm trying to recreate a more general Riemann.
Or Henstock-Kurzweil depending on how you think of it.
They don't really break though
measures on locally compact Hausdorff spaces are quite well behaved
What about non-hausdorff, like here.
the bigger issue is that your construction just doesn't really make sense
multiple of the key components are not defined or ill defined
I know, that's why I asked for help.
What are some of the key components one needs?
Fractals, overlapping sets, the long line, the comb space, black holes at singularities.
Um, I am explicitly trying to not use measures.
idk to me it's not even clear how to salvage any of this
Can it be developed? Or should I just break it down and rebuild from scratch?
There isn't really anything to develop
It's basically impossible to make differentiation work on arbitrary topological spaces
at least in any sensible way
Defining it as the inverse of the integral.
what even is point set topology?
No, that isn't it, that's not what I'm looking for.
I'll just grab my shit and leave.
If you don't add additional structure to your space you won't be able to define anything sensible
Topological spaces aren't defined to be able to support such a theory
p much every sensible integration theory relies on the real numbers in some way as well, and that's for a good reason
general topology
it's pretty hard to do differentiation and integration without some linearity
Linearity in what sense?
I want to say when you have an integral you can differentiate it.
Integrals and derivatives aren't really very cleanly opposites in general
so even if you have integrals you don't automatically have derivatives
for instance arbitrary measure spaces don't have derivatives
That’s what I’m trying to do, but without Hausdorff, connectedness, or countability.
idk if you can get something that looks much like anything useful with such a general topological space
vector space for example
Oh I thought they were talking about linearity of functions, turns out no.
you would like a norm as well
No, I don’t want norms either.
Personally okay, I don’t want them here.
well the derivative operator is usually linear in some sense but i suppose you probably don't need that
same with integral
though i guess you can work with the ring of real-valued functions out of your space or something
you probably want some idea of distance
or stay and we can talk more about spaces that aren't Hausdorff, connected, or countable look like. perhaps looking at examples will help. i'm short on examples, although the countable-compliment topology may satisfy some of these conditions.
The etale space.
Or, for example, being able to handle integrals and derivatives over disconnected domains, like black holes everywhere except exactly the singularity.
This would have PDEs hold on a punctured space.
okay, algebraic geometry (which i think is what sheaves are) is a little advanced for me. i tried some independent reading a few years ago, and i think i processed the definition of a sheaf, but i haven't retained it.
(this is not an invitation to explain algebraic geometry: i will probably loop back around to it later)
[insert comment about branched manifolds]
wrt to geometry and singularities
In reality, what I am trying to do is to create a definition of absolute continuity for functions that are traditionally discontinuous.
That’s the point.
traditionally, absolute continuity implies continuity. is part of the joga to create a definition of continuity for functions that are traditionally discontinuous?
in other words, i don't see why you say absolute continuity instead of non-traditional continuity, but then again, idk Hartshorne at all.
😢
That’s what I was trying to say.
You see, the thing is, I wished to say that that delta thing up top in the image was dependent on the space we were in, but generally, we can not compute it for the general plug and chug case, it a bit of a non-standard multiplication.
It’s meant to work for other elements.
i have saved the pdf and will hopefully be reminded to look at it once i get around the cleaning up my Downloads
You like the idea?
i'm open!
Uhh, what do you mean by that?
i guess it's just what some people say when they've had a lot of caffeine? i got the idea that it was important to be this way from somewhere..
..also, it could be used as in open-minded, which i generally am, even when i haven't had two red bulls at midnight.
open in which topology
“Weak”-differentiation, need I say more?
Question asks to show a circle is not homeomorphic to any subset of R. Since S1 is connected we must have A \subset R an interval. It's easy to derive a contradiction then by removing a point from A. However, for the singleton case, since removing the element from the singleton leaves you with the empty set which is itself connected (and pathwise), I'm not sure where the contradiction comes from.
Could you use compactness actually?
Empty set is compact but S1 with a point removed isn't(?)
for the singelton case you can use cardinality argument
Oh actually this is dumb right? A set with one element cannot have a bijection to S1
yeah, thanks
Does compactness also work? Although, it is obviously more work
but here what is the contradiction if it is not singelton?
because what if you remove end point?
You can just choose the midpoint right?
If its the non-singleton case, it should always have a mid point
yes
I think an amusing way to see this is how like
For any two points a, b of S^1, there is a homeomorphism from S^1 to itself which sends a to b
(Just rotate)
This is not true for [c,d] lol unless c = d where yes cardinality
Actually there is a funnier way
Wait sorry why can that not exist for [c,d]?
E.g. Intermediate value theorem basically
ah right okay
There's no homeomorphism that sends c to (c+d)/2, because only one of those has the property that removing it disconnects the space.
You take the value c and d somewhere in [c,d] and between there you take the whole interval, so to be injective your only option is to send endpoints to endpoints
ahh yeah that makes sense
In fact there is a funny variant of this argument: every map [c,d] -> [c,d] has a fixed point
But definitely not true for S^1
Haha that's quite neat, definitely a much quicker argument than what I wrote down
is every map on that space having a fixed point a topological property then?
i think yeah
you can prove it
Sure, because if you have two homeomorphic spaces X and Y, and a map X->X with no fixed point, then the composition Y->X->X->Y would have no fixed point either.
this is kinda reminding me of “circle is a topological group but interval isnt”
would the boundary of A = {x in Rn : |x| = 1} be A itself by boundary meaning each open neighbourhood of some x in A contains points both in A and outside of A
you can also probably show its the boundary of the unit ball and use the fact that boundary is idempotent
It's not idempotent, though. The boundary of [0,1] cap Q in R is [0,1], but the boundary of [0,1] is {0,1}.
I got this to the point where we just need to show $f(V(M)) = V(f(M))$, but how do we do that set-theoretically? We defined $$V(M) \coloneqq {\mathfrak p \subset A \mid M \subseteq \mathfrak p},$$ so we need to show $${\mathfrak p \subset A \mid f(M) \subseteq \mathfrak p} = f\left({\mathfrak p \subset A \mid M \subseteq \mathfrak p}\right),$$ but how would we do that?
ILikeMathematics
f(M) lives in the ring B, so your prime ideals on the left hand side need to sit in B
Dont we just need to replace M with f(M)?
they live in different rings
M is a subset of A, so it can only be contained in prime ideals p in A
but f(M) is a subset of B, so it can only be contained in prime ideals q in B
so I'd write the set on the left hand side as ${\mathfrak{q} \subset B \mid f(M) \subseteq \mathfrak{q} }$, take an arbitrary element $\mathfrak{q}$ in that and show that it's in the right hand side
PKThoron
and vice versa
$U(x_0, \delta)={x\in S|d(x,x_0)\lt \delta}$
ComradeKonata
$U(x_0, \delta)=\{x\in S|d(x,x_0)\lt \delta\}$
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and I'll forget about whatever was undefined.
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what's wrong
better for #latex-help
anyway \lt is a mathjax thing, not a latex thing
in latex just use <
i see
if you insist on using \lt for < you can just add \newcommand{\lt}{<} to your preamble
ok, i'm trying to understand some results regarding nowhere-dense subsets
as part of trying to understand BCT
this is the definition i'm using
is this proof correct?
here's another equivalent characterization
i'd be happy to hear more efficient proofs of these as well
Maybe this is not what you want, you can simplify things by appealing to the analogues for usual density instead of nowhere density. Like it's standard that TFAE: 1) you have closure the whole space or 2) you have nonempty intersection with every nonempty open. then from that youhave like
S is nowhere dense = for all U, U \cap S dense in U <=> U \cap S \cap V nonempty for all V open in U, which proves (1)
and then (2) similarly since closures behave well with going to a subset
but yes your proofs all look good
i see i see
is this proof fine?
i'm using this to show that the nowhere-dense subsets form an ideal
i can include this for completeness but it's very short
also this is a cool result, it gives me some nice intuition for what classes of subsets are nowhere-dense
intuitively it's like $\partial U$ is of "codimension one", and so should be negligible
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
yeah exactly
nowhere density is also useful for proving a lot of "obvious" results that are actually slightly not obvious if you think about how to prove them rigorously
oh like what?
for instance showing that finite or countable unions of lines in R^2 can't contain an open ball
I actually needed a result like this for a group theory project once (specifically I needed the fact that a countable number of great circles could not cover the entire sphere)
for the countable case you need BCT (or you can use measure theory as well)
oh hm
so could you prove it like
a line in R^2 is nowhere-dense
thus a finite union of lines is nowhere-dense
and so can't have nonempty interior?
yeah
interesting
so i'm still trying to understand the definition of baire space
so would statement 4 be analogous to "every nonempty open set has positive measure"?
along with this analogy I always like to think about baire spaces as spaces where open sets are "full"
yeah exactly
wdym by "full"?
idk if I really have a precise meaning, getting a good analogy is tricky without just making the measure space connection
but for example in the rational numbers
open sets are kinda full of holes
so intuitively the open sets kinda lack structure
or mass or however you think about it
of course there's a strong connection with completeness from both the BCT for metric spaces as well as the one for locally compact hausdorff spaces
right yeah
since local compactness also gives you a sort of "fullness" to open sets
so i should interpret the baire category theorem as telling you that
complete metric spaces have "full" open sets
and locally compact hausdorff spaces also have "full" open sets?
yeah that's kinda how I think about it
i see
I think you mentioned the word negligible in a previous conversion, that's a good one as well. In baire spaces open sets cannot be (topologically) negligible
yeah i got that from here:
In mathematics, an ideal on a set is a family of subsets that is closed under subsets and finite unions. Informally, sets that belong to the ideal are considered "small" or "negligible".
The concept is generalized both by ideals on a partially ordered set (an ideal on a set
X
{\displaystyle X}
is an id...
nowhere-dense subsets form an ideal
and meagre subsets form a sigma-ideal
yeah sets of measure zero are also a sigma-ideal so that tracks with the measure space connection as well
the distinction between why countable matters a lot more than just finite I think is maybe a bit trickier to motivate
though countability is far more robust than finiteness in general which I think partly explains whats going on
and countability is the correct cardinality for summation so obviously comes up a lot
I mean I guess every nonempty open subset is dense in itself
So couldn’t be nowhere-dense
I think I started to build more intuition the more problems I saw that used BCT
I had a cool problem on a recent assignment that was to show if $f:(0,\infty)\to\mathbb{R}$ is continuous and $\lim_{n\to\infty} f(nx)=0$ for all $x>0$ (here $n$ is a natural number), then $\lim_{x\to\infty} f(x)=0$
Blake
which uses BCT
in general whenever you have sort of pointwise condition you can use BCT to pass to a more uniform condition
Yeah I need to figure out how that works at some point
Relevant thread that is quite fun to read through: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/165696/your-favourite-application-of-the-baire-category-theorem
The Baire category theorem has always been weird to me because you usually use it in a proof by contradiction which is non-constructive... so even though you can prove that "most" objects satisfy X property, you can't produce a single one that has the property!
Lol
yeah it's some kind of eventㅤ
but you can get around it if you're sufficiently smartㅤ
she says when making use of a word with five letters
*she
my bad
Some kind of eventㅤ is how I'm gonn'a describe aprilㅤ1st from now on
canonㅤevent
Lol
it's stillㅤtrans day of visbility for me and i can't even say transㅤsmh
I'm just gona type the message in a different server and send the screenshot here if I'm talking it is not worthy of the effort
yeah you can do that or use texitㅤ
it genuinely pisses me off
tspmoㅤ
stop flexing pls
How do you do it with texitt?
Like you send the bot a message?
yes exactly, and then you can just forward it to the channel of your choiceㅤ
i dont get what everyone's issueㅤ is
mostest skillest issuest thingest I'vest everest heardest
fuck i messed up the joke
yeah it will work better if you can get it to happen at the end of the phraseㅤ
that way it's not as obvious what you're doingㅤ
ooh yes i have seen this resultㅤ
it was on one of my old problem sheets i believe?
had no idea how to do it though, i didn't understand BCT that well back then
Lol convergant is ur nick purposely spelled that way
no. I was bad at spelling when I was thirteen and have not changed it
Valid
it does work in my favour sometimes. for example the correct spelling is in use as a username many a time on different websites, but my incorrect spelling is not
Ah lol nice
Cheater
theyr arent going to allow using words which split penta times?
that was a stretch but also wait I'm confused was it supposed to give me problems for sending a 5 letter word lol
Would the results of a real analysis course on metric spaces be covered in a general topology book?
I assume yes right
Yeah it's a poor April fools joke. You can opt out of it by adorning a poop colored role in the channels & roles section
I assume many of the results in analysis are corollaries of generalizations in tolology
bruh the five letter thingamabob worked now
Maybe they got rid of it
but also topology has little to say abou't some stuffs that's more metric spaces specific
uhhh not quite
there are parts where you do have to do actual analysis
well yes but theres many things that follow from topology
like im'age of compact is compact is a staple of real analysis and trivial in topology
but you should stil'l see the analysis proofs it is good for you
ah sorr'y I see what happened. I originally said "thin'k" as in this is what I am currently thinking but then changed it to assume bc of the word thin'g lmao. I realize it seem's I mean't assume without actually knowing topology LOL
okay I'm getting a poop role this is horrivle
I am now poop
okay anyways yeah there are some interesting metric space phenomena topology doesn't really see
i think this is a great example of when topology should be used
but you should definitely see things first in metric spaces
this book proves this theorem in the most horrible way
or else topology just looks like nonsense
also things like completeness are just invisible to topology
which is more or less the only reason to care about the real numbers, lol
well it is nonsense but it looks like nonsense too if you haven't seen analysis throughly
what about the idea that R is a perfect set?
is that not a topology thing
it is but what does this have to do with completeness
like completeness means cauchy sequences converge but a topological space has no notion of a cauchy sequence
R is more interesting than being complete, it contains all its limit points and contains only limit points"" is what i meant
i forgot this tho, cuz topological spaces dont necessarily have a metric
yeah that's the whole reason to like them bc metrics suck lmao
yeah the idea of closedness/openness/limit points/isolated points is thrown out the window without a metric
blocked
no
ok fixed
wdym? topology still defined closed and open sets and limit poins and isolated ooints
I've heard about like one application of perfect sets and I don't even remember what it is
idk how far away two random points in CP^67 × S^420 / some messed up equivalence relation are
im only familiar with those concepts as an assessment of how close elements are to eachother (e.g., a set is open if every element has infinitely many elements close to it roughly speaking)
wouldnt that require a metric
ah does topology just define open sets more generally
an open set in a topological space is just a member of the topology
a topology is very abtract, it's a collection of sets that satisfies 3 properties
I think in analysis one gets taught that metrics measure how far away two points are. And then in topology one is supposed to either believe that goes away or that you should think of inclusion of two points in the same open set as meaning they're close, in which case you're wondering how that makes any sense at all
namely that:
- empty set and X are in the topology
- arbitrary unions of open sets are open
- finite intersections of closed sets are closed
I would argue saying a metric measures distance is already nonsensical bc the metric is arbitrary
arbitrary unions of open sets are open
finite intersections of closed sets are closed
ah ok these were corollaries for the definition i learned in my analysis book
x is a limit point of A if every open set containing x (neighborhood) intersects A
yep
yeah exactly topology just defines it to be that and it is a theorem of real analysis that open sets in metric spaces are open sets in the underlying topological space
isolated if there exists a neighborhood that doesnt intersect A, etc...
like if I replace a metric d with d/(1+d) this is still a metric and has the same topology but these games make any physical interpretation of a metric impossible
over R, perfect implies closed implies complete, which is what i was getting at here. but i'd assume this isn't true in topology due to the general nature of these new definitions
well complete isn't a thing in topology
yeah makes sense
but perfect does imply closed... doesn't perfect require closed as a hypothesis? I'm forgetting
topological spaces aren't apriori equipped to handle the notion of cauchy sequences
yeah a set is perfect if it's closed and contains only limit points (in my analysis book)
you can steer further in the topology-ish direction and talk about uniform spaces
and cauchy nets
Is there0 a name for the opposite of a nowhere-dense0 subset? One whose0 interior is dense0, I think0
Wait what happened to my green0colour
not to my knowledge
Oh hm I think0
Nowhere-dense0 subsets are equivalently subsets of closed sets with empty0 interior
So, their0 complements should be supersets of dense0 open sets?
yea
Interesting
everywhere dense0 is the same as dense0, sadly0
Yeah I realised
I know that sometimes open dense0 subsets reflect a “generic” thing0?
alternatively nowhere dense9 are sets whose1 closures1 are co-dense1 (a clever way to confuse anyone who is listening)
codense has a different meaning in category theory
ok i think0 i have a better understanding of baire0 spaces
does anyone have any recommendations for sources that cover0 the proofs of BCT? should i just use the wikipedia links0?
I propose we rename them to "bear spaces" for word-length reasons
In my lectures I mostly followed the approach in Munkres, I believe.
I like that it's basically the same argument for complete metric spaces and for LCH spaces, just the particularities of why the decreasing family has nonempty intersection differ slightly.
(The 'following lemming' in question is this:)
(also, Munkres's assumptions are "compact Hausdorff or complete metric", but the argument only uses properties that hold in locally compact regular or completely pseudo-metrizable spaces as well)
what are your thoughts on this ?
omg we can only communicate in non five lettered-wordles
engelking proves both at the same time smile1
i like cech-complete spaces its fun
cech-complete?
a (tychonoff) space1 is cech complete if it is a G_\delta1 in its stone1-cech compacticifcation
(or, equivalently, in any compactitication, or in all compactifications)
or, equivalently
locally compact spaces are cech complete because they have an alexandroff compactification in which1 they are trivially G_\delta1
nyo thats1 just completely metrizable
tough1 question
for the same reason BCT is about1 countable unions i would1 say
but thats1 a non answer1
I'm not sure if it's related, but as a side remark: a subspace of a completely metrizable is itself completely metrizable if and only if it's G_delta
(also another formulation of BCT is "in a Bair espace, intersection of countably many dennse G_deltas is also a dennse G_delta)
Basically what I'm saying, the concept of G_delta shows up a lot
As a fun corollary, the standard topology on the set of irrational numbers is completely metrizable
(but on the set of rational numbers it's not)
(Exercise: construct such a metric explicitly).
Hmmm, not sure this works:
||Define d(r, s) to be 1/n for the smallest n with a/n an element of [r - (s-r) , s + (s-r)] (for s>r)||.
||Now d(r, s) >= |r-s|, so if a sequence is not Cauchy in R it's not Cauchy with this metric either||
||Say a sequence is Cauchy in R. Then it converges to some real number. Let's first consider when it converges to a rational a/n.||
||Then for any r in the sequence there will be a later s more than halfway closer to a/n, so d(r, s) >= 1/n. So the sequence is not Cauchy, which fits with it not converging||.
||Now if the sequence converges to an irrational, then for any 1/n we can pick epsilon less than a third of the distance to nearest a/m with m<n. Then the sequence eventually gets within that epsilon in the usual metric, and then d(r, s) < 1/n so the sequence is Cauchy in the new metric and converges to that irrational.||
Hmm. I don't think that's actually a metric.
Let e be a sufficiently tiny irrational and consider the three points a=0.01+e, b=0.02+e, c=0.03+e.
Then d(a,c) = 1, but d(a,b) and d(b,c) are both <= 1/25. So the triangle inequality fails.
(For full disclosure, I don't have a solution ready myself).
Yeah, figures.
I feel like it might be possible to modify this to work, but don't have the energy to think more about it now
For what it's worth, here's an idea I'm trying to make work: Let $\bR^$ be $\bR\cup{\infty}$ and define $$f:\bR^\to\bR^*: f(x) = x - 1/x$$ (with "Riemann-sphere arithmetic"). For $x\in\bR$ consider the sequence $$\tilde{x} = (x,f(x),f(f(x)),\ldots,f^n(x),\ldots).$$ Then the set $$A={x\in\bR\mid \tilde{x}\text{ is eventually }\infty}$$ is countable, unbounded, and dense, and is therefore order isomorphic to $\bQ$. Thus $\bR\setminus A$ is homeomorphic to $\bR\setminus\bQ$ by standard techniques (though it takes a bit of violence to force that into the word "explicitly"). Now, I think a metric on $\bR\setminus A$ is given by
$$d(x,y) = \sum_{n\ge 0} \max(|\tilde{x}_n-\tilde{y}_n|, 2^{-n})$$
and my hunch is this can be proved to induce the subspace topology on $\bR\setminus A$ and be complete.
Troposphere
(And yes, that is super handwavy and full of inaccuracies).
Rly real analysis vibes 
Is the projection X ⨯ Y → Y open for any topological spaces X and Y?
A basic open set of XxY is of the form UxV where V is open in Y, so the image of any basic open set is open
extend this to all open sets
That checks out. Thanks!
No problem!
Let f: X → Y be a continuous function. Show that f^{-1}(int(A)) = int(f^{-1}(A)) for all A ⊆ Y iff cl(f^{-1}(A)) = f^{-1}(cl(A)) for all A ⊆ Y iff f is open.
What's up with the "symmetry breaking" here? If we look at images then f(cl(B)) = cl(f(B)) for all B ⊆ X iff f is closed, while one direction of int(f(B)) = f(int(B)) for all B ⊆ X doesn't hold at all (in all other cases, the left-in-right inclusion held for any continuous function f) and the other holds if f is open. Which is also pretty asymmetric, actually.
OK, I think the resolution is that open and closed are really not self-dual (we didn't dualise image to the left adjoint ot preimage, and if we do open will dualise to itself and likewise for closed).
Note that on all subsets, preimage has both adjoints. By composing with inclusion-interior and closure-inclusion adjunctions, preimage has a left adjoint image-closure for closed sets and a right adjoint coimage-interior for open sets.
These two conditions are equivalent because preimage preserves complements. They say that the "unexpected" adjunctions exist: left adjoint (image) for open sets and right adjoint (coimage) for closed sets.
OTOH, the first condition here (map being closed) says that the expected adjoints work without using an additional closure/interior, which is rather different.
Another condition we could impose is that the "unexpected" adjoints exist without requiring them to circumvent the adjunction to inclusion.
Is there a continuous map f: X → Y such that for every open set of X, its image has a unique smallest open neighbourhood, but is not always open?
There's lots of trivial examples of these with things like indiscrete topologies or excluded point topologies(let X be a space and Y a set, let F:X to Y be constant, with F(x)=y. Define a subset of Y to be open iff it does not contain y.)
Ah, this was really excessively complex. Instead, take the following metric on $\bR\setminus\bQ$:
$$d'(x,y) = |x-y| + \sum_{n=1}^\infty \max\Bigl(2^{-n}, |\cot(n\pi x)-\cot(n\pi y)|\Bigr)$$
Each term of this separately satisfies the triangle inequality, so it's a metric.
To see that this is equivalent to the standard metric, we show that each ordinary open ball in $\bR\setminus\bQ$ contains a $d'$-ball with the same center, and vice versa. The first direction is immediate since $d'(x,y)\ge|x-y|$. For "vice versa", consider a $d'$-ball with center $x$ and radius $\varepsilon$. Split the metric into two parts, where one has finitely many terms, enough that the infinite tail can never exceed $\varepsilon/2$ due to the $2^{-n}$ bound. Then the set of points where the finite part sums to at most $\varepsilon/2$ is open in the usual topology (because $x$ is irrational so $\cot(n\pi x)$ is always finite).
Finally, a sequence that converges to $p/q$ in $\bR$ cannot be $d'$-Cauchy, due to the term with $\cot(q/pi x)$.
Troposphere
Hmm, this second example is non-trivial enough to convince me that it's more general than being open.
Is it true that an arbitrary directed family of non-empty open sets has non-empty intersection in a topological space which is compact and has a basis of compact open subsets?
Which is by the way homeomorphic to $\omega^{\omega}$ for the product topology !
La Chouette Aveugle
in general, if it is open, then it is not compact (as long as the open set is not the space itself)
(or empty)
In every metric space, it is the case for example
Consider [0,1] U [2,3] with the subset [0,1].
But if you have compact basis of neighborhood, then, as long as the open sets are not empty(and decreasing), the intersection remains non empty
Oh yeah, I should have said not clopen
If it is compact then, in a hausdorff space, it is closed, so for it to be open it has to be clopen
Thank you
Ah right, via continued fractions.
And that gives a simpler (ultra)metrization too: d(a,b) = the reciprocal of the length of the common prefix of the continued fraction expansions of a and b.
Indeed, I am considering spaces which are not Hausdorff (the underlying topological spaces of (quasicompact) schemes).
Haha yes ! But there are other ways to show they are homeomorphic, with the Lusin schemes for example
Ok, just in case, what do you mean by "directed family" ?
For any U, V in the family, there is W in the family with W ⊆ U ∩ V.
I think it is not empty
Yeah, it's wild
Is there any other hyptohesis about the space or not ?
'cause if the space you are studying is quasi-compact then there might be something we can do with ultrafilters
Hi! why when talking about topologic spaces with a metric, it is said that every open x, it has a open ball of radius r, why is this?
Have you met the definition of the topology induced by a metric?
This is why I'm asking it
I mean
Why a topology with a metric is a topology that has open balls?
I don't know if I'm explaining myself
So far I know that every metric space induces a topological space
Ah, this is to do with the characterisation of continuous functions between metric spaces in terms of open subsets
Let $M$ and $N$ be metric spaces, and $f : M \to N$ a function. Then $f$ is metric-continuous iff $f$ is topology-continuous
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
I'm sorry but I haven't reached that level of topology yet
I don't know what metric continous is
I can imagine
but I don't formally know
ah, metric-continuous is the epsilon-delta definition of continuity
topology-continuous is the "preimage of open set is open" definition
I see
but I still don't know why it has to have open balls to induce a topologic space
the point is that, if you use open balls, then the topology-continuous definition agrees with the metric-continuous one
you could define a topology from a metric in another way, of course
It's sober. I believe that that's it.
but then the notion of continuity you get might be different to the one you started with
i would recommend showing that:
- if f is epsilon-delta continuous, then the preimage of every open set is open
- if the preimage of every open set is open, then f is epsilon-delta continuous
I didn't see continuity in topological spaces
😅
this is my first chapter in topology
in a metric space the topology's base is given by open balls centered at any point with any radius, and the usual condition for open set follows by the definition of a base
unless specified otherwise this is always the topology for a metric space
mmm
but my question is
Why it has to be open balls?
why not just simply points with no open balls?
why that definition?
it will be clear once you see continuity in topological spaces
like that is the motivation for the open ball def
its modeled after R and R^n
these are the primordial examples of metric spaces
ok i want to understand pseudometric spaces a little better
so, if $X$ is a set, then a function $d : X \times X \to [0, \infty)$ is a pseudometric if it is symmetric and satisfies the triangle inequality? but we no longer require $d(x, y)= 0 \implies x= y$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
i assume the definitions of convergent sequence and cauchy sequence are the same, it's just that you might not have uniqueness of limits? like your space isn't guaranteed to be hausdorff
where i assume the topology is still generated by "open balls"
more or less
and a complete pseudometric space is one where every cauchy sequence is convergent?
basically all the terminology carries over as usual from my understanding
yeah it's more or less the same
the most common example that you get is seminormed spaces
more useful than pseudometrics are topologies induced by a family of pseudometrics
since those can actually be Hausdorff
gauge spaces, then?
though you lose first countability in general so things get a bit more delicate
yeah I guess so, haven't heard that term before
they show up a lot in functional analysis since many natural function spaces are not described by a single norm but by a family of seminorms
so hm
if i have a family of pseudometrics, what is meant by the topology induced by this family?
and, could you give some examples?
you take the open balls as a subbase
Yeah, so the base would be finite intersections of open balls
There's a lot of examples let me give a few
so if you have a single pseudometric, these form a base right? not just a subbase
but if you have multiple, i can see why the intersection of an open ball in pseudometric 1 with another in pseudometric 2 might not be a union of open balls
maybe
-
the space of all sequences, where you have a seminorm $p_n(x)= |x_n|$ for each natural number N. This gives the product topology
-
the set of continuous functions on a locally compact space. For each compact set, you have a seminorm $p_K(f)=\sup_{x\in K}|f(x)|$. This gives the topology of uniform convergence on compact sets. This is particularly useful for spaces of holomorphic functions, where local uniform convergence is the correct notation
-
set of smooth functions from R to R. For each compact set K and $k\geq $0, define $p_K(f)=\sup_{x\in K}|f^{(k)}(x)|$. This is similar to the previous example but now you need local uniform convergence of all derivatives.
-
If E is any normed space, then the weak topology on E is described by seminorms $p_f(x)=|f(x)|$ for $f\in E^*$
Blake
(a seminorm induces a pseudometric in the obvious way)
Frechet space is just a locally convex space described by a countable family of seminorms that is complete so yeah
It's equivalent to having a complete translation invariant metric and being locally convex
but most frechet spaces are more naturally described by seminorms than metrics
makes sense
because if you have a countable family of seminorms then you can get the metric pretty easily
yeah its not super pretty
oh those are very interesting examples
Well, there are simply points. The open balls are not themselves elements of the space. They're just helper concepts that participate in the description of which topology it is we're talking about. But once that topology has been made, the open balls are not different from any other open sets of the topology.
i see, so a countable family of seminorms can be "compressed" into a single one?
more examples of locally convex spaces: the schwarz space (for any pair of natural numbers you get a seminorm $p_{n,m}(f)=\sup_{x\in\mathbb{R}}|x^nf^{(m)}(x)|$)
Blake
Not into a single seminorm, but into a metric
a finite family of seminorms can be combined into a single seminorm
ah ok
(just add them)
in general these spaces are not normable
right right
you can see this with spaces of differentiable functions, the space C^k for k<\infty has a natural norm that incorporates all derivatives, but C^\infty does not
they dont obey homogeneity, so balls dont scale in the way you might expect
very roughly speaking
ahhh right
in general these spaces are useful when you have an infinite number of features you want to incorporate into your topology, but none individually give you a norm
fascinating, i see
i was just trying to learn about these for BCT but it seems they're useful in lots of analysis
oh yeah if youre doing functional analysis it shows up plenty
specifically about how every complete pseudometric space is a baire space
They're called locally convex spaces for reasons (it turns out the condition is equivalent to having a neighborhood base of 0 conssiting of absolutely convex open sets)
iirc the condition is that a TVS is normable iff the origin is contained in a bounded convex open set
something like that yeah
ah because you can use this to define the norm by scaling?
every absolutely convex absorbing set gives you a seminorm via the Minkowski functional
it has something to do with minkowski functional if i remember how the proof from rudin goes
so there's a correspondence between the geometry and seminorms
It's very hard to remember all of the different conditions for tvs's ngl but that's the basic idea
yeah theres a whole laundry list of results lol
the point is that any norm should have to respect those two properties in a "reasonable" way because of homogeneity
otherwise your open sets might scale in a way that look more "spikey" than nice convex sets
oh that's a neat perspective
so you can think of the space of cauchy sequences of a metric space as a pseudometric space?
and then the completion is precisely the standard way to convert a pseudometric space into a metric space
This also comes up with the L^p spaces
yeah in fact L^p is the de facto example
yeah i was thinking
f = 0 lebesgue a.e. iff L^1 norm of f is zero
and it comes up all the time when working with hilbert spaces, you often take a semi-inner product and form the quotient + completion to get a Hilbert space
so you modulo out by f ~ g iff f = g lebesgue a.e. to get a banach space
interesting
anytime people talk about L^p this identification is implicitly present
so pseudometric spaces help separate out the steps of completion, rather than doing it in one go?
this is why it is useless to talk about pointwise definitions of such functions as well
unless you have some condition like continuity that forces a unique representative from the equivalence class
that's quite cool
the main example for this kind of thing for Hilbert spaces is the GNS construction (and GNS-type constructions, which show up everywhere in the areas of math I'm interested in)
The idea is that if you have a *-algebra A and a linear functional $f:A\to\mathbb{C}$ that is positive in the sense that $f(a^*a)\geq 0$ for all $a\in A$, then you get a semi-inner product $(a,b)\mapsto f(b^*a)$
Blake
and from this you can form a hilbert space H, and a representation of the algebra on H
oh ok
(it is this construction that is used to show that every C*-algebra is isomorphic to a subalgebra of the bounded operators on some Hilbert space, you form this construction for all (normalized) positive functionals and take a direct sum)
Ive that the speed of a curve γ at x on a metric space is the limit limε→0 d(γ(t+ε),γ(t))/|ε|=v(t). How can i show that the length of the curve on [a, b] is the integral of v(t) if its continuous?
What do you mean by length exactly here? Just the difference between the star and end point?
If so that's the fundamental theorem of analysis
I guess there's some problems with the speed always being positive, so I guess that's not what you mean by length...(?)
No, the sup over partitions
In a metric space
For a curve γ:[α, β]→Χ
Isn't that basically the definition of the Riemann integral
I guess you want the intermediate value theorem to say that the derivative equals the rise over run
Well yes but ive trouble cause in R we used MVT and know we are on an arbitrary metric space
But you're not really though.
Like t |-> d(gamma(a), gamma(t)) is just a function [a, b] -> R
Yes but i dont know smth about differentiability
What don't you know?
Can u pls explain yrself?
You said "i don't know smth about differentiability"
I don't know what that means / what you don't know
Ah i see. I mean, to use riemann sums and somehow show some derivative i need differentiability
So what you want to show is that
sup of partitions is
the integral of v(t).
The Riemman integral of v(t) is also a sup over partitions, so the only question is whether
v(t)epsilon is a good approximation for d(gamma(t), gamma(t + epsilon))
Exactly
And for whole that u said i need some uniform δ
For every t in [a, b]
Well continuous on closed interval implies uniformly continuous, so that's no problem
(comes from [a, b] being compact)
Well yes for continuity of v. But i have to use also that v is limit of ε→0 d(γ(t+ε),γ(t))/|ε|
And there is where i need the uniform δ
Well, same deal right.
For a given epsilon and delta consider the t where v(t) is well approximated. Then this gives open cover of [a, b]. Compactness boom boom.
Ahh i see. Nice, thanks ill try. 🙏🏿🙏🏿
How is this?
when you write a generic e as belonging to the neighborhood around e', is e one of the n centers of the metric balls, or a generic element of E? you should indicate what e is right when you use it if that's what you mean
regardless, up to saying that if e is within M/2 of e', then e is not within M/2 of l, everything seems correct
past that it's not really clear how you concluded that there are missing points from the metric balls
you never seemed to use the fact that l is a limit point either
the notation and formatting are very obtuse
if you are to use open covers, it will be easier to show that the complement is open
you can still finish your proof here since you've already done a lot of the work, you just need to construct a specific neighborhood of l and use the inequalities you've already shown
and i would just scratch that entire last line of symbols and write it in words to communicate more clearly
Well thats the definition of a limit point isnt it?
right, you should just justify that there are e's in that neighborhood because l is a limit point
you never said or implied this anywhere
Oops i didnt mean to reply to that
yes, it's just hard to follow your reasoning
like the point of a proof is to convey each logical step
some things are fine to skip but this is imo the really important part of the proof:
a) some neighborhoods of l are disjoint from the finite subcover of E
b) every neighborhood of l has another point in E
these two statements give you the contradiction, and you should just give a justification for both
i guess what i'm really saying is not just to justify them, but to present these statements as the contradiction
you don't acknowledge what the limit point is doing in your paragraph or in your symbols
Okay thanks.
Also my e's throughout the proof are defined by the preceding definition, theyre just generic elements of some stated set to prove something.
It gets redefined throughout the proof like you would if you were programming and redefining a variable. Is that a generally accepted thing to do? I figured coming up with new notation for unimportant elements would be distracting
it's fine to reuse a variable (albeit not super desirable, you should just prioritize clear communication)
when reusing a variable, especially when doing a "for all" statement, you should definitely state what the for all is referring to
your first implication is not that bad because you only need to worry about when e belongs to that e' neighborhood
the second implication gets confusing because it's not clear what e belongs to now
the first implication can be interpreted as e belonging to E, or just to the e' neighborhood, or anything really (since an implication still holds when the premise is false)
and that creates ambiguity for following statements
Oh okay I see
I find it difficult to read my own proofs to find errors or ambiguous things, since I already know what Im trying to say.
One more thing. Was it fine to leave out the part of the proof showing that there are no e's in the union of our finite subset of the open cover that are closer to l than the ones in our e' neighborhood, which follows from the stuff above that last paragraph.
Like if I was taking an analysis or topology class would I get points taken off for that?
