#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 126 of 1
if you say "separated" instead of "completely separated" here you get normality of compact Hausdorff spaces
yeah
also it gives you complete separation of compact sets and closed sets in tychonoff spaces
anyway, I was trying to find a version of normality that worked well with the ol' system I came up with
with the complete separation by a function approach, I need to quantify over all subsets with a property preserved under continuous maps
there is uhh
collectionwise normality?
normality is really about covers of the space
maybe you can try thinking in that terms
i had a funny screenshot about different characterizations of normality
the book is "normal topological spaces" if you are curious
maybe, would have to look harder because collectionwise normality isn't even hereditary
you can always say "hereditarily collectionwise normal"
hmm clearly normal spaces are a natural setting for topology, its only natural to ask that every countable locally finite open cover of X has a countable star-finite normal cozero-set star refinement
there really needs to be a handbook of mathematical results
just the results alone, even for topology in comprehensive detail
also anything with closed sets is suspicious because 1. in a finer space, there's greater separation but also more closed sets to separate, 2. they aren't preserved by continuous maps
Guys is this correct, I felt I made it too much of a overcomplication.. 🫣
its not continuous because of the definition of continuous maps
youve proven that preimages of subbasic open sets are open
which in turn gives you continuity, but its a separate lemma
If $X$ is a completely regular space, a subalgebra $\mathcal{A}$ of $BC(X)$ is called completely regular if (i) it is closed and contains the constant functions, and (ii) $\mathcal{A}\cap C(X,I)$ separates points and closed sets. E.g. if $(Y,e)$ is a Hausdorff compactification of $X$, $\mathcal{A}_{Y}={f\circ e:f\in C(Y)}$ is a completely regular subalgebra of $BC(X)$.\
Exercise: The Hausdorff compactifications of $X$ are in one-to-one correspondence with the completely regular subalgebras of $BC(X)$.\
Consider the map $[Y]\mapsto \mathcal{A}_Y$. I can show this map is injective and surjective, but I struggle showing it is well-defined. If $Y,Y'$ are equivalent, why would $\mathcal{A}Y=\mathcal{A}{Y'}$?
psie
Never mind. I figured it out I think.
how about precisely separated by a function
(precisely separated: f^(-1) ({0}) = C, etc.)
should be stronger, a poor man's T6
i mean that is exactly T6
a T1 space is T6 iff all closed sets are zero iff all open sets are cozero
no but I only quantify over compact subsets
all disjoint compact subsets are to be precisely separated by functions
you are asking when all compact sets are zero, which does give you complete hausdorfness, hmm
no im just thinking, it doesnt characterize it
well I mean it'll give a funny condition to which it is equivalent to
but yeah that's less believable
the trick with padding out the zero sets to use compactness no longer works
it also always true in perfect tychonoff spaces
i see no way to wrangle either from what we have though hmm
it should be stronger
completely T2, completely T3, T4, T5 have no mention of precise separation
sure
so in principle surely one could concoct an example where it is impossible
but if there is a counterexample, it has to have a coarser topology than a T6 topology
hmm that's not saying much
take your favourite T5 but not T6 space like idk some LOTS
then maybe try to find some compact subsets thereof that can't be precisely separated, inspired by the closed sets that can't
hmm wait, the lex order on [0,1]^2 is T5 but not T6, and is compact
in compact Hausdorff space, compact <=> closed, so the space is completely Hausdorff but not "compactly T6"
no i mean as i said, take niemytski plane
it is tychonoff and perfect so it gives you our condition
but is not normal
sure, so its a bit stronger than complete Hausdorffness, excellent
ah weird, conjunction of nonseparation properties yielding a separation property
Well in the sense of my system
unless if it actually is, lemme check
yeah it probably isn't
since $A_n \cap A_{n+1} \neq \emptyset$, that means there exists no separations, right? would that be enough for $\bigcup A_n$ to be connected?
ushygushytoes
Can you explain more? There exists no separations means ?
oh my bad. i mean separations as in a separation of X
i can give you the definition
let $X$ be a topological space. a separation of $X$ is a pair $U \text{, } V$ of disjoint nonempty open subsets of $X$ whose union is $X$. the space $X$ is said to be connected if there isn't a separation of $X$.
ushygushytoes
Thats what u need to prove really
You need to prove there exists no separations in Union An
Like u need to give some sort of argument for that
ah ok
since each subspace in the sequence is connected, the union should've have any separations of X, no?
If A1 and A2 were already disjoint then A1 union A2 is not connected
So u should use that other condition somewhere in the proof
The fact An cap An+1 is nonzero
Maybe assume that U An is not connected (so there exists a separation) and then show a contradiction
ok i think i can try a contradiction proof
because if you assume it's not connected, then that means there must be a separation of $X$ between at least two of the sets. but since we know that $A_n \cap A_{n+1}$ is nonempty for all $n$, that would be the contradiction. so $\bigcup A_n$ is connected.
ushygushytoes
I think you need a fact if B is connected subspace of A and A can be written as C u D, as separation then either B\subset C or B\subset D
are you saying that's where i could pull my contradiction from?
Yes
I read in Lee that a covering map pi : E -> M is a fiber bundle whose model fiber is discrete. Could we take this as the definition of a covering map, or do we need some additional assumptions?
I would say this depends on conventions. This is a good definition, but sometimes people add extra connectivity conditions
You mean E should be connected, right?
Sometimes yeah
With this definition you would need the size of the fibers to be the same at every point.
This would be true if M is connected, but is otherwise usually not required of covering maps.
Ah, so this definition is actually stricter when M is disconnected 
the definition of a fibre bundle I've seen doesn't explicitly require homeomorphic fibers
maybe thats just a weird convention my prof prefers
I guess in most cases where one cares about fiber bundles the base space is path connected, so it doesn't matter, but I've usually seen the definition with a fixed fiber.
Suppose a net $(a_\alpha){\alpha\in I}$ is indexed by a directed set $I$ with a greatest element $M$. If the net is contained in a compact space, then there is a subnet $(a{\alpha_j}){j\in J}$ converging to a point $x\in X$, where $N$ is the greatest element of $J$ and $\alpha_N=M$. We then must have that $a_M=a{\alpha_N}=x$.
qwerty
Is there no problem with the above observation?
It seems odd that if a net is indexed by a directed set with greatest element and also has a limit point, then the final element of the net should equal the limit point.
Particularly, if I index a net by the entourages of some uniform space by reverse set inclusion, and if the set containing the net is compact, it seems too easy to figure out the limit point of the subnet. The greatest element of the indexing directed set in this case would just be the diagonal.
A net whose index set has a greatest element is -- for the vast majority of purposes nets are used for -- just a roundabout way to speak about that final point of the net.
(One can argue that a net is just a suggestive way to specify the filter generated by its tail sets, and when the index set has a greatest element, that is simply the principal ultrafilter generated by the limit point).
i'm thinking this problem should be solved similarly to the previous one. should i try to find a contradiction in assuming that it's disconnected?
oop wait nvm i got it now
Can I have a continuous map between 2 spaces with a finite number of points?
you're gonna have to be more specific than that because the constant map is always continuous
I have to construct a subset of R so that there is a map from the subset to itself such that the map is bijective and continuous but not a homeomorphism...can I get some hints.
hint:
there is a continuous bijection from [0, 1] ∪ (2, 3] to [0, 1] by mapping [0, 1] ↦ [0, ½] and mapping (2, 3] ↦ (½, 1]. and this is not a homeomorphism.
I need the map to be from the subset to itself
this is just a hint
Oo ok
tweak this into something where you can "replace" the interval (2, 3] that we lost...
another hint is that there's still a lot of ℝ that we have not yet used
Uh can we do something like this :- like considering this subset [0,1] U (2, infinity) and then mapping [0,1] U (2,3] as you have and then mapping (3, infinity) to (2, infinity)
@scarlet turtle
that breaks continuity, because (3, ∞) is connected, but (½, 1] ∪ (2, ∞) is disconnected
i'll give another example of this sort to push you in the direction of what i have in mind
there is a continuous bijection from [0, 1] ∪ (2, 3] ∪ (4, 5] to [0, 1] ∪ (2, 3] by mapping [0, 1] ↦ [0, ½], mapping (2, 3] ↦ (½, 1], and mapping (4, 5] ↦ (2, 3]. and this is not a homeomorphism.
Ok then I consider the set S = [0,1] U(n ,n+1] , n >= 2 and then map S to S as you have ...the mapping is continuous and bijective but the same is not true for the inverse
YES! but be careful with the indexing. you want to do stuff like (2, 3] ∪ (4, 5] ∪ (6, 7] ∪ ...
but saying (n, n+1] for n ≥ 2 will give you (2, 3] ∪ (3, 4] ∪ (4, 5] ∪ ... = (2, ∞), which is not what you want
Ah ok
but otherwise, yes, you've got it!
Sorry for that
np, it's an easy indexing mistake to make.
Thanks for the help
To show two spaces (X and Y) are not homeomorphic, is it enough to give a bijection from a proper subset (A) of basis of topology (B) of one set to another. As in if there are basis elements in B that are missed by this bijection, then the topologies are different.
Context: want to show that the growing wedge of circles in R^2, each centered at (n,0) with radius n, (X) is not homeomorphic to the CW complex that is the countable wedge of circles (Y).
I know that the basis elements of X at 0 consist of equal length arcs of length 2\epsilon (\epsilon <1/2 say). But the open sets containing the wedge point in Y can have arcs of arbitrary length.
How do I make this precise?
(note - same Q was posted in #alg-top-geo-top )
Yes, because it is from AT, but I didn’t know whether my question was more appropriate for point set.
yeah it’s not an issue
just best to make sure discussions don’t get too duplicated is all
for a covering space p : E —> B to be considered a fiber bundle, B needs to be connected, right? otherwise, the number of sheets could vary on each component of B, and so the fiber won't necessarily be fixed.
or, is there a notion of a non-homogenous fiber bundle where this makes sense, where like, the fiber “varies continuously”?
Well you somewhat tautologically just need the fibres to be of fixed cardinality
And yes one way to guarantee that is adding that B should be connected
so what would we classify covering spaces with varying fibers as?
do we just not care about them?
or do they not have a nice generalization?
Hm I do not know what the best terminology is, but people do still care about them. There is a similar thing with vector bundles where you can have varying ranks
I would still call them vector bundles and just maybe indicate that they need not be of fixed rank
oh. you don't need any like, continuous switching conditions or anything?
idrk what that would mean, but it seems like, locally, in the total space, you would want to transition nicely when you change fibers
I guess for vector bundles or covering spaces you cannot really change fiber here except if you change connected components so it is not much of a concern
When I first learned about this stuff my lecture said, if your space isn't connected you don't have a topological space, you have two.
And that's basically how it goes here, a covering space just covers each component.
Wouldn’t they just be covering spaces
A covering space is a locally trivial bundle of discrete spaces
RIP Q.
sure, but i guess i meant like a nice generalization like a bundle. i wasn't being super precise about what i meant, sorry
that's another line of thought that i had. for a covering space p : E -> B, is p^{-1}(B_i) -> B_i a covering space of each component B_i of B?
Sounds like the pullback bundle?
I guess the better question is, assuming E -> B is such that p^-1(Bi) is a covering space for each component, is p aswell. In which case the answer is no unless B is locally connected
Well i guess you need a generalised notion of fiber bundle here was the point
Well yeah I’m not saying covering spaces are fiber bundles
They’re still what I said though
Oh sure i guess i read fibre into there
Though if i read that i would assume one meant fibre bundle aha
Just a continuous function with codomain B
The notion of a bundle over Bcan be generalised to the point where it justmeans E -> B
and then a locally trivial bundle means that we don't have some fixed fiber, just that the local trivializations are homeomorphisms between p^{-1}(U_b) and U_b x p^{-1}(b) for b in B?
This is one definition yes. I would personally be a lil careful as I do not think this is particularly standard terminology (though personally i like this now that I have heard it aha)
E.g. Husemoller in his standard textbook seems to say "locally trivial bundle" as an abbreviation for locally trivial fibre bundle (with some fixed fibre)
off topic, but i wonder why the spelling difference: fiber vs fibre
I am British
it looks very classy lol
And it seems I am slightly inconsistent lol
But at least in writing i always say fibre
I guess probably because i am matching others a little
I guess one slightly funny thing to watch out for here is like what the data of the bundles are
Because for vector bundles you really need like the structure of vector spaces
So like idk i feel the theory of fibre bundles is a place where one should just be happy with various minor variants
https://planetmath.org/locallytrivialbundle seems to have some information on locally trivial fiber bundles
their def agrees with this one, but the diagram is all messed up
There is also such a notion on nlab for example
I just mean to emphasise it like afaik is not too standard so i would be careful to make clear what one means but idk
do you mind dropping the link?
Can be found in the main article https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/fiber+bundle
"One can also drop [...]"
thanks. this will require some categorical language unwrapping on my part
actually, just that paragraph doesn't look so bad
Dw it basically just means what you would expect, like there is a cover of B by some U_i so that it looks like F_i x U_i -> U_i for some F_i
Is there anything you are doing w fibre bundles heh
the reason i was kind of asking about this whole mess was because i remember proving that every finite sheeted covering map is closed.
this is a special case - when the base is connected - of the more general statement that fiber bundle projections are closed whenever the model fiber is compact.
now i am wondering if it holds for locally trivial bundles in the sense described on the nlab, that if the fibers of a locally trivial bundle are compact, then the projection is closed
Ah
Isnt that also false without some more hypotheses
Maybe I am silly
it is not
Ah no it is probably okay like
unintuitive, right?
i also remember thinking that you needed some extra condition like locally compact or something
but you don't
it just kind of works
Presumably it is because the projections are closed maps by compactness and then you glue stuff
yea, thats kind of the argument. you argue that p(p^{-1}(U) n A) = U n p(A) is closed in U for any closed A subset E
and this gets you an open neighborhood U - p(A) of a point b in B - p(A), where U is a locally triviallizing neighborhood of b
(btw, this is for the fiber bundle result. the covering space result requires a slightly different argument to apply when the base is not connected)
for the covering space argument, you can show that the intersection over the finitely many p(Ui \cap (E - A)) is an open nbhd of some point in B - p(A), where A is closed in E, and p^-1(U) is the disjoint union of the Ui
do these involve gluing in any sense?
I was a bit sloppy there. I guess what I mean is that being a closed map should be "local on the base"
like suppose f: E -> B is a cts map, {U_i} is a cover of B and the maps f^{-1}(U_i) -> U_i are all closed maps. Then f should be closed
yes, that is the argument used in the fiber bundle case, since the projection restricted to the preigmage of any locally trivializing nbhd is closed
nice
Yeah and then you reduce to asking when X x F -> X is closed, and F is compact iff this holds for all X
The same argument should work for any locally trivial bundle where all the fibres are compact though
interesting (i am leaning towards no because i can't quite see the connection between the covering space argument that i have the the argument for the fiber bundle case)
will investigate more tonight i think
A fun exercise in this vein is like
If E -> B is a locally trivial fibre bundle with fibre F such that F and B are compact, then E is compact
(I forgot that covering spaces can have non-compact fibres lmao)
yea, this one can be proven using the fact that fiber bundles with compact fiber are proper
But by the same (start of the) argument, it is enough to show that E x F -> E is a closed map if F is discrete
and i think that should be easy
Does this not need any Hausdorffness?
Well I guess I mean like you have to be careful cause proper has non-equivalent definitions in the non-Hausdorff case right
oh lol he sets it as an exercise
he doesn't make any assumptions about the properties of the top spaces M,F, and E from what i can see
yea lol
preimages of compact sets are compact, compact not having the requirement of being hausdorff
ah yeah i guess you could probably do this by like restricting to covers by trivial opens
nice
yea, i thought this set of exercises was kind of cool
Though really these are just equivalent statements i guess aha
As in like "fibre bundle with compact fibres are proper" is super close to "fibre bundles with compact fibres and compact bases have compact total space"
yea
i now wish i had looked at this section of the book actually. seems a nice introduction to fibre bundles
its only a brief section at the end of the chapter on vector bundles, but it is my intro to fiber bundles i guess
I needed this statement a couple of years ago and couldn't find a proof online lol
ye they are cool!
thanks for talking with me about this. i can work through this later tonight with comfort that i am not writing down gibberish
np it is cool
i am like rusty on point set topology and this was fun stuff to think about
i feel weird calling myself a researcher even though i guess i am now a baby researcher
lol
c squared
fax
should change your nickname to 1
just 1
real
nah, but i like c squared. my initials are c.c.
lol complex conjugate nice
off topic, but this is the first time I look in #point-set-topology and I find people talking about the exact problem (even the exact letter!) I'm currently working on 
what a coincidence
you were right, it does! its a very pretty argument
its at the right level of abstraction and has just the right tools to make the proof relatively straightforward.
the ad hoc proof that i had for covering spaces was kind of gross
because i wasn't really thinking about it in terms of local trivializations
Noice glad to have helped :)
@rancid umbra im now confused though. So a space X is compact iff for all Y the projection X x Y -> Y is closed. So if X is an infinite discrete set then you can find Y such that this is not closed, but doesnt that contradict covering spaces being closed maps?
Presumably you want to assume you have finite coverings
Just R -> S^1 is an easy example of a covering that is not closed I guess
yeah
lol okay phew
Preimage operator preserves everything of the set property right under assumption of mapping is continuous? I kinda have this conjecture in mind.. I proved it preservs intersection and unions, also commute with complement operators.. And the preimage is order preserving too which is useful monotone lemma.. I kinda wonder what it doesn't preserves? I know that it wont preserves, I know commutation of preimage with closure operator hinges on continuity but I dont know other more counterintuitive examples
The closure wont be preserved is actually intuitive, since it takes continuous mapping to make the preimage also closed suppose the preimage admits some closure..
Yes you can prove that preimage preserves any set-theoretical subset operation
This again is something category theory can help with
but will it be commute with different set operator given if its inverse is continuous?
So if f is continuous, preimage should also preserve “topological” subset operations like interior and closure
I know my conjecture is right!!!
Though I have to think about that
time to learn cat theory
Currently unsure whether this is true
this is one problem on folland's chapter 4
The preimage preserves any set theoretic operation as Pseudo said, but this doesn't rely on the function being continuous
You might need f to be an open or closed map for this to work
For the topological ones
I can’t do this in my head unfortunately
Consider the constant map R -> R at 0. {0} has empty interior but the preimage is all of R
Yeah I imagined there’d be stuff like that
Yes, I mean commutation with different operators.. I am a bad typer 😭
Ok so what I said earlier about “topological” subset operations only works if you have extra assumptions
Like being an open or closed maps
However for purely set-theoretic ones you should be fine
Stuff like union, intersection, complement, symmetric difference, …
if f, is continuous then inverse establishes two inclusion
though not necessarily giving equality.. I kinda did this exercise a couple day back, but couldnt really understand it or generalize it too
So if f is an open map then preimage preserves interiors
And if f is a closed map then preimage preserves closures
Is my conjecture
Again I’m head solving this so there may be technical details I’m missing
It gives you something like this… sorry my wording is a bit awkward I kinda want to redo this in streamlined way so will redo it in a week
ok now i can type on a laptop
The corollary is absolutely true though
so the interior of a set $A$ is defined as $U \subset \text{Int}(A) \iff U \subset A$ for $U$ an open set
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
then $U \subset f^{-1}(\text{Int}(A)) \iff f(U) \subset \text{Int}(A)$, and if $f$ is an open map then that's $\iff f(U) \subset A$, which is $\iff U \subset f^{-1}(A)$, which is $\iff U \subset \text{Int}(f^{-1}(A))$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
ok so if $f$ is open then preimage preserves interiors
Yes
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
now i need to check closures
closure of a set $A$ is defined by $\bar A \subset C \iff A \subset C$ for $C$ a closed subset
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
then $f^{-1}(\bar A) \subset C \iff \bar A \subset f(C^c)^c$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
if $f$ is an open map then $f(C^c)^c$ is closed
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
so $\bar A \subset f(C^c)^c \iff A \subset f(C^c)^c \iff f^{-1}(A) \subset C \iff \overline{f^{-1}(A) } \subset C$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
open map, is like if C is open then f preserves the openness? I haven't been there yet but ill take note
ok so if $f$ is an open map, then the preimage preserves both interiors and closures
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
neat
then is it possible to generalize for all operators satisfying these
yes so this is an alternative axiomatisation of topology
in summary:
- if $f : A \to B$ is $\textit{any}$ function between sets, then $f^{-1} : P(B) \to P(A)$ commutes with any set-theoretic subset operation (like unions, intersections, complements)
- if $f : X \to Y$ is continuous and an open map, then $f^{-1} : P(Y) \to P(X)$ preserves both interiors and closures
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
screenshoted, will prove this once I am at open maps
I wish I could have such clear mind ☺️☺️... gradually hopefully ❤️

hi Afzal!
Hi pseudo
a bunch of unproductive days :c
i have dinner with my friends today, later i will start studying
Which part are you at afzal
product top, same question 
It’s actually very normal I feel like it’s making it much better to play some games I did it that way
Good old friend
i played some games and end up being frsutrated lol
You can kinda think it a way that quotient topology is the finest topology that a mapping is continuous
being unproductive sucks :c
And use this to relate to topology topology
I think its correct the way its written
interesting okay :p
Quotient topology is usually meaningless for pointset topology but it gives you some picture why product topology is defined that way
btw Emma sorry, i have to go for the dinner in another city. So i have to go righ now. I will reply when i will be free
I can prove it I just wanted to make sure it was correct before I jumped in
I'm a dummy lol I just realized why it makes sense for any arbitrary subset lol
enjoy!!!
the fibers need to be compact too. for discrete spaces, yea, this just means finite
i think the generalized tube lemma 2 follows from transfinite induction + tychonoff's + generalized tube lemma 1?
or, maybe its simpler than that...
i think given an open cover of \prod_i A_i of basic opens contained in N you use tychnoff's to get a finite subcover of the A_i's.
all but finitely many indicies in this finite cover are trivial, i.e., equal to X_i. so we can just apply generalized tube lemma 1 + induction
would appreciate any feedback on how this sketch sounds
yeah thats how its usually proven
sweet
its called Wallace's theorem
cool, i have never heard of it referred to by that name
its called that in the first line on the Wikipedia page lol
usually "Wallaces theorem" is specifically referring to the most general of the three
I used induction but the solution seems to use double inclusion. When it comes to stuff about proving two sets are equal should I always do double inclusion?
this was my working out
I guess me assuming $B'{n+1} = B'{n} \cup A'_{n+1}$ could be a potenital mistake#
pentium
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just skipped right over the statement of the lemma since i kind of already knew it lmao
practically speaking you can just reduce this (and many other problems involving functions of two variables) to showing that cl(A u B) = cl(A) u cl(B), since then it holds for any finite family of subsets by associativity of \cup
anyway I would just explicitly check whether B_(n + 1)' = (B_n \cup A_(n + 1))' is actually equal to B_n' \cup A_(n + 1)' as you mention, since that seems to be the only nontrivial part here
yeah got it thanks
also got another question about cantor sets which im curious about
why isnt the cantor set defined to be all possible endpoints?
e.g. {0,1,⅓,⅔,...}
isn't that equal to the cantor set?
it can't be if I'm understanding your construction correctly, because it's a countable set (you can enumerate finitely many elements at each step and there are countably many steps)
that would also trivialize another special feature of the cantor set, which is that it's uncountable despite having zero "length" (called lebesgue measure)
and you can show that the cantor set has zero length using the fact that each step in its construction you remove a third of each component
(note that being of measure zero is not a topological property, i.e. Cantor set having measure zero is property of a specific embedding of the Cantor set into the reals, not the Cantor set itself)
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/closed-projection%2Bcharacterization%2Bof%2Bcompactness
thought that the proof of prop 1.3 on this page was cool. remark 1.4 is funny
this whole page is pretty cool actually
I should also remark that one cool thing is this provides motivation for similar definitions in e.g. algebraic geometry
Like in (classical) algebraic geometry you have a product (which unfortunately does not agree with the "usual" product of spaces) but you can still contemplate spaces such that these projections are closed, and that is called completeness
oh, interesting
no way
bussy beaver, eating his math hw
i havent started Quotient top yet
thank you Pseudo 
dont
unless you want joy in your life
Don’t worry, he’s not doing algebraic topo yet so I don’t think there’s much occasion where he needs quotient topology to glue things together
It’s a relief to me too🤯🤯🤯🫠🫠🫠
classification of surfaces 🗿
I mean this is not rly pointset right lol
Just was tacked onto our course for no reason
But classifications of surface is algebraic topology? I downloaded a note from Toronto uni
It says point set top has minimal content for quotient topology
I guess there are not really nice lines but yes there is usually algebraic topology in the proof
I guess, but I think the surfaces course did the same (or at least similar) proof
Sure ye
and really my point was more that defining and working with (regardless of classification) a lot of these surfaces is far easier by quotienting
e.g. klein bottle
I really hope it’s the case I was so tortured by product topology already
That’s algebraic topology right it said on the lec note
Yeah this is what i assumed you meant
Products and quotients are like important things in pointset i would recommend getting quite familiar w
I felt happy a bit reading that quotient topology is minimally mentioned in ps top😭😭😭😭😭
😭😭
quotient topology is pretty common
closed maps are extremely common and those are quotient
k-spaces (otherwise known as compactly generated spaces) are exactly the quotients of locally compact spaces for examples
any (surjective) map from a compact space to a Hausdorff space is quotient
perfect maps (otherwise known as proper maps) are also a very important class of quotient maps
you rarely have theorems about quotient maps in general other than the basic properties
usually you study a class of quotient maps with particular properties
My question is, isn't the cantor set going to be the set of all endpoints which is a subset of the rationals, hence countable?
i don't get the cantor set construction doesn't provide you with the set of endpoints which should be countable
the cantor set is the set of all real numbers in [0,1] that only use 0 or 1 2 in their ternary expansion
this is an uncountable set
Nope, all the endpoints are going to be in the Cantor set, but there will be other points as well.
you remove a lot of points, but not enough to change the cardinality
to expand, the endpoints of intervals are the numbers whose ternary expansions using only 0 or 2 terminate
can you give me an example point?
Well, c squared just outlined the idea
because wouldn't these intervals eventually be points
yeah
Another perspective (which is just the ternary argument in a different phrasing) is that elements of the Cantor set correspond to binary sequences, where 0 and 1 would correspond to whether you pick the left or the right interval at every stage, so for example the third interval in the bottom row would correspond to sequences starting with 010....
And there are uncountably many binary sequences
Endpoints would correspond to those sequences which are eventually constant
(of which there is indeed only countably many)
can you write the infinite ternary expansion as a denary decimal expansion?
i can't think of an irrational point that would be in the set
oh wait
i think i can actually
$\sum_{n=1}^\infty\frac{2}{9^n}$
Outsider
it's kinda like cantor diagonal argument but this time you select a new interval to be in so you can always form an irrational number
Shouldn't that be digits 0 and 2?
isn't this just 1/4
Yes, 1/4 is one of the non-endpoints in the Cantor set.
Happens to be rational, so fair enough if that was the issue
But just play with that
that seems so counter intuitive
it is real analysis tbf
As c squared said, just do a ternary number with no 1's in the representation
Yes, the Cantor set is not intuitive, especially when your intuitions aren't well-developed yet
Basically, there's none of the removed intervals that contains it, so it must be there in the final set too.
yeahhh
i get that
i think having the ternary expansion in the back of your mind helps a bunch. at least it did for me.
yeah i get the ternary expansion
it just seems counter intuitive not considering that
but now i understand it
basic topology is so cool 😭
like wdym a set of nested compact sets is non empty
that is so sick
would picking "measure theory and lebesgue integration" as a module be a good choice if i like this stuff
I would say so
Are there metric spaces where there exist "smallest" neighbourhoods of a point? (don't tell me what the metric space is if there exist any, I want to figure it out myself)
Sure, though those neighborhoods won't be very exciting
they are called Alexandroff spaces
In general topology, an Alexandrov topology is a topology in which the intersection of an arbitrary family of open sets is open (while the definition of a topology only requires this for a finite family). Equivalently, an Alexandrov topology is one whose open sets are the upper sets for some preorder on the space.
Spaces with an Alexandrov topol...
oooh okkk
not metric, just any spaces though
that can disprove my conjecture that every point of an open set is a limit point of the set
T1 Alexandroff spaces are not particularly interesting
because my proof messes up here
Limit points of singletons can be a little tricky yeah
singleton?
(i'm a noob at topology)
Set with one element
im doing rudin lmao
ahhh
wait this is so easy to construct 😭
if countable though
let me think about uncountable metric spaces
oooh perhaps i could use a cantor set
Cantor set will not work
it indeed does not
i mean think about the smallest nbhd of a point and then shrink it in half
what happens then?
in my topology book alg top is right after quotients.
Given any subset of the power set the intersection of all topologies that include this subset is still a topology right?
The arbitrary intersection of subtopologies is a topology, yes
Yes, that is the topology "generated by" your original set. The set you start with will be a "subbase" for the topology it generates.
This made me a bit scared😢 it seems I can never get out alive from product quotient top alive 😭
Product top is hard enough 😵💫😵💫😵💫
quotients in topology are about cutting, gluing, and smashing. you can get some pretty cool stuff like this.
more generally, you work with quotients all the time. when you work with a space up to homeomorphism, or a group up to isomorphism, or the integers modulo n, for example. or whenever you want a slightly different notion of equality.
this happens all over the place
i believe the emerging field of HoTT is based on this principle (please somebody correct me if i’m wrong)
True but when it got formalized it’s just painful.. product topology was really hard already (managed to make sense of it by doing exercises) quotient topology doesn’t have much exercise on lec note i downloaded and it’s really scary looking
i'd say HoTT is roughly about the idea of having different "levels" of equality, yeah
I should maybe not have moved to mapping and Hausdorff properties then? I will find more exercise to firm my understanding of quotient
in my case i found that understanding the universal property of the quotient topology helped significantly
But do I need preliminary for learning uni properties?
And books
to be honest i don't know
I would really want some tips
I heard cat theory is surprising self contained if you one learn a fraction to gain understanding
it's spicy graph theory after all
i feel like you can learn bits and pieces as you go
and graph theory can often be fairly self-contained
But I still need a bit of references like a book or some preliminary stuff
leinster's "basic category theory" may be helpful as a reference
Thanks I shall be getting it now
the universal properties of most constructions in point set topology will be written down in most relatively modern texts, too
but i would definitely recommend this
I am so tortured by quotients
in the same way that you don't need to learn all of ZFC before starting math
you don't need to (and probably shouldn't) go very deep into category theory before learning other math
I just want some mental clarity like the la example you introduced to me
That was like really helpful and not heavy
The one you refers transformation as mapping
Like linear transformation and basis and they are isomorphism
ah yes, viewing a basis as an isomorphism with $\mathbb{K}^n$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
i quite like that perspective
I really love example

I just feel it’s gonna be wonderful if there’s something similar to this for topology
Like I had example of quotients how you glue stuff but there can even be directions which I feel my brain will explode
mhm, i think there's many ways in which universal properties can be helpful in topology
I can imagine one glue the end points of closed interval and surfaces by equivalence relations but like you go from one dimension and twist it a certain way it’s just so hard and almost unmotivated too
I find physical cardboard-and-glue construction to be a surprisingly apt mental image for topological quotients; if you haven't yet taken it seriously, now's a good time to start.
i sometimes use yarn, paper, and tape too
for me one of the hardest parts about getting started with topology was learning how to connect intuitive pictures to the formal math
there are enough pathological counterexamples that it was hard for me to figure out what intuitive arguments actually worked, and what intuitive arguments had a subtle flaw
i have always wanted there to be some type of topological putty that somehow passes through itself, easily rips apart and sticks back together
Is this the physical cardboard and I try to play with it to build mental image? Or it’s a math concept
Definitely have some experience with kindergarden-style physical construction.
I shall try those things 🥰🥰
I really hope I could understand, it’s quite difficult like really, but it seems cool too
I got pretty stuck after product top I tried to do exercises but quotients have been too challenging but it does seem fun though
The good cardboard examples tend to be more examples of solid geometry ("print out this diagram, cut it out, fold along the lines and glue it together to become a dodecahedron" or whatever), but the physical gluing along cardboard flaps is pretty close to being the intuition that topological quotients try to capture.
That sounds super fun I love cardboard 🫣🫣🥰.. with patience eventually I’ll be able to understand it whole ❤️ definitely will finish quotient before moving onto different maps
I just kinda love playing those Lego style games.. lets goo🥰🥰🥰
what? i thought it was alright & way better than quotients, guess im just allergic to these type of stuff, i hated ideals too.
Yeah I was asking mainly as a sanity check cuz I couldn’t find this result in Munkres and was afraid that I was dreaming it up
There should be a result that the topology generated by an arbitrary collection is the set of arbitrary unions of finite intersections of sets from the collection.
keyword would be subbasis
true
havent studied filters yet so can decide
This thing really starts to get painful now
This seems to be a relatively trivial proposition, it turns out I have to write a lot to justify and I am not sure it’s correct
This is just partition topology and they should just change its name to that 😭😭😭
I wrote a page and a half of derivation
I should learn a bit universal property asap, otherwise my progress is literally not moving
Is there a difference between [x] and pi(x)?
No my definition they are same I think
I think it as exist x such that [x]=[y] where y in U
It's pi^-1(pi(U)) I thjnk.
It’s really nice to see it as a mapping? And is my understanding of this correct?
I am so scared of confusing myself
I would just say something like:
The union in the statement is pi^-1(pi(U)).
The map pi is open if, for every open U subset X, pi(U) is open in the quotient space.
But by definition of "open in the quotient" this is the same as saying, for every open U, pi^-1(pi(U)) is open. Which was to be proved, so we're done.
Your writeup obscures this structure somewhat by immediately splitting into separate "if" and "only if" cases, and doing the (arguably) interesting calculation of what the union is as something internal to the "if" branch.
Thank you I shall refine it further 🥰🥰 I wasn’t very familiar with the type of the proof so I kinda overcomplicated it too much 😭
And you could probably use a final step in the calculation that removes x and gets you all the way to the union in the statement in the proposition -- since [x]=[y] when x~y anyway, you can just take the union of [y] for all y in U instead of taking the union of all x that are related to some y.
I am looking at part j) of this problem and I'm wondering if my understanding of this is correct. I see two ways to identify these points, one being "squishing" the sphere to make it so the poles touch from the inside (torus-shaped but with no hole), and the other would be "stretching" the sphere so that the poles touch from the outside (almost like a neck pillow, but with the ends touching each other). My question is, are these both correct solutions? Are they the same thing even though they look so different?
That does not sound right - observe that the image of the boundary in the quotient space, whatever it is, must be a single point
What are you referring to with the boundary? Just where the poles map to?
Oh, wait you mean j not i lol
Let me reread this
The torus one looks right then
Not sure what you’re trying to describe with the second one
The second one would be S2 V S2
Nvm I misread what you wrote
I’m imagining stretching the sphere out and meeting the ends with each other on the “outside” rather than squeezing it so they meet on the “inside”
I think they’re the same cuz you just pull the squeezed points around
Okay, that makes sense
Im fairly new to topology and only a few chapters in so it’s a bit strange to me that those two shapes are the same in this sense
The point of topology is being able to talk about two objects having the same “shape” even if they are different
i am going to start General topology by Engelking
Let (X,T) be a topological space, and assume B is a basis of (X,T), here B is basis means
-
For any B1 and B2 \in B, for all x in B1\cap B2 there exists B3 \in B such that x\in B3\subset B1\cap B2.
-
For any x in X, there is Bx\in B, x \in Bx.
From this information, can i conclude that all open sets in T is the union of elements of B?
for this i need for any open set V, for any x \in V, there exists Bx\in B such that x\in Bx\subset V.
I can guarantee that existence of Bx, but i don't know how can i guarantee the existence of Bx such that it is subset of V.
how are you defining “B is a basis for the topology T on X”?
just 2 given properties
1 and 2
but just those two properties say that B is a basis for some topology on X
yeah good point
not necessarily T
that is not engelking says; B1 and B2 are just conditions that say that B is a basis
yes, this is my own question
actually in Engelking they give as converse
without any relation to any existing topology
then if the topology that B generates is \Tau, then B is a basis for \Tau
so i thought converse hold?, i mean in Engelking they define basis B such that every open set is union of elements of B, and then by using the definition of basis, B has properties 1 and 2, i got this, but then i thought about reverse direction
saying that "B is a basis of (X, \Tau)" is the same as saying that all open sets of \Tau are unions of elements of B
yes
yea. to summarize, if B is a basis for a topology T on a set X, this typically means that any open set is the union of some collection of basis elements. any basis B for a given topology T will satisfy the two conditions you mentioned.
conversely, if a collection of subsets satisfies those two conditions, the the collection of all unions of elements in B is a topology on X, for which B is a basis.
yes
i like that basis and subbasis are part of free constructions
so in Engelking they define the weight of topogical space, how is it useful?
the only important one is countable weight i.e. 2nd countable
i see
one can easily check that....,
i don't want proof i don't get what does it mean?
a basis for a topological space naturally gives rise to a neighborhood base of each of its points
so i have to take all such Bx \in B such that x\in Bx, the collection of such Bx will be B(x)
yes. would avoid indexing by the point x tho.
rephrase this and write the neighborhood base for x as \mathcal{B}(x) = {B in \mathcal{B} : x in B}
Yes thank you
its one of the more important cardinal charactersitics of spaces
in metric spaces, you will have useful theorems like density = weight = cellularity = \kappa-lindeloffness = extent
you can estimate the size of the space from the weight, for example any T0 space is size at most 2^weight
in general studying how various contininous functions preserve or don't preserve things like density and weight was one of the foundational objects of study in early general topology
i see
T0 space means every finite set is closed, right?
it means that any two points can be separated by an open set
i.e. there is an open set that only contains one of them
this property is also commonly rephrased by saying that the points of a T0 space are topologically distinguishable.
I see
Yes it is T1
Elobraote
two distinct points in a topological space are topologically distinguished if there is an open set containing one of them but not the other.
So it is the definition
yea. i was just giving another common way to say what bussy beaver said. i think that separated is kind of an overloaded term in topology
What book is this? Can i know the name
Guys I revisited my proof done yesterday I didn’t omit the manipulation so later revision I might understand my write up. Is my new proof correct given the remark?
I used a slightly more formal method
General Topology by Engelking
So in this example they stated that O the family consisting of all subsets of X that don't contain x_0 and of all subsets of X that have finite complement.
So then How will X be open, i think it has to be or instead of and.
Thank you <3
? X has a finite complement of size 0 so is open
O is {subsets not containing x 0} u {subsets with finite complement}
Which is the same as {subsets : (do not contain x0) or (have finite complement)}
actually i thought in the sense of and, U is open iff x_0 \not in U and complement of U is finite
how this basis is minimal basis?
i mean we don't need to take X\ {x_0} to be take in basis
So why do we define locally finite? How is it helpful?
like have you tried googling
no
ok
Does the text not motivate this or use it more?
just define
strange. I don't know any statements which use this property off the top of my head, but it isn't hard to imagine such a thing since finiteness is a powerful condition. in this case, perhaps you can say useful things about a locally finite family with an atlas or more generally a sufficiently refined open cover on a topological space. this is a fairly powerful condition as it, in particular, implies there are finitely many sets in the family containing any given point. it's stronger than this, though.
this helps for things like partitions of unity!
if you've heard of those
for example, if you have a collection of functions $f_s : A_s \to \mathbb{R}$, then it makes sense to define the sum $\sum_{s \in S} f_s : X \to \mathbb{R}$
Pseudo (Cat theory #1 Fan)
even though that sum is infinite, it is locally just a finite sum
more generally this is the sort of thing i've seen locally finite things used for - they let you define "infinitary operations" in a way that makes sense, because locally they just reduce to an ordinary finitary operation
yes pou is what I was trying to rember! ty ❤️

I could remember the page number in Tu but not the name. weird how that works sometimes
i haven't read Tu :P
Lee is better 
Since F = u f, so X\F = \bigcap X\f, since every X\f is closed so X\F closed implies F is open.
To show F is closed which comes from above result.
So I can say if every f's open then F is open.
Above result: 1.1.11
local finiteness is a very powerful condition that ensures that your cover behaves nicely locally, paracompact spaces, that is, spaces where every cover has a locally finite refinement are very important objects in analysis for example
As I recall you can extend the pasting lemma to infinite collections of closed sets so long as they’re locally finite, too.
Ye
pasting lemma rules
i'm a little unsure of how to start proving that q is a quotient map here. any hints?
actually for surjectivity, since we're dealing with a projection map, we'd have any $q(x\times y)=x$ where $x$ would be in $\mathbb{R}$ already as an element of $A$, right?
ushygushytoes
not quite
this is fine for x >= 0
but you need to do something different for x < 0
well by definition really
no tricks required
although if you had proven this theorem you can say that A is covered by sets (-inf, 0] x {0}; [0, inf) x R restrictions of f to which is quotient (on their respective images)
so it naturally follows that f itself is quotient
my hint would be to draw A for showing surjectivity.
think about why this map is continuous (restrictions!)
then draw what q^{-1}(U) is for some open sets U of R
i thought x would be nonnegative since of how A is structured
(-1,0) is in A, for example, since the second component is 0
yea, you should def draw this
so these would be bases for A essentially?
i shall try 🫡
no, they are not bases
but if you have several compatible (meaning their combination is continuous) quotient maps such that their images are an open cover or a locally finite closed cover, then their combination is also quotient
should i also consider when x is nonnegative and y=0 as well? so the set [0, inf)x{0}? or does that complicate it a bit more
i am unsure what for
it says that A consists of all points x x y for which either x is greater than or equal to 0, y=0, or both. so that's why i ask since you mentioned the sets that cover A
just wanted to make sure i don't have to account for when both conditions are true
you dont
kk
you can also just say that restricting f to the line y = 0 will give you a homeomorphism (and therefore quotient), that also lets you conclude that f is quotient
you can just do this directly too. its a bit simpler imo.
if q^{-1}(U) is open in A, there are only a couple of cases to consider to show that U is open
like, for x in U, q^{-1}(x) = {x} x R if x >= 0, and {(x,0)} if x < 0. then you just have to think about what it means for q^{-1}(U) to be open in A.
kk
ok you said that what i originally had was better for when x>=0. so for x<0, it's a ray. how does that affect surjectivity?
take a point x in R
x satisfies either x >= 0 or x < 0
if x >= 0, then what is a real number y such that (x,y) is in A and q(x,y) = x?
if x < 0, then what is a real number y such that (x,y) is in A and q(x,y) = x?
if x<0, then 0 is the real number such that (x,y) is in A and q(x,y)=x. if x>=0, then any real number y would satisfy?
yes
ohhh i think i'm starting to see where my issue was. i wasn't paying attention to the restrictions on y
mhm
ok i see what you're talking about now that i've said it lol
alright and then you said the restrictions are a hint to why q is continuous, no?
yes
could you consider any neighborhoods? i know 0 is a bit tricky so i'm not sure how efficient this method is
i think this method is pretty efficient.
U be a subset of R and suppose q^{-1}(U) is open in A.
Let x in U. There are three cases to consider:
- x < 0,
- x > 0,
- x = 0
Case (x < 0):
Since q^{-1}(U) is open in A and contains (x,0), then there is some open ball B_r(x,0) of radius r > 0 centered at (x,0) such that (x,0) ∈ B_r(x,0) ∩ A ⊆ q^{-1}(U).
Put s = min(-x,r) so that B_s(x,0) ∩ A = (x - s, x + s) x {0} ⊆ q^{-1}(U).
Then (x - s, x + s) is an open neighborhood of x contained in U.
and i should play with that for the other two cases? i imagine it wouldn't be too different from the first case
Case (x > 0) is similar, yes
ah so case (x=0) is where it gets tricky
you can draw a picture for all of these cases to guide you
i might need some help with a picture for neighborhoods
here is the picture for Case (x < 0)
so when x=0, we can have any y in R. however we can't have as simple a neighborhood like the first two cases since of the restrictions on y, right?
could we examine a union of the two neighborhoods from the first two cases for 0?
Is there any good resource to learn topology of function spaces better?
I dont wanna read munkres again
shit gave me ptsd for topology
what are you trying to learn about function spaces?
just the common topologies used and some properties ig
like more on compact open topology etc.
gotcha. idk if this is helpful but any standard algtop textbook will talk about compact open probably
since algebraic topologists like to pretend only nice spaces exist
I see lol
do you know if evans goes over topologies on function spaces?
cuz I was planning on reading that book too, so I might expedite it
no clue, this is probably searchable from the TOC tho
bet
(hatcher has an appendix for it)
Is it true that if (X,T) is a topological space and B is base of T, and B has minimal cardinality which is finite, then for any basis S, B will be a subset of S.
I don't want any hint now
yea
mse helped
do we assume the maps $e_\alpha$ to be embeddings ?
red beet jen
So the maps f_alpha are arbitrary, and the e_alpha maps agree with them on the boundary, so they need to even be injective.
But on the interior of D^n the maps are embeddings, but this is not an assumption. It's a consequence of the square being pushout
ohhh ok thanks i’ll see if i can work out the details myself 
any hint for d?
is the space of compact subsets of R^n equipped with Hausdorff metric separable?
nvm it is
Ok so I have this problem which says that f is a mapping from Rn to Rn and is also an isometry , I have to show that f is surjective...to do this I am using this result that if F is a mapping from an open subset A of nls V to V and F-T is lipchitz where T is an invertible linear map from V to V then F[A] is open now F is lipchitz on Rn and any invertible linear map is lipchitz on Rn and also I know that the set of all lipchitz maps from A to V forms a vector space therefore (in our case) F-T is lipchitz and F[Rn] is open since Rn is open now I will show that F[Rn] is also closed proof :-
Suppose some p elem of Rn is not in range then I can find an open ball around p such that there is no point of range(f) inside that ball (cuz if not then we will have a sequence of points from range(f) converging to p and their inverse images would be a cauchy sequence in Rn and therefore converges in Rn say to v and since f is continuous the image of v would be p) now for every point not in range(f) we can do this and therefore the union of these open balls would be open and range(f) is compliment of this so should be closed...now range(f) is both open and closed so clopen...the only clopen sets in Rn are Rn and phi and since range cannot be empty the range is Rn...can someone verify
(Good god, use some full stops now and then.)
so to show Borel sets has given form, we have to show this family has all open set( which comes the fact every open set is F-sigma sets), and we have to show if A is in given family then A^c is in family and countable union of A_i is in family if A_i is is family, but i don't get this given family, please explain
it's just essentially repeating the fact that the borel algebra is generated by using union and intersection countably many times
You construct a collection of "auxiliary" families of sets, indexed by the countable ordinals; this is an inductive construction which defines a family for an ordinal alpha in terms of what's in the families for the "previous" ordinals (i.e. the ones less than alpha). Once you have all those auxiliary families, you take their union, and you argue that it's a sigma-algebra (and is equal to the Borel sigma-algebra).
If this is your first time seeing ordinals, then you should probably read up on them a bit (just on the general concept and on basics of transfinite induction/recursion)
This entire approach (and variants on it, because I don't really like the exact way it's done in 1.3.G; it seems it will make dealing with complements annoying) is described here: https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Borel_hierarchy
In mathematical logic, the Borel hierarchy is a stratification of the Borel algebra generated by the open subsets of a Polish space; elements of this algebra are called Borel sets. Each Borel set is assigned a unique countable ordinal number called the rank of the Borel set. The Borel hierarchy is of particular interest in descriptive set theor...
Okay sure
Engelking has a refresher on ordinal numbers in the introduction, in fact
Yes
yes so family F1 will be all countable union of sets of family F0, and F2 is countable intersection of sets from F1 u F0
so on...
so Fi \subset F{i+1}
is it true that a map of bundles induces homeomorphisms on fibers?
idts
the map 𝛗 induces a map between fibers 𝛑_{E}^-1 (b) and 𝛑_{F}^-1(f(b))
thats continuous
got you
What is G
The structure group?
yea
I feel like this still needs a bit more clarification on what you actually mean by bundle
What happens if you just take a fibre bundle F over a point, with trivial structure group
Then any map F -> F is probably as desired
If you mean G-principal bundles then that is different and it should be true
hmm. im not sure i understand. lemme give some more context tho
I mean like what about the example i gave
Well just take any map that isnt a homeo as your bundle map, and make the source a point
(More generally, you can give a trivial fibre bundle the structure group {1}
And so the equivariant bit dies and all you have are bundle maps and then a similar thing applies)
okay, yea, then G-equivariant isn't enough to guarantee that the bundle maps induce homeomorphisms of fibers
In fact like generally inducing a homeo on fibres is equivalent to the bundle map is an isomorphism
im reading through this
and i was trying to see how i would define a morphism of bundles
and i came up with what the wiki page says, which is nice
but
i can't see how these are related
This definition is odd to me lol, but perhaps I am missing context. In particular it says h is a map B -> B', but then it talks about the effect of h on fibres, which live in the total space
Which makes no sense to me
this is from steenrod's paper, the topology of fibre bundles
should have clarified - isn't a guarantee.
if we're talking about principal g bundles over the same base w g equivarant map covering the identity then yes
lol i haven't fully understood this definition yet
Yeah i wonder if implicitly there is smth like this going on
yea, im kind of trying to translate this into more modern terminology
he's using it for both base + induced total space
😭
So what is the difference between curly B and usual B
It would be helpful to know what these notations mean here
i'll send pics
Also like I would usually expect a map of bundles to be the identity on the base unless otherwise specified
(If they have the same base)
yea
the entire coordinate bundle (curly)
i have been replacing B with E and X with B while taking notes
I think it is more that this is so old that the conventions had not become standard
i do not enjoy this
and Y with F
So i do not disrespect Steenrod at all
I have also had this feeling
Though tbh i imagine nowadays it is much more pleasant to learn from other texts lol
im just trying to get through a few sections, but yea, agreed
But okay this makds sense now
Thanks
Then okay it makes sense yeah
I think it is just a convention thing whether bundle maps are homeos on fibres
I checked and the (well-known) book "Characteristic classes" has the same convention
Depends on convention
thanks, i hate it
But the usual one would be what wikipedia has
There are just many different notions of what you can mean by bundle ig
is there one that is commonly used today? or are bundles just, shrouded in ambiguity
When i wrote my ug thesis (on K-theory stuff) it seemed the usual convention is that fibre bundles should be locally trivial and a map E -> E' of bundles over B is just a map on total spaces which commutes with the projection to B. If you add extra data to your bundle — like a choice of trivialisations and sructure group G — then you may want to express compatibility with G
And then in some cases you may also wanna have isos on fibres lol
But i think i would just be careful with the text as well
seems like a smoother read through after learning more about bundles from other sources then
Like in this case you very explicitly have a G
I guess fortunately often you will just work with a special type of bundle aha
Like principal bundles or vector bundles
And then there is less ambiguity
@umbral panther do you think this is fair?
There are three main cases. Principal bundles, vector bundles and fiber bundles. If it’s a principal bundles, an equivariant map must be an isomorphism on fibers. If its vector bundles there are lots of options. I prefer maps preserving the linear structure, but they could have a kernel and the dimension of the kernel can vary, so the kernel and image aren’t guaranteed to be vector bundles. A general fiber bundle is just a map of spaces with special properties. I wouldn’t put any conditions on it
Lots of questions can be reduced to principal bundles. Asking that a map of bundles with fiber F is like asking for a map of principal bundles with group homeo(F)
Agreed
i don't understand the last sentence
asking that a map of bundles with fiber F (such that what?) is like asking for a map of principal bundles with group homeo(F)
For any F and E_i/B_i fiber bundles with fiber F, asking that a map E_1->E_2 send fibers to fibers by a homeomorphism is the same as a map of principal bundles with group homeo(F)
oh, okay. thanks
is this really point set topology.
borderline lol
i thought this was algebraic tbh
I guess these are objects more part of alg top but there isn't anything alg top going on here either / the questions make sense for point set ig
ok
yea, i really didn’t know where to ask it
this was my reasoning
@rancid umbra Seems like the definition is engineered in order to obtain theorems 2.6 and 2.11. I wouldn't read into it too much more than that. The point of Theorem 2.6 is to illustrate that somehow we just care about the structure group and the way the fibers are glued together more than the fiber space itself, which is foreshadowing of some later theorems that establish that the classification problem for fiber bundles over B can be reduced to the classification problem for principal fiber bundles over B, where you take the fiber to just be G itself.
As others have said, any bundle map between principle fiber bundles is automatically fiberwise a homeomorphism, so in this case the distinction is not important. For the sake of the classification problem, it suffices to define a morphism to be an isomorphism, I suppose.
Who added this smh
I looked it up by IP address and it was someone at the MIT lab for nuclear science
note that if f : B -> B' is a map, and p : E' -> B' is a fiber bundle, then the induced pullback map p*f -> f is fiberwise a homeomorphism
so these are at least common
is this problem related to number theory? because idk how to solve it if it is
not really, you don't need anything fancy to show its a metric space
well, for any part of the problem
i just hear divisibility so i get intimidated 😔
haha you'll be alright !
as long as you know that prime factorizations Exist and how they work you can show the thing
huh i wonder why the nuclear scientists care about type theory lol
i mean it works but thats kinda cheating
any zero dimensional space can be generated that way
what is zero dimensional space?
My guess is the IP thing doesn't distinguish between this and CSAIL, where I know for certain there are people who care about type theory, like Adam Chlipala and his students
yeah its also possible some random csail person happened to be connected to LNS wifi for whatever reason haha
i dont get the impression anyone in the math department cares about type theory there 💀
so probably csail
okay, thanks. that feels like it clears up some of my confusion on this definition
@thin scarab if you define divergent as the closed set of all non-convergent functions, then the functions we typically call "limit does not exist" would likely be a subset of divergent limits
That's the subtlety that I was thinking about
Bc in the extended real line you can say that functions that go to infinity converge to infinity, although in the ordinary real line they're divergent
I would personally not call that limit does not exist
Unlike oscillatory functions
This is true
I see what you're saying
it's irrelevant in the topic that was being discussed there though lmao
Same difference
This is also not topology tho
I mean I guess you are adjoining two isolated points to the real line
Initially I was thinking of holes that would make functions not converge
Not sure what you mean
Consider the topological space X = R \ {0}
All functions that tend to 0 do not converge in this space (aka divergent) although a limit, does in fact exist
continuous functions X->X?
or real-valued?
Oh you just mean any function that takes values in X
Ok... I would not say that the limit exists
so my first thought was in those cases divergent wouldn't necessarily mean limit dne, am I valid? Idk I just got off work and I'm dead tired 😭
it exists in R
just not in the topology where the function is
But not in X, which is your codomain
Yeah
So again I would not say that the limit exists because you are imagining X as embedded in another space

Matter of nuance
No, not really. The limit point definitionally does not exist in the set which is the target of the map
Like yes it's natural to imagine a sequence heading away from the center of an open interval is heading "towards a boundary" but if there is no boundary then it just isn't
Okay, clearer way to make my case. (0,1) is homeomorphic to R, yeah? So a sequence "approaching 1" would be going to infinity under the image of such a homeomorphism. We already agreed that you wouldn't say that the limit exists if the sequence is going to infinity, unless you add in infinity via the extended real number line.
I mean yeah a function f: (0,1) -> (0,1) that tends to 1 doesn't converge
Kinda the same idea, the limit point does not exist within the topology
It just makes sense to think that in this case there IS a limit point when you consider the topology to be embedded in a larger space
Kinda like the real line and the extended real line
As opposed to oscillatory functions like sine, for which you can't really say that
Don't get me wrong, I don't disagree with you
Okay but then you wouldn't consider your space to have a hole in it
In order for the limit to exist it has to be in your space
Like by definition
I just think there are two kinds of diverging functions, and for one of them you can (I think?) almost always say that a limit does not exist no matter what space you're thinking about
yeah yeah
Ik
😭
Sure, if your space is Hausdorff
well the trivial topology will do actually
I mean now that I think about it
an alternating sequence converges to both points lol
If f: R -> X such that X was non-Hausdorff you could make sin(x) have a limit too lol
well at least convergent into an open set
something like [-1,1]?
Huh? How are you defining sinx if you're mapping into a weird space
Y = [-1,1] with
hmmmm
finite complement?
ugh that'll be so ugly I cant think off the top of my head if sin will even be continuous under this mapping
it won't be
idk i dont have an intuition for that space
eitherway, good talk
Made me think a little bit about things I usually dont think about
are you a grad+ student
yeah
makes sense lmao I'm just a senior undergrad and my experience with topology has so far been not very pleasant
point set topology is annoying but a necessarily prereq for basically anything interesting you want to do
won't it? preimage of a single point is closed
so preimage of a closed set is a union of closed sets and therefore closed
I know I took it so I could learn more about differential geometry
I think originally I said that the map is sin: R -> Y
So preimage of a single point in Y should be open in R no?
no... the preimage of a single point in Y would be a collection of isolated points
oh you're right
like, sinx=1 has discrete solutions
I forgot it's a many to one mapping
yea to have a map be continuous into a set with cofinite topology you just need the fibers to be closed
singletons are closed too so yes I think it is actually closed you're right
I'm trying to think
Preimage of a closed set in Y
should be union of closed sets
Hmmmmm
damn that's actually crazy
😭
I find it so hard to believe but you're right
but is this a finite union

A closed set in finite complement topology should have all but finitely many points in Y right?
So if we're taking the preimage of this closed set, we're looking at the union of many many closed sets in R
Is that closed or open idk
open sets are those which have finite complement
no? a closed set in a finite complement topology is finite
oh shucks im actually stupid lol
yes you're right
closed set is finite, and we have a finite union of closed sets in R
yeah that checks out
honestly they should have just called it the finite set topology, nobody said you have to name your topology after the open sets instead of closed sets
i think it's a decent convention
checking that finite union of finite sets is finite makes much more sense than checking that finite intersections of cofinite sets is cofinite
I think it would be confusing if some topologies were named after the open sets and some were named after the closed sets
having a good intuition around finite complement, k-topology and all that for the first time last year was very weird
Took me a long time to get the hang of it
or call it the Frechet filter topology
