#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 78 of 1
Yeah, you are missing the mark a bit there
You phrased it as "there are numbers inside [0,0.99]"
hi kerr :3
Hi :3
Okay so to answer your question the union of [0,r] through r\in (0,1) contains 0.99 because there exists an x s.t x \in [0 ,0.99] ?
if anyone could help explain how the resulting space is S^2 thatd be super appreciated--just a bit confused because it doesnt look like S^2 in my mind
draw the 1-skeleton on S^2 and see that the "outside" corresponds to the last attaching map
Lol funny exercise
i guess my worry would have been that you get something that's like R^2 but note that D^2 is compact
so the last attaching map does get you the last bit of S^2 instead of a plane
(the attachimg map is literally "walk around each petal, go up the stem and then back down the stem")
ah i think i see now
that last bit helped a ton
thank you so much! I really appreciate it
i feel like talking in this channel helped me so much with algtop (and made me fall in love with it more, which was like less the case last semester)
in the plane, closed simple loops have an inside and an outside, while on a sphere this is not the case (consider the loop around the equator), does this property for a space have a name?
I am not sure I follow, the loop around the equator still dissect the sphere into two components?
maybe this is better:
But on the plane, one is bounded and the other is not
right
so does metrizatibality and compactness necessarily play into this?
oh, the Jordan-Brouwer separation theorem seems to be the the topological generalization of the R^2 case i had in mind
or, i’m not quite sure
what is a topological sphere in R^(n+1) ?
a subspace hom to some S^k ?
oh nvm it says, lol
actually. can we have a injective, continuous image of S^n with the subspace top in R^(n+1) not hom to S^n ?
either way this is wrong since we’d clearly need k=n
No
It’s an injective map from a compact space into a hausdorff space
how is that enough to conclude the map is a imbedding?
It implies that the map is closed, and a closed injective continuous map is an embedding
yeah this is a really useful ting to remember
mad ting that theorem
i… did not know this

thanks
what about generalizations into other spaces than euclidean space?
i am probably not even at a point to grok the above theorem but am still very curious about what theorems are established

The closest thing that comes to mind is the excision theorem for good pairs, although I am not sure if you can choose the pairs appropiately?
spiritually you wanna show that H_0(X\A,A\A) is non-trivial where A is your embedding of the sphere and X your ambient space.
I guess I should say "in spirit" but eh
i am unfortunately not really familiar with even basic algebraic topology (besides the intuitive “the fundamental group contains some information about the holes in a space”)
nor do i know what a homology is
Well, the jordan curve theorem for the plane is proved using the fundamental group usually
But more generally homology groups capture the information present in brouwer separation theorem
i have only seen a sketch for the proof, using that the parity of the number of times any line intersects the curve is invariant to rotation around points (under quite strong assumptions about both those points and the curve)
i love nuking problems
Using really strong results to solve problems that could be done with simpler methods
waw, sounds like fun
very fun

I'm studying basic point-set topology right now, and I have a question about definition of homeomorphisms (a bijective function such that both it and its inverse are continuous). For topological spaces in general, is it true that the inverse function of a given bijective continuous function is always continuous? (if you think I should have asked this question in a different channel please inform me)
No.
Yeah I guess not too lol. Trying to prove this but I can't prove that a bijection continuous function is always an open map so I guess that's where the problem comes from?
Lmao
take the identity function from R with the discrete topology (where every subset is open) to R with the Euclidean topology
identy functions are often good for these things
Here's a more natural example (imo): Consider the function [0,2π) -> S^1 sending φ |-> (cos φ, sin φ). This is obviously continuous and bijective.
But S^1 and [0,2π) are not homeomorphic (and specifically, the image of [0,1) is not open, for example)
thanks a lot! will think on your examples XD
there is a characterisation of when the identity function (X, τ) -> (Χ, τ') is continuous
which will clarify the intuition
although saing "identity map is not continous" hurts me inside
i'm glad nG said function
hot potato
indeed
lol
Does there exist a knot with unknotting number n for any natural number n?
I'd assume so because isnt the unknotting number just roughly half the knotting number?
can somebody tell me if this is continuous in the box topology or not? I'm pretty sure it is, and here was my reasoning: I wrote $h$ as the composition $g \circ f$ where $f: (x_1, x_2, \dots) \mapsto (a_1x_1, a_2x_2, \dots)$ and $g: (x_1, x_2, \dots) \mapsto (x_1 + b_1, x_2 + b_2, \dots)$. so i took an arbitrary basis element of $\mathbb{R}^\omega$ under the box topology, and looked at the preimages, and found that it happened to be an open set of $\mathbb{R}^\omega$
okeyokay
Yeah I agree
Like the preimage of an open subset of R under a linear map is open in R
ye
then because we have the box topology that means preimage of a basic open is a basic open
And then I guess it should still be a homeo right
because ||you can just write down the inverse in the same form||
tyty :)
wouldn't the coarsest topology on $A$ just be the topology generated by the subbasis $\mathcal{S} = \bigcup_{\beta \in J} \mathcal{S}_{\beta}$
okeyokay
yes
my prof told to just ignore everything about the box topology saying it’s completely irrelevant and i’ll take it, mwahaha
lol yeah i'm tempted to skip this section
but i promised myself i would do a decent amount of problems from each section
is this a generalization of the product topology to arbitrary sets which need not be a product or smt
waht
cuz in the product topology you take as a subbasis all preimages of open sets in each X_\alpha under the projection map
product topology = coarsest topology such that all projections are continuous
but there you're considering the topology on an actual product
anyways i'm prolly yappin
This is the definition of "coarsest topology containing a collection of sets"
havent heard of the box topology in years, jesus
Or in this case I guess, coarsest topology such that a specified set of functions are continuous. This gets into uhh some categorical stuff I guess (it relates to how you construct limits in Top)
i mean if you’re asking if the product top on one space is the same as the topology on the space then the answer is yes, but not in any interesting way
It being the coarsest is more of a consequence of the universal property than any construction
just in the same way that you can identify points with 1-tuples of points
I am bit confused, you described essentially the same subbasis twice?
nvm ignore it
lol box topology mentioned
The point of box topology is to show you why product topology is better
So true
This construction is actually used. Box isn't important, but weak top is.
May we hear from it again in like 3 years
This and the order topology on the reals, another munkres example
I thought order topology be pog 
I never saw it again...but I study manifolds
isn't order topology on the reals the same as the Euclidean topology?
I mean, I agree that the Euclidean topology is pog, of course
whatever pog means, I'm in my 40s and no longer down with da youth
Pandora's Box topology
Anyone here familiar with realcompact spaces?
Real compact?
yes
I saw them in a book, for what do you need them?
I need to study them, so I was wondering if anyone has some links or stuff to understand them deeper
is there a deeper reason why you study them or just to know them?
It's for my thesis
What's the topic?
I encountered them too for my thesis, since they somehow help to understand prime ideals
in C(X)
It's not well defined yet, but I'll surely need them
Is it more topology or more analysis?
The first one
okay I saw them more from a analysis point of view
Yeah that was the punchline to the munkres thing
I had to look up pog
My first thought was those coin thingies
what's he trying to say here?
Most long exact sequences are of the form
A_n -> B_n -> C_n -> A_n-1 -> B_n-1 -> C_n-1
Where the index changes every 3 terms
ah right, so it's an intuitive remark - he's not saying anything profound
yeah
ok thank you both
I guess you can see this as coming from like
yeah yeah snake lemma and such
the SES of chain complexes inducing the LES of homology
SES being 3 nonzero terms, yadda yadda
it's interesting they say "the" homology and homotopy LES
The LES associated to a SES of chain complexes; the LES associated to a fibration of spaces
bit unrelated but i just want to appreciate how good of a book tom Dieck is
oh no, rat escaped the containment zone (discussy) 🙀
yeah
YES
I HAVE NEVER SEEN YOU BEFORE BUT FROM YOUR NAME AND THIS MESSAGE I ALREADY LIKE YOU
:copium:
Munkres and hatcher have the same number of letters 
Coincidence?
Well it is kinda profound lol
Hi I have some questions about basic topology
I understand that there are open sets and closed sets, and that it's possible for a set to be open and closed at the same time (or neither)
Sets are open in a top space if finite intersections are open and unions are open
Sets are closed in a top space if finite unions are closed and intersections are closed
The complement of an open set is a closed set
And vice versa
So I was reading this topological proof that there are infinite primes
And it feels weirdly too abstracted, like it feels more like notational magic that might obscure some faulty logic or something
So they defined the space as such
$N_{a,b} = {a+nb : n \in \mathbb{Z} }$
CosmoVibe
Where b > 0
And a and b are both integers
All of these sets are both open and closed
You can't seriously think that's it's just a coincidence
impossible
And so to prove that there are infinite primes, all they have to do is show that, assuming finite primes, the finite union of the N sets for $b \in \mathbb{P}$ is closed, but the complement is finite and open, a contradiction
CosmoVibe
How do we justify these topological axioms
Is there a reason we can assume things like this
And this
At the same time
Is this something in topology 101
Is it just a simple set theory proof, and these sets happen to agree?
Assuming X and Y are metric spaces and X is compact, for two continuous functions f, and g between them is it necessarily true that d_y(f(x),g(x)) for x in X is bounded
it would be really cool and awesome if d_y(f(x),g(x)) was in C(X) but idk how to show that off the top of my head
Since f and g are continuous then f(X), g(X) are compact. Now compact implies boundness but distance betweem images mmmm
Distance between compact sets is bounded, I believe
if d_y(f(x),g(x)) itself was continuous from X to R then you could use a cover of preimages on X and show it’s bounded
Ahg wait Idk how is boundness on a metric space
Boundedness, as being inside a big enough ball?
Ah wait, this argument works as well
Idk how to show it lmao
Thank Hausdorff >.>
I mean, its still a cts function from a compact set aint it
How the fuck do I prove d_y(f(x),g(x)) is in C(X)
oh wait you havent shown the metric to be cts yet?
X -> X x X -> Y x Y -> Y
i literally just forgot because last time I did the proof was a year ago lma
well, i guess take a refresher there
you know that (f,g) is cts so thats the missing piece
i haven’t proved the metric itself from Y x Y is continuous in a long ass time
Ah, fwiw me too. I just think every map in topology is continuous (unless it was constructed otherwise)
well, as a hint: try to imitate the epsilon-delta way
my goal was to show that the space of continuous functions from X (compact) to Y, both metric spaces, is a metric space if it’s true
as a different question or still for the original one?
The original one
wtf
Like a year ago I wanted to see if Arzela Ascoli could be generalized in a specific way and I had some stuff down but I did a funny and skipped over a step that I forgot how to do
who is the real one 🔫
It won't let me fuckin login to my main on my phone
i'm pissy but too lazy to fix it
I mean thats way too overkill for showing that it is bounded
Nor am I sure how they would be even related
Right I was trying to see it witv the distance and not open sets
$d_{C(X,Y)}(f,g) = \mathrm{sup}_{X}\left(d_Y(f(x), g(x))\right)$
Mizalign
d_Y(f(x),g(x)) would be a cts function form X into R, so a cts function from a compact set into R. So it achieves a maximum and a minimum
I think its just the difference in norm of f and g respect Y
With the supremum over X ofc
The image of any compact set under any cts function should be compact. For a cover, the cover set preimages cover X, so chose a finite subcover of preimages over X. Take the image. Cash money
nah wait
I thought the image of a preimage is a subset of the original
not necessarily the original
a refinement, mayhaps
okay so you have found U_1 , ... , U_n s.t. their pre-images cover X
You can use characterization of compact sets on a metric space.
nvm fair
Or are you trying to show that the image is compact?
then U_1, ... , U_n cover f(X). For if x isnt covered by any of them, then it is disjoint from the U_i and hence its pre-image is disjoint from them too
fair
Forgot they were preimages of something lol
but yeah
I wanted to see if you could generalize Arzela Ascoli to C(X,Y) if it's between metric spaces with the domain compact
To characterize compactness on C(X,Y)
I at least wanted to see if being compact in C(X,Y) (as a metric space) implies equicontinuity and pointwise boundedness (OR the pointwise IMAGE of the valuation is compact)
Since the valuation of X x C(X,Y) to Y I'd assume is continuous lol
lol wait X x F would be compact in the product topology cuz Tychenoff lmao
so the image would have to be bounded because it'd be compact
Yea
Equicontinuity is a hmm moment
Ok I think I get it
Between these three axioms:
- unions and finite intersections of open sets are open
- intersections and finite unions of closed sets are open
- the complement of an open set is a closed set and vice versa
If you assume two of them you can prove the third
$-(A \cup B) = -A \cap -B$
CosmoVibe
So that's why it works
You have to assume the third
Otherwise you could choose a smaller collection of closed sets, for example take the standard topology on R and for the "closed sets" take trivial topology on R. Then it satisfies 1 and 2 but 3 fails
Ahh
Oh I know what I'm missing now
You need an open set membership definition
Right?
Wait that has nothing to do with this
Ohhhh I see
The open set membership is qualified if it induces these three properties
Is that it?
So if I pick a definition for open sets that doesn't induce these properties, then it's a bad definition
Brain working?
You either need to define closed sets as the complements of open sets, or equivalently
Got it
Thanks
Uh one more question actually
I noticed that this particular topology proof doesn't make use of metric spaces even though I know they are foundational to topology
Is this because it is abstracted away but necessary from first principles?
Is there a way to demonstrate that a top space that has a notion of open and closed sets must have a valid distance function?
Or am I misunderstanding something
Metric spaces have a distance function, which gives us a way to talk about its open sets; that is, a metric induces a topology on you set.
They're important in topology because metric spaces are typically quite nice and a lot of things are easier in metric spaces than in general topological spaces. But there are many topologies which don't come from metrics (arguably, most don't)
So it is true then that all metric spaces are topological spaces or conversely?
any metric induces a canonical topology, but not all topological spaces are metrizable
Thanks!
i mean i get this but, cant i just find an arbitrary metric on the topology and call it induced? what does induced mean?
A metric induces a topology whose basis is the set of open balls
that it has come in a "natural" way?
Yeah, the continuous functions between metric spaces are precisely the same as the continuous functions between the induced topological spaces
In this proof,$ L_1(\mathbb{R})$ refers to f being inside the family of $L_1$ norms, right?
radar ashe
This proof just confuses me
I understand what it is saying, but why does this only work when the equality holds in the L2 norm
so we have f which is an L1 norm, we take the fourier transform of f
and then we can say f(x)=the summation of a bunch of discrete values
but it's an infinite amount of discrete values
That's not #point-set-topology, even though it speaks of 'norms'. It's (functional) analysis
Also what it is saying is: $$\left|f-\sum_{n\in\ZZ,;|n|\leq N}[...]\right|_{L^2}\tendsto{N\to+\oo}0$$
Matplotlib
So: you're assuming that f is L^1 (integrable), to be able to look at its Fourier transform with the actual integral. Then, if it happens that F(f) is compactly-supported, then the series of functions where sinc appears converges in the L²-norm to f
homological algebra question, not sure if this is the right channel
is this meant in the intuitive sense or is there an interesting categorical naturality going on
so I suppose we can write the exact sequence as a functor
If we have sequences A -> B -> C and A' -> B' -> C' and a map from one of those to the other, then it should induce a map between the exact sequences in the "obvious" way
i.e. be a functor from sequences of the appropriate shape to sequences of the other shape
potato how come you always save the day
Because I don't 😭
Alhough, to be fair, I don't see which this should be the case lol
i guess it works out
No yeah it does
Cool
Like, say we have a square uh
$[\begin{tikzcd}
A & B \
{A'} & {B'}
\arrow["f", from=1-1, to=1-2]
\arrow["\alpha"', from=1-1, to=2-1]
\arrow["{f'}"', from=2-1, to=2-2]
\arrow["\beta", from=1-2, to=2-2]
\end{tikzcd}]$
potato
Compile Error! Click the
reaction for more information.
(You may edit your message to recompile.)
Then like
if f(x) = 0, then
f'(alpha(x)) = beta(f(x)) = 0
so alpha(x) is in ker(f')
and the map alpha restricts to a map ker(f) -> ker(f')
Then similarly for all the other things
So the functor is just R-Mod(A,B) x R-mod(B,C) -> Exact right?
shit
But uh
No so like
If you want to make it more detailed
You consider the category of sequences A -> B -> C
with morphisms being the ladder diagrams i mentioned
Then you consider the category of long exact sequences with morphisms again being ladders
This construction is a functor from the first category to the second
ok ok i understand
But writing it out like this is often more painful than illuminating so often people just say natural like this
see the last time i was taking AT I was reading Hatcher
yeah
so I have to spell everything out rn
thanks for the help though. how long have you been in topology?
ah you're an undergrad? sorry i assumed you were a grad student
who would've thought
No, you just simply abhor hatcher for the sake of abhoring
What do you like then?
I see this but I don't quite understand what the claim of naturality is supposed to mean here
The correct approach to AT is to start with luries higher topos theory
painful
surely "natural" doesn't just mean the above construction is functorial, right?
That is what it means
when I see 'natural' i assume the maps are actually components of a natural transformation/isomorphism
verily, i am confused
If you want to do algebraic topology you need some experience with algebra jestie
I recommend going through luries higher algebra first
It often means functorial
I think of it as being the same as canonical, choice-free
damn
Although it usually does end up being a map that's part of a larger functor/natural transformation
thanks ppl
So true! I don't understand why this isn't done more often
of course ryx is summoned by that message
Is that actually what ryx did
Ok maybe a weird question
What makes a math problem "topology"?
So I saw a proof of the infinitude of primes using topology
It uses open and closed sets to show a proof by contradiction
Ohh thats a cool problem
I also understand that top spaces are not always metricizable and that metric spaces often induce top spaces
But like
What then is the common thread between that proof and the coffee mug bagel animation
I mean, yeah. They often do
Not often, a metric space induces a topology always
Why are these both "topology"
Oh
You might even say the set of exceptions has measure zero, as required by the first measure axiom
The open balls in the metric are the open sets in the topology
Thats a homeomorphism
So you can "deform" your space into a another
No lol, but I did learn model categories before algtop
Can anyone tell me where to read about what is known about discrete metric spaces? By this I do not mean metric spaces defined via the discrete metric (although this is one example). I mean metric spaces where every point is disconnected (meaning, for every point x, there is an open ball of size d > 0 such that x is the only point in the ball).
The topology induced by any discrete metric space in the above sense is always the same, the discrete topology. However, it seems to me that there is a lot more potential structure in the metric space that is lost by passing to topology.
I have been having trouble looking for resources on this, because it is one of the rare cases where the metrical objects at hand truly do not have good topological analogues.
Ok but what makes it topology then, the notion of open and closed sets?
Also I'm guessing that homeomorphisms require some kind of notion of continuity so it's probably very difficult to find any relevant application of homeomorphisms in a domain Z^n for any n, right?
Surely homeomorphisms are just specific tools for analyzing particular topologies then?
Homeo are to other importart stuff. Is like a isomorphism but we ask to the map be continuous and their inverse too. There are topological properties that are invariant under homeo so homeo are quite important
this does not answer your question but if I am not mistaken, there is a very natural Borel measure on this topological space which allows you to assign 'density' to residue classes which is pretty heavily used in analytic number theory
Why do you care?
Why does the metric matter?
One popular topic is the large scale geometry of groups. Take a finitely generated group and fix a generating set and define the distance to the origin to be the word length in the given generating set. This depends on the choice of generating set, but only up to “coarse quasi-isometry”
you're looking for totally disconnected spaces i believe
Totally disconnected spaces includes the cantor set, which the given definition excludes
Topology is the generalization of continuity and other stuff from R^n or C^n to other spaces with a topology or metric defined. Imagine that you are working with a map between spaces that are not R^n or C^n, how would define continuity? That way topology comes and give us a lot of properties as: completeness, compactness, continuity, connectness, density, etc. Topology is a powerful tool that is used like... almost everywhere
Disconnected was the wrong word. I think "isolated" probably fits better
Not too familiar with some of these terms, is this basically saying that for any two sets of integers, we can somehow define a distance function between them the loosely describes their "density"?
If so that partially answers my question
no, that's not it.
Why do you care?
One example of this is the metric $\max(K(x | y), K(y | x))$, the max kolmogorov complexity "between" two strings. This clearly has a very rich structure that isn't captured by the discrete topology.
wikiemol
don't worry about what I just said above, i just wanted to point out that even the 'weird' topological space (natural numbers with residue classes as basis elements) has a really good reason to be called a topological space
which definition?
Ok, so would a better description be that topology abstracts notions of continuity and other properties like how abstract algebra abstracts notions of algebra through their properties?
The given definition is that it induces the discrete topology.
And it does this through defining metric spaces?
ah yes
i am blind
I’m suspicious of taking something asymmetric and forcing it to be a metric by taking the max of the two directions. It doesn’t want to be a metric
:( it can be a metric if it wants
Generalizes some properties that we already know in R^n and C^n yeah
And i dont think makes sense that abstract algebra abstracs notions of algebra
This is exactly what we do with the metric |x - y|, over the real numbers. I see no problem with this.
Btw thanks for being so patient with me
no you ask a good question
Before define topology one see first metric spaces. To understand the notion of open set with open balls, the same with closed ones and so on
Metric and topology spaces are both important ofc
If metric spaces are so foundational to topology, then how come the top spaces that don't have metric spaces are also top spaces?
Yeah I think this is a reasonable way to make something symmetric
the topological space is a generalization of the metric space
Ohhhhhhh
Topology spaces have their own definition and a metric space induce a topology space as a consecuence of the defintion
I wouldnt say its a generalization
Still have some haziness obv since these explanations are very loose and non technical but I appreciate the responses and I think I have what I need to work with for now
I would say so
what book are you following?
Just a nuclear generalization
Munkres
ah. then the standard book is Munkres
really it's very hard to grasp these concepts without a proper introduction
Man I wish there was a standard book for a first course of AT
tom DIeck
tamm otomd ieck
i guess it's not the standard but as far as i can tell thats the book preferred by actual AT people
the only thing the book lacks is a proper introduction to category theory
I am not sure this is what I am looking for, again, this seems like a purely topological concept, but every discrete metric space induces the same topology, the discrete topology, so it seems that topology is not (entirely) the right tool, even though intuition from topology probably applies
yeah no i misread your initial message
Its really weird that I am coming up blank on searches for this
I would expect there to be more about this online
i wonder if we can embed each such metric space (of cardinality <= continuum) into R^n for some n
https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/4201166/not-every-finite-metric-space-embeds-in-an-mathbbrk aha!
doesn't even work in the finite case. interesting
Is there? You can recover the metric from the discrete topology tho?
That is very weird. Although, the solution there could be just, make it an assumption! haha "Embeddable" metrics may be mostly what I am interested in actually, but its hard to say
And no, they can all be induced by the discrete metric (the metric which is 0 when x = y and 1 otherwise)
the "is there" refers to the additional information
Consider a finite graph. To each pair of points, you can assign a distance by the minimum length of a path
This induces the discrete topology, but the distance itself is meaningful and cannot be recovered from the topology
So yes, there can be non-topological data given by the distance function itself
howdy
Why would it not?
crap
but the metric does
even then
All graphs are transitive so true
lol
And yeah that should still work with weights
If there are weights it does not necessarily,
consider a triangle with the hypotenuse weighted larger than the sum of the other two sides
still a metric
well, they said minimum length
Oh haha true, yeah
so its fulfill the triangle inequality by def there
Oh uhh I guess you might need connected graph actually
just make it infinite
yh I was thinking of an entirely different, stupid construction
Sure, if you allow metrics to take infinite distance that also works
or greater than any achieved distance, and argue that makes no difference
Reals? extended
of course in the infinite, weighted case the topology might just turn out to be non-discrete right?
yeah
If continuous maps are the "right" morphisms to consider for the category of topological spaces, but metric spaces hold more information than just their topology, what is the "right" kind of morphism for metric spaces?
but since the question came from CS, graphs may be assumed to be finite
Nonexpansive maps
non expensive maps
Why not isometries?
turn the real numbers into a sufficently cursed graph
I.e., d(f(x),f(y)) ≤ d(x,y)
my prof has a paper like that
Seems kinda lax! I smell double categories!
those preserve the entirety of the metric structure. Those should ideally be the 'isomorphisms' of the category
looks like 1-Lipshitz, but without a norm
Isométries would force everything to be injective also, so it's a bit too strong
well, you still get them from inverse non-expansions
Aha that makes sense
That's exactly what it is, you can talk about Lipschitz between metric spaces
Double categorical foundations of analysis sotrue
I have no idea what we are talking about now lol
nevermind, Im just
-brained
not long and you will write about continental philosophy modelled by higher topoi
the marxist taco
they moved on to another question
some hegelian dialectics fans said its summary of the philosophy is bad, so schreiber probs has a target audience of like 2-3 people for it
Sorry, what was the original question?
Sounds like a question for stackexchange then, only have to figure out how to phrase it without getting downvoted to hell
Yeah I'm not sure of any great resources for what you're looking for, I was just trying to motivate why you'd care about the distance function and accidentally derailed it
@buoyant dew Stallman pfp and Hatcher-hater name... my arch nemesis
@stuck lagoon have you considered looking up finite metric spaces? there seems to be some work on the combinatorial structure
Are you a Hatcher apologist
Interestingly, I was hoping the metric I mentioned as an example (conditional complexity) would satisfy something akin to this property by the data processing inequality, but sadly only applies to mutual information, which I can't make into a useful metric
I liked Hatcher, then again it wasnt my first AT book (which was Lee)
man that book, albeit indirectly, gave me depression. like i legitimately began therapy
I will look into that! Could be a good starting point. My main motivating example is definitely countably infinite spaces (spaces of strings, computable functions, etc), but perhaps I will find useful things that generalize to the infinite case from studying the finite case
The deformation retract visit me when I sleep sometimes 
I admit that "Delta-complexes" were a bad move
mind if I ask where you got the idea from? are you working on a problem or just casually interested?
reading hatcher is like reading persian poetry by someone who only knows english
Have you looked at the pretty pictures though?
Sounds interesting!
what field are you in btw? topology or something else? @knotty vine
I mostly do category theory now, but with applications in CS, type theory, and homotopy theory
aha interesting
Mostly just casually interested. I feel like there is something to be gained from understanding computable functions in terms of information theoretical metrics.
I think one motivating problem was in AI. Generally speaking, often the way AI is trained is via a minimization of a loss function, and this generally corresponds to the topology induced by continuous functions with an Lp norm. This is how, e.g. the universal approximation theorem was proved for single layer neural networks.
However, I realized that we do not actually know for sure if minimizing the loss function actually corresponds to minimizing information distance. So I was attempting to prove that, then immediately realized that this can't be the case, since information distance is discrete. Which is a weird paradox that I wanted to find the solution to.
ah i see
what kind of "tools" does that usually involve?
very interesting
For homotopy and type theory stuff its the usual higher categories/Lurie business. For CS it's monads, (co)algebras, distributive laws
Just asking since you seem to be familiar, but what kind of math appears when studying theoretical AI and ML stuff ?
Asking as a 3rd year math/CS double major (who understands the things you just mentioned)
You're so fucking based holy shit

I am not as familiar as I might seem lol. I work at a company with a (very fledgling) AI research department, that I am very tangentially involved in. But it does seem that most of the work in AI right now is being done by engineers, not mathematicians (so lots of empirical/statistical results, things like "we tried this! It worked! Wow!")
But the few serious "mathematical" papers I have seen on the subject use mostly computability/information theory (thats probably obvious) and also functional analysis.
There's a bunch of interesting serious-math papers on automatic differentiation
I only know of them because categories were mentioned in them...
Oh I hadn't heard of automatic differentiation before.
The idea is to be able to automatically differentiate any given function in some programming language so that when you write function computing some neural network in that language you automatically get backpropagation. There's programming language semantics involved and, as I mentioned, category theory. I believe some people have even completely abstracted away from differentiation.
How is category theory useful for this (or CS in general) ?
As someone who basically knows nothing about it
Pretty interesting! Yeah looking on the wiki article I can see how that should be possible in theory and potentially lead to both better accuracy and better performance
cause to me it sounds like this very abstract, pure math thing, and then I see that it's used in lambda calculus, and apparently even in ML
I am curious about this too. I know type theory is very much involved in programming language design (to the point where in some broad sense they may even be considered equivalent from a mathematical perspective at least). And type theory has a very categorical "flavor" to it but I have never been quite able to formalize the relationship between them, other than "types are objects with morphisms computable functions between them"
"(and functors and monads are here too)"
I just learned of type theory's existence
I am one of those "type theory should be taught instead of set theory" people so your statement physically hurt me
Dont let Exomnium hear that! I purposefully wont @ him!
For a logic-category theory connection, very vaguely: categories with certain properties provide semantics for certain kinds of logics and conversely, certain logics provide an "internal logic" of certain categories so that we can reason in that category synthetically (without having to refer to objects and morphisms explicitly)
There are many connections between category theory and computer science, but one I'm interested in is using monads to model computational effects. Mathematical functions dont have any of those usually: theyre total, deterministic, and dont have side effects, but functions in a programming language (often functional programming languages) may not be any of those. It turns out that you can model those kinds of functions as Kleisly morphisms for specific monads. Partiality is modelled by the (-)+1 (aka Maybe) monad, nondeterminism by the powerset monad, side effects by the Reader/Writer/State monads.
type theory is objectively superior to set theory, also much less confusing than cat theory
Often functions dont have a single kind of computational effect so we would like to be able to combine monads together to get for example probabilistic nondeterministic functions. But it turns out there's no good way of combining the Distribution monad (for probability) and powerset monads!
Lets not get too carried away or I will @ him!

Guess I'll just start taking that program semantics class and see if I like it
Same for information theory
Lol I personally don't have that strong a view, but I do think its a shame that type theory isn't taught to mathematicians/programmers typically. Especially for CS people I think type theory has a lot of practical applications to the "working" programmer. Learning it just made me a better programmer.
this is applied in, like, haskell already right
tbf I just finished my first semester as a CS major (3 days from now technically)
Yes!
You just live with it
Yeah monads are awesome, I have never really understood them categorically though, at least not completely. I understand intuitively that there is a category of "non-determnistic" (in the sense of multiple outputs) morphisms but thats about where my understanding ends from a category theory perspective.
Do you know what a monoid is?
Don't you dare

Even I knew that 2 years ago
Its not that bad once you get it
Lol I do know what a monoid is. And I have had "the category of endofunctors" explained to me before and I was like "wow that makes a lot of sense" and then promptly forgot it
Well you only have to remember the catchphrase to impress (annoy) people!
Here's another connection: data types (specifically inductive types) can be modelled as initial F-algebra for some endofunctor F. An F-algebra is a pair of an object X and a morphism f : F(X) -> X. Morphisms between F-algebra are maps g : X -> Y so that the square that involving all four obvious morphisms commutes. This forms a category F-Alg. If it has an initial object, this is the initial F-algebra. For example, the natural numbers are the initial F-algebra of the functor (-)+1 : Set -> Set
And the way I've been explaining monads to programmers these days is "Its a type that represents multiple (perhaps even uncountably infinite) outputs"

Or no output at all, or a probability distribution of some outputs, or just a single output but it also modifies some state, etc...
but in reality it’s all just some mutable state
Well, in the case of modifying state, I think its best to think of a monad as "returning all possible worlds", which is why it remains "pure" for the sake of the functional programmer's (my) ego
And is this basically a generalization of a K-algebra
an F-algebra I mean
Thats where the names come from
For a field F
Body
Ah I see, so in the case of a K-algebra the functor is _ x _ (cartesian product with itself), and the category is field extensions, or vector spaces.
Wait a second, another example! Kleene's recursion theorem?
functor being any total computable function, initial object being the fixed point
wait, actually that doesn't make sense I don't think haha
You mean the Kleene fixed point thm?
Yeah
It is related. We can construct the initial algebra with the same process as is used in Kleenes thm
Similarly, the proof that the underlying morphism of an initial F-algebra is an isomorphism is completely the same one a the proof that an initial pre-fixed point (I think it's called) is an actual fixed-point
This one's called Adameks fixed point thm apparently
Interesting, I have been trying to wrap my head around Kleene's theorem proof for a while now. I gave up on the Y combinator one, but the one he originally gave (iterating) made more sense. Still not complete sense, but more sense non-theless.
Now heres a nice thing we get from category theory: all this stuff can be dualized for free. It turns out terminal F-coalgebra are models of coinductive types (not surprisingly) such as infinite streams
This is related to Haskell again since lists in Haskell may be infinite as well
So this Haskell List type is an algebra an a coalgebra at the same time in some compatible way (but I dont remember the details)
haskell just super lazy
eepy haskell
someone should make that a technical term
Why is this haskell thing here
Got carried away
Ah sorry I wasn't saying that to judge
I am interested in how topology discussion came down to mention of FP
I think we went from metric spaces to information theory to "serious" math in AI research to automatic differentiation to applications of category theory in computer science
Woah
All roads lead to category theory
Indeed, but I mean current era AI-adjacent CS has quite a distance from CT
How?
Over the past two decades machine learning has permeated almost every realm of technology. At the same time, many researchers have begun using category theory as a unifying language, facilitating communication between different scientific disciplines. It is therefore unsurprising that there is a burgeoning interest in applying category theory to...
I mean, this paper is exploring using category theory in ML, right. Not necessarily connected to ML in practice.
As was said earlier, it seems like ML research is currently mostly engineering (whatever works is good, dont need to understand why). But ML is very young, and just like with the engineers that built cathedrals in the middle ages, eventually foundational research like this will become important (if the singularity doesnt happen before then).
hey
so the part in the blue is just the picture on Hatcher right? and would the red be
nevermind i never fully understood the explanation in hatcher
lol
can anyone explain these to me? a brief intuitive explanation is ok
Blue means: a homotopy for topological spaces induces a chain homotopy on the singular chain complexes
Hmm, idk about that. Programming has been always "whatever that barely works is the best"
ah great
Red means: if you have a good notion of tensor product for chain complexes and you have that the unit inverval looks like I_* := 0 <- Z*Z <- Z <- 0, then you can make chain homotopies just like you can do with regular homotopies: a homotopy between f,g : X -> Y is a morphism H : X*I -> Y such that H(-,0) = f and H(-,1) = g
that's a mouthful
Replace I with I_* and the product with the tensor product and you get chain homotopy
this I have no idea about

thanks a lot
Do you see how the interval chain complex idea works?
i don't think i do
The interval has two points, so the chain complex Z*Z at order 0. It has a single line segment, so we have Z at order 0. It has nothing else, so 0's everywhere else. The boundary map from Z -> Z*Z is k |-> (-k,k)
hang on
There's no homology here yet
yeah lol. and it's contractible so those cant be the homology groups
yeah yeah I see
You know about simplicial sets?
yup
actually nevermind that doesnt help lol
For the tensor product: we want a product of chain complexes which corresponds to the usual geometric product
yeah he explains the rest of the construction as well
This can't just be the degree-wise product because we ought to take the product of say, a line (1d) and a triangle (2d) to obtain a prism (3d)
ah ok
we want the category to be monoidal right? together with the tensor product of chain complexes
So instead we define $(X_\bullet \otimes Y_\bullet)n \coloneqq \bigoplus{i + j = n} X_i \otimes Y_j$
ok i see
semer
This in fact makes the category of chain complexes a monoidal closed category
Now remember that a usual topological homotopy is just a continuous map X*I -> Y
yeah
Now replace X and Y with chain complexes, the product with the tensor product, and the unit interval with the unit interval chain complex we just defined
If you work this out you get a chain homotopy!
this is cool, thanks for the help
yw!
i need to step up my category game though
idk what a closed category is
it probably doesn't help that one of the 2 profs at my institution who knows about CT actually hates it
Doesnt really matter for this, just that theres a notion of internal hom
actually nevermind lol
so I have a bunch of questions here
We're considering $(C_\bullet)$ with the finite support R-module structure right? That is, $C_\bullet \cong \bigoplus C_n$. Then, a homomorphism $C_\bullet \to R$ corresponds to choosing a homomorphism from each $C_n$ because we have $$\left [ \bigoplus C_n, R\right ] \cong \prod \left [ C_n, R\right ]$$ in modules.
I Abhor Hatcher
did I get this right? Also what is the most general categorical setting $\left [ \bigoplus C_n, R\right ] \cong \prod \left [ C_n, R\right ]$ holds?
I Abhor Hatcher
And each chain complex is actually a cochain complex under this definition when we negate the indices right? That is, if $C_\bullet=(C_n)$ is a chain complex then $C^\bullet = (C_{-n})$ is a cochain complex, or am I missing something?
I Abhor Hatcher
and finally if someone could explain the footnote I'd be very thankful
Ye
hey potato
This actually holds in any category (provided the relevant things exist lol)
Basically the "Hom functor preserves limits"
ah alright
It's just that here the first limit takes place in the opposite category, i.e. it is a colimit in the original category so you get the direct sum
pretty sure this is a typo on nlab btw right like this should be LLP not RLP
Yeah
Correct
Or uhh you're correct that it should be LLP
If [ , ] is Set-hom, then yeah always. If [ , ] here means an internal hom in Mod-R then that's a property of multivariable adjunctions.
Phew lol thanks
Sure yeah i meant straight up hom impoverished over sets
"impoverished" 
heya
the way he puts it, there seems to be an immediate reason for checking this but I don't see it
this is just after constructing homology of pairs and triples
well no I don't think so
hang on
this is the theorem right before it. and after it it's just examples
i guess i just don't see the utility of showing that the boundary operator is natural transformation between the functors $H_k(X,A)$ and $H_{k-1}(A,B)$
I Abhor Hatcher
hmm
Knowing that maps induce maps of long exact sequences seems pretty useful to know
yeah i have no objections to that
yeah idk why it is phrased as “it remains to verify”
but the naturality of the boundary operator is not really necessary to show that right?
that basically comes for free (snake lemma)
ah
ah
Fair, I don't see why either
sorry i keep misreading stuff
Snake lemma? For that you need to know the diagram commuted already
the first sequence here I mean
whats (11.3.2)
good question
so this says whenever you have a SES of chain complexes you can write the long exact sequence. snake lemma right?
#calculus is the right channel i believe
As I understood it, f_* is induced from maps from one short exact sequence to another
Wait Kerr can I check smth with ou
yup
Cause I don't know if I'm smoking
Sorry, I clicked the wrong channel. My bad.
?
Someone asked like "what is the double cover of the torus"
but isn't it just... the torus
Maybe I'm being silly
maybe they mean the orientation double cover
But then it's orientable so it's just two copies of T^2
yeah
the double cover i have in mind is like
S^1 x S^1 (x,y) |-> (x,y^2) i guess right
like the fibre of any poitn (x,y) is (x, square roots of y)
sorry I just understood what you're saying
i guess the cheeky way is that like
T^2 = R^2/Z^2 so the cover corresponding to a subgroup H of Z^2 is R^2/H
Naturality means you can do things like 5 lemma for example
oh okay nvm sure
Lol
yeah ok this makes sense. the naturality of ∂ basically tells us that the given LES construction is a functor from Top(3) to the category of chain complexes, right?
Yeah the process of showing it's natural is probably not helpful, but the fact it is natural is :^)
yeah I see it now
thanks
i guess it tells us a bit more than that
Sounds all right, doesn't the cheeky way correspond to a general way of constructing covers from an universal covering space?
Yes exactly
I more just mean that it feels like overkill
Though here it's fine ig since T^2 is often presented as R^2 / Z^2
lol
T^2 = S^1 x S^1 = BZ x BZ = BZ^2 :trollface:
My thought was just that checking the naturality was the last missing piece of checking if you have this
You get induced maps between their LES
fantastic
it isn't standard notation i.a.h.
we don't need to check whether these commute with f* because they are just induced maps that operate on representatives, right?
so the only thing left to do is to check whether ∂ commutes with f*
hahahaha
You probably shown something like that before?
On a noncompact manifold, singular homology is dual to compactly supported cohomology and locally finite homology is dual to singular cohomology; On a compact manifold, the general form of Poincare duality is relative Cech cohomology (K, L) = relative singular homology (M\L, M\K) for compact K, L. Is there a (reference for a) similar generalization for noncompact manifolds?
thank you @white oxide
What
oh nvm keep going
LOL
the pensivebreed incident will remain secret
Lol
lool
Hello chat.
Hi chatette
If $F \in C(X,Y)$, $X$ and $Y$ both metric spaces, and $F$ is compact. If each function in $F$ is uniformly continuous in $X$, then is $F$ necessarily equicontinuous
Mizalign
i guess F \subset but ye
might be better off in #real-complex-analysis
I suppose?
Where do I start reading about the De Rham cohomology and differentials? Like what's the 'modern beginner' book?
thanks!
god i wish there were homology type theory
homology is just a special case of homotopy
What's the definition of homotopy here that makes it a special case?
well it's obvious, logy is a special case of topy
i am so braindead
final question today
is the mayer-vietoris thm just a pushout preserving functor like the van kampen theorem? I don't immediately see why but I was told it was the categorical analogue of van kampen thm
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/homology two on this page:
- homology groups of a nonnegatively graded chain complex are the homotopy groups of the corresponding simplicial abelian group under the dold-kan correspondence. (when the chain complex is unbounded, it instead corresponds to "stably simplicial abelian groups")
- homology groups of a space X with coefficients in a spectrum A are homotopy groups of the smash product of the suspension spectrum of X with A. if you start with a coefficient object like an abelian group, you can take its eilenberg-maclane spectrum to get a coefficient spectrum
no no that makes no sense, nevermind
"just"
not directly related but mayer vietoris is actually equivalent to the excision axiom i think. or at least directly related
Both of these are kind of topological reflections of Noether's second isomorphism theorem
the diamond isomorphism theorem.
Does anyone mind checking this proof? The question is: let X be a set, F a collection of real valued functions on X, and T the weak topology generated by F; then T is Hausdorff iff for all pairs of distinct points x, y, there is some f in F with f(x) ≠ f(y).
If my proof is correct, only the requirement that T be T0 is required for the forward direction, but this would mean that T being T0 implies that it is Hausdorff, which shouldnt be true. I'm a bit confused, as I am blind to my own mistake.
is there a criterion for when (the total space of) a fibre bundle can be viewed as a bundle over the fibre instead of the base? does the bundle need to be trivial?
If your bundle F → E → B has a cover of compatible local trivializations p^-1(U) → U×F → F that glue to a map E → F, then you get a homeomorphism E → B × F
Which I assume is what "bundle over the fiber" means
Seems fine , also in a topological vector space T0 does imply T2 (and T3.5 too)
In what way do you mean?
As in, what forces it to be compatible with your original bundle
Bump
Oh seriously? Neat. Thanks!
hey guys, can somebody tell me, why it follows that [c]=0? I don't see it. I'm looking at the zeroth homology groups and in this case epsilon is an augmentation
The homology group is $H_0 = \ker \epsilon / \im \del$. So since $c = \del \sum_x n_x \lambda_x \in \im \del$, we have $[c] = 0$.
semer
I am having a brainless moment, how are quotient groups defined again?
these are meant to be factor groups right?
The quotient A/B means "everything in B becomes 0"
well thank you very much, that makes obviously sense now !!
Is there anything within the equation that would make you think it would yield a value of 1.0 easily 🤷♀️
To ask for mathematics help on this server, please open your own help channel or help thread. See #❓how-to-get-help for instructions.
I would like to know if I made a mistake in any of these.
X is a a set and {X} is another set with one element the set X? Then {X} should have nothing to do with the topology on X.
I like how it asks you to induction
And the notation is a bit weird. E.g. $a\subset \tau$ is not a good expression and there is no meaning in judging the statement since it does not make sense.
Dong_Valentino
discrete topology on X is just the power set of X so basically it's just asking what objects here are subsets (or collections of subsets) of X
Also has anyone heard about the terms such as metacompactness, orthocompactness, mesocompactness etc.?
I've just found out about them and they look interesting but I'm not sure how practical they really are
Are you saying that b is false?
ye
I have 7 false, and in reality there are 6, what would be the other error?
K
No, the empty set is an element of t. So {0} is a subset of t
And also a subset of t tbf lol but that is irrelevant ig
Also N should be false
a is not an element of t (but {a} is), so {a} is not a subset of t
sorry it's the translator
but it would be because a cannot be an OWN subset of t
I dont know what you mean, can you rephrase that?
Thats P which you correctly said was false
Ah, there is no problem with "strict inclusion" here
But that's unrelated to N
but it tells me that an element a is a subset of t and it wouldn't be
So if
{a}⊆t false
This is what I am understanding
The following are true: $a \in X$ and ${a} \subseteq X$ and ${a} \in \tau$ and ${{a}} \subseteq \tau$.\
The following are false: $a \in \tau$ and ${a} \subseteq \tau$.\
The following is very false: $a \subseteq \tau$.\
The same things hold for $\subsetneq$
semer
Looks good. What about M and O?
Why?
Because the set X is a subset of t
then the set with the element X would not be a subset of t
The set X belongs to t by definition, so X is also a subset of t.
I'm trying to calculate homologies of complex projective spaces, but the lecturer kinda skipped over the construction of its CW structure, so I have a question:
The Wikipedia says that we can regard CP^n as a quotient of S^{2n+1} under the action of U(1) so the space looks like a 2n-dimensional sphere. Why?
My understanding is: CP^n is defined as 1-dim subspaces of C^{n+1}. Any such subspace can be identified with a point in C^{n+1} and as such it is described by 2n+2 real numbers. We norm the point (?)by projecting it to a unit sphere losing 1 dimension, so the result looks like a 2n+1-dimensional sphere. And then since we have to identify the points under complex multiplication we have to mod out another dimension because complex multiplication is something that looks like S^1 and S^{2n+1}/S^1 = S^2n.
it doesn't look like a 2n-dimensional sphere that is a lie
in one case this happens CP^1 is S^2
CP^n has cohomology in every even degree less than 2n so you know it can't be a sphere
for n > 1
to compute the homology the nicest way is to use the following cell decomposition: CP^n is just C^n \cup CP^{n-1}, where CP^{n-1} is the set of complex "vanishing points at infinity"
this can be seen by letting $C^n$ be lines of the form $f(t) = (a_1t, \dots, t)$ with $a_i \in \mathbb{C}$ for $i \leq n$, and letting $CP^{n-1}$ be lines which lie in $\mathbb{C}^{n}$
kålrot
Why does my textbook say that as a topological space its equivalent to a quotient space of S^2n+1 under the S^1 action?
that is true
the caveman logic I had is that sphere mod sphere is sphere
but the quotient of S^{2n+1}/S^1 is not S^{2n}
but where does the S^[2n+1] come from? This is the part that is just stated but never explained
the point is that up to multiplication by a positive real number every complex vector in n+1-dimensional space lies on S^{2n+1}
this is just the unit sphere in n+1 dimensional complex space
how do I see that?
$C^{n} \cong R^{2n}$
kålrot
but n+1 = 2n+2?
yes but the sphere in R^{m} is S^{m-1}
holy... this does make sense now
happy to help
yeah its of codimension 1
makes sense
I was thinking really hard why its 2n+1 and all that time I just had to think of S^2 and R^3 haha
So they are just taking C^{n+1}, quotienting by the positive reals first, then quotienting by S^1
and using that $C^* \cong R_{> 0} \times S^1$
kålrot
by quotienting by the positive reals you mean the projection onto the S^2n+1?
that is one way of interpreting it
im just thinking of the natural way to identify RP^2 which is to normalize the vector
= take one canonical representative from each 1-dim subspace
the map $f$ sending $v = (z_1, \dots, z_{n+1}) \to v/|v|$ has the property that $f(v) = f(w)$ if and only if $v = rw$ for $r$ a positive real
kålrot
so it is quotient map for the group action coming from scaling by positive reals
this shows that $C^{n+1}/R_{>0} \cong S^{2n+1}$
kålrot
yess because if v = rw for a positive real then by interpreting r as a complex number theyre the same in the projective space too
which does make total sense
yep
on an unrelated note: are there any norms with values in complex numbers?
(the one that people work with and make sense)
not really
there's nothing wrong with the notion it's just not as useful
the point of a norm is to be able to order elements by size
so you want the target to be an ordered field
oh yeah
I did that in my model theory class
real closed fields I think?
in a sense the biggest field that can be ordered
real closed fields? I don't know what those are
but yeah anyway for most norms it's fine to use \mathbb{R}, although more complicated ordered abelian groups can show up
its the field F such that if you extend it by \sqrt(-1) it becomes algebraically closed
so in a sense its one element away from becoming algebraically closed
and it has the property, to quote "There is an ordering on F that does not extend to an ordering on any proper algebraic extension of F."
interesting, are there fields like that that you can write down which are not just R?
do you have any way to visualize how the cell structure on CP^n work?
I get that you have a cell in each even dimension, but it's not entirely clear to me how do boundary maps work
well since they are only in even dimensions the boundary maps are not very interesting
since there are no odd dimensional cells
Okay, I realized that I do not need to understand it to compute cohomologies because theyre all mapped to 0 in an odd dimension.
In fact, the cohomology is somewhat trivial
yep
one more question: the computations of cohomologies with coefficients are somewhat tedious => I have a space X => find CW structure => cellular chain complex => its dual cochain complex => compute cohomologies => compute cohomology for general coefficients.
I understand that there are lots of computational tools to do that but the question is do you at some point learn it all by heart? Right now just to compute Ext for something simple I have to think of so many different things at once it's somewhat unsatisfactory
i mean with totally random coefficients i dont know what you are supposed to do
but for finitely generated Z-modules you will just memorize all of the possibilities and all of the Exts and Tors
or at least Ext^1 and Tor_1
anyway if the complex has zero differentials with Z coefficients it has 0 differentials with any coefficients
so for this particular calculation it's easy
yeah I understand, it's more of a soft question because it's end of the semester in Europe and I'm wondering if people who did that a lot just learn it by heart and I just have to get used to it.
although one of my more advanced friends mentioned that he liked the algeometric approach with G valued locally constant functions more
but I kinda spaced out as soon as I heard it
I mean Tor_1(Z, Z/n) = Tor_1(Z/n, Z) = 0 and Tor_1(Z/n, M) = M[n]
at the first glance it does seem like "here, for each topological space X there are 10 different objects and to compute something you have to work with all of them"
I just use Tor1(R/I,R/J)=(I∩J)/IJ
would it be a mistake to think of Tor as of something that makes my SES exact on the left after I apply \otimes N to some SES?
and Ext on the right after Hom(-,N)?
yeah idk there are many approaches to defining cohomology of a space, they all have certain advantages and disadvantages
but in terms of computability it's hard to beat just finding a cell decomposition if one is available
yes that is a good way of thinking about it
For an euclidian metric space, would tweaking the definition for an interior and boundary point have any consequences if instead of an open ball it instead was defined using a closed ball?
At first glance it seems wrong but now I’m starting to doubt myself
I'm not sure what definition you are using
But often things don't matter since every open ball is contained in a closed ball and vice versa
Also just a quick question: thinking of $\mathbb{CP}^{n-1} = \mathbb{R}^{2n}/\mathbb C^{\times}$ and $\mathbb{RP}^{2n-1} = \mathbb{R}^{2n}/\mathbb R^{\times}$, we get a fibre bundle $S^1 \to \mathbb{RP}^{2n-1} \to \mathbb{CP}^{n-1}$ right?
potato
Or am I missing something
For interior point for example:
Let M be a subset of R^n. A point a in R^n is called an interior point in M if a has neighborhood that lies completely in M.
And in my scenario neighborhood is a closed ball
Ah, sure. Then yes, it doesn't matter. Normally I'd say that a has an open ball about it lying in M, but it doesn't matter for the reason I just gave :)
Like given a point p and an open or closed ball about p, you can always find a smaller ball about p which is open or closed
Ah I see
That makes sense
Is there a reason we use open balls instead of closed?
For the definitions
Hm well often one assumes neighbourhoods to be "open" and the simplest example of an open set is an open ball (a closed ball isn't)
Also, you often want a neighbourhood of your point to "Look like R^n", and open balls are the same in many ways (homeomorphic ) to R^n
I see—oh interesting
im 1 week into alg. top and wanna prove something with homology. I want to prove that there is no continuous function f from S^3 to S^2 satisfying a certain property. So far i've got that the singular 3-simplex composed with f will give an induced homomorphism between the third degree homology groups, which is isomorphic to Z for S^3 but trivial for S^2, so the homomorphism will be trivial
im not sure how to go from here to get a contradiction though
it would be helpful if you told us what property you mean
I'm reading the following exercise in Bridges Foundations of Real and Abstract Analysis. I simply can not make sense of this exercise, and was wondering if anyone knows what the gist of it is about, and if possible, if there are any similar questions on the Internet about this. I simply do not know what to search for.
Philip
It just seems very unintuitive to me. If K intersects S at a single point, how can there be a ball, concentric with K, and radius greater than K, but that is disjoint from S?
the n in R^n and K_n are unrelated by the way.
If S^2 is an embedding then f(x) = -x for every x in S^2
how do they know that f(sup)\in A?
Something does seem wrong here, any ball concentric with K and with radius greater than K will be its superset, so at the very least it will contain that one point x
Any ideas how to setup coboundaries for Cech cohomology as matrix representations?
For simplicity let's say you have a chain complex
{0} -> Z^10 -> Z^10 -> {0}
The maps being d_0 to d_2 respectively. You can pretty much see that im(d_0) = 0 and ker(d_2) = Z^10 but how about the other cases?
Like all things in math, it is always better to break down your space in terms of some type of structure into simple parts. Maybe your space is some kind of bundle, or maybe it is a product of simpler spaces. You can take advantage of that, and then you memorize the homology for some of the simple component spaces, and you can quickly compute quite a lot.
The overwhelming majority of spaces we use are products/quotients/bundles over etc a handful of simple spaces.
Mayer-vietoris is a very handy one
Kunneth formula
Once you learn poincare duality you realize the options for what can happen are pretty limited for manifolds
You end up with a lot of different partial info that you can often quickly piece together
Very rarely do you actually write out simplices and all that, typically only for the sake of learning ime
Connected sum is another way to break things down that comes with a good cohomology decomposition
Imo one should focus more on the eilenberg-steenrod axioms rather than the direct definitions. Some books even start with those.
For tor and ext I think this has been pointed out but you are almost always ending up with homology that is finitely generated abelian groups, and these are classified and split into free factors and torsion factors, so all you need to know is ext and tor for those, then you know "everything".
It's not as much stuff as it seems like...but yes I was overwhelmed at first. You don't really know what is important and what can kind of be forgotten when you first learn.
My first AT class after self studying from Hatcher defined the bare minimum for singular cohomology, then introduced ES axioms, proved them for singular, and went on from there
I think it was really good pedagogy
My first at course we spent most of our homology time on singular and treated it pretty geometrically, and just mentioned the axioms and uniqueness theorem at the end. Then the following course picked up by treating cohomology theories using omega-spectra.
wow that's a pretty wild jump
Hello i had to show that the set of continuous function M from [0,1] -> R with the sup metric is not compact.
I wanted to know if my reasonning is correct
so i defined a function h from M -> R by h(f) = max (f) on [0,1]
I showed that h is continuous, and h (M) = R
Thus if M was compact, R would be compact, which is not the case and thus M is not compact
thank you for answering! yeah we did start with axiomatic homology theories, then did simplicial homology, then singular, then cellular, then euler characteristic, then lefschetz numbers, then simplicial/singular/cellular cohomology, then cohomology rings then tor then ext then universal coefficient theorem so im just trying to coherently piece everything together without getting lost 😵💫
Thanks in advance for any feedback
hey guys, can somebody tell why both functions need to be continuous, shouldn't it be an or since we have a disjoint union? I mean we are either in one set or another
