#point-set-topology
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||semisimplicial spaces:
||
||In my Ms thesis I used the name semisimplicial set instead of Delta complex, but theyre the same thing||
I did actually wonder what the correspondence between the two is, since I've not really seen that written up
For some more context:
- Any simplicial complex whose vertices are ordered is a Delta complex
- Any simplicial complex (without order) can be made into a homotopy equivalent Delta complex
- Any Delta complex can be made into a homeomorphic simplicial complex using subdivision (I think...)
- Any Delta complex can be made into a homeomorphic simplicial set by freely adding degeneracies
- Any simplicial set can be made into a homotopy equivalent Delta complex by making degenaracies non-degenerate (you can do slightly better so that compact simplicial sets stay compact Delta complexes but idc)
- All are CW complexes
Is it just like a delta complex is the realisation of a semisimplicial set, and the data used in constructing a delta complex lifts to that of a ssset
Yep
and by realisation i guess i mean like
left adjoint of the inclusion sset -> ssset followed by the normal realisation?
or is there some other realisation lol
We dont need that, just use the usualy realisation story for the obvious functor Delta_inj -> Top
Okay sure
Some Kan extension or other
Keeps the realization compact
The problem with using the inclusion functor Delta_inj -> Delta and realizing that way is that already the point simplicial set becomes the infinity-sphere...
Since all of the degenerate simplices suddenly become real
Luckily, the infinity-sphere is contractible (??? !!!)
Let me @grim knot, see #point-set-topology message
may I gift you something for the effort? @knotty vine I'm kind of speechless
real
I need to work through your explanation, but it is surely clearer now. Thank you again for taking your time by giving me such a wonderful answer, I am really grateful for that!
I don't know if you guys know this, but apparently this guy https://friedl.app.uni-regensburg.de/teachingindex.html has a 4k-page topology book on his website, covering just about anything. The bookmarks in the PDF were a little wonky and I spent half an hour fixing them, so if anyone wants it, here you go.
Nice, but how is it possible that people still compile their latex looking like this
Looking like the Harry Potter logo
Weird, it might be from my editing the document, let me check
Tbh I'm not sure what this is, the document is displayed fine on my computer.
Ofc when I re-ordered the bookmarks and saved, the file shrunk from ~65mb to ~50mb, so maybe some compression happened and caused this.
It's already present in the original file. It's just the old way of compiling Tex files using bitmap fonts or something
If you zoom in you will see the pixels and if you zoom out you will see the absence of hinting
This is present for me as well, yeah.
But it's not as wonky as in your case.
Zoom out a little further
It's perfectly nice if you are at precisely the right zoom level
I'm as zoomed out as can reasonably be, looks about right.
In any case, small price to pay for so much goodness in 1 pdf!
bit of a strange question but is it possible to use variational calculus (Euler's equation) in some way to find the shortest distance between two points in hyperbolic space?
Yes, but it’s tricky.
Reparameterizing a path gives many degrees of freedom
Have you tried?
nope, but i was thinking of trying it
we learned the universal cover is the most general cover in the sense that it “covers all other covers”.
a simply connected space is its own universal cover, e.g. [0, 1] is the universal cover of [0, 1]. but then consider the space [0, 1] x {a, b}, two copies of the unit interval. isn’t this also a cover of [0, 1] by a projection? if so, it doesn’t seem to covered by the unit interval alone
I thought the universal cover was universal over those that are connected?
And covers other connected covers
yeah
Or "simply-connected cover of a connected space"
is it connected or simply connected
wikipedia says simply connected
connected
The universal cover is a simply-connected cover of a connected space and covers all other connected covering spaces
what does wikipedia say exactly
You want to characterize any connected cover using the fundamental group and how this determines them up to homeomorphism
beta is simply connected
that is not a statement about covering
just uniqueness of simply connected covers (for connected base spaces)
you want a certain "galois correspondance" between the subgroups of your fundamental groups and possible covers.
The universal cover is not universal because it has isomorphisms. You can rigidify it by choosing a base point. This chooses a base point in the space below. And thus chooses a component. The based universal cover of the base point component of the space is universal. It lifts uniquely to any based covering space. No need to mention connected. Based implies non empty
isnt this just saying “covering space theory for connected spaces also applies to an arbitrarily-chosen connected component”
No, it’s (also) giving a universal property
Simplicial complexes are a fully faithful and reflective subcategory of "symmetric" simplicial sets. I would imagine they're a fully faithful and reflective subcategory of symmetric semisimplicial sets as well.
@knotty vine
What are these symmetric categories?
I don't think the terminology is standard, but I don't know standard terminology. I mean take the usual base category of finite ordinals and add all the permutations [n] -> [n] as well.
So "symmetric simplicial set" = presheaves on finite cardinals with arbitrary functions between them
"symmetric semisimplicial set" = presheaves on finite cardinals with arbitrary injections between them
Reflective? Really?
I can only imagine the name of the category of symmetric semisimplicial sets...
Thats one way to do it. Either impose an ordering, or just use all orderings simultaneously
Oh yeah that's the first time in a while i've seen that kinda remark like
well to avoid having to make choices in mathematics either do all choices at once, or include a choice as part fo teh data lol
Imma be honest I haven't written down a pen and paper proof I'm just vibing here. Upon further reflection (ha) this probably fails for semisimplicial sets. But for symmetric simplicial sets here's my informal argument. There is an obvious nerve functor from the category of abstract simplicial complexes into symmetric (semi) simplicial sets which sends each simplicial complex to the simplicial set of "singular" simplices in the complex. Simplicial complexes are cocomplete so this has a left adjoint given by "realization". I'm claiming the counit of this is probably an isomorphism which would imply that the right adjoint is fully faithful. Do you buy that? Like I should be able to recover the original simplicial complex given all maps from the n-simplex into it, all permutations and such considered.
Yeah that's why I'm bringing this up because we like functoriality
We can't impose orderings uniformly although we can work in a category of ordered simplicial complexes
What is your definition of simplicial complexes as a category? I’m not convinced it’s cocomplete
presheaves from the simplex category I'd assume
But forget that and just write down a full subcategory and argue that it’s reflective
I started to write out a detailed argument and I will finish it and send it to you if you really want to see the details worked out, but I found a reference so I won't bother unless you want me to.
https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/simplicial+complex
This page gives one definition of simplicial complex that is reasonable, and it asserts that
From this point of view, it is immediate that simplicial complexes are the separated objects for the Lawvere-Tierney topology on the category of [symmetric simplicial sets] whose sheaves are sets.
So, simplicial complexes are the category of separated presheaves in this topology.
Lemma 5.7.7 of Categorical Logic and Type Theory by Bart Jacobs establishes that the category of separated objects for a Lawvere-Tierney topology is reflective.
nah fiona i meant like, traditional abstract simplicial complexes
Idk if this is top, but is there a concept of like "degree of concavity"
Like V has 1 concavity, N has 2, W has 3, etc.
For the graph of a function, that's not concavity, that's just local extrema
Unless you also want to say the graph of the cubic y=x³ has 'degree 1', in which case you'll need the number of zeroes of some (the first and/or the second) derivative of the function
Additionally, that's not even a topological/smooth invariant: a circle is diffeomorphic to a blobby circle which looks like the contour of a U, and you'd like to say they have differing 'degrees'
I guess it's relevant for Morse theory? idk about morse theory
Or minimum size of open cover such that concave / convex on each set? 
looks like you're just counting critical points of height function.
Its not really about critical points
Its like if you mafe a convex hull of a shape, how many regions would be formed
Like if you were to have a convex hull of H, you would create two new regions
what about a shape like let's say M. It makes 2 regions not 3.
You're just counting the number of components of the intersection of the boundary of the convex hull with the (simple) curve
Or number of gaps, actually
Thet very much depends on the embedding; my circle example still works
Also, what's the deal with shapes like Y or X?
And what about O ?
Do you take the convex hull minus the initial set, then count components?
Depends on the font perhaps
Take the space of all pairs of points such that the straight line segment between them intersects the ambient space
Then count path components?
You mean that it only intersects the ambient space, or just that it intersects?
points in X so that the line between them goes outside
Won't that make M have just 1?
Oh, is there e.g. homology which counts this
Take one point in the left leg of M and one point in the left middle line
o wait
Yeah, so that's one component
youre right
Yes, H0(convex hull - curve)
Though if you change it to, only intersecting the ambient space, then it might get more interesting
You mean, lies entirely inside the ambient space?
Ah, quite simple
But that misses out on 3 having 3 holes 😭
Yeah, except the end points of course
Font-dependence sucks a bit tho
Not necessarily, depends on the font again
What if you make the bend less sharp
Whether there are 2 or 3 would depend
How many holes does capital xi have?
Can you remedy the issue to make this a meaningful invariant
This has 4 for Ξ?
Like the rough shape shall be similar for M in each font.
What if we require that the curve be simple
simply connected?
booooring
Wdym simple curve?
Injective continuous function I → R²
Hm
But holes of 3 would still depend on bend ig
Yea, I’d like independence to the e.g. location of the middle.
idk how you guys draw your threes smh
Like depending on whether the tangents at the bend pass above or below the endpoints of the 3
??? You draw your 3 like a sideways gamma
???
The line segment has to be able to shrink to a point without intersecting the curve
Which line segment?
So the line connecting top and bottom endpoints of 3 doesn't count
Ah I thought I was just too dumb
Diagonal of [0, 1]²
It counts, wdym
Oh, it does not intersect the diagonal ig
Can you make a drawing or write out a more formal definition?
Let S be the subset of I² s.t. the line connecting f(x) and f(y) is a line segment whose interior does not intersect f(I)
Count the components of S whose boundary intersect the diagonal
Oops should be boundary
i.e. A line segment is counted if the endpoints can be moved together without the line intersecting the curve
So one of those would be excluded
You mean something like this?
Why did you add the condition of intersecting the diagonal?
Yes the right is the 3 I was mentioning
Yeah now I understand what you meant
Boundary intersects diagonal = can be shrunk to a point
I though you drew your 3's like
Lmao
I draw like this

Wait number of components / 2 probably
But the diagonal is when x = y, i.e. f(x) = f(y)
Btw how does 3 have 4 holes by original definition?
idk if I like that or not
Ah, like how M has 4 holes
Ye not so good
I was thinking of in terms of convex hull - curve
I am dumb, so what is f here, and what is S
A spiral has one hole which is good
I dont like it cause it makes weird instabilities like this
Not topology anymore imho
Yea
but idk how to fix it
How do you do "3 has 3 holes" without something like this tho
Actually why does 3 have 3 holes
It has one tiny hole on the right, thats not debatable. Then it certainly has one big hole on the left
But then it also has 2 smaller holes inside that big hole
Should we count the two smaller holes in addition to the big hole, or count only the smaller holes, or only the big hole?
Should we assign a degree to each hole?
How about minimum number of line segments such that each bounded (by lines and the curve) component is convex
Then 3 has 2 holes right?
*and each point on the curve is a boundary of some such component
Otherwise every curve has 0 holes 
Vacuous truth moment
Lines have 2 holes now noo
I can't think of any bad cases other than lines tho
How about minimum number of convex component after adding a few line segments, so that its boundary covers the curve
Count the components of the convex hull - shape?
Huh
Not exactly the convex hull, because each conn component may not be convex
No I failed to properly define what configuration of lines are "sufficiently many lines"
Minimum number of line segments such that components are convex and any path from a point in (convex hull-curve) to the curve must pass through the closure of a bounded component
There, 3 and M have 3 holes, line has no holes, spiral has one hole
2 has 2 holes
Why does 3 have 3 holes then
That too ig
Fuck
I want to count the holes in a spoon
I love algebraic topology
no algebra in sight yet
Homology is best hole
Does it have 2 holes
huh?
I think the line segment on top can be moved to the line segment below for the spoon manifold in R³
How many holes do these vases have?
The last one has 4 by your original defn and 3 by the diagonal defn
I think we can all agree spirals have 1 hole
idk anymore
Wait
What if 1 + number of turning points of θ(t)
For curves with differentiable θ
Or actually
The size of partition of I such that θ' is nonpositive / nonnegative on each
Back to turning points lol
Then these are the same
Both 3 holes
ya
I mean the right is a 3
does make sense
Finally
so in R^n are open balls the usual basis of the topology?
or well ig in metric spaces in general
and that would make the concept of open as it is in metric spaces
?
All are contractible so 0
Yes
And yes
:0
Works for all metric spaces
so I think I'm understanding the idea of a topology
cus when I read the definition of a basis I started drawing what a basis would look like
and it clicked that it seemed like a generalization of an open ball
for other kinds of sets
Yeah, ultimately it's mostly about generalizing the arguments that start with "there's a ball centered around x on which we have this nice property"
idk if that's how it has gone historically but probably
Yeah they're like "small" open sets you build others out of so balls r a good picture
hehe balls
:0
Yeah, one disadvantage of general topology vs metric topology is that you don't get to talk about balls so much
sad
This is what algebraic topology orthodoxy would have you believe, but a vase obviously has a hole!
Lol
Oh no, the "how many holes does a straw have" argument draws near
It's an open issue
Topology is what we topologists make it
Subject to some constraints of decency, I hope

amazing
I draw the line at non-Hausdorff spaces
,w hole

Finally a definition we can get behind
something made by a shovel
I wonder if there's a cantor shovel.
to go with the Cantor brush and the Cantor tent
Opinion: Basis is just small open set that is enough to describe the neighborhood behavior
On a metric space, balls are small enough (not so many balls) yet it describes the behavior when "close".
On an Affine Zariski topology, D(f) forms a basis; this means {f \neq 0} is enough to describes the topological behavior in algebraic geometry.
opinion: bases generate topologies
Seems pretty objective to me, the topological behaviour is the topology
topological behavior is in the eye of the beholder
Mfw when topological behaviour isn't invariant under homeomorphism
In what way is that an "opinion" rather than a fact?
see here
It's this kind of stuff that gives moral relativism a bad name
You, just now
{
}
I mean, you can't discuss convergence of sequences/series without some kind of topology, so fair enough
I mean, you can, but you really shouldn't
A series is the span of a sequence of you view the set of numbers as a vector space over F_1.
if*
lol yh
Opinion: bases are siwwy
Time to develop baseless topology
The long lost cousin of pointless topology
The opposite of based topology is cringe topology
NO
spannings it is
Stop trying to make algebraic topology happen, it will never happen
I thought that was the idea
in some appropriate topology*
i feel like ive mixed measure theory up here but its ite
if we use basis in the sense of a minimal spanning set, then they are
if you want the standard topolog you kinda to get rid of the half opens
Spanning in what way?
producing the topology or finer
yeah so im sure i thinking measure theory things
i just mean the open intervals
is a spanning 
I mean, they generate the topology and they generate the Borel sigma-algebra
I'm vaguely uncomfortable with the term "spanning" in this context, since I think that's strongly associated with linear combinations
thats why the minimality as a sorta analogue
Open intervals aren't a minimal generating family though
under the order relation $A \geq B$ if $\tau_A \subseteq \tau_B$
Kerr
You'd need a subset of the open intervals if you want to have minimality though
Zorn Lemma probably tells you that you can always find a minimal generating set, but "all open intervals" ain't it
Actually Zorn Lemma might not work
But either way, you can remove quite a lot of intervals and still have a generating set
thats exactly why i think spanning
Yeah I am sucking at expressing it
but ideally A < B only if B generates a strictly finer topology
What are the vector space operations on subsets of the Reals?
asking too many questions!
but nah like
idk
basis doesnt suit to me
basis is meant to be like the smallest
in a sense
for LA
but that's not it for topo?
If you're identifying a set with its indicator function, then sets are identified with real-valued functions of the real variable, but only 0-1 valued functions
Yeah, topologically you don't have anything like linear independence/minimality in the definition of basis
It's the same word but there isn't much in the way of analogies
if we mean by "smallest" the actual cardinality of the set and not that of the topology it generated, then we are looking at aleph null
Maybe a bit in that in algebra every vector is a linear combination of basis vector, and in topology every open set is an union of basis sets
ok ok think like this
But there's no uniqueness or anything like that
groups u have generating sets
thats exactly what bases are in topology
but calling them basis for groups is...
I'm not sure if exactly, but that's closer than trying to equate it with the vector basis
but with groups the generated group can only ever be a subset
?
if you add more opens to your topology than you can just getting finer topologies
They're all subtopologies of the discrete though
but if u start with the same bunch of opens
what?
by generating set you mean the generators then?
{1, 2, 3} generates Z group
open intervals generates R top
ok?
no matter what I add to 1, 2, 3 from Z
i end up with Z or a subgroup of it at most
yeah
but the same applies from R top I argue
Okay sure
As long as you are only picking open sets
already in the top
If u add more sets that werent open
that's like adding more elements to the group not in it
i would say
I compare generating sets for groups and topological basis because you do the same things.
Take a collection. Take the minimal algebraic structure containing that collection
and thats your thing generated
(minimal is intersection of all structures containing it)
and this also applies to rings and fields
and spanning sets for vector spaces
===
but tbh ive brought this up before in here and I think the general "why" for the term is more historical than anything else iirc
some ppl use it and it stuck
I recently realized that this "subthing generated by S is the intersection of all subthings containing S" is an instance of the general statement that a complete meet-semilattice is also a complete join-semilattice and hence just a complete lattice. You can prove it the same way, but it is more fun to nuke it with Freyd's adjoint functor theorem (if you unpack that proof it's basically the same, just phrased in categories by viewing posets as cats)
It's so wacky
this is epic
That's pretty cool.
Did I start this stream of convo about "opinion:", was what I said that bad 
your opinion was so uncontroversial that it caused integer overflow
By Freyd's theorem you mean this one? https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/complete+small+category#CompleteSmallCategoriesArePosets
Nope
If D has all limits and R: D → C preserves them and a technical set theoretic condition, then R has a left adjoint
You can find it in Mac Lane with the name "Freyd's adjoint functor theorem"
Right but how does that imply cocompleteness?
The Wikipedia page on the Stone-Cech compactification also carries out essentially its entire proof so you can look at that to see it in action
Existence of all colimits of shape J is equivalent to the diagonal functor C → C^J having a left adjoint
So you show that this diagonal functor satisfies the conditions of the theorem for any small J
I love nuking things 
You'll love deep rock galactic 
I gave a presentation on this!
I think it's a fun application of the adjoint functor theorems
ultrafilters my beloved
Adjoint functor theorems can be useful 
So the only reason complete categories arent already cocomplete is the solution set condition?
I have used it to cook up counterexamples
Reflective subcategory
Ye
That fact itself is more important than the construction itself lol
funny
But how do you use it?
I guess it tells you about colimits
Cocompleteness is a useful one
You use completeness of CompHaus if you wanna use Freyd lol
I don't have examples offhand but generally (co)reflective subcategories are very nice.
That comes from Tychonoff anyway so not a big deal
Missing a co, sorry
Ah ok
I think it's used in some obscure analysis proof
One other thing I've used with them is the fact that the (co)unit is a natural isomorphism
As a side hussle I am also a median: hire me for parties and weddings
Where you show some property for discrete spaces and that stone cech compactification preserves the property and that proves it for a large enough class of spaces that you are done
Oh, because you're the dual of funny?
Yeah but you only have a counit after you've constructed the adjunction
But yeah SC is a fun application of SAFT, but I can't point to a particular usage of it offhand. It gets thrown around here and there though! But again I think from what I've seen it's often just about the reflective subcat part
if everything's finite dimensional
Idk what the counit would encode a priori
True, I have to betray my constructive soul to make that joke
Ok fair enough
I've just been looking for a concrete use of it lol because it's one of my favorite theorems
Kinda like p hacking here
Find a theorem then find a use for it
If you didn't know about the compact open topology, you can use SAFT to derive the existence of exponential spaces
Actually, is the fact that the initial object is the colimit of the empty diagram, but also the limit of the identity functor an instance of this?
By showing product preserves colimits. I almost had a use for that in another category but I fucked up the proof of preserving colimits
Yeah that is good
But I meant use of Stone Cech specifically lol
I already have uses for the AFTs
Oh I'm confusing myself by this point >.<

is the definition of a topology basically defining what the open sets are?
I guess that'd make sense since all the so called topological properties of for exemple R^n are about open sets and how they interact and stuff
Yes, and we insist that the collection of sets has the you-know-what properties

feeling what topology does
I'm genuinelly getting very excited cus that seems like such a smart way of generalizing these kind of stuff
How does that work 
Say, for a topology generated by a subbasis B, do you take the poset of all topologies on S and show the join of topologies contained in B is the meet of all topologies containing B
Where "contained" is defined by taking this poset to be a subset of P(P(S))
You gotta prove that "principal subthings" exist first (generated by singletons - in this case I'd take a subbasis rather than a basis because non trivial bases can't be singletons). This is usually very easy to describe explicitly.
The topology generated by a (sub)basis B is by definition the join of the principal topologies generated by the elements of B (definition being "smallest topology containing B" which is exactly the condition for being this join).
The AFT argument (or the direct argument that takes the meet of everything above) gives you a non constructive construction 🤡 of this join.
By non constructive I just mean that you don't describe its elements.
Where did you get stuck?
Leno
Is this the correct problem statement?
Why are you taking an open partition? f^-1(C) U V is not necessarily clopen in f^-1(C).
Right, I think you want to assume that V is a clopen subset of f^-1(C) not that V union f^-1(C) is clopen
Where V is not the empty set or the whole fiber
It’s definitely true the image of V will be closed
Just to make sure: you’re following this argument
For openess in Y: We know that V is clopen and thus open in X. We also know f^-(C) is closed in X. What can we say about the quotient of these two sets and the image of the quotient of these sets under f?
Edited
Leno
Clopen means its closed and open right?
So its certainly open
I mean i guess I should’ve said clopen in f inverse C
Dont think open wrt to X matters thats on me
But like its the same thing i think
How does one visualize 1-surgeries on a 3-manifold 
Say, for surgery on 3-sphere along borromean rings, each 0
I'm getting the impression that surgery along a knot may somehow be equivalent to subtracting a solid torus and then quotienting each longitude (+n meridians) into a point
But that be complicated quickly
there's a real term called surgery in topology???
This is a technical paper, which is a continuation of math.DG/0211159. Here we construct Ricci flow with surgeries and verify most of the assertions, made in section 13 of that e-print; the exceptions are (1) the statement that manifolds that can collapse with local lower bound on sectional curvature are graph manifolds - this is deferred to a s...
give it one more shot in the simplified case when C = Y
if you get stuck, ill help you out
topology basically determines which maps between two spaces are continuous
the easiest way to motivate that definition is by considering euclidean spaces
where you already have an intuitive notion of continuity (by means of analysis)
that is, a map $f\colon \bR\to\bR$ is continuous if for all $x_0\in\bR$ and given some $\epsilon >0$ there exists a $\delta >0$ such that
[\abs{x_0-x}<\delta \implies \abs{f(x_0)-f(x)}<\epsilon]
DarQ
turns out that there exists a set of subset of $\bR$ denoted $\mathcal{O}\subset P(\bR)$ that detects exactly which of the functions $f\colon \bR\to\bR$ are continuous. i.e. $f$ is continuous if and only if
[f^{-1}(O) \in \mathcal{O}]
for all $O\in\mathcal{O}$
DarQ
this set of subset satisfies the usual definition of a topology
this is useful for generalizing the notion of continuity coz you don't need to be able to add or substract the elements of your space as in this defenition
your space doesn't have to be imbued with a metric
you need only determin which subsets of your space you care most about
hope this helps 
anywho
does anyone know what the fuck does T do?
that geometric motivation makes 0 sense
also, tf are the simplices in \partial \Delta^n \times I?
I have no idea what this is referring to without context, what is LC_n
the context is the algebraic barycentric subdivision of linear chains
$b_\lambda$ is the image of the barycenter of $\Delta^n$ under $\lambda$. $b_\lambda$ also denotes a map $LC_n(Y)\to LC_{n+1}(Y)$ defined by
[[w_0, \dots, w_n] \mapsto [b_\lambda, w_0, \dots, w_n]]
DarQ
I'm sorry, thix construct is like 5 pages long, I realize now how much context is missing 
here's the definition of S
T takes a simplex Delta, thickens it, divides this thickened simplex up into simplicies using barycentric subdivision like in the image, projects this subdivision onto Delta, and then uses it to define a new simplex of rank one higher
look at the image they have for n = 2
theyre thickening the triangle and taking a barycenter there, and subdividing. if you project that subdivision down you are left with the usual barycentric subdivision of Delta^2
which defines a 3 simplex via this map
I would assume that for n > 2 the subdivision becomes more non trivial and probably stops agreeing with the standard one
is this the proof for excision
what does the barycentric subdivision of a thikened simplex mean tho?
hatcher here is sayin that the subdivision is obtained by joining all the simplices in $\Delta^n\times {0} \cup \partial \Delta^n \times I$ but what're the simplices in $\partial \Delta^n \times I$?
DarQ
oh, wait, I think I get it
ah yes, the good old "stare at it for long enough" technique coming in clutch 
thx moth!
If I have a manifold with non trivial first cohomology, and take a non-trivial $\omega$ of it, can I embed a circle times some interval in it, with some “angle function” $\theta$ such that $\omega =d\theta$?
Ben
Im not sure what exactly you mean by an angle function. are you asking for a cylinder embedded your manifold X such that the pullback of omega is exact?
if dim of the manifold is at least 2 then you can just take any contractible (embedded, by taking a chart about some point and embedding a circle in it) loop, take a cylinder about it that extends to a disk in the manifold, and then the restriction of omega to the cylinder factors through the restriction to the disk, where it is trivial, and thus it will be exact
Or do you mean something more analogous to the case of the circle in R^2, where d theta is not actually an exact form
Let me formalize it more carefully
Let $0\neq[\omega]\in H^1_{dr}(M)$ is there necessarily some non contactable embedded cylinder, and some representative $\eta \in [\omega]$ such that the pullback of $\eta$ is the angle map of the cylinder, maybe up to some constant
Ben
Let $0\neq[\omega]\in H^1_{dr}(M)$ is there necessarily some non contactable embedded cylinder, and some representative $\eta \in [\omega]$ such that the pullback of $\eta$ is the angle map of the cylinder, maybe up to some constant
I remember something like that from a real analysis book
like, topological version of continuity
:0
not using a metric was what most surprised me for defining those stuff
I'm completely surprised
If your looking for a cool not-so-easy challenge, try finding a property a topology induced for a metric has, that not all topologies have, and use it to find a topology which necessarily isn’t induced by any metric
so off the top of my head i think you need some assumptions on pi_1 or the dimension of the target space (but not both) but otherwise yes
Since omega is non-trivial there exists some non-trivial first homology class on which it does not vanish. since H_1 is the abelianization of pi_1 this is represented by some (smooth, up to homotopy) map S^1 -> X
If we can homotope this smooth map into an embedding, then since dim X > 1 you can take the normal bundle to S^1 in X and then pick some copy of S^1 x I in it (im not totally sure why you want an embedded cylinder since I don't think it particularly changes anything from just getting an angle form on a copy of S^1 itself though). picking eta representing this and restricting it to omega, we have that eta = c d theta for some constant c, so their difference is given by df, where f is some function on S^1 x I whose integral along the circle is 0. extending f by 0 using a partition of unity to all of X, eta - df is in the class of omega and should give you the form that you want
So the question is whether we can resolve the map S^1 -> X
since dim X > 2(1) - 1 = 1 we can always resolve it to an immersion. if dim X is at least 3 we can further resolve it to an embedding, as desired
Thank you!
Hmmm
No we dont need any pi_1 assumptions
They do nothing for us here
I was thinking in analogy with the case of 2nd homology classes
Does not vanish means integrating the form on the homology class isn’t zero?
Right
Okay cool, so assuming compactness it must be a circle
And now it’s just analysis of functions on a circle
off the top of my head im not sure about the dim X = 2 case. if X is actually closed and orientable I think you can probably do something slick by using that omega corresponds to a Z2 bundle (you can use a similar argument to show that 2nd homology classes in a closed orientable 4 manifold are represented by embedded spheres)
this could also just probably be done concretely and directly
But i am a bit too lazy to think about that right now
so i hope this suffices for your purposes
np 
hmmm
by not induced by a metric you mean
as basis being open balls in the metric?
I don't know any properties about topologies rn sooo I think I'll think about it later
i'm not really sure if i've got the hang of this yet, but could we just use the fact that X x Y is a (co? always forget the arrows )product in the category of topological spaces, so we get a factorization X x Y -pi-> X --> Z = F, and since pi is continuous h: X --> Z must be continuous
i guess the only problem would be that we don't know that h is the map that pops out from X to Z
so maybe not
lol
oh wait nvm this is just the composition x |-> (x, y0) |-> F(x, y0)
nvm
i was viewing X as a subspace of X x Y but that doesn't make sense
oh wait
the first component could just be the identity map and the second the constant map at y0
that's continuous since each are continuous as maps from X to X and X to Y
sure
actually your definition of categorical product is not even right
you should probably focus on understanding the basics of topology before trying to understand that approach
it is a powerful language but it doesnt allow you to avoid proving things
oh, I thought you already knew which sets I was talking about
they're the sets where every point is an interior point
how do you use the Gram–Schmidt process to prove there is a direct product decomposition of GL(n,R) to the direct product of O(n) and positive definite symmetric matrices
#linear-algebra bruh 
is there a name for a collection of subsets of a topological space, whose interiors form an open cover?
I was wandering the same thing yesterday actually! 
bonus question, does $C_n^\mathcal{U}(X)$ and $H_n^\mathcal{U}(X)$ have any special names?
DarQ
open sets?
yes indeed, these are the open sets of the real line.
but that's what I'm trying to explain, we call them open sets because they detect exactly which functions $f\colon \bR\to\bR$ are continuous. The same way the open sets are the sets that detect exactly which functions $f\colon X \to Y$ between two topological spaces are continuous
DarQ
that's how I think about the definition of a topology, it generalizes the notion of continuity.
hopefully this explains exactly what topology does
:0
Gives you a certain type of isomorphism called homeomorphism just adding continuity to isomorphism. Some properties of an space are invariant by homeo and thats pretty useful
any idea what lambda_-1 means here?
Ah nvm, it's a case of λ_t from the λ-ring structure
can somebody explain to me why we need this display? if $y \in V$, then $\frac{\bar{d}(x_i, y_i)}{i} < \bar{d}(x_i, y_i) < d(x_i, y_i) < \epsilon$ for $i = 1, \dots, N$, so shouldn't that be enough to show that $y \in B_D(x, \epsilon)$?
okeyokay
You mean which display? The former part is rather obvious part, the important part is about the i > N imo.
the highlighted part
i don't understand why it's needed
I believe it is to highlight the i > N case.
The i <= N case is likely included here to briefly show how this part is not a problem
does an intersection of a set with itself count?
Well $A\cap A=A$ and $A$ is a finite intersection of $\mathcal S$ as $A=\bigcap_{n=1}^1A$.
🙏
i had a slight existential crisis when i first tried evaluating the intersection of all the sets in the empty set
You mean, universal crisis
The crisis is about whether the result exists, though.
It exists by convention/definition 
it exists by convenience
Replace union and intersection by lower and upper bound in the poset of subsets
Empty set is the identity in the monoid of set unions 

If $X$ is a spectrum, to show that $H\mathbb Q_(X) \simeq \pi_(X) \otimes \mathbb Q$, is it enough to say that 1) both sides preserve filtered colimits and shifts and 2) they agree on the sphere spectrum (by classical work of Serre)?
potato
Is every spectrum a filtered colimit of the sphere spectrum? I feel like you should also need colimits at the very least
I mean coproducts
What is a filtered coproduct
by contained in T1 and T2 does this mean that it is a subset of both at the same time or that it's a little bit of the subset of one and a little of the other
like a subset of the union
it should be a subset of T1 and T2.
that is very convenient
since the intersection of two topologies is also a topology
Filtered colimit is when you union things in a larger thing but possibly many times
Formal definition is colimit of a filtered diagram but I'm not gonna define that 
The "[moldilocks] means coproducts" part was for the second sentence
There is no "filtered coproduct"
Okay sure but both sides preserve finite coproducts too ig
How would you argue it?
I think it's pretty cute that agreeing on the spectrum is work of Serre, like it's a really pretty rephrasing of a weak version of his computations
why is the Rk topology that seems so random
Rk topology? Which one is that?
why was it invented what is its purpose
K = {1/n for all n in N}
basis are open intervals -K
maybe I'm asking questions too fast
Oh the K-topology
Various counterexamples.
Never heard of it before
hum
It's hausdorff but not regular otherwise I don't see the point either
that was one of my hypothesis, that it was made to be a counter example of something
Like sorgenfey topology
Point-set topologist are too occupied with if they could make another pathological space, but never even bothered thinking if they should smh
True
Are the points the problem of point set topology
Or is the "point set" part misnomer?
I believe the point is that things like algebraic topology and homotopy theory care about spaces more categorically/algebraically, whilst point set topology is more occupied with the precise space itself (qua space rather than through the lense of those invariants etc)
roughly
I'm new to topological groups, but what does it mean formally when we say that rotating the unit sphere S^2in R^3 about the z-axis is an example of an action of the circle S^1 on the sphere?
The circle is the group of unit length complex numbers under multiplication
The rotation of S^2 can be uniquely described where it sends points on its equator
Which is homeo to S^1
S¹ acts on the unit sphere by rotating the xy coordinates
We should have a map S^1 x S^2 -> S^2 right?
That is, e^iθ sends (x, y, z) to (x', y', z), where (x', y') is (x, y) rotated by θ
Or if you take S² ⊂ R³ = C × R, then f: S¹ × S² → S² is given by f(z, (w, r)) = (zw, r)
(actually (z^n w, r) is also rotation)
consider the action of the group of rotation matrices of R^2 G and consider the action G x R^3 -> R^3. Convince yourself that when restricting R^3 to S^2 you get image in S^2
the action works like arki described
then you can convince yourself that, going back to the complex of unit length, that those form a topological group which is homeomorphic to S^1
Unless that was already your definition of S^1 as a top group
Once you have this agreement on S, shifts, coproducts and filtered colimits, you should have agreement on all CW spectra. If you know that these respect weak equivalences, then this should be enough.
Yup cool beans
So yeah the same thing aha
Though preserving coproducts + filtered colimits implies preserving all colimits right? at least for 1-cats (since ig these are homotopy colimits)
but i imagine the result is still true more generally
oh does it?
That seems cool
Well 1-categorically this is like
all colimits can be constructed via coproducts and coequalisers
But then if you have finite coproducts and filtered colimits then you can construct coequalisers as a filtered colimit of like finite ones
and then preserving them is a relative version of that
This
I don't believe that's true
Doesn't homology preserve filtered colimits and coproducts? But it doesn't preserve all colimits
You need to finite colimits and filtered colimits iirc
That would make sense
Hm if you have finite coproducts and filtered colimits you immediately have all coproducts and coequalisers right?
Like arbitrary coproducts are filtered colimits of finite ones
You construct arbitrary coproducts in this fashion.
Coequalizers are not filtered
Wait yeah lol that was dumb
In this particular case though I think it works by essentially coyoneda
Oh yes sorry you are right
Take all the coproducts of shifts of S mapping to your given spectrum X
my thing only servers to show you have all coproducts
Right
This, along with maps of the slice category, should be a filtered diagram
This would express any spectrum as a filtered colimit of coproducts of shifts of S
Ok something might be wrong here
The topology needs to work too
And for that I might need X to be CW
But then it's fine due to wweak equivalence right
Set theoretically this works I am just not sure if we get the same topology. There should be a way to reduce this to coyoneda if it works generally because the shifts of S are representable
Assuming that we do get the CW stuff even
I will need to think about this properly which I can't really do rn
To be fair, here's a funnier way to do it
It's true for suspension spectra by normal topology things
Then use homotopy colimits and shifts lol
lol
Cool
Again seems intuitive that every spectrum should be a homotopy colimit of shifts of suspension spectra but idk how to prove it
Oh i mean just like
Do we need homotopy colimits? What about plain colimits
I think plain colimits work too
Ah set theoretically they do but I am not sure about the topology again
Damn it
I keep applying the unenriched coyoneda
But the coyoneda to be applied here is the Top_*-enriched one
No it's oay
*okay, I checked what i had in mind lol
as in if we view a spectrum $X$ as a sequence of spaces $X_n$ then $X \simeq \mathrm{hocolim}_{n} \Sigma^{\infty-n} X_n$
potato
Oh cool
Cant be isomorphism very sad
Because I can't do an abstract nonsense proof of that
Eh just do it infinity categorically
Imagine doing topology
:)
🤮
oh
nvm this good
lol
I need to get there I have been doing so much other stuff but now infty cats are very high priority I feel
same for me oopies
though i wonder if i'm gonna get an advisor who doesnt use infinity cats lol
well relatively low chance
Hot
so true
You're already doing a phd though right?
epic atb come where I am with toki 
ah fuck im not in the uk
sorry
F
for not being in the uk
lol
Reading some CHT notes by Lurie and it's funny when he uses AG words i don't know
He is such a show off
Well we have sets X,Y and a group G and instead of saying like X/G iso to Y he says X is a principal homogeneous space
and stuff
Oh okay there is a more specific meaning
Yeah that's what happens when the french study your subject
but it's still funny like words i've never heard
Weird terminology
espace
étalé
real
réel
this is not a term of algebraic geometry it is a term of topology
you can look at fiber bundles by husemoller to read about this stuff
what the hell is this exercise asking??: “prove that any base for the canonical topology on R can be decreased”
particularily it’s the word decreased i’ve no idea what they mean with
Every basis has a proper subset that is also a basis, probably
waw that’s an interesting property
Never heard that but I would say "there is no minimal base"
can you do something like pick any d > 0, then take as a new basis all the old basis elements with diameter less than d ?
then you can get an infinite descending sequence of bases by taking smaller and smaller d
if this even is a basis which i admit i haven’t checked
oh actually and i suppose for the new basis to be a proper subset you need to take a d smaller than the diameter of some basis element in the old basis
👍
In R, any (nonempty) open can be written as the union of two proper sub-opens. So any single basic open can be removed
Ig this works for any metric space without isolated points
can you elaborate on this, i’m not quite following
i’ve been embarassingly struggling a bit with working with open sets in R
i’m not sure what you mean by basic open
A basic open is just an element in the basis
oh
If a basic open $U$ is nonempty, we can write it as the union of two proper sub opens $V_1, V_2 \subset U$. These $V$ can consequently be written as a union of basic opens that do not include our original $U$. Hence we can remove $U$ from the basis and still generate the same topology.
lax semer
ohhh right
A way to think about it intuitively is like
Topology is sorta local stuff so you can always chuck away all "big" things and shrink
am i mixing this up or does the property “at any point x there is a infinite descending sequence of nbhds of x” have a name
Hm i mean it's not always true
But idk lol
There is a relevant notion of a first-countable space ig nd stuff about neighbourhood bases
Any non-isolated point in a Hausdorff space will have this property, probably
So in Hausdorff it's going to be equivalent to being non-isolated
Or globally, for the space to have no isolated points
And I refuse to consider non-Hausdorff topologies as a matter of principle 
This also works in T0 I guess
But something similar can even be said about non T0 spaces, as long as the Kolmogorov quotient (making topologically indistinguishable points equal) has the property
on second thought, this is a different, but equivalent statement to first-countability
I wouldn't say that, a discrete two-point space is first-countable
And doesn't have your property
yes? so both conditions fail
to refute the equivalence one’d have to come up with an example for which one but not the other holds

That space is first-countable, and not every point has an infinite descending sequence of neighborhoods
oh, right finite is also countable
at least if a space is first countable, let (Bn) ba a seq of nbhds at x, then the seq of intersections B1, B1 n B2, B1 n B2 n B3, … is a (i suppose not strictly) descending seq of nbhds of x
You could call it the nested neighborhood basis property?
if one talks about the "order" of a (real) vector bundle V over a space X, is that the order of it as an element of the reduced KO-group of X?
i.e. least n such that the n-fold sumV (+) ... (+) V is a trivial vector bundle
why save you from homology?
homology is love
homology is life
Homology isn't real and can't hurt me
No need
I finished the homology presentation a month ago
If I had to guess, that’s how I’d interpret it, but something has gone wrong if it’s not spelled out. What’s the context?
you did a homology presentation??
whoa
what did you cover 
only simplicial homology
To be fair I can check the reference there to be 100% sure but wasn't sure if this is common terminology
i only had 10mins to talk about it
Do they at least mention KO?
Not afaik
Yeah I checked the reference and it is just least n such that the n-fold sum is stably trivial
i.e. 0 in reduced KO
I think here is it just a remark which isn't used anywhere in the paper, unless I'm mistaken
Let X and Y be two metric topological spaces. Let $A \subset X$ and $B \subset Y$ . Show that $\overline{A × B }= \overline{A} × \overline{B}$.
solution : let $x \in \overline{A×B}$ then this is equivalent to say that there exists $x_n\in\overline{A×B}$ such as $x_n\to x $ let $x_n = (a_n,b_n)$ and $x = (a,b)$ then we have $(a_n,b_n)\to(a,b)\iff a_n\to a \mbox{ and }b_n \to b \iff a\in\overline{A} \mbox{ and }b\in\overline{B}\iff (a,b)\in\overline{A}×\overline{B}$ then we have $\overline{A × B }= \overline{A} × \overline{B}$.
john.
the Ö is ×
didn't know latex will interpreted like that
is it correct if i reason like that?
*exists xn ∈ A × B
I'm not sure if you've proven cl(A×B) ⊂ cl(A)×cl(B) or cl(A×B) = cl(A)×cl(B)
You might need to fix your presentation
isn't my argument by equivalence ?
I'm not sure if you mean:
Let (a, b) ∈ cl(A×B), then there are sequences (an, bn) → (a, b), which is equivalent to an → a and bn → b, thus (a, b) ∈ cl(A) × cl(B)
Or:
(a, b) ∈ cl(A×B)
↔ Exists (an, bn) → (a, b)
↔ Exists an → a and bn → b
↔ (a, b) ∈ cl(A) × cl(B)
the second
If open sets U ⊂ R^n and V⊂R^m are homeomorphic, then why is n = m?
If f: U → V is a homeo and n > m, then we have a continuous injection U → R^n by considering R^m as a subset of R^n. By invariance of domain, the image of this map is open in R^n, which is clearly false.
Unless U is empty
Invariance of domain can be proven using algebraic topology I believe
in metric spaces, are products of any open balls also open balls?
not open balls
just open
are they open
just realised this question doesn't necesserely makes sense
cus you'd need to define the product metric
If A is open in X and B is open in Y, then A x B is open in X x Y
I know
Which generalizes to finite products of more spaces, but not to infinite products
but I was thinking of the open balls thing
The products of two balls might not be a ball
Although that might depend on how you define the product metric
Why ask a question if 'you know'?
Ask a more precise question if you want more precise answers...
A product of balls may or may not be a ball, it depends if you take the product metric or something different (that can or cannot induce the product topology)
I asked and immediately realised my question didn't make any sense
Product of open sets is open but there are open sets that cant be expressed as product of open sets
Puzzled about smth - how should I think about the Borel construction as a homotopy colimit?
I want to say, for example, that if X is a G-space and we use one of the standard model structures on G-spaces then X//G should be (-)/G applied to some sort of resolution of X
But it seems that X could already be fibrant-cofibrant and it still isn't good enough to apply (-)/G
I guess the point is you use a simplicial resolution which just spits out X x EG essentially
Actually no i messed up a bit lol
Free is cofibrant in an appropriate sense. Cofibrant in the category of objects with G action. But that’s kind of circular. First you should convince yourself that freeness is enough that the derived functor is well defined. And then use that to motivate a theory of cofibrancy
Sure okay
In what sense do you mean "well-defined"? As in G-equivalences are sent to (standard) weak equivalences?
Yes
Hm I'm not sure how to show that it preserves weak equivalences other than using like
Well the LES in homotopy groups fibre sequence X -> X//G -> BG and naturality?
As in we should get this uh
... -> π_n(X) -> π_n(X//G) -> π_n(BG) -> ...
| | |
... -> π_n(Y) -> π_n(Y//G) -> π_n(BG) -> ...
And then apply 5-lemma
Or is there some lower-tech way to see this
I think you should be able to do this without any algebraic invariants
Well this was about weak equivalences so some reference to π_n is necessary right
Well ig you could use some CW replacement etc
Yeah, you have to use whitehead
Sure
Wait in what way do you mean?
I was interested in weak equivalences so I'm unsure how thatd help
(thank you for your help btw)
You have to use algebraic invariants or you have to use cw complexes. Whitehead is to get between then
But if you can use whitehead for ordinary spaces with no mention of G, that’s better
Sure
Further research seems to imply this is the standard way other than some formal nonsense with model cats
i'm not entirely sure how you'd use model cats in a way that isn't almost assuming this result though
Yeah, I guess what you need is that if X, Y are free and cw and X -> Y is an equivariant that there is a map back
I think you can do this by hand, but it might not be worth it on a first pass
Sure
Hm
Anyway thanks
I guess one thing I'm finding hard is thinking about homotopy colimits invariantly rather like
"Here's a recipe which gives something good"
I think ideally it can be phrased in terms of homotopy commutative cones though right
How do you think about derived functor in homological algebra? The recipe is for a resolution. But what’s important at the resolution is that it has a lifting property so you can get maps both ways between different resolutions, so any one resolution is approximately universal
First ever ascii commutative diagram
read any book old enough and all commutative diagrams are ASCII for all intents and purposes
the blue book
it was so bad even people that don't study algebraic topology agreed it was bleak
Not quite (if it could, then homotopy colimits would just be colimits in the homotopy category). The universal property is infinity categorical, so it is about cones which commute up to all higher homotopiss
Maybe that's what you meant too but just making sure

An online resource for homotopy-coherent mathematicians.
Me 
Yes
jk idk infty cat theory
just use vibes
I don't get the part about the second isomorphism
DarQ




