#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 69 of 1
What do you mean by linking number?
In mathematics, the linking number is a numerical invariant that describes the linking of two closed curves in three-dimensional space. Intuitively, the linking number represents the number of times that each curve winds around the other. In Euclidean space, the linking number is always an integer, but may be positive or negative depending on ...
I only know how to use cup product to define a different linking number, that of torsion classes in a closed manifold
maybe check Gauge Fields, Knots, and Gravity by Baez and Muniain
there's a section about physical interpretation of some knot invariants. I don't recall if there's anything useful there, but it might be worth a look
Why is there no concept of “conservative tensor field” coming from “vector potential”?
https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Solenoidal_vector_field is this what you want
I don't believe this is what they're asking, I think they're wondering if there's some sort of generalization of a conservative vector field to larger order tensors
Is the map $i_*$ allways injective ?
Gibzen
no
Of course no; take the inclusion of the hollow torus into the filled torus. Then, on the level of the H_1, the meridians of the torus are killed in the solid torus! That means: there is kernel
Or even simpler: the inclusion of the circle inside the disc
For higher degree homology: the inclusion of the n-sphere inside the (n+1)-ball gives kernel on degree n
thank you !
i_* is injective if and only if delta is zero. If it were always injective, delta would not have a special name
how does this make sense? what if $x = t_0a_0 + t_1a_1 + \dots + t_{j - 1}a_{j - 1} + t_{j + 1}a_{j + 1} + \dots + t_na_n$ so that $x \in \text{Bd } \sigma$? and then we can use the disjointness of $\text{Bd } \sigma$ and $\text{Int } \sigma$ to show that $x$ cannot be in any face contained in $\text{Int } \sigma$?
okeyokay
anyone?
I dont understand, Int sigma contains no faces at all
@heady skiff Assuming all t_i > 0 (except for t_j of course), then x is in the interior of the face s spanned by all a_i except a_j
how though, if the boundary of sigma consists of all points x of sigma such that at least one of the barycentric coordinates is zero
because here tj is zero
so by their assertion shouldn't it be in the Boundary of sigma
or is it in the intersection of the boundary of sigma and the face s spanned by all a_i except a_j
did i miss something in point-set? if Y is a subspace of X, how does showing that C closed in Y iff C closed in X show that Y is a closed subspace of X?
and by closed subspace, i'm assuming that if we consider Y as a subset of X, it's closed
Consider: Y is closed in Y
oh bruh
nice
do we even need the condition that each sigma is a subspace of K? i thought if you have any continuous mapping f: X --> Y and say A is a subset of X, then the restriction of f to A is automatically continuous
- we're working in R^n right
subspace / subset all the same thing
lol ok i'm being picky
actually, subspace is correct, cause just a subset doesnt necessarily imply the subspace topology
yeah i'm getting mixed up between the topologies lol
How to show that they have different cup product structures? Not sure how to compute the cup product here.
I guess this can help: Linking number and cup product
Exactly what I am wondering. There is no formal mention of it in the literature
This assumes alexander duality; not introduced in the book yet
in this case you can get away with noting that one of these deform retracts to S^1xS^1 while the other deform retracts to a wedge of S^1's and an S^2; they have the same cohomology groups, but the cup products are obviously different
but in general you would use Alexander duality to detect linking numbers in terms of the cup product like this
this is also how things like Massey triple products and things like this come to be
How would one do the same deformation retraction trick with Boroomean rings compared to the 3-comp. unlink? Not sure how to visualizes this.
I mean if you wanted to do more complicated examples like this you would probably just use Alexander duality instead of doing explicit deform retracts like this
i don't really understand how this implies that t_v is continuous - didn't they just reiterate how t_v is defined 💀
moreover, i'm trying to see it in the open-set continuous definition but can't
anyone?
Whats Lemma 2.3?
Dont use the open set definition of continuous, it's just a piecewise linear function
just the glueing lemma
i.e. if it's continuous on each of the simplices then it's continuous on the entire complex
Clearly the constant zero function is continuous, right?
And the barycentric coordinates are linear in x
Linear functions are continuous
idk what piecewise continuity is
But a piecewise defined function is continuous if it is continuous on the pieces and continuous at the boundaries of those pieces
That gluing lemma is a generalization of that
does anyone here have some familiarity with Kleinian groups
What’s the motivation for point set topology? What is the basic intuition? I reads this;
Topology is the art of reasoning about imprecise measurements, in a sense I'll try to make precise.
In a perfect world you could imagine rulers that measure lengths exactly. If you wanted to prove that an object had a length of l you could grab your ruler marked l, hold it up next to the object, and demonstrate that they are the same length.
In an imperfect world however you have rulers with tolerance. Associated to any ruler is a set U with the property that if your length l lies in U, the ruler can tell you it does. Call such a ruler RU.
Given two rulers RU and RV you can easily prove a length lies in U∪V. You just hold both rulers up to the length and the length is in U∪V if one or the other ruler shows a positive match. You can think of RU∪V as being a kind of virtual ruler.
Similarly you can easily prove that a point lies in U∩V using two rulers.
If you have an infinite family of rulers, RUi, then you can also prove that a length lies in ⋃iUi. The length must lie in one of the Ui and you simply exhibit the ruler RUi matching for the appropriate i.
But you can't always do the same for ⋂iUi. To do so might require an infinitely long proof showing that all of the RUi match your length.
A topology is a (generalised) set of rulers that fits this description.
That doesn't really sound like a mainstream intuition, and I'm not sure how useful it is.
My intuitive idea of imprecision in a ruler definitely isn't that it's something that will give a crisp yes/no answer to every "does this object fall into is such-and-such range of lengths" question -- but that's how it needs to behave if we want to use it as an analogy for "open set".
I think the closest to a concensus definition I've found is only simple discontinuities + only finitely many discontinuities. Tao in his first analysis book defines it like that, Paul Lamar in his notes does the same, and Ross in Elementary Analysis defines it as taking a finite partition P = {t_i} and knowing that the function is uniformly continuous in the open intervals between the points of P, though I found a MSE answer saying its that the function only has simple discontinuities and the set of discontinuities has only isolated points
A friend of mine wrote a neat (free) substack article on how neighbourhood spaces might be a better intro to general topology that's also equivalent to the usual presentation https://mathematicallyforward.substack.com/p/what-do-topological-spaces-actually?sd=pf
Maybe those are more intuitive
Though maybe your question is why we use the standard presentation at all/how that came about
Intuition for the ideas maybe but topologies in terms of open sets is much nicer to work with than the neighborhood definition
Ye, that's the conclusion of the article, basically. The open sets definition is much easier for proofs
You'll get different answers, my perspective is that point set topology provides a very general framework (general in that it's purely set theoretic), for talking about continuous change. Normally you think of functions as changing continuously as meaning you can make the change in outputs arbitrarily "small" by controlling how small your change in inputs are. This requires a notion of when points are considered close together, so some people may describe topology as a generalization of describing when points are close to one other, or "in the same neighborhood", or "close enough together to meet some threshold". The problem is that in general topology doesn't always describe "closeness" the way we think of it intuitively. But you can study metric topologies, and in those situations the topological idea of "closeness" better matches our intuition
Plus, the part which really makes that definition into a topology and not a weak notion like a pre or pseudotopology is v). Which is very unintuitive imo
Like 1-4 are clear. But 5 is awkward
To add to this, I remember reading there was some controversy on whether we should assume topological spaces are Hausdorff because the non-hausdorff spaces generalise too much from the intuitive image of closeness. Idk if there's really controversy but that's an example where stuff is too general
in topology this notion of “two points are close if they are in the same neighbourhoods” does not quite match up to your everyday intuition of closeness… for example it is not symmetric, in the sierpinski top {ø, {a}, {a,b}}, b is by the above notion close to a (and in fact inseparable from a), while a is at the same time also isolated from b— so b is “close” to a, but a is not “close” to b
It seems to be the moral equivalent of "actually forget about all that, we need sufficiently many of the neighborhoods to be open, so openness needs to be part of the definition".
Basically yeah, it asserts every neighborhood contains an open neighborhood
I have an urge to disagree that it's awkward — certainly less clear than the others — but I probably have that urge because my main exposure to topology was metric spaces and I can imagine shrinking a blob/ball
I'd view 5 as like generalising a property of euclidean spaces that you'd notice if you work with them enough. Maybe it's much more awkward if I didn't have that initial exposure
Or in english, "Every neighborhood of x contains a smaller neighborhood which is a neighborhood of each of its points"
I have an urge to disagree with your disagreement... That axiom is precisely why this definition is so awkward to work with, and it's why you don't commonly see it nowadays in textbooks unless you are working with more general notions of what a "space" is.
it's not even so much saying points are close to one another, it's more like saying an open neighborhood around a point is a "closeness threshold". Like X should be a closeness threshold (possibly the weakest), the union of closeness thresholds should be a closeness threshold (possible a weaker one, since it's larger), because continuity requires saying "I want f(x) to be within this threshold of closeness of f(y), and I can do so by making values of x withing "some" closeness threshold of y"
but with such a general definition, you get terrible topologies lol!
where you don't have many useful neighborhoods to have interesting continuous functions
i recall seeing that brown’s textbook has nice intuitive explanations for all of these… but i don’t remember his explanation for 5

Nice survey!
Like 1-4 asserts that you have a neighborhood filter assigned to each point of X, which contains x in its intersection (i.e. is contained in the principal ultrafilter at x). Okay. That is workable, and turns out to be equivalent to a notion called a "pretopology" or a "Cech closure operation". The latter is a pretty nice definition, and has a fairly intuitive interpretation of what it means for a closure to be topological (which I would say is honestly a pretty good alternative to the usual. Exactly: It just means the closure is idempotent, or in other words it takes sets to closed sets).
you’ve aint seen nothing in characterizations of top spaces until you’ve seen the one terms of the closure operation

nice looking book!
And that is a weakening of Kuratowski's closure axioms (when you add idempotency, you get that)
How much experience do you have working with neighbourhood spaces off the top?
I haven't and I'm mainly taking my friend's word that they're more annoying to work with + I tend to use the open set properties more often
hm?
See my comment about cech closure spaces
ohh pretty neat
Closure operations are nice cause theyre like monads and i like those 
I have some experience working with them, but I generally avoid it. I've worked with generalizations of topologies which take alternative forms as their basis (closure operations, neighborhood filters, limits of filters), and the neighborhood filter definition is annoying to work with (limits of filters is also pretty annoying for some things), albeit unavoidable for some things
Wow, when are they unavoidable?
Im guessing in the world of pretopologies
Well, although I like cech closure spaces, they are a bit of a nightmare when you want to describe something like a product of closures lol (more generally, limits in Cl)
Because for that, you need to go into the world of pretopologies to describe it, since there's no simple direct formula for products in terms of the closure
i have glanced at this exercise in munkres a couple of times, before promptly deciding to do other things, it goes something like “show you can define 14 different unary operations solely by composing the closure and complement operations”
I've ranted about the various ways you can define what a topology is a few times now lol
(also due to Kuratowski)
ofc
it’s fascinating though
(altho pretopologies actually aren't too bad since you drop axiom 5. Still way better than trying to describe them in terms of limits of filters lmao)
Any ideas on how to construct the set W in the hint?
god i spend way too much time idly flipping through books i don’t understand half of… i’ve seen filters mentioned in Bourbaki but i forgor what they are precisely

oh well it’s 4 am here, i should get out of bed
You obtain it from the fact p is continuous
I feel like I need to use Y compact as well, since i'm not sure how to show the preimage is contained in U
An upward-closed join- (or lower-)semilattice of P(X) containing X but not containing ∅ 
hold my beer while i run to the uni library for a book on order theory to chech what is a lattice again
it’s just some 40 min away

The wiki for filters generalises it to posets and the filter on a set is a particular instance on P(X) ordered by inclusion
actually order theory sounds kinda fun, i think i will see what they have
Consider: Since U is open, X - U is closed. And since U contains p^{-1}(y), ||y is not in p(X-U), which is closed since p is closed. So Y - p(X-U) is a neighborhood of y, with its preimage contained in U||
Well yes, you'll need to use all the assumptions you are given generally
Yeah, just didn't expect it to show up there
dude what the fuck does this even mean
my book on the real projective plane: "this is formed by taking the Mobius strip and a disc and sewing their boundaries together"
????
how is that in any way rigorous
does anybody know of any good sources that have constructions that actually have some math in them
in particular of the real projective plane
i haven’t gotten to them yet, but isn’t that just a quotient space?
wdym
4 am 
no idea who that is
(i didn’t see the “and a disc” part…)
i have fallen into a biphasic sleep cycle again; i sleep in the early night and then again around noon… vastly impractical
Have you tried making this rigorous yourself? You know what a mobius strip is and that its boundary is a circle
You also know that the boundary of a disk is a circle
Now glue the two together along that circle
Section 22 of Munkres's Topology book covers quotient topology, which is the formalism for glueing stuff together. For projective plane idk
or the disjoint union perhaps
wait does that make sense
isn’t the whole point of disjoint unions that there is no overlap

then wouldn’t the approriate formalism rather some quotient of the product of the strip and the disc
You take the disjoint union and then quotient
You can always basically take the disjoint union by doing 1×X ∪ 1'×Y where 1 and 1' are different singletons. Usually, 1×X is basically the same as X
does the product also work?
trying to mix limits and colimits 
right, thanks, i’m just tripping, probably from lack of sleep and nutrition
living that sweet life
i should see a doctor
NO! First see a doctor! But before that, worry about what the doctor will say!
Then worry if your doctor is actually qualified!
Are they actually a doctor?
Wait, did you actually have an appointment?

what exactly does c) say precisely? under what quotient map are we giving the union the quotient topology?
something like injecting each simplex into the complex?
bro what does it mean to "take them separately" 😂
For each simplex s in K, take the union of |s|
so we're considering $\bigcup_
{\alpha \in A} |s_\alpha|$?
Let consider the sum of spaces $\coprod_{k \in K} |k|$ of the simplices $k$. The obvious map $\coprod_{k \in K} |k| \to |K|$ is a quotient map.
oh ok
i'm stuck on figuring out how they got H^1 and H^2
i'm also not really sure where they got the 0 in the complex
anyways, for H^1, im(Z -> Z^3) is isomorphic to Z since that map is injective, and so i guess it reduces to solving that ker(Z^3 -> Z^2) is isomorphic to Z^3, then H^1 = Z^3 / Z = Z^2
it's not injective, it's 0, which is why H^0 = Z
oh oops yeah true
i just got thrown off by the thing looking like a short exact sequence
ok so then need to show ker(Z^3 -> Z^2) isomorphic to Z^2
take $\begin{pmatrix} x \ y \ x \end{pmatrix} \in \bZ^3$. then we have
[ \begin{pmatrix} 1 & 1 & -1\ 1 & 1 & -1 \end{pmatrix} \begin{pmatrix} x \ y \ z \end{pmatrix} = \begin{pmatrix} x + y - z \ x + y - z \end{pmatrix} = 0 ]
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
which implies that x + y - z = 0
but im not sure why this implies that the kernel is Z^2
what is the rank of the matrix
1
then youre done!
the domain has rank 3 so what does rank-nullity tell you
yeah so rank nullity gives that it has nullity 2
but then i get an issue with H^2
because then that means that ker(Z^3 -> 0) is isomorphic to Z^2
oh wait
shit notational error
lol
i should've had ker(Z^2 -> 0)
oops
yeah, so another rank argument gives u H^2
oof yeah that’ll make a difference
If $K\subseteq \bR^n$ is compact and $E\subseteq K$ has only isolated points, does it follow that $\operatorname{cl}E$ is countable?
BlaKaligula
No, also I hate this https://en.m.wikipedia.org/wiki/Isolated_point#Two_counter-intuitive_examples
In mathematics, a point x is called an isolated point of a subset S (in a topological space X) if x is an element of S and there exists a neighborhood of x that does not contain any other points of S. This is equivalent to saying that the singleton {x} is an open set in the topological space S (considered as a subspace of X). Another equivalent...
Very strange
With the Cantor set example, you can modify it to work with the middle fourths Cantor set and get a closure with positive measure from a set of isolated points
https://youtu.be/lwWeRMmXIoU?si=-uLfExCR72IJsLQu
how does one convince themself tubing doesnt affect unknotting
oh so the tube is allowed to intersect itself
hmm...
wdym? I dont think it has to. Certainly it cant intersect the knot
Actually no, it cant intersect itself otherwise you wont preserve knot B
where does $\bZ_2$ come from? the rank of $\begin{pmatrix} -1 & 1 & 1 \ 1 & -1 & 1 \end{pmatrix}$ is 2 and $\ker(\bZ^2 \to 0) = \bZ^2$, so wouldn't $H^2(\bR P^2, \bZ) = \bZ^2 / \bZ^2 \cong 0$?
ana(functor)mono(morphism)
Then im stuck with my original block
are you ok with the fact that deformation retracts are homotopy equivalences?
alright...
are you saying you are good now, or do you want me to keep going
Z^2 is a submodule of Z^2
proper
how is Z^2 a proper submodule of itself
we have a deformation retract from the tubed knot to the original knot.
perhaps more importantly, you have a deformation retract from X - K to X- T(K), where X is the ambient space, K is the knot, and T(K) the tubed knot
but u also have a retract to the null knot...?
being an unknot requires X - T(K) to be homotopy equivalent to X - T(K_0)
a retract is not a homotopy equivalence
I havent read the original question, but 2Z + Z is a submodule of Z + Z for example
unless you were referring to a deformation retract shuri
yes..
then no, not necessarily
why should we have a deformation retract from an arbitrary T(K) to K_0
if u can swallow A, u can swallow B also
i don’t follow
the Z^3 -> Z^2 map has image spanned by (-1, 1) and (1, 1)
Theres too much jargon for me to continue down this explanation
i have used no jargon
topology
are you coming into this from just the conway video
if so then yeah sorry i did use too much jargon
Yes. Id have to spend a while revising to understand
i have to go, but if you want me to flesh this out later when i get a chance let me know
true but i dont see how we have a similar thing here tbh
right
i have no idea what a lattice is 
the grid in Z^2
The way I see it. If "swallow A" is a def retract, then so is "swallow B". And both.
ok there's another way to see it ig
the coordinates add up to 0 mod 2 for both generators
so it'll stay that way for all linear combinations
oh gotcha
the other coset will be the subset of Z^2 whose coordinates add up to 1 mod 2
so you have Z_2
Did you read the comment by "unique_two" on the youtube video?
Quick explanation of the last few sentences because the quality isn't great. By taking the tube through the deformation we get a 3d shape at t=1, from which we obtain a 1d shape by taking the boundary and intersecting with the vertical plane. Part of that 1d shape will be a curve going from left to right, which is what he draws in green, note that this curve isn't knotted. Take this curve back through the deformation to t=0, then it still sits on the boundary of the tube, hence it is knotted the same as the knot B. This is a contradiction the knotted curve cannot be deformed into an unknotted curve.
Theres also a fantastically funny comment by "jeffwalters1749"
which I wont quote here...
Im happy with that. Im not happy with the fact tubing does not potentially get in the way of any unknotting process.
Yeah, so I think the tube just follows whatever process we assumed we had
But A and B (presumably) have to come together and so im convinced the tube will intersect with itself to do stuff
Not really
i mean any unknotting process is, isnt it?
homotopy from the identity map to the continuous map between your knot and unknot
Ive never really studied knots, but wikipedia says its a continuous [0,1]-family of homeomorphisms R3 -> R3 so that the first one at 0 is the identity and the last one at 1 carries the one knot to the other
Just a plain homotopy is not going to work because any knot is homotopic to a circle
right homotopy allows intersection

nvm about that
If instead you look at the inverse space, X - K as maximo suggested then maybe it works?
Im not actually sure if there may exist inequivalent knots that have homotopy equivalent complements
Again I dont know anything about knot theory specifically
Apparently the Gordon–Luecke theorem shows that homeomorphism of the complements is the same as equivalence of the knots
But this is not an easy fact and its in fact not true for links
ok think ive convinced myself
Like. Each point on the string corresponds to a cross section of the tube.
This point must always stay inside when you unknot
other than that, the tube is allowed to intersect anything
And then I think I can follow his result
Ah wait this sucks for A
hmm
I guess you need to convince yourself any unknotting process that can occur in R3 can also occur inside the tube
You dont need the cross section idea I think
Also dont think so

At least, that comment makes me think so
Clearly (since we have a homeomorphism), that tube in the original picture gets carried to a tube in the final picture where the knot is unknot
The unknot fits entirely inside a 2d plane
This plane intersects the tube in the final picture
Since its a tube, there must be some path from left to right (there may be other crap like Conway draws, but we can ignore it)
This path doesnt intersect itself (since we have a homeomorphism) and it also doesnt intersect the unknot
Now carry this path back in time to the original picture
There it sits in the "boundary" of the tube
Hence it follows the knot B
But that shows that B is actually also the unknot!
So the only way for A+B to be unknot is if A and B are both unknot
Ok ive convinced myself of one thing. Take a double loop. Like 2S1. Wrap this up using a torus. Now you cant "undo" this into S1
So the tube must be allowed to intersect itself for the purposes of this proof
In fact, Im not sure what his argument is supposed to do to such a construction. Hmm.
hmm maybe not
huh so the tube need not intersect itself... for this
Yeah, the tube doesnt intersect itself ever, since we have a homeomorphism R3 -> R3 at each point of the process and those are always injective
No, read the text defining Lk again
oh is it because we consider the pink segments to be the interiors of the simplices containing v_2
Yep
Yeah, it a bit like linear interpolation
hm i'm not sure what that is
but at this point whenever i see arithmetic in a function that's claimed to be continuous that's my go to mental justification lol
The composition of continuous functions is continuous
indeed
Although, we do need some gluing in this case
don't E^J and R^k coincide for some natural number k lol
When J is finite sure
E^J ~= R^|J|. But for infinite J they are different.
E^J would be the direct sum of R, |J| times, whereas R^J would be the product of R, |J| times
i see okay
thanks
i also don't really understand what they mean by "each such subspace is a copy of R^N for some N". do they just mean that each subspace is isomorphic to R^N for some N?
that follows pretty easily
there's a fun proof of this called the Eilenberg-Mazur Swindle
but it is decidedly less geometric than conway's idea (though IDK how exactly to make conway's work...)
Barry Mazur is a week older than Conway
The Mazur swindle applied to knots involves passing through wild knots. I’m suspicious that I really know the foundations of wild knots
Oh right I remember this
so here i'm trying to prove the => direction of this iff - so obviously I set up $\sum_{i = 1}^n t_i(a_i - a_0) = 0$ and am trying to prove that $t_i = 0$ for $i = 1, \dots, n$, but to use the geometric independence of the $a_i$, am I allowed to say that $\sum t_i = 0$? or am I only allowed to use the condition that $\sum t_i = 0$ and $\sum t_ia_i = 0 \implies t_i = 0$ for all $i$
okeyokay
so then I would have to prove that $\sum t_i = 0$ otherwise
okeyokay
in order to use that condition
which seems fucking annoying
ohw ait nvm
i'm trying to get some intuition as to geometric independence in terms of {a_i - a_0 | i \in I} being linearly independent
i know it has to do with them not being a scalar multiple of each other
but i'm trying to visualize how a_i - a_0 being lin independent implies the a_i are geometrically independent and i can't really see it lol
To see that some set of points in geom. indep. you translate them so that one of the points becomes the origin and then check lin. indep of the remaining points
In this case you translate so that a_0 becomes the origin
oh so you're talking about the case that a_0 = 0?
i guess that may be easier to visualize then
No, im saying, translate everything by -a_0
oh
Or: move the origin to a_0
ok lemme try to see this in R^2
Hello, what is the Alexandrov compactification for ]0,+inf[?
I think it's S^1, although not entirely sure
Yeah that's correct
And for C^n?
S^2n
Any tips on this? In the previous part I showed that {\N \cup \infty} with the order topology is compact, but I have no idea what neighborhoods of infinity would even look like here
Weird question but is there any "prime number theorem" for prime knots?
Prove that the intersection of a compact set and a closed set
is compact. I only know that compact set is closed and bounded, and intersection of two sets must be closed, but don't know how to prove the intersection must be bounded? Can anyone give me some suggestions for this question?
any subset of a bounded set is bounded
We can state that because the intersection of one compact set and one close set is the subset of that compact set, so we can prove that the intersection is bounded, is that corret?
yes
Got it, really appreciate that
yes there is a prime factorization theorem for knots under connect sum
Where can I read about this?
pretty much every basic knot theory textbook covers this
if you google "prime knot decomposition theorem" there are loads of expository notes on this
How about the distribution of prime knots?
I mean the prime knots don't decompose further but yes that phrase will probably pull up similar notes
So there is a prime factorization theorem but probably no "prime number theorem"
Constructing such a thing sounds very nontrivial
can i get a hint to show that the real line with the finite complement topology is not a Hausdorff space? so far, I'm letting any r1, r2 in R, letting U be any neighborhood of r1, and trying to show that it intersects r2. i'm going for contradiction - so that if r2 is not in U, then in particular r2 is in R - U, so that r2 is in a finite set. other than that i'm stuck lol
oh
it's just that we can do the same thing for r2
let U be any neighborhood of r2 and suppose that r1 doesn't intersect it, then r1 is in R - U which is finite
but this contradicts the fact that if we take U = O then R is in O and R - O
This isn't what Hausdorff means
What you are doing is showing that the topology is indiscrete, since you are saying any open set containing r1 contains r2 (which was arbitrary) i.e. contains the whole space
wait wdym
i'm trying to show that it's not hausdorff
or do you mean the approach that i'm taking
show's that it's indiscrete
instead of not hausdorff
Well you seem to have the wrong notion in mind I mean rather than Hausdorffness
maybe i got the negation wrong
a space is not hausdorff iff for every two distinct points x1 and x2
every neighborhood of x1 contains x2 right
No
hm
That condition is equivalent to being indiscrete
oh okay
so the negation of being hausdroff would be that
for any two distinct points x1 and x2, for every neighborhood of U1 and every neighborhood of U2 their intersection is nonempty
hm is there something i'm missing as to why the cofinite topology is not hausdorff
it would be "there exists a pair of points such that all pairs of their neighborhoods have nonempty intersection"
this seems rather nontrivial and the author treated it as trivial
oh right forgot the "for each pair"
no it's just that it has to fail to some pair of points, not every pair of points
right
For any total order A with a largest element m, the neighborhoods of m (in the order topology) are exactly the subsets of A that contain { a in A | a > b } for some b < m.
try some examples out
what do you notice
what about the intersections mentioned in the hausdorff condition
uhh
(But it's a strange exercise if it (a) doesn't expect you to be familiar enough with ordinals to just write "omega_1 + 1" for its \hat\omega_1 but (b) does expect you to be familiar enough with ordinals to have an idea what to do with omega_1 in the first place.
hm i mean i guess if it's hausdorff, then that would imply that for every pairs of points x1 and x2 every infinite neighborhood of x1 and every infinite neighborhood of x2 would have empty intersection
which seems pretty false
well infinite neighborhood is a loose characterization of the open sets
(In general you can prove by transfinite induction that every successor ordinal is compact under the order topology).
i'm not sure if that's a proper characterization
not every neighborhood, some neighborhood
sure it's false, but we've basically just restated the condition
but maybe something clicked for you
get an example of two neighborhoods (in this case, each of distinct points)
and ask yourself what you know about their intersection
because you want to show that it's nonempty for all pairs of neighborhoods
so you need to first figure out what you know about it before you show more properties about it
or even just with an example, take their intersection and look at its concrete properties
and then you can do this again with another example if you need to
for example, i'll take the points 0 and 1 with the cofinite neighborhoods R - {1/2, 3, 5} and R - {10}
and then think about their intersection
For the cofinite topology it might be useful to restate Hausdorffness in terms of closed sets instead: The space X is Hausdorff is for any distinct points x and y, you can cover all of X by two closed sets such that one of them avoids x and the other avoids y.
Now what do closed sets in the cofinite topology look like? Especially, what do closed sets that manage to avoid some point look like?
So I have this conumdrum:
Consider X to be the plane R^2, and A be finite points on the plane.
Then, one has LES
... -> H^i(A) -> H^i(X) -> H^i(X, A) -> ...
where H^i (A) = 0 for i >= 1.
That means H^i (X) = H^i (X, A) for i > 1.
Yet IIRC this gave a contradictory result in my exam. So is my reasoning abt this correct?
RIP, I guess I got it wrong because I wrote H^0 (A) = 0
Why am I like this 🥲
And if it is the cohomology, the LES should be H^i(X,A;G)->H^i(X;G)->H^i(A;G)->H^{i+1}(X,A;G) because you need to apply Hom(-,G) and it reverse the arrows in homology.
But that's cohomology
H^k usually denotes cohomology
was the task to compute the homology of R^2 - finite amount of points?
A simple example of a pair (X, A) with A closed for which the homotopy exten-sion property fails is the pair (I, A) where A = {0, 1,1/2,1/3,1/4, ···}. It is not hard to show that there is no continuous retraction I×I→I×{0} ∪ A×I . The breakdown of homotopy extension here can be attributed to the bad structure of (X, A) near 0. With nicer local structure the homotopy extension property does hold, as the next example shows.
I don't quite understand why this pair doesn't have a homotopy extension
Yes.
Sorry about me confusing subscript with superscript
That’s homotopy equivalent to the |A| fold Wedge sum of circles
..My bad, did not know it was that easy
just to be sure is hatcher trying to say this ?
James Banach
or am i missunderstanding something
Yes
This is elaborated on in the part of chapter 4 that introduces fibrations
Is there any suggestions about how to find the boundary points and interior points of a cantor set?
This is more of an analysis question. Afaik the interior should be empty, since the Cantor set has measure zero, so because the set is closed it should follow that all the points are boundary points.
It's about as much topology as it is analysis; this question is suited for this channel
And yeah, C has empty interior
Hatcher just-draw-the-fucking-diagram challenge impossible
Therefore, because the set has measure 0 and it is closed, so all points are boundary points, is that correct? And we can know that its boundary points are also empty?
Well yes, that's exactly what I said. Are you asking why the set of boundary points is non-empty? What I said shows that the Cantor set equals its boundary, so to show the latter is non-empty you have to show the Cantor set is non-empty. If it's the classic Cantor set ([0,1] with the middle thirds recursively removed), then 0 and 1 belong to it, so it's non-empty. I don't remember the definition of general Cantor sets to speak for them.
You mean because its length is zero while it is closed, so the set is equivalent to its boundary? Is that correct?
$$\partial E=\overline{E}\smallsetminus\mathring{E}$$
Matplotlib
This is why
Ok, I got it
(here, the interior E° is empty)
the set consist of all interior points and boundary points
So if its interior points are empty, can I make conclusions that accumulation points are also empty?
What does it mean to say that an accumulation point is empty?
I mean if i get the conclusion that interior points of cantor set is empty, can I also say that its accumulation points are empty?
For that matter, what does it mean to say that an interior point is empty?
I don't get what it means for a point to be empty.
I assume they mean that the set of accumulation points is empty?
And the set of interior points is empty
But that is clearly not true.
A compact infinite set must have accumulation points.
I'm just translating what they mean, not giving an opinion
Here, the Cantor set is also equal to the set of its accumulation points; it has no isolated points
(or, as you'd say, the set of isolated points is empty)
I mean in a cantor set, I have know that the set of interior points is empty, the set of boundary points is equivalent to a cantor set, its accumulation points must contain all its limit points, so it should be a cantor set, I think what i said is wrong before
I just assumed that accumulation points must be in the set, but it was wrong
A set is always partitioned by its subset of limit points and its subset of isolated points
(by definition)
And for a closed set X, the subset of accumulation points of X is equal to the set of limits of sequences of elements of X
You're right that because there is no interior points of the set, every point in the set is a boundary point.
In general there can also be boundary points outside the set, (namely limit/accumulation points don't need to be in the set), but that doesn't happen for the Cantor set because it is closed.
(I'm sorry if I'm getting your point wrong; it's hard to decypher what you mean...)
As Troposphere said, because of this
(At least for metric spaces, which happily includes all R^n and their subsets).
may i ask how do i attempt this problem? asking for a friend btw
Draw the line between x and f(x), and this is indeed a line if f(x)=/=x. It will cut the circle somewhere: that's the image of the map from D^2 to S^1
I'm not sure I follow. What is the "limit point of a point"?
I mean accumulation points means every neighborhood of points contain at least one point in the given set
because we know that the set of boundary points of C is set C while the set of interior is empty, choose a random element x from C, then every neighborhood of element x must contain at least one element from the set C if we call x to be the accumulation point. But its interior is empty, so I am confused how to determine its accumulation points
what
I mean a cantor set
Yeah that wasn't the part I'm confused on.
You can explicitly check: if you take a point in the cantor set, for every ε > 0 there's some other point in C with distance less than ε
Interior and accumulation/limit points aren't necessarily related
it seems that every elements in a cantor set must be accumulation point
And it also seems like cantor set should consist of many closed intervals, but I don't know if it is a correct statement
It's not, but the statement about accumulation points is true
You mean the sentence every elements in a cantor set must be accumulation points?
Yes, every element of the Cantor set is its accumulation point.
But the Cantor set contains no interval, closed or otherwise
I rememberd that the cantor set are divided by three parts and remove the middle part, and keep repeating, why it can not be regarded as containing many intervals?
Because you keep repeating it infinitely many times, and the cantor set is what you get in the limit.
At every step along the way you've got the union of finitely many intervals, but in the limit you lose that.
You mean because of length 0?
You could think of it like that. Alternatively, any interval subset of [0,1] will eventually not be entirely covered by the intervals you get when constructing the cantor set.
So it can't be a subset of the final intersection.
So you mean every subset of [0,1] will not be entirely contained when keep constructing cantor set infinitely many times?
is this also how we define open sets in |K|?
oh right
hm how would I show that the open sets coincide here?
so i know that if $A$ is open in $|K'|$ then $A \cap \sigma'_i$ is open in $\sigma'_i$ for all $i$, and I want to show that $A \cap \sigma_i$ is open in $\sigma_i$ for all $i$. so since every simplex of $K$ is a union of a finite number of simplices of $K'$, we know that every $\sigma_i$ contains $A \cap \sigma'_i$ for all $i$
okeyokay
the issue is just looking at $A \cap \sigma$ - is it true that $A \cap \sigma = \bigcup_{i \in I} A \cap \sigma'_i$?
okeyokay
anyone?
Munkreas?
I remember I jotted down the proof somewhere, but it's been a while 
Do you just mean $(\ZZ,n)$ ?
Semer
yes that
Doesnt mean anything specific to me
do i still send drawing
Do you have the textbook?
yes
Which one is it?
this depends on your definition of geometric realization |K|, but however you define it it should be a tautology that if f: K \to K' is a morphism of finite simplicial complexes and f: |K| \cong |K'| as sets then f is a homeomorphism
it appears regularly on chapter 2
Oohhh Its a chain sequence
yeah
There should be a C everywhere tho
apparently its something about cones i think
yeah its cones
C(Z,n) refers to the cone of (Z,n)
the issue with infinitely many simplices might arise if you write some n-simplex as a union of infinitely many (n-1)-simplices in a perverse way
Huh Im actually not sure what it means
I'm not finding this in chapter 2 of the pdf
hmm okay thanks
i clicked the wrong "lectures on algebraic topology" lmao
Is it maybe the chain sequence with only Z at index n ?
maybe
idk if that makes sense
i thought it was the poset of integers thought as a category
and kernels and images defined in a categorical sense
Found it
p 17
found it
Somewhat confusing notation tho
now i can finally find some concrete examples on the book
Seems like a nice book looking at the contents, but maybe not as an introduction to algebraic topology. Seems to be mostly focussed on homological algebra
Idk what youre using it for
nobody in my class was able to understand why this inequality holds and the prof said "anyone who gets this is a fucking genius"
can somebody explain to me why it holds?
hatcher proves this via induction iirc
ah no he proves something similar
oh someone found a stack exchange post
the first subdivision of K
like B is a subcomplex of A?
uh barycentric subdivision
ah he does prove this
Yeah, B is a subsimplex of A, meaning theres an edge between their barycentres in the subdivision
the idea I think comes down to the fact that for an n-simplex [v_0, ..., v_n] we have that b (barycenter) = 1/(n+1) v_i + n/(n+1) (barycenter of the face without the vertex v_i)
Heres an idea, the "largest" n-simplex with diameter 1 is the regular n-simplex and the longest edges in its subdivision are the ones from a vertex to the barycenter of the whole simplex
This length is $\sqrt{\frac{n}{2(n+1)}}$ which is $\le \frac{n}{n+1}$ when $n \ge 1$
Semer
So we could in fact do somewhat better than the book
Not the most rigorous proof tho
Is there a comprehensive list of Cobordism classes like homology groups?
the literature around cobordism theory seems to be scattered
Are you looking for the classification of manifolds up to cobordism?
yep pretty much
In mathematics, specifically geometry and topology, the classification of manifolds is a basic question, about which much is known, and many open questions remain.
cobordism classification is most useful in dim > 4 since there the classification up to diffeomorphism is impossible
and then the cobordism classification uses surgery theory techniques
I wanted to get into the nitty gritty of computing cobordism groups
There was a good book on surgery theory I read that went into this lemme see if I can find it
I think it's called The Geometric Hopf Invariant and Surgery Theory by Ranicki
i see
I had this little primer on surgery theory by ranicki too
apart from milnor, this guy seems to be a pillar in the theory
this has a geometric computations of the low dimensional oriented cobordism groups
in case you don't want to dive into stable theory
Not really. Cobordism calculations are almost purely homotopic and are input into surgery, not vice versa
Very early in the history, Roklin tried to use cobordism to compute pi^s_3 and got the wrong answer. Someone ran the argument backwards and constructed the Rokhlin invariant
what inequality in particular?
There are two versions, one in Alg Topo, and one in Convex theory. Iirc, both are quite similar, but the proofs differ
The inequality that shows that the maximum edge length in subdivision gets smaller
And the proof seems not too crazy to me #point-set-topology message
yeah this book is funny
sometimes he mentions things in his proof and doesn't give justifications
even though they're entirely nontrivial
what does it mean to be a linear function?
surely it doesn't mean in the usual sense, like y = mx + b
because we don't even know how s is defined
on the vertices
It's the restriction of an affine map to a simplex as a subspace of euclidean space
And you ask that if you have two maps on two adjacent simplices, then they 'glue nicely' on the meeting face
So it's like 'affine by parts'
if $s: |K| \to |L|$ is a simplical approximation of $f: |K| \to |L|$ but for some vertex $v$ of $|L|$, $f^{-1}({v}) = \varnothing$, can we say anything about $s^{-1}({v})$?
okeyokay
Following Armstrong: v is its own "carrier"
@narrow cairn you're self-studying from Lee right
i was, ive moved on to rotman now
oh damn nice
i only got through the first four chapters and part of 5
oh ok that makes sense
i was gonna ask what's ur thoughts on it for point-set lol
cuz honestly i was going to go back and review point set over the break
but i'm kind of tired of munkres and want something new lmao
and then learn alg top from lee
or maybe hatcher or smt
is there any easy way to see that the interior of a simplex is open?
i know that it consists of all points where each barycentric coordinate is positive
this is often the case in topology (at least for me) where it's intuitively/visually obvious
but i don't know how to approach proving it formally
is that not just defined as the topological interior of a simplex
perchance the boundary is closed
but i guess that requires showing that the boundary is closed
well the boundary is closed
which is like another problem lol
oh
wait so the boundary of a simplex is just the union of all the proper faces right
ok now i need to see how this is closed lmao
the boundary of a set is the intersection of two closed sets
wait wdym
even if that was the case they define boundary here in a different way tho
great minds think alike
Is there a simple proof that the spaces $\mathbb{R}^{\infty}, \mathbb{S}^{\infty}, D^{\infty}$ are not metrizable?
Eternal Way
There are lots of different spaces that go by those names, but most of them are metric
The topology on R^inf is given by saying that a set is open in R^inf if it's intersection with each R^n is open. Similar deal for the infinite sphere and ball in this problem
Pick a metric d. If d gives the desired topology, then for each n we can choose a_n = (0, …, 0, 2b_n, 0, …) (in the nth component) such that d(a_n, 0) < 1/n and b_n > 0. But [(-b1, b1) × (-b2, b2) × …] ∩ R^∞ is open.
Apologies, but I'm not seeing the contradiction here. Is that this sequence has infinitely many non-zero terms?
This sequence converges in the metric but not in the desired topology
So a quasiabsolute value is defined as something that has the usual properties of an absolute value, except instead of the triangle inequality it satisfies the inequality below for some real C>0. I want to show that a QA induces a topology with its open balls U_r(x) as a basis, but I was having trouble for whatever reason showing explicitly that the intersection of any two balls contains a third, so I thought to do this in a roundabout way:
It is known that every QAV is a power of an AV. If | | is the power of the AV | |', then the balls U and U' of the QAV and the AV are nested (for any x and r there is an s such that U_s(x)<=U'_r(x) and vice versa). Since the AV balls U' are a basis for a topology, it follows that the U balls also are a basis for a topology, the same one in fact.
Does this work?
Ah ok, thanks!
this is the idea yeah
The way it's plainly stated here made me think I must be missing something simple and it's possible to do this directly from the definition.
Uhm, if |x|'=|x|² for instance, then what about balls of radius less than 1 or greater than 1? Something happens here! (regarding who is nested in who)
The conclusion should remain the same, but the details require a teeny tiny bit more work
Looks fun
john roe is a fantastic author
What does it cover?
I bet it talks about the Toeplitz index theorem
I know John Roe because of his text on Atiyah-Singer index theory, it's a great textbook
This is quite cool
Surprising breadth
This gives me the impression of a kinda fun topics course?
The radii are not necessarily the same. The point is that for every r there is an s such that U_s<=U'_r and vice versa.
Ah yeah true
If I'm given a surface with this identification, how do I find the fundamental group for it with basepoint circled v? (Do not use the fact that this is RP^2)
You can compute an easy presentation for it
Seifert Van Kampen helps
(you don't really care who the basepoint it, because it's path-connected)
ab is the generator yeah, it's not two generators a and b
But how do I say definitely that ab is a generator?
a and b are not loops, they don't start and end at the same point
v=/=w
Do you see why ab is the loop spanning the thing?
You SvK by saying it's pi1 of the punctured thing (puncturing in the middle of the square) glued together with pi1(disc)=1
The thing is, why am I only looking at the boundaries? What if I take a loop starting with a and then take it in the interior instead of going along b?
Enjoy my terrible computer mouse drawings
Wait, is that correct on the left?
(brain fart moment)
On the left, it should be a Mobius strip
these are homotopic
For example in this application of SvK to be entirely technical you would need to take the basepoint in some small nbhd of that cut out disk (and not on the edges), and the generator would be "move to the bottom left vertex from that pt, then go up through a,b (free to move in interior as well, just in the general shape of this) and then once you get to top right return to the base pt"
but this distinction is kind of meaningless in terms of the calculation
but it might make thigns more clear as to "why you're only looking at the boundaries"
But that identification is not the Mobius strip though. Mobius strip identifies one of the edge-pairs with the same orientation, this doesn't. This should be the projective line or smth related iirc It's the projective plane.
Wait a second this doesn't look like Boys surface 🤨
it's connected if X is empty or 1 point
the empty set is connected
No
Anyway uh pretty sure it needn't be disconnected
e.g. if you take X any set of cardinality > 1 and then give it the indiscrete topology
the product still has the indiscrete topology
subtract the diagonal and uh pretty sure that still has indiscrete topology
so it's connected
If X is a circle then X×X is a torus, and removing the diagonal leaves it connected.
nice
Actually we can think about this geometrically - this is just the space of configurations of two points in our original space.
The empty set is connected.
So e.g. if X = R, we get something at least not path connected e.g. since no matter how we move the particles continuously, their order will be preserved
But if X = S^1 then it's easy to see we can move our pair of points wherever we want
(just rotate them around together until one of them is where you want it, then move the other appropriately)
:)
Yeah its the configuration space of two points!
So it's "removing the diagonal disconnects" that's the exceptional case.
I'm not too sure what the general criterion is, at least for X a manifold
(i know a little more about unordered configurations)
If it's of dimension 2 or higher, it's easy to see with your argument that X²\diagonal is still connected.
Yes
And there are not many connected 1-manifolds to begin with.
Yeah I mean more generally like you can view each point as living in X \ a point
if we think of moving one particle then the next
Of course, the point you remove does matter in general
So yeah i guess that's why for dim X > 1 you just use the fact X \ a point is still path connected if X is?
Yeah.
Damn thats a massive nlab page https://ncatlab.org/nlab/show/configuration+space+of+points
yeah i just did a summer project on them hehe
I wonder what happens if the original X was only connected but not path connected?
True
I have a 3-manifold M with boundary $\partial M$ and $H_1(M; \mathbb{Z}_2) = 0$. How can I show that each component of $\partial M$ is a 2-sphere?
*-algebra
i think im supposed to look at the long exact sequence for the pair $(M, \partial M)$ with the coefficients i say there
*-algebra
oh yeah my M is compact w/ boundary
How do I show that the set of dyadic rationals are dense in
[0, 1]?
I was thinking of finding a continuous mapping, should that work?
But somehow I can't think of an example of a map that works.
You can try adapting the proof that the rationals are dense in R.
Not sure what you mean by mapping but the usual proof goes: Let a,b in [0,1] with a<b then there’s an n in N such that 2^(-n) < b-a. Show then there exists an integer multiple of 2^(-n) in (a,b).
Ah sorry. By mapping I meant a continuous function, that was a mistake.
Then it's sort of unclear what you mean
My uni doesn't offer a point set topology course, but offers a research project where you basically teach yourself topology
The person who runs the project is a topologists so I think it just ends up being a less structured topology course
Is it worth doing a "self study" project, rather than research project?
It still gives credits but I dont know if its worth taking over another course
Hi, I'm currently trying to compute the non reduced homology groups of the Klein Bottle using Mayer-Vietoris sequence, it was fine for the case where n>2 but for n=1 I am stuck because I end up with the following exact sequence : H1(K) → Z → Z+Z → Z → 0 while on a detailed example I found on a lecture note gives H1(K) → 0. I don't know where I messed up and I hope I am not confusing between reduced and non reduced homology...
yes they seem to be using the reduced Mayer-Vietoris sequence
At least in my experience, usually the reduced is more useful for computations
since then all your Z's there vanish
:)
@tough jay
Ahhh I thought so too... now it makes sense, thanks !
i'm trying to concretely wrap my head around the difference between isotopy and homotopy, and i figured that it'd be easiest to start with embedded curves
so two embedded curves can be homotopic, but not isotopic, if you cant homotope one curve to the other via embedded curves only
Isotopy is a homotopy where at all times it's an embedding
right
Homotopy, you allow crossings and shit to happen
right, so what would be an example of embedded curves
where the only way to homotope one to the other
Then there's ambient isotopy too
is having some kind of crossing
Hopf link is homotopic to unlink, but it shouldn't be isotopic to it (it actually is, it isn't ambient isotopic to it)
So the homotopy allows for this:
In the middle, it's not an embedding (it's an immersion here, but it needs not even be an immersion at all times, it can be weirder)
They are, if you allow components to cross themselves
But when people say link homotopy, they want distinct components to remain disjoint at all times
But yeah, all knots are homotopic
i see
I need some guidance on this question from Lee. To show it is a basis I know it suffices to show that the intersection of two basis elements is contained in another basis element, but I dont know which two to pick.
I was looking for a continuous function from a dense set to dyadic rationals in [0,1] so that I could show that it's dense. But I couldn't think of a map so I was asking for examples.
Ah okay that makes more sense yes
Do you think the map
(a, b) ----> a/2^b
Is a continuous map?
Ig I ended up trying to make a stronger statement that dyadic rationals are dense everywhere in R.
yes sure but if b is a rational then 1/2^b needn't be rational
so i'm not sure what you mean
Nah as in, a and b are positive integers
The map has to be surjective for the lemma you want to apply to apply
As in, surjective to [0,1]
well every map out of the integers is continous
so yes
i think it's easiest just to do this by hand or i'd say it's obvious if you are fine assuming decimal or binary expansions exist
But I am specifically looking at dyadic rationals, all of them, in [0, 1]
That won't work?
What is the lemma?
Is it that the image of a dense subset of a surjective continuous map is dense?
Ahh even my prof said that. I'd try that if this doesn't work out.
I think so yea
Wait I'll check
But the map ZxZ -> [0,1] you defined isnt surjective
It would be interesting to use that lemma but I dont have an idea for it
The other way is certainly easier
But this is just what popped up in my head when I saw the problem so I kept trying, ig. I might come up with something later maybe. Thanks anyway.
I want to show that for a topological space (X, T) if a set A intersects with every dense set of X then the interior of A is not empty
Its supposed to be an equivalency and I already showed the inverse implication. But I'm kind of stuck on this one. I'm only supposed to use the elementary definitions of the above that just make use of open sets only (no sequences or anything)
I'm not yet used to reasoning on general topological spaces. With a distance function I can sort of "visualize" these properties but once you get rid of distances or norms I can't really visualize it that much. So any additional pointers/interesting ressources would also be appreciated ! 
Well one hint is to express "interior of A not empty" in terms of closed sets
||actually once you do that it becomes easy lol rip||
the point is often like density is defined in terms of closed sets, interior is defined in terms of open sets, so try to put them on the same footing by expressing everything in terms of closed sets or everything in terms of open sets
ah.. damn, yeah, I think I can see it
well, I haven't had math in like 2 years and the course document thing only had the definition of interior points and adherence points
so I didn't think about expressing it that way
||
||
I was trying to compute the first homology group of RP2. I got Z x Z2, but shouldn't it be Z2? Where did I go wrong?
The vertices are not all v
(Attempt at rigour)
Generally what level of rigour is expected for doing alg top?
Or is this overly pedantic
Generally, if you can draw a fine picture with a somewhat-fine explanation which doesn't seem hand-wavy, it's good enough (although that has to be correct and convincing)
(yes, I'm caricaturing the reality of the situation)
Is this the right place for questions about the topology of the space of ultrafilters over N?
Im trying to prove that an arbitrary intersection of compact sets is compact in a hausdorff space.
Since we are in a Hausdorff space every compact is closed so the arbitrary intersection of closed sets is closed but this intersection is in each compact set and bc we are in a Hausdorff space then the intersection is compact. Is this right?
Yeah, thats right
Yes! Also, "Don't ask to ask, just ask" (although I myself know nothing about those
)
An intersection (whatever it is) of closed sets is closed, and any closed subset of a compact set is compact
So, yes 😉 (what I said uses Hausdorfficity, if that's a word)
What are the conditions for something like this:
Let X be a topological space and let A,B be subsets of X s.t H_n(X) = H_n(A) ⊕ H_n(B)? I found some counter examples for this but I feel like this proposition is true iff you have special conditions. I'd like to know these conditions.
For all n? Or fixed n?
Doesn't Mayer--Vietoris basically tell you the condition?
I think it works for n>0
Like, it spits out an iso iff an arrow is injecitive/surjective somewhere
I haven't learned that yet
So that's the way to go about it?
Computes homology of a reunion in terms of homology of each piece (a homology SvK basically)
Instead of giving out an amalgamated product, it gives a LES
Unless X is the disjoint union of A and B 
Think of genus 2 surface
Also, one sufficient condition is that the intersection is contractible
But the general condition has to be weaker; again, check MV, it should give a condition in terms of the homology of the intersection of A and B
That's not a disjoint union though
(I couldn't agree more, but that's the kind of opinion which is far from being shared by others sadly)
(on the contrary, people swear by Hatcher like it's their Holy Bible)
How does tom Dieck compare 
I'm looking for a quick review of approximately Hatcher Ch.1-3
But tom Dieck looks lengthy
Tammo Tom Bombadillo
Hatcher is for to-be geometric topologists.
It's a fantastic book for those who care about spaces
I consider myself a geometric topologist and I still hate it 
With some exceptions, mayhaps
whats geometric topology
Study of topology of manifolds
So everything is nice and metrizable 
If you know what a handlebody decomposition is, what Kirby calculus is and like geometric operations, you're a geometric topologist
Any manifold is metrizable 
There are some 3-manifold topologists who don't know Kirby calculus
They understand surgery diagrams
Isn't that basically the same thing?
(also, I was kind of reducing the field, but ofc it's far more than what I said!)
Non-integer surgeries allowed 😅
Yes but loses important geometry
surgery lmfao
Good luck figuring out if this 20 component link diagram is hyperbolic Seifert fibered
Technically it doesn't since it's the same manifold, but I see where you're going
Also, there are people doing Heegaard splittings/diagrams and trisections for instance, that's geometric topology too
this is why i have the latex bot blocked
Lol
THERE
@elder loom there's #latex-testing if you need to update it 50 times
Delete the OG message
sergeEmbedding
First, I apologize for any weird formatting, this is on my phone.
I have a question about convex polytopes.
We have for finite sets $S$ that their convex hull $C$ is a polytope.
We also have a tower:
$$C_n=\text{ convex hull of } S$$
$$C_{n-1}= \text{ convex hull of Int} (S- (\partial C_n)).$$
In the Euclidean plane, this gives rise to a *non-intersecting* polygonal chain, as any $\partial C_n$ has no crossing line segments, and any $\partial C_i,\partial C_{i+1}$ has a connecting segment between the two closest vertices.
How does this generalize to multiple dimensions? Is there an $n$-dimensional equivalent to the line segment connecting $\partial C_i$ and $\partial C_{i-1}$?
They're called surgeons
yeah so fucking funny
i wonder tf is surgery
in math
so cool that some guy may tell u "oh yeah man i just had surgery"
It's just removing a solid torus and gluing it back with a diffeo on the boundary torus
and then it references some math shit for u
Fact: you can build any 3-manifold from the 3-sphere by a finite number of such procedures
Hausdorffness I would say and thanks. This type of exercises look trivial but I must be careful
procedueres being "removing" tori?
Removing and re-gluing
whats the boundary torus
A solid torus $\SS^1\times\DD^2$ bounds a hollow torus $\SS^1\times\SS^1$
Matplotlib
I'm assuming compact 3-manifolds 
@feral copper These hyperbolic 3-manifold topologists don't care about surgery diagrams at all (but they know what it is)
Closed even
I've never seen it before but I'm 150% positive it works with boundary too
there are doctorates specializing in surgery from the University of Chicago that are essentially guaranteed to kill you every time if they need to perform surgery on somebody
funny u know about geometric topology but not basic percentages.. haha
Yeah you don't need compactness do perform surgeries really
Just need a knot in your 3-manifold
Scoop it out, put a horrible twist, fill it back in
For the operation yeah, but can you obtain any 3-manifold from either S^3, B^3 or R^3 in finitely many surgeries? (I guess yeah, but Idk)
Kind of yeah
Nah
Ah!
Of course
Thanks, now I'll spend a few hours (probably) reading on the Whitehead manifold(s?)
I mean it's an extreme example
But all manifolds obtained from R^3 by surgeries would have cylindrical ends
On a totally unrelated topic, but since you're there: how are you doing? And also, I submitted a v2 of my paper including the proof of the NO Thom conjecture!
Great!!
Sure!
I'm thinking a lot about high-dimensional contact topology
Idk if the proof interested you, but I should update the arXiv once it gets accepted (hopefully)
I can take a look for sure
What are you interested in? Cuz usually people care more about the 3d case 
High dimensional contact topology has unexpected flexibility which is not available in dimension 3. Currently I'm thinking about fillability and symplectic cobordisms
Fun fact: For 2n+1 >= 5, overtwisted S^(2n+1) has a concave filling.
We do have counterexamples to this in 3d, right?
I think it's true for S^3 also but don't take my word for that.
In 2n+1>=5 the proof goes as follows. One shows that there's a Liouville structure on S^(2n+1) x [0, 1] where the bottom (x 0) has overtwisted structure and top (x 1) has tight structure, bottom is concave top is convex
Then one caps it off by M \ Darboux ball on top where M is your favorite symplectic manifold
This construction doesn't work in dim 3 but I think something else does
There's some work by Etnyre
I honestly lack the sufficient background to make sense of this, so I'll just nod gently and take your word for it 
This I'm not surprised 
Ok I have a question for you
Go ahead, I just hope I can answer it 
In a Weinstein trisection, do you demand the contact structures on the boundary of the Weinstein pieces match whenever they intersect or nah
If not, can you ensure they do? Can you ensure they are at least homotopic (as plane fields)?
You don't ask for contact-type things, unless I'm missing something
Wait, there is contact stuff happening indeed, but you'll make more sense of this than me:
Oh you only trisect symplectic 4-manifolds
Of course!
