#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 68 of 1
Need help with mayer vietoris of a sphere. Why it follows from this that H1(S^n) = 0 ?
can you post more context?
i mean ok i guess i the picture is enough here
you can see this by taking a closer look at the maps in your sequence since you actually know what they are instead of just that they exist
This if full. I think the argument is without taking a look on boundary map, boundary map is very complicated.
Nvm its the difference of pullbacks of inclusion maps, something like that, not boundary map
your map from R to R \oplus R is injective
if you understand how we get that sequence, then you can just count dimensions here since everything is a vector space over R
this plus exactness and dimensions gives you your result
u mean the alternating sum of dimensions = 0? is that the argument of conclusion?
you can see that R \oplus R -> R has to be surjective (why?) and then you're done
okay let me think abit, thank you
i followed f is a zero map, since everything = R is in kernel.
image of zero map is zero and kernel of last map is H1(Sn). is that correct?
I paid like $110 w/ shipping for hardcover
yes
why is f the zero map though?
g is injective to 1 dimensional vectorspace, so its surjective. image g = R = ker f. so everything is in kernel for f, so its zero map?
does it sound right?
sounds correct
thank you alot<3
yw
i mean i'm not really sure if this works, but i can't really come up with anything else
can we just apply brouwer fixed point theorem lmfao
i feel like we can't because then the problem would be too easy and we're not even using the fact that it's a retraction
this is proving a special case of brouwer's fpt...
well
you can't apply a theorem that would trivialise the problem
ok well, try using pi_1
and?
not fully
well so i know that we can embed pi_1(A, a) into pi_1(X, a) right
so i'm trying to come up with a contradiction
the tricky thing is though that it's hard to kinda associate our given continuous map f: A --> A with this
since it's not a loop
first of all, an embedding doesn't necessarily become an embedding of fundamental groups
but that doesn't matter
oh
you know that A is a retract tho
ye
so you have an embedding i:A\to X and a map r:X\to A such that ri=id_A
what i meant is that the homomorphism of fundamental groups induced by the inclusion is injective
yeah
and so like
yes
ok here's my final hint
B^2 is contractible
this should allow you to finish the proof
nullhomotopic to a point?
the important part is that pi_1(B^2)=0
oh huh i didn't know it was contractible
Did you remove my reaction shin
mod fight
hmmm inspiring
i'm getting my ass kicked by this problem holy
here's my scratch work
so i know in particular that we must have $j_*: \pi_1(A, a) \to \pi_1(B^2, a)$ injective
okeyokay
but since $\pi_1(B^2, a)$ is trivial, we must have $\pi_1(A, a)$ trivial
okeyokay
otherwise it wouldn't be injective
now... to involve f...
oh
nvm
Kill me
this problem is HAUSDORFF
(hard asf)
What
what do you think
I dont have a clue
better start picking apart the "proof" then
you should share your own thoughts on problems when you post them
I think it should be all Aa not for some Aa
U intersect all Aa
Not U intersect some Aa
1st line is good but the 2nd line seems faulty
It should be U must intersect all Aa, so that x must belong to the closure of all Aa
@gritty widget
What did J. Frank Adams mean by this?
Is there an element of pi_n(X_n, A_n) canonically associated to S^1 ^ E^m?
That parts fine, the issue is that different nbhds of x might intersect different A_alpha’s so we cant conclude that x is in the closure of some A_alpha
Remind me what E^m is here again?
Also here’s a cleaner pdf of adams
Is every ENR locally compact?
Yes
It’s a closed subspace of a Euclidean space
Well either way
Hm how does the more general thing work
So what is the more general thing? What do you require of the map?
X is an ENR if there exists an embedding i into R^n for some n and an open set U of R^n s.t. i(X) -> U admits a retraction
So i needn't be closed
So U is clearly locally compact
What is an embedding topologically though? Just an injective map? Or more?
Homeomorphism onto its image
Okay
Well anyway the image is going to be a set X
Contained in U
With this map r: U \to X
Take an x in U and a y in X such that x is not in X
Yes
Then there exists a pair of neighborhoods separating x, y and the pre image of the neighborhood of y intersected with X and the neighborhood of x must be open and not intersect X
So then X is closed
So okay
In general if you have a Hausdorff space then the locus where two maps agree is always closed
This is basically what we’re doing
So since X is a retract of a Hausdorff it can be cut out as the loci where the retract and the identity map agree
So it’s closed
In U
Which is all you need
Now U is locally Euclidean so any closed is locally compact etc
Does this make sense to you?
Yes that is very pretty thank you
Take the empty set with the unique metric
But for a more serious answer, I'll think lol
f(x)=x+1 is a contraction in this case, and hence would have a unique fixed point by some theorem...
You'd need your subset to be closed under adding 1, for the requirement to even make sense.
What does "complete" mean there? That the subset must be complete under the metric we construct?
Hei hei! So in my paper, I describe one of the three double coverings of the 2-torus, and the referee said they didn't understand the picture very well. More precisely, they said, regarding Figure 11:
This figure is hard to fully understand.
Is it really? How could I explain it better? The covering in question is the only one which does not induce the trivial covering on one of the circles in the product S^1xS^1. It is obtained by projecting the square on the left (rotated 45°) to the square on the right.
The Figure 12 also gives a different view of what happens...
They are just a really lazy referee. But perhaps it would help if you write the index 2 subgroup of the fundamental group which you are using
Perhaps you already do this above idk
if figure 11 is your only explicit description of the map p tilde then I agree with the referee
I don't think they're a lazy referee necessarily; they thoroughly reviewed the entire thing by writting an average of 3 comments per page! Maybe they didn't give it enough thought, because there are occurences of something I write down and they say is missing, or don't understand when it's really obvious.
Yeah I did write the index two subgroup indeed!
There are other pictures describing what the covering is not (mainly I'm proving the covering is this one), and there should be enough examples and evidence for the reader to understand, idk :\
I just don't know if I should leave it as is, or if I should do something; maybe they'd get upset or take it personnally if I didn't change a thing there?
ah perhaps they’re annoyed that you re-oriented the original square
So it’s harder to understand the map
Ah, yeah maybe 
Maybe they would prefer them to be both diamond orientation
That’s very reasonable
Okay, I'll do just that then. Thanks for your output! 
nice
I thought this defined a topology but it actually defined a topological space derp
@ebon galleon this doesn't prove you wrong but I still want you to see this

Yes, I am familiar with Kuratowski's closure axioms
Yeah, you can define a topological space in a lot of ways
They do end up giving you a topology
Closed sets are precisely the fixed points of the closure operation
And I know the point is that it's a closure operator on a (complete, Heyting) lattice of subsets so the entire set is the top element (the 1), but I hate calling the set itself 1 >.<
That's the only thing you hate?

What else is there to hate?
It's a perfectly fine definition
There are, ahem, worse definitions you can use.
I think it's just a spectra
Let $A$ be a simplicial $F$-vector space where $F$ has characteristic $0$, and $\mathrm{Sym}$ denote the free simplicial/graded commutative ring functor. Then $\pi_* \mathrm{Sym} A \cong \mathrm{Sym} \pi_* A$ by, for example, using the Quillen equivalence between cdgas and simplicial commutative rings over $F$. Is there any easier / more direct way?
n-truncated potato
I guess this basically amounts to a Kuenneth-type theorem as well as stuff about group actions lol
so i imagine it can't be too easy
If there were an easy proof, it would not care about the difference between chain complexes and simplicial vector spaces. But it is wildly false in positive characteristic chain complexes. (Eg, an acyclic chain complex has nontrivial homology of sym)
For positive characteristic simplicial vector spaces, I think sym is a homotopy invariant functor, but more complex than sym
Yeah I am more familiar with the positive characteristic situation ironically since there is a good amount of literature on it e.g. Bousfield's unpublished notes and stuff
Yeah fair enough
Yeah I guess there can't be any particularly clean proof as then it would also be more likely characteristic-agnostic
Basically I am writing up smth and said I'd go via cdgas, but my advisor suggested trying to supply a direct proof. that seems sort of impossible without a fair bit of work
It may be possible just to do it via power operations analogously to the positive characteristic case though - that'd be cute
taking the smash product of a space with the singleton is just the singleton right?
Is the unit object with respect to smashing the two element set?
aka S^0
Got it
Also, what is the group structure on the $0^{th}$ level of $[\sum^\infty X, \sum^n E]$
Finitely Many Bananas
Here X is a pointed space and E a spectrum
For higher levels we just consider the map S^m --> S^m v S^m
For any spectra X, Y, [X,Y] is an abelian group. You don’t have to use that one started as a space. And shifting by n is an equivalence of categories, so that doesn’t change what structures you get
But if you know how to do it for higher levels, just shift this to higher levels to get the structure
(note though that some questions in this vein will depend on your model of the category of spectra btw)
What would the group law look like on [X,Y] on the n^th component?
Is the idea that since takng suspension is invertible, we might as well consider [suspension(X), Y] instead of [X,Y]?
Is there a canonical map X ---> suspension(X) where X is a spectrum? I'm trying to understand how exactly we're making suspension invertible. If such a canonical map existed, i assume localizing would do the trick
Suspension of spectra is a shift of the indices
well, [susp^2(X), susp^2(Y)] is most convenient as then it's clear you get an abelian group
Why take the suspension of Y
well you need to suspend both
suspension is an equivalence of categories
but things aren't automatically isomorphic to their suspensions
Have you studied the Spanier-Whitehead category? It’s a subcategory of spectra, but a lot easier to build
I have not
Is it an equivalence even for the naive category of spectra (i.e. no homotopy classes of morphisms)?
which category do you mean
If you don’t take homotopy classes, then there are many models of spectra with different answers
oh yeah this is the adams one pain
Objects are spectra and morphisms are level wise making the appropriate diagram commute
"objects are spectra" lol
what you mean by spectra is my question
but i think this is the Adams one right
oh i've just worked out what you meant by this lol
SW category is pairs (X,n), where X is a based finite complex and n is an integer. Thought of as the n-th suspension of X, the point being that n might be negative.
Maps from (X,n) to (Y,m) are the colimit over i of based maps from S^n+i X to S^m+i Y. You can take homotopy classes either before or after the colimit
This gets refined later on
Oh I didn’t see your msg bw mb
One model for spectra is called Omega spectra. En -> Omega En+1 is a homeomorphism. Then shifting the indexing is an equivalence before taking homotopy
Isn't the general rule to take homotopy classes as late as possible?
There’s trade off. The earlier you take homotopy classes, the easier. The later, the more correct
Proving that you can take them early is convenient
SW is the category of small spectra. It doesn’t matter what you do, you get the right answer. There are all sorts of technical issues that come up when you try to expand to all spectra
Questions like this make it sound like you’re confused. You should study the SW category to focus on the important core. Once you understand what spectra are supposed to be, you can add technical details
Also let me point out to FMB that the fact we hve this colimit means we have suspension being an equivalence of cats
Oh, yeah, that was the main point. The equivalence is just changing the number n
ye
who decided that cohomology should have something called a "cohomology theory"
that is so dumb
couldn't have called it anything else
How would you have called it?
Again; what term would you coin?
Why is it a bad terminology
it just seems silly
Why does it seem silly
if someone asked me what cohomology theory was i would assume they were asking about the theory of cohomology
The thing is: there are more than one theory
That's the point, "which theory?"
Oh btw Ibsen, I have proved my non-orientable Thom conjecture wrong!
Oh nice!
What's even weirder: the smooth case is the same as the locally flat case
That is: maximal genera of orientable or non-orientable surfaces behaves differently accordingly to the smooth structure
Indeed; the reason is: local surfaces (thanks Whitney--Massey)
this article is driving me insane
dear lord
I'm going to add it to my paper indeed, I have had the referee report for about a month now
ok nevermind i guess this is the same as all the named rings
Welcome to the cohomology zoo!
Please be respectful; don't feed them covariant functors
Here's a funny one: not all things called "X cohomology" is a cohomology theory
???
that's ridiculous
nuh uh i am never doing algebraic topology again after this semester
this has just ruined any good thoughts i had toward alg top
Said by every algebraic topologist ever 
dont try to pull me into your cult
Oh no don't get me wrong, I don't eat this bread, I'm a geometric topologist!
Yeah we are not complaining about your distaste for algebraic topology
That's Eilenberg--Steenrod (?)
The crucial thing here is two cohomology theories match if they match on points. This cannot necessarily be ensured if you don't restrict to CW complexes
The proof uses cellular cohomology
Well, if they match, they match on points...
I really don’t get what’s so insane about this
Cochain complexes can be built from a lot of stuff, the ones in topology you see at first are just awfully specific aren’t they 
#group-cohomology 
and even that's from a less general pov
Why would algebraic K-theory be considered as a cohomology theory?
I think it's just a list of related topics
which modern treatment of algebraic k theory is
Etale cohomology is a generalization in one direction. Topological K-theory is a generalization in another. (Higher) algebraic K-theory of schemes is a generalization in both directions
It's not even complete
Quantum cohomology isn't even functorial lmao
does anyone have a resource that gives a detailed description of handles? The literature is scattered and the wikipedia page only either redirects me to Surgery Theory (yeah ik the application of handles) or handlebody decomposition, which only gives a broad overview on handles. From how I understand it, a handle is basically a "cylinder" meant to be attached to a manifold. Is there a more broad definition? Do handles have an underlying structure like Cells?
There's not one definition of a cohomology theory anyways
If you take full ES axioms, almost nothing is
A k-handle for an n-manifold is a nice copy of D^k x D^n-k
An attachment of a k-handle is an embedding of S^k-1 x D^n-k in the boundary of an n manifold. Then you can glue on a handle to get a new manifold with boundary
Morse theory shows that every smooth n-manifold can be built up from the empty set by handle attachments. For PL manifolds it’s even more trivial. For topological manifolds of dimension >4 it’s true but difficult
By taking a handle decomposition and modifying it, you can prove theorems like h-cobordism
Crystalline cohomology isn't even homotopy invariant in the sense you'd want for algebraic geometry
A^1 homotopy invariant, that is.
Yes
Though lots of interesting things aren't even extraordinary cohomology theories
Differential cohomology is not homotopy invariant at all
I like the approach using \infty-toposes but not everything fits into that narrative either
yes
Actually, is there a nice framework where one can fit Hochschild & cyclic homology and algebraic K-theory
Probably something with colimits of functors constant over some object
okay you have cool interested catscradle
what do you work on? i see you have G+ hehe
where can i learn about simplical complexes/complexes or whatever
not tryna learn about them in our assigned textbook
and idk if munkres has material about them
why
i think he introduces them when he talks about triangulations
but anyways i just hate how he explains things, it's not rigorous at all
you can take a look
did you just... upload an entire textbook in response
yes.
yeah it is he just posted it freely available to everyone here
any chads wisheth to recommendeth some alt'rnate books which has't valorous sections on simplical complexes and such?
this is a good question
Broadly geometry and topology
||just do simplicial sets instead||
I guessed xd
what is yond?
I like algebraic geometry and CFT stuff at the moment, but I've not really settled down
Yeah sure thing
Also wanted to learn some more on the analytic side of mathematical physics
by that do you mean class field theory or conformal field theory since it could be either lol
now you say mathematical physics i assume the latter
based!
Sorry, conformal field theory yes
Cool :)
Especially using elliptic cohomology
it's funny cause i know a major guy in mathematical CFT stuffs so there is probably a very short path from me to you academically
i guess academia is just a small world
Ah, I wouldn't be surprised
André Henriques lol
@heady skiff since you didn’t answer I deleted and I’m gonna ask you to not just send books here
wdym
Come on potato
???
If this is freely available because I cba checking
But yeah we gotta enforce discord tos concerning piracy here
gotcha
I'm not good with names but it rings a bell
Anyways, I see that Spanier has a chapter on complexes but I havent read it
ohh cool i'll check it out
thanks
What a weird book.
Chapter 1: Categories, functors and groupoids (finally an AT book that starts right!), Chapter 3: Simplicial complexes ???, Chapter 9: Serre spectral sequence !!!
why exactly does $x \in a(U)$ imply $x \in U$?
okeyokay
it doesn't. where are you reading that?
okeyokay
and if i'm not going insane, $p^{-1}(p(U)) = {x \in S^2 \mid p(x) \in p(U)} = {x \in S^2 \mid x \in U}$
okeyokay
if $x \in U$, then the inclusion $U \cup a(U) \subseteq p^{-1}(p(U))$ is obvious, so I'm assuming $x \in a(U)$
okeyokay
(well obvious if my set theory is functional)
got a proof of that second equality?
well everything in p(U) is of the form p(x) for x in U right
so it should just be all x in U
i'm not following you
got a precise proof?
i.e. show one inclusion and then the other
uh i could type one up later but for rn i don't really wanna get stuck on this lol
is there a counterexample?
The second equality here is where youre going insane
LMFAO
thanks
oh
it's just because other elements on in U can be mapped to the image of U under p
?
ye
p is surjective, its fibre has 2 points
then yes, that's right. the other elements not on U which get mapped to p(U) anyways are...
(write it out. assume p(x) is in p(U). this means p(x) = p(y) for some y in U. that means...)
how exactly do we know that p is continuous and open?
oh
quotient maps are continuous
DUH
ok wait hold up
they contend that p(a(U)) = p(U)
how exactly is this true, if flipping a point in U takes us out of U
yeah i don't understand
let $x \in p(a(U))$, then $x = p(x')$ for some $x' \in a(U)$. but they argue later that $a(U)$ and $U$ are disjoint, so how can $x'$ be in $U$
okeyokay
I'm not sure what your issue is
well a(x) and x become the same under p
by the way, the same proof works for 2 replaced with n for any n
(and 3 replaced by n+1 etc lol)
This is strange. You're saying there's no notion of functoriality under symplectic immersions (M, w) -> (M', w')?
What about Lagrangian correspondences?
I’m not sure about the symplectic category, but in the algebraic category it isn’t functorial I’m pretty sure
Oh ok fair, I don't know how to define quantum cohomology in the algebraic world
Yeah, it’s a lot more intersection theory from what I gather
I think that’s probably where functoriality breaks down
Although there is a pretty amazing theorem about quantum cohomology of a flag variety being isomorphic to the T-equivariant homology of the corresponding affine grassmanian where the ring structure is a pontryagin product structure or something along those lines. For complete flag manifolds Fl(n), the corresponding affine grassmanian has the homotopy type of the loop space of SU(n) which I think is pretty cool and probably another way to interpret Bott periodicity.
Does anyone know of a good survey article on surface braid groups (2-dimensional braid groups), that is, surfaces braided in R^4?
How do they form groups?
So QH*(G/P) is H*_T(G/B)?
Sounds like mirror symmetry dogwhistle
I’m not entirely sure if G/B is the affine grassmanian, but see the OG reference: https://arxiv.org/pdf/0705.1386.pdf#page23
This (apparently) has a relation to mirror symmetry: https://arxiv.org/pdf/2210.17382.pdf
Actually this seems like a good set of slides: https://freemath.xyz/chowslides.pdf
and there’s some symplectic stuff in there for you
Thanks, I'll take a look. Looks quite complicated
If G/B=K/T for K a maximal compact subgroup of G, then QH^(G/B)=H^T_(ΩK). I think this is one of the corollaries.
I forgot how to asterisk
Also, this might only be true after localizing at some classes
I would assume by the horizontal product of their motion pictures as described by Kamada (2002) Braid and Knot Theory in Dimension 4 .
define "nice copy"
What does it mean fort this pairing to be "unomidular", "integral" bilinear form? Looked up online defintions of these words but not sure if they make sense in this context
There’s no real definition of a handle in isolation, only a handle attachment, which I defined, and a handle decomposition, which is a sequence of handle attachments
what is some nice condition on a space X such that ø and X are the only subsets that are both open and closed
i think that's called connectedness
Connexité stuffs (Idk the English wording)
whaat, i’d have expected it to be some separation axiom
no wait the separation axioms are purely local properties aren’t they
Usually locally, but they can have some more global definitions (e.g. (X,T) T_1 is precisely that id: (X, T) --> (X, cofinite) is continuous)
Integral just means that it's an integer-valued bilinear form on a free Z-module, unimodular means that it defines an isomorphism from said module to its dual. Equivalently, if you fix a basis for the module, a matrix representation for a unimodular form has determine +1 or -1
How does unimodular differ from non-singular then ?
You can be non-degenerate but not unimodular
Wait so unimodular is only defined when the bilinear form is defined on one module rather than product of two modules ?
No
If you take a unimodular pairing and multiply it by 2, it is still non degenerate but it is no longer unimodular
I don't understand this, a bilinear form is defined on an R-module M; it's a map M \otimes M -> R
This is the def I have for being a non-singular bilinear pairing; I am just trying to understand how this is different from what you said about being unimodular
I’m not sure how standard it is that a bilinear “form” is a pairing of M with itself. If you have a pairing of two different modules (like H^i and H^n-i), you can turn it into a self pairing by taking the sum of the two
Ah, yeah that's fair, I'm being overly restrictive.
Given this definition, then yes they are equivalent. I guess I haven't seen non-singular before so I was thinking non-degenerate
Wait now I am a little confused, I was understanding that non-singular and non-degenerate that are the same thing
non-degenerate says that if B(x, y) = 0 for all y, then x = 0. Equivalently, the map A -> Hom(B, R) is injective
In the case of Z, this is becomes perfect after tensoring with Q
Non singular is not a standard term and if I heard it I would assume it meant non degenerate, but that’s not how your book defines it
on a related note, how to do this arugment for the H^*(M, Z) with the torsion factored out?
I am assuming there is a trick with applying the universal coefficient theorem but note sure how it goes
Universal coefficients splits, and the torsion part of H^i is Ext_1(H_{i-1}, Z), so once you factor out the torsion, the map h is an isomorphism
But that would give $$ H^{n-k}(M; Z) / Tor \to^h Hom(H_{n-k}(M), Z) \to^{D^*} Hom(H^k(M), Z)$$ which is not quite how the argument goes. We need $$H^k(M,)/Tor$$ in the last Hom. Am I misunderstanding anything ?
ru0xffian
The last term is H^k / Ext, again by the splitting of universal coefficients
But doesn't D^* map The dual of H^k to the dual of H_(n-k) isomorphically?
sure, that's one reason. another is that you can't write sets like (0, 1) union (1, 2), which should be open in your proposed topology, in the form (a, b)
you may be confusing topologies and their bases
yeah, fair enough
here, does this work because if we assume that if $h$ has no fixed point then $H(x, t) = tx + (1 - t)h(x)$ is a homotopy between the inclusion $j: S^1 \to \mathbb{R}^2$ which is a contradiction since $j$ is not nullhomotopic, and if we assume that $h$ maps no point to its antipode then $F(x, t) = \frac{tx + (1 - t)h(x)}{\norm{tx + (1 - t)h(x)}}$ is another suitable homotopy between $h$ and the identity map of $S^1$, which is another contradiction (since it's not nullhomotopic)
okeyokay
Yes
cool thanks
There’s something modification required for the first part @heady skiff
The map is not correct
how
Where are you using the fact that there’s no fixed point?
oh i guess that's true
|| the map should look similar to F||
also uh something incomplete here
"is a homotopy between the inclusion " and what?
and also yeah you want to modify it, since in fact any map into R^2 is null homotopic
and h
which is nullhomotopic
ye
well h maps S^1 -> S^1
which suggests how you should modify j to make H make sense
np
could i get a hint for a please? i'm assuming for contradiction that it is nullhomotopic
i'm struggling a little bit because the things that i know about retracts have don't have a converse for if something is not a retract
so i don't really know where to start, plus all the theorems in this chapter were based off of S^1
oh it's just a generalization of (1) => (2) isn't it
some context:
(C(E, d) /~, d^) is a metric space, such that:
C(E,d) is the set of sequences (elements are in E) which sequences are Cauchy for d distance.
~ is an equivalence relation defined by: (x_n)n ~ (y_n)n <=> lim d(x_n, y_n) = 0, for n -> +inf
I have to prove that we can define d^ distance on C(E,d) /~
At first, I thought I had to show d^ is a distance but it isn't what the questions asks me. Some hints would be welcome, stuck since yesterday
- prove d^ is well defined, i.e. it doesn't depend on the choice of representants of the equivalence classes
- prove it verifies the metric properties and is therefore a metric
The hardest one should be the triangle inequality:
prove it using the triangle inequality on (E, d) by then taking the limit
"I thought I had to show d^ is a distance but it isn't what the questions asks me"
It is
"définir une distance" c'est définir quelque chose que l'on peut légitimement appeler distance, pas juste une fonction quelconque
la preuve pour montrer que c'est une distance, je l'ai déjà en tête.
Par contre le premier point me tracasse, avec " le choix ".
Soit x = (xn) fixée, y = (yn) ~ y' = (y'n) deux suites équivalentes
d(xn, y'n) <= d(xn, yn) + d(yn, y'n) -> d^(x, y)
Peux tu finir la preuve ?
ah oui, et si c'est pas déjà fait, montrer que la limite existe aussi, sinon la fonction ne peut même pas être mal définie
pour ça, j'ai:
xn de cauchy, yn de cauchy donc le couple (xn,yn) de cauchy.
Comme d est uniformément continue, d(xn,yn) de cauchy
et comme R est complet, d(xn,yn) converge
(R, d distance usuelle)
oh laa
d(xn, yn) oui, (xn, yn) non
quoique j'ai un doute maintenant en relisant les hypothèses
si j'ai bien compris pour ça:
je passe à la limite:
lim d(xn,y'n) <= lim d(xn,yn) + lim d(yn,y'n)
or yn ~ y'n <=> lim d(yn,y'n) = 0
d^(x,y') <= d^(x,y)
je décompose aussi d(xn, yn) pour obtenir l'égalité d^(x,y) = d^(x,y') ?
par symétrie, on a aussi d^(x, y) <= d^(x, y')
les deux premiers points sont good pour moi.
Je dois revoir pour l'existence de la limite.
donc ça ne dépend pas de la classe d'un argument. Je te laisse montrer que ça passe pour 2 arguments
i'll say it's okay to do this one convo in french
ty, it would be worse to understand in english 🙇♂️ 💀
does the statement about it being fine in the help channels not really extend to the advanced channels ?
Timo n'aime pas le français >.<
c'est pas bien
french....
....
so if the projective plane is defined as the quotient space obtained from S^2 obtained by identifying each point x of S^2 with its antipodal point -x, would it be appropriate to kind of view it as glueing opposite ends of the sphere together in some way?
also, if $x \in a(U)$, is $x \in p^{-1}(p(U))$ since $x \in a(U) \implies -x \in U$, and since $p(x) = p(-x) \in U$, we see that $p(x) \in p(U)$ which gives $x \in p^{-1}(p(U))$?
okeyokay
What does topological glue taste like
Nice try fed
I always imagined it tasted like frosting..
anyone?
there's a small typo but yes
what's the typo?

why is it that $p(a(U)) \subseteq p(U)$? I got $x \in p(a(U)) \implies x = p(a(y))$ for some $y \in U$, so that $x = p(-y) = p(y)$, or $x \in p(U)$
okeyokay
does that work?
a maps x to -x and p identifies x and -x
does anybody know where i can find explicit equations for this homeomorphism? i could (possibly) do it but i'm too lazy.....
also, how exactly is it injective?
because wouldn't this point get mapped to f(a, b) as well?
no
From wikipedia
where R = 1, r = 1/3
rewrite theta and phi from angles to cartesian coordinates and you're done
idk if the orientation is the same as in the text
I just needed confirmation on something basic: we can't view R^2 as a universal cover for the double torus, right? And that's why we move to hyperbolic space to find a simply connected cover?
Topologically R^2 and H^2 are the same
That is true. I should have specified. I want to know if the following is correct: if we want to go the route of simply connected coverings and deck transformations, since we can't tile R^2 with octagons, it's not easy to find the group of deck transformations
Or should it be put another way
ah
Why not?
Put them at angle 2j\pi/n and thank me later
Because I thought a vertex symbolised a point which holds together glued edges?
Hwat
Tf is a vertex in a topological sense and tf does it have to do with Euler characteristic
There's multiple definitions of "vertex" but since you're talking about euler characteristic, I assume you mean vertices in an abstract polyhedron/polytope?
Yes, especially in regards to a disk
If you’re confused about the definitions and basic results maybe revisit the source you’re reading from first
Like I’m not taking a topology class I’m taking a enumerative combinatorics class but this concept came up and they recommended reading and I was curious
In that case a vertex is just an abstract element of some set V, together with a set of edges E, and a set of faces F. Each of these sets are related by incidence. These sets and relations are abstract, theres no space yet.
A geometric realization of an abstract polyhedron (V,E,F) is a topological space consisting of a point for each element in V, a line segment for each element in E, and a polygon for each element in F, all connected along the boundaries according to the incidence relation (which I left out), and not connected in any other way (no weird intersections etc).
An abstract polyhedron is a disk if its geometric realization is homeomorphic (or even homotopy equivalent) to a disk.
If V,E,F are all finite, we can compute its Euler characteristic. It turns out that all abstract polyhedra which are disks have Euler characteristic 1
Aight so when I cut a square outta surface I remove a face and 4 verticy, but when I cut a disk I’m not sure about how many verticy I remove, is it one
Like how does a connected sum work with a tube. You have 2 vertices on the boundary of the tube that you needa glue to the cutout disks. What happens to the Euler characteristic. The case with the rectangular tube with 4 faces is straightforward
Topologically speaking, a space is a disk whenever it is "homeomorphic" to a disk. Meaning there exists a continuous bijection between the two, whose inverse is also continuous. A square/triangle/octagon/whatever are all homeomorphic to a disk!
You can show that when the geometric realization of two abstract polyhedra are homeomorphic, then they have the same Euler characteristic
HAHAHAHHA
Glad you like it!
What’s a subset A of R and a continuous f:A —> R that doesn’t extend to an open U containing A?
maybe doesnt exist. idk
That's an interesting question actually, since it's way easier if U is closed instead
is there a non paracompact subset of R?
yeah you can just use a partition of unity. which made me think of paracompactness, but i know nothing about non paracompact spaces or where they live
No; every metric space is paracompact and every subspace of a metric space is again a metric space
ah ok, then that should answer my question i guess
ty
wait i was assuming i could extend locally... am i losing my mind? continuity should let you extend locally right? but my brain cant bring up the proof
also actually paracompactness of the subset might not be enough because i would need the subcover to be locally finite at points outside of the subset as well... i would need every open cover of A to have a subcover thats locally finite at every point of R...i think...
right the closed case is Tietze extension thm
Abstract polyhedra cannot be disks
I loosely defined an abstract polyhedron to be a disk if its geometric realization is homeomorphic (or homotopic) to a disk
And that’s impossible
A filled-in triangle doesnt work?
That isn’t an abstract polyhedron
Abstract polyhedra need exactly two faces at each edge
Ok I didnt properly define an abstract polyhedron
My vague definition will differ from your precise one
I think the original question was also really about circles and not disks but im not sure
A circle is a polyhedron right?
No
Ok a polytope then
Still no
A non-filled in triangle has two edges at each vertex?
I'm surprised to see some baguette in the chat
And?
Could you define a 1-dimensional polytope for me?
A line segment
I dont know a thing about polygons. Can you explain?
I only know simplicial sets/complexes
Explain what?
Essentially it's polytope, but you don't specify the points and the edges
well, faces
I vaguely remember that under some very mild conditions, an abstract polytope admits a geometric realisation. In most cases, you can think of the geometric one, but keep in mind the axioms when you prove stuff
Same goes with polyhedron
Ok I was sorely mistaken using the words "abstract polytope"! I guess I shouldve said simplicial complex.
Then again the Euler characteristic applies to simplicial complexes which seem to be more general? Are they?
What is an example of an abstract polytope without geometric realization? I guess they can have transfinite dimension
Hemi-octahedron
It's fucked up, but there are some examples I think
I guess were talking about a different kind of geometric realization
I seems to me this is a projective plane, right?
Yes
So why isnt the projective plane a geometric realization of the hemi-octahedron?
Because the projective plane isn’t a polyhedron
The thing is, it means the object must be embeddable in Euclidean space, and I'm not sure how you can embed projective plane
Ohhh I get it, I was just thinking of topological spaces, but you want the realization of an abstract polyhedron to be a "concrete" polyhedron
Yes
I suppose polyhedra are mostly studied for their combinatorics (and symmetry groups?) Not their topology
it has its own theory. Most common textbook on this is Ziegler's Lectures on Polytopes.
It has links with linear programming (obviously), but their topology is not that interesting afaik
There's research regarding the geometric aspects of it, but not abstract topo that we know
Cool!
The keyword is "geodesic polygon"
There's a tiling of H^2 by regular geodesic 4n-gons. Geodesic in the hyperbolic metric!!
Then, as you said, the group of deck transformations can be explicitly nailed down as a subgroup of PSL(2, R)
is this proof from munkrees proving the uniqueness of the characteristic of quotient spaces?
Right. I was just wondering if the same isn't possible at all in R². Maybe we can tile R² with non-regular octagons? Or somehow use something other than tiling to treat it as a covering space?
Sorry my question is so vague!
You can tile H^2 by regular octagons. Then apply a homeomorphism if H^2 with R^2 to get a tiling of R^2 by irregular octagons
Can that be generalized to higher dimensions H^3 and R^3 etc.?
Yes, H^3 is homeomorphic to R^3. I think you can tile it be regular dodecahedra
Yes, in two different ways
Congruent tiles in H^n don't map to congruent tiles in R^n, though, so the resulting tiling is not all that interesting, is it?
here, if i'm using the fact that $h(x)$ has no fixed points, would i have a homotopy $H$ between $h$ and the anitpodal map $a$ given by $\frac{(1 - t)h(x) - tx}{\norm{(1 - t)h(x) - tx}}$? i'm assuming that would give my contradiction given that $a$ is not nullhomotopic (if that's true), which i would have to prove of course
okeyokay
how the fuck am i supposed to see that it's not nullhomotopic
i could show that a* is a nontrivial homomorphism of fundamental groups, which boils down to showing that for some loop class [f], [a o f] is not homotopic to the constant loop [ex0], but showing things are not homotopic is not very fun
homomorphism f : Z -> Z is determined by f(1).
so figure out which homotopy class corresponds to the integer 1, then compute its image under a*.
“showing that things are not homotopic” is the entire purpose of algebraic topology.
oh so it's just going to be sent to the loop which winds in the clockwise direction
which is just -1 in Z so therefore it's nontrivial
could i get a hint on this pls 😭 i've been stuck on it for a while i know, but i literally can't make the connection between $f$ and the fundamental groups $\pi_1(A, a_0)$ and $\pi_1(B^2, a_0)$. so I know that $\pi_1(B^2, a_0)$ is trivial, and since $A$ is a retract of $B^2$ we must have $\pi_1(A, a_0)$ trivial. the only connection I can make between $f$ (which is not a loop) and these groups is looking at the induced homomorphism $f*$ given by $h \mapsto f \circ h$, and i'm assuming for contradiction that $f(x) \neq x$ for all $x \in A$, so this gives me $(f \circ h)(s) \neq h(s)$ for all $s \in [0, 1]$??
okeyokay
i think i should just use brouwer's fixed point theorem, someone on here suggested looking at the fundamental groups but this might be easier/i've been stuck on their approach for a bit
lol yea that was way easier holy
wll the case A = B^2 is Brouwer's fixed point theorem so ye
so I'm given the fact that for each $n$, there's no retraction $r: B^{n + 1} \to S^n$. can I get a hint to show that the inclusion map $j: S^n \to \mathbb{R}^{n+ 1} - 0$ is not nullhomotopic? i'm cheating a little bit and using the result from the next chapter, namely that their fundamental groups are isomorphic
okeyokay
this chapter established a lemma stating that if $h: S^1 \to X$ is nullhomotopic then $h_*$ is the trivial homomorphism of fundamental groups, but I'm unsure if this is generalized to $S^n$
okeyokay
maybe that's the point of this exercise
yes. look up “degree” in hatcher/wikipedia etc..
not for arbitrary X
it is only true because R^n+1 - pt is homotopic to Sn
find a suitable retract etc.
Sure, you get a completely terrible highly irregular tiling of R^2. How do you use that to construct the covering space?
Yeah, that was essentially my question.
So you have a discrete subgroup G in PSL(2,R) such that H/G is the double torus (H is the upper half plane). Conjugating the action with the homeomorphism f: H to R² gives an action on R², quotienting out by which should give you the double torus again--R² is a nice universal covering space for the double torus through this action.
Does this work or did I mess up somewhere?
Sure, @spice remnant, but what is the purpose of the homeomorphism to R^2?
It's not providing you with any extra insight
The group G that is acting does not have anything to do with the geometry of R^2
Yes, it isn't. The insight comes only from H (and in fact things look better in the disc model)
Yep
Here's one construction of the universal cover which may be more insightful. Take the Euclidean regular 4g gon with edges marked by the letters A1, B1, A1^-1, B1^-1, etc whose quotient is the surface of genus g after identifying the boundary according to the word [A1, B1] ... [Ag, Bg]. Now take infinitely many copies of this Euclidean regular 4g gon and paste them as follows: take a polygon and attach another polygon by a side preserving the letter and the orientation. Do this for all sides. You should obtain a 2-complex made up of 4g+1 polygons now, with a central polygon and the rest pasted to it's edges
Take a noncentral polygon in this 2-complex and repeat the process.
After doing this infinitely many times you're left with a 2-complex made up of Euclidean regular 4g-gons where each pair of polygons share an edge, ie there are no "open edges" left
This has a piecewise Euclidean metric: each face is a Euclidean regular 4g-gon, put the Euclidean metric there.
Each edge is isometric to an interval, etc
The group of deck transformations act naturally on this object (how?), the quotient being the surface of genus g
What you have constructed is a piecewise Euclidean model of the hyperbolic plane. This can be immediately seen by computing the total angle at a vertex: there are 4g Euclidean regular-4g gons pasted at a vertex, each of which has Euclidean internal angle ((4g - 2) * π)/(4g)
Total angle: (4g - 2)π
Angle defect (subtract from 2π): (4 - 4g)π
Since g >= 2, the angle defect is negative. This is reminiscent of negative curvature.
Indeed, the angle defect here is 2π*(2 - 2g) and 2 - 2g is the Euler characteristic of the surface of genus g
This should remind you of the Gauss-Bonnet theorem
What's happening here is that if you quotient by the deck group, you'll end up with a surface of genus g made up of a single Euclidean 4g-gon, which has a "sharp" corner where all the vertices meet, and the angle defect there is 2π(2 - 2g). This gives a metric on the surface which is flat everywhere except at a single point
That single point is where all the curvature is concentrated in
Ie the curvature of this "metric" is a Dirac delta at that vertex, multiplied by 2π(2-2g)
Such metrics are often called "orbifold metrics". They are singular Riemannian metrics, with rather controlled point-singularities
do these vi need to be distinct/linearly independent?
also i don't see how this implies that the vectors are linearly independent 💀
you can just remove it and get the same hyperplane ig
are you talking about being in general position => v_i - v_0 are linearly independent
lol no worries
anyway
(It's sloppily written -- it really does need to be "... if any proper subset of them spans a strictly smaller hvperplane"; otherwise the condition is impossible to satisfy).
Suppose they are not linearly independent so there is a nonzero linear relation between the (vi-v0). Then one of the coeficients is nonzero -- say the one for (v5-v0) -- and you can divide through by that coefficient and rearrange to find v5-v0 = (some linear combination of (vi-v0) for i != 5).
But then v5 = (linear combination from before) + 1·v0 = (some linear combination of v0, v1, ..., v4, v6, ... vk, where the coefficients sum to 1).
This means that any linear-combination-with-coefficient-sum-1 of all the vi's, you can use this representation of v5 to rewrite it to a linear combination with unchanged coefficient sum that doesn't mention v5. So in this case the vectors without v5 don't span a strictly smaller hvperplane.
That doesn’t seem so easy to see
The dificulty is mostly in getting everything straight while explaining it.
The basic idea is the general principle "if there is a nontrivial linear relation, it generally means you can do without one of the vectors, by using the linear relation to replace it with the rest", and from there it is just a matter of working out how that works in the concrete case we're looking at.
imo it's easier to proceed by contraposition. If the vectors are linearly dependent, then you can say $v_j-v_0=\sum_{i\ne j}\mu_i (v_i-v_0)$ for some $j$ and $(\mu_i)$. Now we can prove that the hyperplane spanned by all is the same as the hyperplane spanned by all except $v_j$.\
Let $x$ in that hyperplane. $$x=\sum_{i=0}^n\lambda_iv_i,\quad \sum\lambda_i=1.$$ Then, since $v_j=v_0+\sum\mu_iv_i$, you can rewrite $$x=\sum_{i\ne j}\lambda_iv_i + \lambda_j \left(v_0+\sum_{i\ne j}\mu_i(v_i-v_0)\right).$$ This is a linear combination of all vectors but $v_j$ and you can show that the sum of coefficients is still $1$.
upheaval
That looks like essentially the same argument I gave.
oh I did heavily missread what you said, read too quickly
thought it was something else
do you think it's possible to learn about simplical complexes without cell complexes and cw complexes? my book introduces it before introducing manifolds or whatever, and although the pictures are nice i just feel like it's a bit overwhelming
like it just says
"ok a 0 simplical complex is a point, a 1 simplical complex is a line, etc..." and things without justification
as in it's mostly text for the proofs ykwim
like "talking it out"
Simplical complexes are the conceptually simplest notion and should probably be understood first.
I can see some possible arguments that cell complexes (which are formally a generalization of simplical ones) might feel more natural, but that is at least fairly debatable.
CW complexes are a further generalization, with certain (arguable) technical advantages, but should probably not be the first one to learn.
this is also what i did
uh is there any rigorous proof that a "closed line segment" is a 1-simplex? i.e., if we have a in the "closed line segment", we can find a_1 and a_2 such that a_1 + a_2 = 1 and a_1v_0 + a_2v_1 = a?
or is the side of topology where i'm supposed to believe things without rigorous proof
Yeah, that would be the definition of the closed line segment
ok intuitively i understand what it means for "whenever two simplexes of the collection intersect they do so at a common face", but what does this mean rigorously? say A and B are simplexes in this collection, such that A n B is nonempty. does this just mean that A n B = C where C is a simplex whose vertices are a subset of A and B?
If c is not isolated, does there exist a sequence xn -> c with all xi =/= c?
Yes.
You'll need to give more context for that question.
I believe you need first countability for that
Or maybe being a sequential space is enough, not sure 
yeah first countability is enough, wonder if it holds in general or in sequential spaces
this doesn’t exist, except in the sense that no mathematician communicates/thinks exclusively in terms of formal proofs.
idk man, this book is starting to make me think otherwise
read a better book then
this is more the side of topology where rigorous proofs that are mostly painful are dropped because they provide very little
like sure they could go general and give you an explicit homeomorphism of any closed line segment to the one in R^2 from (1,0) to (0,1), but it's not particularly relevant
right
though it is important to think about how you would supply the details yourself if needed.
yes
It can be disorienting for students who are used to (e.g. from analysis) "rigor" meaning that everything is explicitly reduced to symbolic argument and algebraic definitions of all the freshly constructed functions, though.
I'm more clarifying for okey that whenever intuitive or non-proven statements are given at this point, it's usually because no one actually wants to prove them for time+effort reasons, but that doesn't mean that it can't be actually checked properly that everything works out
I really have to profess my love for Allen Hatcher with respect to the "rigor level" in his books
I think he got it just right
speaking of hatcher
What does homotopic through maps of pair (X,A) -> (Y,B) here mean
it means that the homotopy works well with A, i.e. that each $H(\cdot, t):X\to Y$ has $H(A,t)\subseteq B$
a (homotopy of) map(s) of pairs just means that the homotopy phi_t(A) subseteq B for all t
Edward II
basepoint-preserving homotopy for example is a homotopy through maps of pairs (X, x_0) -> (Y, y_0)
(from hatcher)
I see, yeah that’s a good point. I guess I’m just a little unclear on when I need to rigorize and prove things, and when I’m allowed to just see/intuit things in my head
you're allowed to do whatever you want
you ideally would do both. "just" seeing/intuiting is somewhat underselling it. often such things are far harder than supplying a rigorous proof.
omg it was terry
I've been wondering where I'd seen the idea of those three stages
are there metric spaces where the space of loops Ωp X is path connected but X is not??
take something like (X = D^2 \cup {(2,0)}). then (\Omega_{(0,0)}X) is path connected ((D^2) is simply connected) but (X) is not
maximo
that should say D^2 U {(2,0)}
D is the disc?
right also Ωq X with q = (2,0) is trivially path connected
it's just a difference between based and unbased loop spaces, i think here \Omega_p is presumably loops based at p
for unbased loop spaces your intuition is correct
but those are.... not based 😎
The theory of cringe loops still has a lot of open problems.
ok ye lecturer is currently going through unbased loops and their many variants and are clearing leading towards the notion we will stick with
$$\overline A = \bigcup_{x\in X} \bigcap_{\substack{U\in\mathscr N(x) \ U \cap A \neq \emptyset}} U $$
does this check out
Jens
looks right but why would you write this
just write intersection of all closed subsets containing A
practice

or actually in this problem i did use this logical form of the closure (that of the set of adherent points), i just wrote it out sensibly in words, turned out nice
X= {a, b} and the topology is{ ϕ, {a}, {a,b}}. What's the closure of {a}?
@tribal palm
X
do you get X by using your definition?
actually you do, I thought first union is over A and not X. nvm
yes, phew, took me a min to write out
everything good
well tbh i’m still not confident it will hold in general
but it looks close enough for the moment so i will just pretend everything is good and go on

what does it mean for three points to be non-collinear? that none of them is a scalar multiple of the other? and what about non-coplanar?
obviously it means they don't lie in the same plane
but as i n, how can we express that mathematically
By saying theyre geometrically independent?
3 points a0, a1, a2 are not colinear if they aren't aligned, and equivalently it means a1-a0 and a2-a0 are independent
likewise 4 points aren't coplanar if no plane contains them all, and that's equivalent to a1-a0, a2-a0, a3-a0 being independent
I.e., geometric independence provides the definition of non-co(linear/planar)
Defining ig, just check that you intuition for the word "non-coplanar" coincides with the definition and your good
ok thanks
Or you could take non-coplanar to mean #point-set-topology message and then prove that this is just geometric independence for 4 vectors
which is trivial
why does S not carry P onto R^n instead of R^n x 0? also, by unit basis vectors they just mean the standard basis vectors right?
oh ok so there's an implicit injection
oh wait so geometrically independent => linearly independent
since linear independence is one of the conditions
oops
or is that not true
4 points in R3 can be geometrically independent, but never linearly
But lin indep => geom indep
so to show that the $t_i$ in $\sum_{i = 0}^n t_ia_i$ are unique we couldn't just do an argument like $\sum_{i = 0}^n t_ia_i = \sum_{i = 0}^m s_ia_i$ and subtract from both sides and assert that the $t_i - s_i = 0$?
okeyokay
Is this refering to something? Idk the context
oh yea my fault
wdym
like for example if n = m and t1a1 + t2a2 = s1a1 + s2a2 then (t1 - s1)a1 + (t2 - s2)a2 = 0?
or am i trippin
Oh wait youre right, im dumb
Yeah and then you gotto use independence for the last step
Im gonna delete that embarrassing msg 
lol dw it wasn't embarassing
ok now i'm confused as to how an affine transformation preserves geometrically independent sets - an affine transformation is not necessarily injective right
Still not sure how to do the last step though, since a_i are only geometrically independent
It is, the definition ask for non-singular transformations
i.e. injective ones
because if we have $t_1 + t_2 + \dots + t_n = 0$ and $t_0T(a_0) + \dots + t_nT(a_n) = 0$, then I tried to use linearity, but then $T(t_0a_0 + \dots t_na_n) = 0$ and that doesn't tell us anything/we can't use the geometric indepedence of the $a_i$ since $T$ is not necessarily injective
okeyokay
oh does non singular mean injective
i thought it just meant non square matrices
in any case my linear algebra is shit so i'll believe you
The sum of the t_i's is 1 no?
oh i thought to show that smt is geometrically independent you set up these equations and then show that the tis are 0
Oh I thought you were talking about an n-plane, nvm
oh yea my b
any references for defining the linking number in terms of the cup product ?
i don't really understand how these two equations imply that the expression in brackets represents a point p of the line segment joining a1 and a2
because i don't see how you can factor out (t1 + t2)/lambda
oh i see
it's just adding the coefficients which have to add up to 1
wait what
wait what's the difference between an n-simplex and a n-plane
they're the exact same definition
oh
we just require that the ti are nonnegative in the definition of n-simplex
ok how the fuck do you show that barycentric coordinates are unique
like how do you even begin to use the condition $\sum_{i = 1}^n t_i = 1$
okeyokay
wait sorry what are you trying to show
that for any point x in a n-simplex, its barycentric coordinates are unique
that t_i = s_i for all 0<=i<n
ye
god okay what's the definition of barycentric coordinates that you're using
so you choose n+1 affinely independent points in R^{n+1}
and you wanna show that only one set of t_i's determines each point in the simplex that this set of points determines
i'm assumign affinely independent means geometrically independent
i thought the geometrically independent set {a_0, \dots, a_n} is defined to span R^n
let me post my book's definition rq
lowkey might just take it for granted
Suppose $$\sum_{i=0}^nv_it_i = \sum_{i=0}^nv_is_i,$$ so $$\sum_{i=0}^nv_i(t_i-s_i)=\sum_{i=1}^nv_i(t_i-s_i) + v_0(t_0-s_0) = 0.$$ Because the $s_i$ and the $t_i$ sum to 1, $$s_0 = 1 - \sum_{i=1}^ns_i,\qquad t_0 = 1-\sum_{i=1}^nt_i.$$ By assumption, ${v_i-v_0}_{i=1}^n$ is linearly independent. Go from there.
BlaKaligula
oh shit thanks ur a g
wait this is not the usual definition of the unit n-ball right? isn't it usually the set of (x_1, \dots, x_n) in R^n that satisfy x_1^2 + x_2^2 + \dots + x_n^2 \leq 1?
and he defines the sphere in a similar matter
that is the standard ball
note that like
if a >= 0 then like
a <= 1 iff a^2 <= 1
if that is the confusion
Thank god 1² = 1
i don't really understand how x necessarily needs to be in the interior of a face, for what if it's on the boundary?
anyone?
🦗
also how does this work/how is this logically sound? didn't they establish earlier that $\mathcal{R} = {w + tp \mid t \in [0, a)}$?
okeyokay
so if $b > a$ then by definition $y \notin \mathcal{R}$
okeyokay
The reasoning is explained in the next sentence I think
Hmm it does look a bit strange in how it's saying "x \in Int s".
This does look obvious, though.
Ah wait
wdym 😭
Maybe it's supposed to say b < a 
Oh nvm
It clearly cannot intersect with $Bd U$ at $b < a$, considering $\mathcal{R} \cap U$.
Absta
@heady skiff do you see?
yeah i see that, but that's assuming that b > a is a typo right
No, that's not a typo.
oh are you going for contradiction or smt
oh
like that's the only other possibility
"x lies between w and y on the ray" agrees with "y = w + bp for some b < a"
y cannot be closer than x to w, if you consider what boundary is.
oh right they're saying that the intersection only consists of w + tp where t \in [0, a) for the intersection with U and not the closure of U - U
ah i misread
ok thanks that helps
Good that you got it!
Ah, maybe this is why my class did not use munkres for algebraic topology.
well this is not the main textbook, it's armstrong which is HORRIBLE
worse textbook i've ever encountered
but then again i'm two pages into this book so i can't rlly judge
Yep, it does assume familiarity IIRC
ah ok, i'll probably review a lot of point set then just start alg top all over again lol
Hmm, are you yet to do some point set topology?
I think knowledge of the basic concepts are generally enough.
Like, up to separation axioms.
you've seen Hausdorff, surely
but i felt like we sped through it and i didn't learn it fast enough
oh yeah
lol i saw "you"
and got scared
Hausdorff, T_1 (frechet), T_3 (regular), T_4 (normal) ... so on are the separation axioms
ok now i'm even more confused 
how does a) imply that the restriction of f to the Boundary of U is a bijection?
okay i understand that rays originating at the origin span all of R^n
but like.
i don't know what U is...
The equation f(x) is the key here.
right, i guess injectivity follows from just being injective on all of R^n - 0 lol
surjectivity is a bit strange though
I mean
The intersection of (a)'s logic and that paragraph is in the def of function f(x).
Can you identify the fiber f^(-1) (y) ?
true but i kinda got lost in the proof of (a) 😭
uh what's a fiber again
just preimage ig
ok well
i guess intuitively it makes sense
$f^{-1} ({ y })$
Absta
Yep
and i guess U is bounded and convex and open
so we can't have anything like two distinct points that will break f
Now only need that intuition to carry over onto precise logic
yea, i'll rigorize on my second reading i think
i'm spending like an hour per page 😭
Maybe Munkres was also a bad choice, after all
munkres is a lot better than armstrong, much more rigorous imo
lee was another choice but a little too technical, want to come back to it at some point tho
Hmm
i'm excited to grind hatcher over winter break tho/go back and review things
i hate it when i feel like i haven't learned some well enough then we move on to the next topic, but that's my fault
Yea, I think sometimes you have to go through it
ye
hmm what will i grind over winter break
A thesis?
me does not have to do thesis
How abt beginning it now?
ye
i am do thesis over winter brak
😭
thanks fro reminding me
You seem to have studied a lot of your field.
what's your thesis gonna be on
Good question, I barely know
I mostly know stuff for my other courses this term, so I mostly work on homotopy theory and category theory rn lol
here k4 is a simplical complex right
But the field is uh chromatic homotopy theory
real

so like between homotopy theory and algebraic topology
but also uses algebraic gometry
and rep theory
that's cool
Ah so you learned lots of category upfront
so i thought woul dbe fun
potato you should learn topos theory with me
i think that will be my winter reading
higher topos theory or like 1-categorical stuff
i don't feel i have much motivation beyond general sheaves nonsnse
Homotopy is now given colors? Woo
hm
1-categorical stuff, as grounds for higher topoi
I don't want to jump straight into inf-topoi, I think it'll be helpful to have intuition and motivation for it from regular topoi
I am like, what even is a topoi
Wavelength. Red shift
