#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 57 of 1
thanks potat
it's a bit hard to read tbh lmfao
Dang
for one I don't think collapsing S^1 \times {x} is you what you want
since that's a longitudinal circle
try to write an explicit deformation retraction of the filled in torus to the central circle
hint: ||use the universal property of the product of spaces||
and since you didn't specify what gamma is it doesn't actually have to be aa^-1
it could just be a constant loop
Oh, I didn't know longitudinal and meridian had been given convention to one of the dimensions. Thanks
also, you said that the induced homomorphism is an isomorphism twice lel
I think you can safely delete "in fact, since phi [...] [phi i gamma].
Ahh, yes, thank you
here was my proof btw 
As an aside: Please separate your arguments into individual sentences. It makes it easier to read.
Run-on sentence moment
Brain hurties
I just find it funny after you called the other proof hard to read


Germanify the proof, make it one word
I rarely have to write proofs for other people to read
so I suck at writing them lmao
Practice writing em up

Google translate is famously good for as-yet-unwritten words
apparently you can just make up word in german
That is why I wrote it as such and not as just like fake words xd
deutsche Sprache, inklusionsschleifeninjekitivätswiderspruchsagenerlaubende Sprache
Pretty much
Hey, dumb question, but: if I have an involution t:X->X on a cellular space X, what are the conditions on t to have a t-equivariant cellular decomposition? That is, cells are either fixed by t (set-wise), or t(e) intersects e only on lowed-dimentional cells?
Do I take a cellular structure on X/t and lift it?
But: is X/t necessarily cellular?
Ig I just have to ask that t itself is a cellular map?
There’s probably a topological manifold that isn’t a CW complex that has a double cover that is
But most likely the involution will not be cellular then
Right, this would be an example of an involution that cannot be made cellular
I think it's reasonable to think that if t is a cellular map, then I have what I want? Idk, I'm writing a proof and in any case I'm using it for a smooth involution on a smooth manifold x')
But the proof I have in mind only requires to work with a t-equivariant cellular decomposition of X
Asking that the quotient be cellular isn’t obviously enough. You need the fixed set to be cellular and the inclusion of the fixed set into the quotient to be cellular. Then you can lift.
Yes ofc the fix-point set needs to be cellular, then I complete its decomposition into one of X/t and then I lift
Yeah I think if t is cellular itself, then Fix(t) is cellular and the inclusion Fix(t)cX and quotient map X->X/t are cellular
There's no known example of a manifold which isn't a CW complex so bad strategy
In fact every manifold of dim =/= 4 is cellular by Kirby Seibenmann's topological handle structures
Here's a better example. Take the Alexander horned sphere, and consider the complement in S^3, known as the Alexander gored ball. Take the topological closure and double it along the topological boundary
By Bing's theorem this is homeomorphic to S^3. Gives you an involution of S^3 which has fixed point set as the Alexander horned sphere
Not CW
Every 4 manifold that is not triangulable is not a CW complex
In higher dimensions there used to be a question of whether non triangular manifolds are CW complexes, but I believe it was recently shown that lots aren’t
Every high dimensional manifold is homeomorphic to a CW complex, so that is not right
It seems incorrect that nontriangulable implies nonCW
The attaching maps of a CW complex can be terrible
I think you should be careful about saying confidently wrong things
Triangulable =/= cellular structure
Kirby-Seibenmann's topological handle decomposition is a very classical theorem from the 70s
People are too careful
Fine difference between a mathematician and a postmodernist philosopher.
Sorry stupid question.
Let X be a topological space and U an open set. If I have the space of A(U) of constant functions f:U->A with A an abelian group with the discrete topology does A(U) consists of constant functions U is connected?
I'm trying to prove A(U)\cong A
I know with the discrete topology every element {x} is clopen. I think there is a basic fact about preimages of connected components I'm missing. Is it just that the preimage of {x} must also be connected so the only maps are U-> {x}?
If U is connected yes
Image of a connected set under a continuous map is connected
Are the only connected components of a discrete topology on A (say A has atleast 2 points) the singleton sets?
try to prove it
Is there a name for this property: For any point x, any two open neighborhoods of it intersect at some point other than x.
It appears when proving that set-functions from R->Y, with Y Hausdorff, have unique limits
a sufficient conditions is that points are not open but doesn't seem to follow from any of the standard separation/countability axioms
isn't this just equivalent to points not being open?
The intersection of two open neighborhoods is open
oh right lol I'm dumb
what is the etymology of "homology"?
is it a reference to the quotient group, where homologous chains are made "the same"?
Because you say that 2 chains are homologous when their difference is a boundary
This one
I assume
1749! Wow, that’s way earlier than would have thought. Was it used in biology or chemistry by then?
Reviewing notes, have no idea what X_+ means in the context of CW complexes. So if X is a finite CW complex and X_+ is embedded in S^n, the spectrification of X is equivalent to the Spectrification of C(S^n/(i:X into S^n)[-n]
Well D/(spectrification of X_+) equalts that thing
I meant like DLD of X+ is equal to LD of C(…)
Where D is a prespectra, L is spectrification
Yeah i just dont know what X+ means in this context
Probably the disjoint union of X and a point, considered as a based space where the base point is the new point. (This is also the one point compactification of X, but that’s probably not very relevant)
So why is there this criteria of based X being embedded into a sphere vs just X on it’s own?
I guess the functor is literally from based to spectra
So it’d be fucking stupid if the space wasnt based.
Just like me
I think the one point compactification thing is from like Atiyah duality right
maybe, i think there you remove a point from S^n so it’s R^n then just manipulate and do the one point compactification
Maybe im misremembering
Yeah, I didn’t pull one point compactification out of nowhere. The one point compactification of a vector bundle is the Thom space. But this X is supposed to be a finite complex, so it’s already compact and the compactification is just adding a point
I am aware yeah
would the frontier of ${(x, y) \in \mathbb{R}^2 \mid 1 < x^2 + y^2 \leq 2}$ be $x^2 + y^2 = 2$ and $x^2 + y^2 = 1$?
okeyokay
frontier is boundary?
I mean I think it should be that
I don’t wanna prove it but it seems that way
i'm gonna come back and prove it rigorously but for now the problems are asking me to identify the boundary, interior and closure of sets
lol i feel you
the interior of b) is just E^2 with both axes removed right lol
armstrong topology lol
that's what i'm saying
bro tryna be different
I only knew about frontier because of Wikipedia
anyways yeah what you've said is correct
boundary is so much more intuitive lmao
why would it be
it's not like you're writing a strictly monitored exam. go for it king
nah ykwim
like as in cheating myself 😖
cuz like what if he like puts some weird ass trig function on the test and we have to find the boundary and shit and i don't have desmos ykwim
anyways he prob won't
oh bruh wtf nvm it's not like a graph of sin(1/x) will help me anyways
forgot how wack this function is
lmao is this right for both b and c
i mean like visually it seems pretty clear
but they're suspiciously similar
c) closure is correct but interior and boundary are not
you'll need more points in the boundary. It's what you have + something else
(and by complement: less things in the interior)
bruh ok looking at the graph of sin(1/x) it looks like it covers almost everything at the origin but i know zooming in super close that's not exactly true....
i have no clue how to see this rigorously, lol
i don't think looking at a graph will help either
what do you mean percisely by "covers almost everything at the origin"?
That's kinda maybe close to how you should think about it, depending on what you mean lol
Do you have a guess for which points need to be added to the boundary?
(Here, note that the boundary is also the closure of the set { (x, sin(1/x)) | x > 0 })
i haven't really thought of that yet, but i'll keep that in mind
sorry im just like also doing some reading for the class, i'll return to this problem fs tho
I want to learn this result.
Can you recommend me references? “One point compactification of a vector bundle is a Thom space”
Well, it’s only true when the base space is compact
But it’s pretty much just the definition of the Thom space
I guess people usually don’t work with the Thom space, but instead work with relative homology
I see, thank you.
Sorry yeah I just saw it required to be compact somewhere else too. I thought this was true for general paracompact base space B
My recommended book is, as always, Bott and Tu.
Thank you very much!
I'm exploring the idea of the "roundness" of a polytope. Here in a paper, it's roughly defined by the ratio between the size of a containing ball and a ball it contains
Given a bounded polytope Ax <= b, can anything be said about the smallest containing ball and the biggest contained ball? Can I compute them?
Maybe #linear-algebra or #optimization ?
yeah I'll post it in optimization, I'm reading about basis reduction methods in integer linear optimization
thanks
linear algebra is maybe more fitting
On 2 implies 3... He shows nothing. He showed that if you add extra points to A, then A closure is inside A.. But that shows nothing
A is closed since it is equal to its own closure
but A is just f^-1 (B)
so f^-1 (B) is closed
He's not "adding points to A", he assumes x is in the closure of A, and shows it must be in A. Thus, we conclude clA is a subset of A, hence clA = A
He takes f(A), then adds points to it, and notes that f(A closure) is inside it...
ok point to the line where it stops making sense
Right after "therefore, of x in A closure
If f(x) is in B, then x is in f^{-1}(B)
So he showed that if x is in closure of A, then f(x) is in B. Thus, since A = f^{-1} (B), we get that x is in A
That first thing is not necessarily true, at least not by the lines before
That he wrote
THis is a correct proof
If you're confused on the line that shows f(x) in B, we are assuming that f(cl A) is a subset of cl F(A). So this all makes sense, since cl B = B by assumption of B being closed
He says f(f^-1(B)) is a subset of B. Therefore, some Y in Y may be missing, because some x in X may be missing..

This is correct
f(f^{-1} (B)) is always a subset of B. Work through the definitions to show this
It is not always equal, as you might notice by your comment. That is, there may be points in B that aren't in f( f^{-1} (B)), but this direction he used always holds
The proof is trying to say something about sets in X by figuring out that they might not be the same in Y.
It just doesn't work. Atleast not with what he's given.
Perhaps instead of trying to argue why this standard proof is wrong, you should try to work through the details until you can point out exactly where the mistake is
Because this does work
ye it's fine
And this makes sense to do because the sets we have chosen are preimages of sets in Y. So it's not unreasonable to do this
I've pointed out where it doesn't work, where he makes assumptions which he has given no argument for why it works.
Well what you thought you pointed out was wrong. Read the above
It works
if x is in cl(A) then f(x) is in f(cl(A))
but f(cl(A)) is contained in cl(f(A)) by hypothesis
thus f(x) is in cl(f(A))
that is, f(x) is in cl(B)
but B is closed so f(x) is in B
thus x is in f^-1 (B), which is just A
which line does not make sense to you
@somber phoenix please give this a read and see if any part is still confusing to you
I need your type of confidence
You must like math too much. You don't spend enough hours on things you don't really care for or like (though, topology is not even nearly as boring as ex analysis, it can even have it's nice moments).

what did he mean by this
what is ex analysis
Lmfao
the only maths i’ve had to do so far that i’ve found genuinely boring is plane geometry and linear algebra
admittedly i didn’t feel like i understood much of the linalg
i anticipate this changing sometime
more lin alg is always the answer

inject yourself with lots of drugs linalg
fucking dogshit notation what the hell (for (2))
$\subset$ for $\subseteq$ is terrible
most likely to honorable
i hate that so much
why is math notation so ambiguous across authors
can we please just standardize this shit
i think math has bigger problems than that
^^
like what
Anyways, you should never be writing in a manner such that the distinction between the two is entirely within the notation
Especially between those two
Much better to just explicitly write (in words) that this cannot be equality
mainly the atrocious education in many countries, which gives people a very bad impression of what math is
good notation is good for learners tho
do yall write A complement B as A \ B or A - B
Usually A - B but sometimes A \ B
i feel like if you write A - B for that you have to write A + B for the disjoint union of A and B

I prefer A \ B
because A - B is often used for {a - b | a in A, b in B}
and because (A without B) u B is not really the same thing as A
I mean that is fairly common
Ryx (Home for flowers)
upside down capital Pi will never not be funny to me
mathematicians running out of greek letters so they just rotate one
imo we should use $\Xi$
most likely to honorable
you are a letter
Anyways, complement is an internal construction, whereas disjoint union is external, so they're not particularly connected anyways
sure
the Riemann Hypothesis.
nah
ok then, whether 0 is a natural number and what positive means
no more abelian goops
make the ZFCN axioms which is ZFC plus the No Zero Axiom:
∀x(x ≠ 0)
How has alg-top come to this
0 is a natural since it is in ω, and positive means >0
both are solved
give me a fields medal
Discord standards of discourse are painfully low
i am a representative the IMC, please send me your shipment/billing address along with your credit card information (collateral), i will arrange the delivery of the medal (for a small administrative fee of $1999)
How do I pay?
with our proprietary cryptovalue and NFT, Grothcoin
📈
proper subset is written subsetneq or just e.g. let A subset B be a proper subset so it's not ambiguous
what is $\subsetneq$
most likely to honorable
A is subset of B but not equal to B
I like it
Very cool topology discussions in here...
Subset but not equal 
⊆ & ⊊
rare sight to see ryu not have a troll name 
trolling ryc
lol
i have recently taken to doing this, as both my prof and munkres do

well then you are lost
yoo discoshrug
honestly it is very interesting to see how my notation changes almost subconsciously
if you repeat a lie enough times it becomes the truth
but yeah you just get used to certain things after using/seeing them a million times
as if there is any truth in choice of symbols

time to use < for leq

and < with the thingy on bottom for le
use picatchu
\lneq

btw to stay on channel topic, i’m not sure if i felt stupid or felt smart as i wondered if every topology had a basis, then realized the topology itself makes a basis, so i can always just state let (fancy) B be a basis

what would a subbasis be
ok time to run before i get pickaxed by the topologists
open generating - basis
generating - subbasis
idk lmao
i struggle to wrap my head around how every open set can be written as a union of basis element
i can do the proof, but is somehow just falls together in such a way i struggle to believe it

the defn of basis i prefer is
every open set is a union of basis elements (which have to all be open)
but ig ur using the other one to prove this
iirc the one given by munkres is every x in X is contained in some basis element, and for any two basis elements, their intersection contains another basis element
yh thats the usual one. its probably the most useful in proofs is why
this does sound much nicer, but it sounds more general
it’s so fascinating how many of these fundamental concepts can be defined in seemingly differet but nonetheless equivalent ways
A collection of open sets is basis iff given an open set O and x in O there is a basis element B s.t. x in B subseteq O is one way to think of the open set as union of basis, but yea if you're fine with vectors as lin combination of basis then this isn't really all that diff
not that diff minus uniqueness
More like spanning set
will any (\mathscr B \subset \mathscr P(X)) with (\bigcup \mathscr B = X) make ((X, \mathscr T)) a topology?
Jens
B may not generate the same topology if that's what you mean
E.g. (n, n+2) for n ∈ Z does not generate the reals
oops i forgot to specify (\mathscr T = \left{ \bigcup \mathscr A \mid \mathscr A \subset \mathscr B\right})
But if S_b is the collection of open subsets of b then the union of S_b over b ∈ B will indeed generate the original topology
B has to satisfy some nice properties
Yes by definition of generated topology
Jens
feels like cheating ngl
but thanku
come to think of it i don’t even need the condition that the union over the basis is equal to X, if we adopt the convention that intersection and unions over the empty collection of sets is equal to X and ø resp
Then B is a subbasis not a basis
Cuz basis doesn't involve intersections
Oh wait B may not be a basis actually
You need finite intersections of elements in B to be a union of elements of B
For it to be a basis
well yeah i’m not generating elements in T via intersections in B, i’m only saying that ø,X in T even in if U B ≠ C
right, i’m not sure how to handle that
how can this then be taken as a def?
This is equivalent to
∪B = X and finite intersections of elements of B is an arbitrary union of elements in B
Hm but aren't you getting the X using empty intersection
oops, true
so using this we don’t generate T by arbitrary unions in B? but we simply take it as given that T is a topology and that every open set can be written as a union in B
Yes
oh wow gamelin and greene has a very clear and concise discussion on bases for topologies
love this small book
and damn you peeps think it’s bad to use subset for subseteq? i just noticed this book sometimes uses subseteq but more frequently uses subset to mean subseteq
may have to do with there being two authors
i don't like it
but i get the feeling it's the dominant notation
doesn't matter as long as you're consistent tho
most of literature does except possibly the most modern.
I like it but am too paranoid not to use subseteq and subsetneq lol
$\varsubsetneq>\subsetneq$
Matplotlib
$\not\varsubsetneq$
Matplotlib
Ugly


This means either that the thing on the left is equal to that on the right, or that it's not a subset of it
Useless x')
i made a summary of my findings after the above discussion
@red yoke @high hill checks out?
oops in 3. it should obviously be x in X not x in T
4 is equivalent to true
i suppose it is too specific?
When you say "the following are equivalent" you mean any of the following statements imply any other
1, 2, 3 imply each other
4 is just a true statement
oh true, it's just definitionally true anyways lol
4 does as well, though i see what you mean, in general these will be different topologies
i mean we have at least (4) => (1) right?
no
whaat
You can make 1,2,3,4 equivalent if you do
- B ⊂ P(X) and T = {…} and for every …
Your 4 is a theorem, it's like the difference between
x divides y
x divides y if and only if there exists integer n such that nx = y
One is a statement, one is a theorem
i just don't need to use the "the topology"
You can say "x divides y" and "there exists integer n such that nx = y" are equivalent
But you don't say "x divides y" and "x divides y if and only if there exists integer n such that nx=y" are equivalent

still you run into the issue i pointed out
Also this is formatted wrong
oh, right that's a separate problem
The parts (X, T) is a topology and B \subseteq P(X) should be brought out of the statements
i did initially but moved it inside as i wanted to include (4)
Also (X,T) is a topological space, not a topology
but i realize now that might've been a mistake
This seems like the sort of theorem where trying to remember it seems more hard than actually working it out if you need it lmao
yes i'm just writing down the many different definitions i see so that i can prove the equivalences when i've an overview

Like you should have something like:
"Let (X, T) be a topological space, and B subseteq P(X). Then the following are equivalent:
- B is a basis for T
- For every U in T there is some family A subseteq B with U = {union over A}
- For each x in X and U in T with x in U, there is some V in B with x in V subseteq U"
Because you want these to be in reference to a specific B and T

omg this is so cute
birb

why B subseteq P(X) rather than T? i am after all taking T as given
either is fine
A priori they are different, but if B generated T then clearly B is a subset of T
even if B did not generate T, B would still have to subset T right
if B did not generate T then all of the equivalent statements are false
so no?
Like P(X) is a basis for the topology P(X) but clearly is not a subset of any other topology
I don't see a problem with this
It's better writen this way
Because then it is more clear that we are considering a fixed T and B
"TFAE" already makes it clear
we can have a basis B for T without the basis having generated T, in either case B subseteq T
i don't see how this is relevant, we'd still have B = P(X) subset T
if it doesn't generate T it's not a basis for T so that doesn't make sense
It doesn't matter which you have. It is a correct statement either way so maybe I am just misinterpreting what you mean
by "is not generated by B" in mean T is not given in terms of B
There is no notion of "precedence" in math, in any case X, B, T are objects that already exist
Even so, it is cumbersome and does not look as good to start each line with "(X, T) is a topological space, B subseteq T".
as in, you can explicitly give T, and then give a B that generates T
Touche
i very much agree with this
And I would argue if this is not such a simple statement where we know the symbols in reference actually mean the same thing, you could run into issues with how it is interpreted
i took (4) out of the list as well and am left with the very neat
idk what the proper way of wording what I have in mind is lol
but yes, i think this looks much neater
But then you lose a part of (4)
B ⊂ P(X) and T = {…} where for every … and for every …
Implies
(X, T) is a topology and B is a basis of T
If you take out the "(X, T) is a topology" you weaken the statement
but we wouldn't have the other direction right? simply as the two statements referred to different topologies
No they are still equivalent
T = {…} is not a definition for T
It is a statement involving T
hmm
i will just drop the T = {...} part then

feels weird though, as i don't even mention T in (4)
but i suppose it works as it's equiv to (2)-(3) which do mention T
see the problem is still that 4 is not in reference to T. So while 4 might be equivalent to the statement "B is a basis" [in the sense that basis is just some collection of sets satisfying a few properties i think mentions in Munkres], it is not equivalent to the statemetn "B is a base for T"
that sounds weird to me, even if T is not referred to in (4) it is in reference to both (2) and (3) and by the introduction B subset T
Take X to be R, T to be the usual topology on R
Take B to be {emptyset, R}
B is a basis. but not for the usual topology on R
yes but then the statements are just all false
Yes
who is "Yes" in reference to lol
4 not referencing the topology is a big problem lol
yes
I agree w you ryx
Also isn't 2 just the definition of a base
2 or 3 yeah, depends on the source i think
oh riight
i didn't see how for all x in X there was U in B with x in U but of course in your example U=X in B

and the only way you can have x in (U cap V) is if U = V = X with mine
In particular, since any topology is a basis (for itself), any topology strictly coarser than T satisfies 4 but not 1-3
I ave always found thr way 4 is written in munkres or whatever a bit weird idk
3 is also a weird way of saying B is a cover of X 💀
Oh not 3 I'm thinking about the definition of a basis in munkres
I guess 3 is also weird because it's a wordier way of saying that every open set is a union of elements of B

But then that is just 2 💀
given a topology and a basis for the topology, can any open set be written as a disjoint union of basis elements?
Oops any connected set fails at this by definition
what 4 2 3 what are you guys talking about?
this
not disjoint, just union
yea ik I just wanted to see if that stronger thing was also true
A topology is a basis for itself, and it trivially holds when we take such a basis that any open set can be writen as a disjoint union of basis elements regardless of whether the set is connected or not (namely: the union of a single set: itself)
This is what Munkres does:
- He defines a "basis for a topology on
X" as a collection of subsets ofXthat satisfies condition(4). - He then defines the "topology generated by the basis" as the collection of all subsets of
Xsuch thatUis in the collection iff for allx ∈ Uthere exists a basis elementBsuch thatx ∈ B ⊂ U. - He then proves that the colletion above is actually a topology on
X - He then shows the collection above is equal to the collection of unions of basis elements (so basically condition
(2)) - He then proves that if you are given a topological space
(X, T), and you are given a collection of open setsB ⊂ T, then ifBsatisfies condition(3)it is a basis for the topology (in the sense that the topology it will generate is exactly(X, T). Or equivalently, by the fact above, the collection of unions of elements fromBis exactlyT)
I'm curious as to what characterization of basis condition (1) is intended to give
T is the intersection of all topologies containing B 
haha that was what set me off with this in the first place, my books didn’t agree on which statement to take as the definition
i’m beginning to realize it might be a bad idea to use many different textbooks when they all define things differently, what is especially painful to me rn is how they use the notion of neighbourhood differently
I think basis/neighborhood are the main ones
whew ok that’s reassuring
Maybe limit/accumulation point of a sequence too
OTOH "the closure of a set S is the intersection of all closed sets containing S" is an amazing definition
this is also an amazing definition
folland mentions something like that in passing
which one
real analysis
no like mentions the closure def? or smthn else
this def, that is
Oh
i like that
It's an exercise to Munkres to prove that
I asked abt it here like a week ago lol
Well not exactly that but a variant of it
it's good because it works for so many different structures
Like what
cl A = (intersection of all substructures containing A)
Topological spaces and their many generalizations/alternatives. Ideals in a ring. Subgroups in a group.....
gamelin and greene say S subset X is open iff S is a neighbourhood of each of its points… it really makes no difference here whether you require nbhds to be open or not does it?
Well if you require neighborhoods to be open, this is trivially true
Oh I see wym
The point is that if we take neighborhood to be "N is a neighborhood of x if there is an open set U with x in U subseteq N", these are equivalent
Like "the field extension generated by a set of elements S is the intersection of all fields containing S..." or smthn
so if you require nbhds to be open there’s really not much reason to talk of nbhds instead of just open sets?
i mean it's convenient
They're really two different notions of neighborhood imo
The usual one is that "a(n open) neighborhood of x is an open set containing x" is really just shorthand, since this is a common phrase
right but this is logically more specific than the more general sense of neighbourhoods
i have seen some books define the topology in terms of a function X to P(X) that assigns to each x a set of neighbourhoods
The (not necessarily open) neighborhood in context here is really more of a historical note. You can define topologies in terms of a collection of (not necessarily open) neighborhood at each point - a set N(x) subseteq P(X) for each x in X - which satisfy a few requirements. Given this notion of neighborhood, you can define what an open set is: it's a set that's a neighborhood of each of its points. What this statement is about, is that these two definitions of topology are equivalent: Their notion of neighborhood and open sets are consistent between the two of them
right right
what is the most common use of the word in the modern literature?
nbhds = open nbhds ?
yeah open nbhds
excellent, thanku
i’m curious to have a look at the N(x) approach sometime though
so let me attempt to rephrase this definition in gamelin and greene without using the terminology of nbhds:
a point x in X is adherent to S subset X if all open U containing x meets S (so U n S ≠ ø)
or if all open nbhds of x meets S
adherence 

i’m a sucker for classification of points in terms of a some subset of a space
makes the def of the closure very simple
In this proof, how do we know that the alpha_i are in finite number?
That's the definition of the product topology
By definition of the basis for the product topology
Oh I get my confusion, in Munkres that isn't the definition of product topology, but Theorem 19.1
Thank you both
Do they define it with universal property or something?
Munkres turning definitions into theorems 🗿
Probably take a subbasis to be inverse image under the projections of all open sets
Then you can show this gives the usual basis we think of
Exactly that
Because then it's just a simple statement about finite intersections of sets of the form π_α^{-1}(U)
I'll give it a better look, thanks
Okay not expecting a full answer lol but does anyone have any ideas for how one might study the map $T^2 \to T^2 \land T^2$ on homology?
potato
I'm actually interested in taking mod 2 coinvariants on the last bit too lol
I imagine this is the sort of thing where you should just find more-or-less explicit cycles and see what happens but idk
Or break it up into T^2 -> T^2 x T^2 and then the quotient map lol
that looks like something else than what i’m thinking of
Hm I'm not exactly familar with this map where does it come from?
like is this just like diagonals and then smash or what
Yes
It’s not so bad, the diagonal map has the obvious effect on homology, then the inclusion of T^2 x {} \cup {} x T^2 is a cofibration so the reduced homology of the smash product is the relative homology of the product with respect to this subspace
Yeah that's what I had too tbh should just keep going
With the actual compoot
I wi another gi
Especially for T^2 what happens is pretty simple
But you can do this for very general spaces as well
Yes you have that this is dual to cup product over a field, but more than that in this case the homology is very simple so it’s clear where the diagonal cycles go
Yup agreed
In general yes the diagonal is about as hard to understand as the ring structure on cohomology, so it is not always simple
Okay sure
Phew I wasn't being silly lol i just assumed you had an argument that works in general
I'm pretty sure the eventual map T^2 -> (T^2 smash T^2)/Z/2 ends up sending the degree 2 generator to another generator and everything else to 0
at least on like lol Fp homology which is what i'm doing
This is a calculation which is doable even over Z
Yeah though I think the homology of that last thing i mentioned is a little annoying to determine right
Anyway everything is torsion free so it’s basically the same
Ye
Oh my I'm a dumbass
I kept wondering why Chmonkey was typing but not actually saynig anything

Well thank you
Anyway this is ultimately quite nice because uhhh
Basically the result I am trying to get involves a map X -> X smash X / Z/2
and it ought to be determined in terms of the cup product structure of X
which does indeed seem the case which is nice
:)
Heyo! If I have a double branched cover X->S^4, is there a description of the generators of the second homology H_2(X;Z/2)?
I've tried to scratch my head around this, I somewhat managed something by hand where b_2(X;Z/2)=2, but I'm having to deal with arbitrarily large b_2...
I'm still struggling to understand where the second homology comes from. I accept that there is second homology, but Idk what surfaces would not be null-homologous above where everything is below.
@feral copper Why is this surprising? Every 3-manifold is a branched cover over S^3, which has no first homology. But a loop which winds around the branching set degree many times can unfold to a nontrivial loop upstairs.
Similar things can happen with a codimension 2 branching set of a branched cover over S^4
What does the "Each had a finite subcovering" thing meaning
A subcovering is a subset of a covering which still covers the set right? How is it being used in this context then
If each B(x, epsilon_n) could be covered by finitely many elements in this open cover (i.e., is a subset of a finite union within the open cover), the since there are finitely many B(x, epsilon_n) that cover the space S, we could take the union of all these subcovers (finite union of sets, each with finitely many elemenets) to get a finite subcover
@unreal stratus I believe if you label the circles in T^2 x T^2 = S^1 x S^1 x S^1 x S^1 as a, b, c, d then the diagonal class is ab + cd + ad + bc. Here ab etc denotes the cycle given by the subtorus obtained by crossing the two circles
Okay sure
Oh. I read this as each Ball being subcovered by the union of all the balls
which made no sense
but i guess its saying the balls being covered by the open covering in the 2nd sentence
You can derive this, as TTEG said, by using the canonical basis of the exterior algebra that is the cohomology of the torus.
yeah idk why they don't label the covering 
But yeah it's in reference to this open cover of S, which we assume for contradiction has no finite subcover
A good sanity check is that the self-cup of the diagonal class is the Euler characteristic
yep i get that
This is why, unlike for product of two circles, the diagonal class of T^2_A x T^2_B is not A + B
The latter has cup product A^2 + AB + BA + B^2 = 2AB = 2
But Euler characteristic of T^2 is 0
This is a classic point of confusion when youre first introduced to the homology coalgebra
Hm, he says "Reader should prove subset of totally bounded is totally bounded". Is this no trivial?
not*
oh, i guess he wants the centers to be in the subset
So then would the proof be to get a finite covering of balls with radius e/2 and then for each ball, if it intersects the subset then choose a point in the subset and create a ball centered at that point with radius e?
Yeah something like that works iirc
would the union of all the open sets which make up the base work as the dense countable subset? i have a strong suspicion that that's the case and am going to try to prove it, just wanted to make sure (or have my hopes and dreams crushed)
bc im thinking about the set of all open intervals with rational endpoints as a topology on the real line
the union of all those is equal to Q and Q is dense in R
No, the union of all of them is R itself, which is not countable.
The union of sets in a base is the whole space by definition
But you just need a small modification of your idea ...
oh wait you're right lol
very true
ok
will keep in mind
maybe the disjoint union of all the open sets....
fug
so i can't take intersections and unions cuz that would just be another open set
hmm
i don't know if that's what you intended but https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Disjoint_union is a technical term and it's not the same as the other kind of disjoint union that people often talk about
Perhaps think for a moment about what "dense" means for the set you're trying to construct.
ye i've been considering that, how for any x in X every neighborhood of x intersects this subset, so I have to base it off x somehow I suppose
i guess i can narrow it down to the question: what does every neighborhood of x intersect?
altho that's kinda stupid
idk
i'll try thinking some mroe
yea nvm that question's dumb
maybe if we can take a representative from each open set and form the union that'll work, and it'll also use the countability of the base
nvm that wouldn't even be well-defined lmfao
You can assume the axiom of choice, I'm sure.
(The claim you're proving isn't necessarily true without).
"representative" is sort of the wrong word though
idk if that's what led you to talk about well-definedness
i'm not so sure what's the right wrod
i would just say "pick an element from each open set" lol
lol i guess that works but like i was tryna get it so that every neighborhood of x would intersect this set, and so the set would have to be dependent on x and you can't do that for every x in X, idk
but okay i hope this construction works
"dense" means every (nonempty) open set intersects our set; it's not about neighborhoods of any particular x.
ohhh, i probably confused the definition of dense then. my thought was that a subset S of a topological space X is considered dense if it's closure is equal to the whole space (that's the def), so to prove that S is dense you would take any x in X and consider two cases; either x is in S in which we're done, or x is a limit point of S. that is, every neighborhood of x intersects S at some point different than x
since the closure of S is the union of S w/ its limit points
Well, but you get that if and only if your set intersects every nonempty open set.
hmm i'm not seeing that immediately but you're definitely right lol
let me think about that for a sec
If there's an open set you don't intersect, then certainly everything in that open set will be outside the closure.
Conversely, once you intersect all the nonempty opens, then in particular you also intersect every neighborhood of every x.
oh ok i think that makes sense now, given that we're considering every single point x in X
at least i hope
ah ok there we go
yea that made me understand
okay thank you
what would the open sets the complex numbers be? just open balls right
unions thereof
sorry wdym
oh
the open balls would be the base
and the unions would be the open sets is what ur saying?
yes
just like with R basically
in fact like for any metric space X a basis is given by the open balls
oh right
yea that makes sense thanks
wait to show that a function is a homeomorphism you have to show that f and it's inverse are continuous and that it's a bijection right
nvm
i can literally look at the definition
well that is slightly the wrong way round
well
okay maybe I am too pedantic lol
But in any case the way I'd describe it is that a map of spaces is a homeomorphism if it has an inverse
Where we only allow for continuous functions
ah is that bc like
in topology the only functions we consider are continuous
so it's kinda like a given
Anyone that could give a hint on where to begin to show S^inf is contractible?
There are many spaces called S^oo and many proofs of contraction
For example, there is the unit sphere in a Hilbert space, such as the space of functions on the interval. You can write down a deformation of the space of functions. Just slide the function to the right, replacing it with the constant function
S^n -> S^n+1 is easy to contract. So find a homotopy from the identity to the inclusion of a subspace
S^oo -> S^oo+1
Another nice way is to apply Whitehead's theorem, which here says it's enough to show all homotopy groups of S^infty vanish
There is also a funny way using simplicial sets lol
How? I want to learn this method by simplicial sets
which is
really having issues understanding what a "bump function" is
Its a smooth function which is 1 in a ball and 0 outside a bigger ball
ah i see
But generically, loops in S^3 won't intersect. Surfaces in S^4 will. But yeah, I can believe this 🙂 however, there's no nice description of a basis for H_2, is it?
It's described in a uh math overflow post
I'll try to find it again lol
But basically you take J, the category with 2 objects and each homset cardinality 1 (so two isomorphism objects) and show that the realisation of the nerve of J is S^infty
Thank you.
I see. I need to show that disjoint union of (Δ^n times N(J)_n), under a equivalence relation, is S^infty… I will try
ob(J)={-1, 1} I tried to define (( t_0,…, t_n), (X_0 -> X_1 ->… -> X_n )) to (… X_i sqrt(t_i) …)
Probably wrong, I can’t find inverse image of elements whose first few components are zero…
I'm trying to prove that the interior of a convex set $A$ is convex. Is this a complete proof?
Let $x$ and $y$ be in $\text{int}(A)$, and let $z$ be in $[x, y]$.
For some $r_1$, $B(x, r_1)$ is in $A$, and for some $r_2$, $B(y, r_2)$ is in $A$.
We know that any point in $[x, y]$ is in $A$ by the convexity of $A$, so we consider $r = \min{d(z, x) - r_1, d(z, y) - r_2}$. Then the ball $B(z, r)$ is in $[x, y]$, thus in $A$.
bordo99
I just realized that B(z,r) is not in [x,y]
I don’t think so. For example A= [0, 1 million] product [0,1] is a counterexample for this proof
Well you can prove this:
U={tx+(1-t)y: 0<=t<=1, x,y from int(A)} is open
Since U is contained in A, prove this then U contained in int(A) contained in U, then done
(tx+(1-t)y. Any z near it , let h=z-(tx+(1-t)y), then z=(tx+(1-t)y)+h=t(x+h)+(1-t)(y+h))
I see so all i have to do is prove U is open
Yes, and the last message is a hint if you need it
Alright thank you
Is the commutator of a topological group always a closed subgroup? I'm not very familiar with nets, but I feel like this should be true by using them.
Oh this is nice
I mean you can endow any group with the trivial topology, so then the answer would be no.
My guess would be that the answer is still no if you require the group to be Hausdorff, but then an example might be harder to cook up
Hm, alright. For some reason I thought limits of nets would preserve commutators and their products.
Appearantly the absolute Galois group of Q is an example of a (Hausdorff) topological group where the commutator subgroup is not closed
https://mathoverflow.net/a/363853/157483
@opaque scroll may I bend your ear on something #advanced-analysis message ?
can somebody give me a hint for the interior of c) ?
i don't know how to see this rigorously lol
what do you think the answer is?
i have no clue, i just put down R^2 - sin(1/x) for x positive
did you try out some random points to see if they were in the interior or not
like just test a couple of points and see what happens
try to come up with a reasonable guess
well pretending like the left hand side of the graph is nonexistent, we can find an open set for each of these points that's contained in R^2 - sin(1/x) for x > 0 which i'll just call A
like
intuitively very close to the origin it seems like you can't find an open set that contains a point there that's in A
i don't know how to show that rigorously tho because i don't know how to show "when" it becomes dense or whatever
anyways
this is what the solutions manual is for!
what happens at the origin, or any point on {0} x [-1, 1] for that matter? can you find an open ball around such a point which doesn't intersect the graph?
i would encourage not looking at the solution manual until you have a decent idea of a solution
my intuition tells me no, but i don't know how to rigorously show that
i mean
the solution manual said my original solution was right
so is the solution manual wrong or.....
find out
draw an open ball around the origin. can it be disjoint from the graph? can you shrink it to make it disjoint from the graph?
no, i can't
so is the origin in the interior, or no?
no, but how do we know what points to "take" out of the interior? looking at a graph sure you have an idea but how can you be entirely precise?
ig that's my question
how do we know when, precisely, we can start having open balls about points contained in A?
at what point do the oscillations stop being "so frequent"?
idk how to make this rigorous lol
Supplying a proof for that would suck lol
You would introduce like 5 magical constants minimum
yea, i mean if that's not the answer then what is if anyone knows
What ttepa said probably
yea but what is it precisely
like the region minus this set
sin(1/x) never touches that set (since it's not defined at 0)
but it approaches the y-axis, and in doing so oscillates an infinite number of times
if you think of sin(1/x) as the composition of sin(x) and 1/x, as x -> 0, we'll have 1/x -> inf, so sin will go through an infinite number of cycles
i see
how do we know that {0.000000000001} x [-1, 1] is in the interior tho ig
actually nvm i'll just go to office hours
thanks for the help tho
there's gonna be one sine cycle directly to the left of it and one to the right
Have to bother you again… how do we prove the realization is homeomorphism to S^infty…? ((t0,…,tn) in interior of Δ^n, I tried mapping ((t0,…,tn),(X0->X1->…->Xn)) to (…εi sqrt(ti)…) where εi=1 or -1, depending on Xi is which object, this didn’t work)
Well if you think of the construction of the realisation like
At each step you are basically adding two (non-degenerate) cells which form two hemispheres of the next biggest sphere
So like, we start off with two points
Add two non-degenerate simplices joining them together, so we get a circle [plus degeneracies but they're identified with stuff in the realisation]
Then we fill in that circle in two ways to get a sphere
etc etc
Ahhh, thank you, got it
why can we assume that (s - \epsilon, s + \epsilon) is a subset of O if s is less than b?
Think about what O must look like
yeah I guess it's like
If you don't worry about why we get out S^infty too much, this is a simple proof
But yeah I guess it does need a formalisation of what I just said to make more rigorous
I just like how the fact an equivalence of categories leads to a homotopy equivalence of realisations is used rather explicitly here
Yes, so fascinating.
No one dislike category
You should try drawing pictures when you don't understand something
Instead of coming straight to discord lol
Like this is genuinely just a picture away from understanding
lol
Nvm idgi
Lmao
Any math wizards care to explain
Big bro there was a picture right there
Lil bro you can just picture it like wrapping the interval around the circle
So the two endpoints pretty much meet at (1,0)
And so if you have some neighborhood of 0, it would be like an open ball intersected with the circle. But then it must contain a bit of both ends of [0,1) in it's image on the circle

no
but they don’t require the bujection to be continuos!? is that perhaps equivalent to them preserving open sets?
i still haven’t even gotten to how limits and continuty is defined in topological spaces

maybe i should just shut up and move on
Can I ask something here?
keep reading on and it will make sense
I'm a high school student (not good at maths) , and I wanna ask how many holes a t-shirt has
a t shirt has 3 holes
4
If (X,T) and (X',T') are topological spaces and f: X to Y is a bijection then f is a homeomorphism if and only the following holds: a subset U of X is open in X if and only if f(U) is open in X'.
think this is bourbaki's definition
but yea the book shouldn't write a simple definition in a confusing way like that lol
~~maybe try dugundji
~~
if you imagine a transformation that tears the circle apart into a line segment [0,1) is this continuous?
well no, because for example [0,0.5) is open in the line segment but its pre-image in the circle is not open
this direction of preserving openness restricts 'tearing' and the other direction restricts 'gluing' if that makes sense
Why would you read bourbaki
Ah ok, someone in help told me to ask here
If you have a sphere, with 4 disks on its surface removed, you can put it on, you know, for your waist, head, two arms
i’ve been looking for it :S
can’t get a hold of it tho
the sphere with 4 disks removed has 3 holes
What’s the definition of hole…
whoa
While it’s same as a disk with three small disks on it removed
i am fascinated by the histories of these topics, and there’s no question they influental
does a sphere with its top and bottom removed have 1 or 2 holes
this sounds amazing, i’ll keep it in the back of my mind, thank you
it has one hole because it's a cylinder and then the circle
I know it’s upper half of a genus-3 torus
and honestly their exposition and order in which they defined stuff and explained their relations is the clearest one i’ve seen yet
Just not sure how you define holes, number of boundary components or what
im surprised they defined homeomorphism before continuous map
well, “things” being topological structures, neighbourhoods and bases
The answer is: homology
I know its first homology group is isomorphic to Z^3
So number of holes is defined to be rank of H_1 or something ?
I don't think it's a well defined term
For orientable surfaces it's half of the rank of H_1. For 3 manifolds, it's ambiguous. Except you could also relate it to the rank of H_1, because for closed oriented 3-manifolds, that's equal to the rank of H_2
Again, genus is only for surfaces
You can look at the special case of 1-handlebodies; then genus is the number of solid tori you glue together. But that's far from being a definitive answer for everything. Sadly, there's no "genus" for anything else but surfaces. Although homology is still interesting, and in fact even more than for surfaces!
Half of rank? What if rank is odd. Like a genus-g surface having n boundary components, its H_1 is Z^(2g+n-1)…
For orientable closed surfaces, it's always even!
For boundary surfaces, cap off with disks
Like the genus of a punctured torus is still one
But you have to glue disks
(Unless you know n)
Okay, I see, then always n=0, yeah even, Z^(2g)
As you said, 'a genus g surface with [...]'
I thought you said when you have n-boundary components you cap off n many disks so it becomes closed
You implicitly meant that you count the genus after capping the boundary components
That's what I said indeed
Okay
fancy T being closed under arbitrary unions include uncountable unions right?
yes
Wdym yikes
This is very nice
If you only allowed countable unions, you wouldn't be able to show even simple statements like "a set that's a neighborhood of each of its points is open"
i think you've probably just been corrupted by measure theory
Oh okay lol
Well it's just cause for sigma algebras ( = basically your set of measurable sets) you only require countable unions
Can you guys recommend a reference of proof of cellular approximation theorem? Like some books , other than Hatcher…
i think tom dieck and spanier have nice proofs
tbh find it a shame there isn't a more elegant proof somehow lol
Thank you☺️
CoffeeMan
Thoughts on using neighborhood systems? Coming from Munkres I just learned about them. Are they still used?
not really but it's a good perspective to have
also pointset topology is out dated now
pointset topology is useful for analysis
'outdated'
It's not like you can do any kind of topology without this basic knowledge anyways, can you?
point is no one does point set topology so don't need to go very deep into it. Get the necessary things done and move on to something else
*start doing something else then pick out whatever pointset you need along the way
Sure, but also don't go to much to the other extreme of never doing any point-set and lose time interrupting anything you try to do elsewhere
Certainly, defining things in terms of neighborhoods is outdated for 99% of topological purposes
Unless I suppose you're a psychopath that works with pretopologies
CoffeeMan
i also was very confused on that example
my go-to place for questions is mathse
because usually someone else has asked it and usually there is a really good answer
i really liked this one
idk which coffeeman to @ because there r several
when there is no answer on MSE or MO 
the day that happens is the day i go and become a business major or smth
the day i get to a level of math where there is not a mathse post which is a duplicate of another is the day i quit math
you gotta be strong when that day comes
cry a little maybe because you realize you have no way currently to figure out the answer anyways
but stay strong 💪
yeah mhm yep yeah
Yeah, I also found that one, but I'd like to be able to do these sorts of reasoning myself if possible, so I was wondering if anyone had any references for texts with problems that cover these sorts of things
Or is it just something one must pick-up somehow?...
what is the best way to show that f is continuous? inverse of each open set in X is an open set in R?
or should i use the epsilon-delta analytical way
nvm
well given that only one of them is a metric space, it'd be best to try the topological definition
fax
would an example of an open set under the finite complement topology be $\mathbb{R} - {0}$?
okeyokay
In fact, this is a special case of that even When you take the identity function id(x) = x as a function
id: (X, T) --> (X, S), this is continuous if and only if S is coarser than T. That is, if every set in S is open in T
Equivalently (for this, it might be best to think of closed sets), every set that is closed in (X, S) is also closed in (X, T)
i see
is this equivalent to showing that O is an interval essentially? since f is the identity function
because in order to show that $f$ is continuous, it suffices to show that if $O$ is an open interval in $X$, then $f^{-1}(O) = {x \in \mathbb{R} \mid f(x) \in O} = {x \in \mathbb{R} \mid x \in O}$ is an interval, which is the same as showing that $O$ is an interval in $\mathbb{R}$
okeyokay

no?
X is the set R with the finite-complement (/cofinite) topology. The open sets are those whose complements are finite. What does that make the closed sets under this topology?
wait can you explain why my reasoning is wrong
ah yea that's smart
- X as a set is just R, so the "intervals" would be the same. but
- they aren't relevent at all to the topology on X
oh nah i meant if f is continuous and if O is open in X then f^{-1}(O) is open in R right, which is equivalent to saying that f^{-1{(O) is an open interval in R no?
cuz the open sets in R are the open intervals
oh shit rlly
For instance, R \ Z is open in the standard topology, since it's a union of intervals (n, n+1) for n in Z
ah facts
the finite sets right
correct. A subset if closed in X iff it is finite. So the statement that this f is continuous is just that finite sets are also closed in the standard topology on R
oh yea and then the last part is easy to show i think
ok thanks! ur the goat
wait no i'm stupid why is that closed in R, so we would be considering this set C under the standard topology of R which we know must be finite, how do we know that it's complement is open? bc for instance what if C is not a closed interval, in other words it skips some real number if that makes any sense
o
nvm
here to show that f is not continuous, i could just take an open interval (a, b) in R and then the image is obv (a, b) but the complement of that is infinite
I assume you mean for f not a homeomorphism
but yes that should work for the reason you said, provided (a, b) is not all of R
given a topological space X, define a topology on P(X) by:
U is open if all x ∈ U are open in X or if U = P(X)
what properties does this inherit from X? (this is a topology right)
i just made this problem up to be clear no idea if this is a thing
if X is countable, is P(X) second countable?
if X is second countable, is P(X) second countable? if X is hausdorff, is P(X)? connected? path connected? im not asking for like hints im legit just curious
This is very degenerate. It is a bunch of open singletons and a bunch of points whose only neighborhood is the whole space. It hardly remembers anything from original space
well the first 2 i asked arent true if you take X to be Q with the discrete topo P(X) dies
thats true
so it definitely isnt hausdorff unless X is discrete
is there any reasonable way to define a topology on P(X)?
This was recently asked on MO. I think the answer was no. But you can look at the compact open topology of the subset of P(X) consisting of continuous functions to various two point spaces
I believe (at least in certain circumstances) one topology you can take is called the "Scott topology"
It is actually quite useful in characterizing the exponentiable topological spaces (in Top)
I suppose this is a bit different in that it's a topology on the original topology itself
rather than one defined on all of P(X)
But still a related idea
reading about homology and i dont quite get the intuition of 0-chains
eg if we have a graph, its vertices generate a free ab grp
but what does it mean to add/subtract vertices?
like 1-chains make sense — youre moving along the edge
Well I mean I'd just say it doesnt mean too much, but the image of the preceding map does have good meaning
Since it corresponds to endpoints of paths
So when you quotient out we are just imposing the relations given by paths connecting points
the way I often think of it is using H_1 as the motivation
extending that to other dimensions gives you all the higher homology groups
as well as the connected components, because of the 0-simplices
mmm okay
in the case of S^1 as a Δ-complex formed by a point and an edge, is the simplical H_0(S^1) ≈ Z because u can think of each point as a point on the spiral? the “spiral”, ie, the covering space of S^1
i drew a picture somewhere
The covering space is n really relevant
From my description hopefully it is clear H0 corresponds to path components
What you say is more relevant to H1 ig
Though using the covering space for that is sorta overkill
yeah ig im just trying to draw the connection between π1 and H1
since the latter is the abelianization of the former?
Yes
Was saying H0 here a mistake
hmm ok
i’m not sure i understand why H0 ≈ Z then :(
i get that ker of boundary hom d_0 is every v, since v-v=0
heres context for what im trying yo understand
oh wait
maybe because elements of H_0 are cosets of im \partial_1, but im \partial_1 is cyclic <v>, so H_0 ≈ Z?
the pavement won't answer me



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