#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 54 of 1
(Though if I think about it, closed sets are the same - their union and intersection, respectively, are also closed. However open sets still make more sense for the reason you specified, that they are a neighbourhood for any of their points.)
the reason the rules of a topology are defined the way they are is because people working with metric spaces realized they used these specific properties of open sets over and over
so eventually people decided to drop the metric and see how much they could accomplish with just the concepts that “the union of open sets is open” and “the intersection of finitely many open sets is open”
turns out you can do a lot
although at some point you have to start adding more and more assumptions to bring the space closer to your intuition about real numbers
I think I begin to understand now. Thanks everybody who helped me!
some topologies are defined using closed sets like the zariski topology
I dont know much about them though, only that stuff like that exists 
You could do everything treating closed sets as foundational. You could also do everything, treating the closure operator as foundational. Or convergence of ultrafilters. Or...
Really, the closed sets/open sets definitions are the closest (but others have equivalents). Afaik, it's mostly just that people have historically preferred using open sets (whether it was easier, or by convention)
Though I imagine there is merit that the open set definition is generally the easiest to work with
wait wtf
18.a is actually super simple
you just need to find the right open sets and apply SvK
It's just a wedge sum innit
From what I understand, the discrete topology of a set is that set's power set ?
I think of the discrete topology as saying that all singletons are open
so for any x, {x} is open
thus any two elements are distinguishable, because you can always find a neighborhood of a point that contains no other points
it’s a consequence of the union property that such a topology also includes any other subset, and hence the topology is equal to the power set
I thought that was only for discussion and stuff 
o
I see. So in practice it is indeed the power set - though as you said, it is often better to think of it as allowing every member to be distinguished. Thanks!
SX and Sigma X have the same fundamental group?

probably
at least that’s where I think the term “discrete” comes from
or is this only true for cell complexes?
I don't see how this is true tbh
at first I thought it was a deformation retraction kinda thing
but what I had in mind is wrong
Yes
Well it's probably true more generally but certainly not always true as this xample shows
how would you verify it's true tho?
?
It’s true
Or am I smoking
I might be
No. We discussed the example of X = {0} cup {1/n}
The unreduced suspension has countable fundamental group. The reduced suspension is the Hawaiian earrings with uncountable fundamental group
no, SX isn't even a CW complex
yea, that's why I asked the question
Lol I didn’t read that they included 0 and misread the distinction between reduced and unreduced suspension done here

I was in fact smoking
Your conclusion is false, so your argument is unsound
Do you claim that f(x) = 0 for x <1/2, 0’ for x>=1/2 is continuous?
yea
why is that wrong? 
coz, like, you can never isolate 0 and 0' with an open set, right?
You can
The 2 versions of the interval (-1, 1) are both open
Each using a different origin
You can't separate them with disjoint open sets
@broken nacelle

how do we know that the restrictions on the bottom of the second page there are homeomorphisms?
do you see why $\psi_0(V \cap \partial N) = V_0 \times {0}$?
DarQ
(and similarly for phi_0?)
yes
Hey, I was wondering why example 3 here isn’t a normal covering space? I can see it intuitively given the lack of symmetry, but fail to see why I can’t just, say, cycle the base point (I.e. map each base point to the one on the left)
Why would this break the p = pf definition of a deck transformation?
Consider if you map that basepoint to the one to the left
Then a loop a in S^1 will now lift to a loop instead of a path
So then they’re not isomorphic
Thus since that deck transformation does not exist it cannot be normal
@tall mason
ohhh right I see, tysm
In the Kolmogorov (T0) topology, does every pair of points which appears in the underlying set have to be topologically distinguishable, or any pair of points which appears in an element of the topology (an open subset of the underlying topology) ?
I ask this because if the former option is true, doesn't it mean that the Kolmogorov topology features every singleton as an open set, thus being the discrete topology ?
every pair of points
you can always find an open set that contains one of the points and not the other
Doesn't this mean that if you take all the intersections of these sets (which is required by the definition of a topology), you will eventually end up with every singleton as an open set, thus obtaining the discrete topology ?
By "singleton" I mean sets which contain a single element.
intersection of which sets?
Intersection of the sets of the Kolmogorov topology.
Intersection of finitely many open sets is open
But not necessarily infinitely many
And I believe you're confusing T0 and T1
this might collapse to nothing
in fact it is in fact nothing since the empty set is an open set in any topology
unless you are talking about intersection of some other sets?
Okay, I'll give an example of what I mean:
X = {1, 2, 3, 4}
Now, we want to obtain a Kolmogorov space for X, so we will make a set which allows us to topologically distinguish any element of X.
A = {(emptyset), X, {1, 3, 4}, {1, 2, 4}, {1, 2, 3}, {2, 3, 4}}
So far, A allows us to topologically distinguish any two elements of X, however, it is not yet a topology because it doesn't have every intersection of its members.
So, let's get the intersections we immediately get from intersecting just any two sets from A.
B = {{1, 4}, {1, 3}, {3, 4}, {1, 2}, {2, 4}, {2, 3}}
The union of A and B still isn't a topology, because we still don't have the intersections of every pair of members of B (not A). So, let's see what these are:
C = {{1}, {2}, {3}, {4}}
As you can see, we got every singleton of X.
Now, we can say the union of A, B and C is a Kolmogorov topology for X. However, due to including the elements of C, it imediately becomes a discrete topology as well.
My point is that, by doing this interative process for any finite set X, I think we can show that at least for any finite X, the Kolmogorov topology coincides with the discrete topology due to containing every singleton.
This might not be the case for topologies based on a set with an infinite amount of members, but at least for finite ones, I think it is. This is, of course, not a formal proof, and might be flawed, but the idea is nonetheless the same.
What do you think ?
Again, you're confusing T0 with T1
Consider the topology where a subset is open iff (it contains 1 or it is empty)
You cannot isolate 2 in an open set for instance
But this is T0
For a finite T1 space X, for any 2 ≠ x ∈ X you can choose an open set containing 2 but not x, and take the intersection of all those
But T0 only guarantees there is some open set containing 2 but not x OR there is some open set containing x but not 2
Ok you can them use the inverse $\psi_0$ to find an inverse for ${\psi_0}_{|V \cap \partial N}$
DarQ
Namely by restricting it's domain and codomain to the appreciate spaces
Hence it's a homeomorphism
Also please ping after taking 2 hours to respond 
i was here for a while lmao
just was scared of talking
taking babysteps

Sully why would be intimidated to talk?
There are hardly a couple dozen geniuses around
In this example, that topology is not Kolmogorov, because it is impossible to isolate any number from one, right ?
Read the definitions of T0 and T1
don't know really
just scared
but I am here now
waiting for helper's lounge to open for me, and getting my g+ verified
You need to help out a lot in the help channels to get into helper lounge
I... Don't recommend doing thay
i am helping
let's see if I can't fucking speedrun it
Okay, now I realise that I don't know the difference between distinguishable and separated (used for defining T0 respectively T1).
As of now, Wikipedia defines two points being both distinguishable or separated as having one open set not containing the other, which is weird.
OOOOOH, nevermind! My bad! I read it wrong.
Okay, so for a T0 space, it is sufficient for every pair of two points to not have the same neighbourhoods, and for a T1 space it is sufficient for any two points to have an open set not containing the other. I see now how I was mistaking T0 and T1.
Don’t use Wikipedia.
If I think about it, actually, these definitions are equivalent. I'm confused. Where am I wrong ?
When it ends up being wrong, you will not know
if you’re learning from it
If you can’t afford books, use lecture notes
I am self-studying topology.
Oh, ok.
👍
on point-set topology
A used copy of Munkres would probably be best, though
save up for a week or two
You can probably afford it if you can afford to do topology from Wikipedia
just reinvest that time into getting a textbook
T0:
For any x, y ∈ X, there exists an open set containing x and not y, OR there exists an open set containing y and not x.
T1:
For any x, y ∈ X, there exists an open set containing x and not y, AND there exists an open set containing y and not x.
For good measure you might also want to compare with T2
Alright, it makes sense. I see how I was mistaking T0 and T1 now. Thanks!
However, replacing T0 with T1 in this "proof", don't we still get to the conclusion that any T1 topology is a discrete topology, at least for finite sets ?
Yes
Dont use wikipédia 
Thanks!
Munkres is objectively the wrong choice for the vast majority of people
I'm convinced people who suggest munkres are just the ones that never read from another reference
To be honest, I never liked reading mathematics from Wikipedia since it is very disorganized and instead of having everything presented in an order I just have to read a word salad from which I don't understand anything, and have to click on every reference (blue word), and do this recursivsly until I "connect" to something I already know.
Though I'll admit that I've ever seriously considered reading a book. But I will give it a try.
Once we decide which topology book is the best. 🍿
I'll smack you, but lightly
I have read a couple of pointset books. I would still suggest munkres lmao.
But definitely keep some other book as a close reference
Why
to get pain
Munkres was the first intro
I then read Simmons (I guess it was Simmons) because it had nice exercises
Then I read a little of lee
.
I get what separable spaces mean, however, I don't know why they are called "separable". What does having a countable dense subset have to do with separated elements of open sets ?
Historically the terminology has to do with points being separated by continuous functions
Ooh, makes sense.
Hm how come Ibsen
Hmmm, what exactly do you mean by this ?
We asked almost at the same time. 
Or is it hahn banach related or smth
A separable metric space X embeds isometrically in C(X), I believe
In that one assigns to a point x a function f_x and these functions separate points in the sense that this is a one to one assignment
Hm, that actually does not require X is separable.
Ah I'm misremembering. Suppose A is a subalgebra of C(X) which separates points and contains the constants. Then it's closure is C(X).
So if you have a countable family of functions {f_x_i} which separates points in X then the space of continuous functions C(X) is separable
This is basically Stone Weierstrass on steroids
Separable/separated has too many meanings in topology
Might be best to avoid
what's another meaning of separable in topology
I have seen people use separated/separable to refer to:
- T[0/1/2]-ness
- [Two points / A point and a subset / two subsets] being separated by [open sets / continuous functions to R]
- Having a countable dense subset
which ones did they use separable for
eh I don't really agree
In R^n, if U is open and U'_r(a)\subset U is a closed ball contained in U, how would you show there is an r\leq R with U'_r(a)\subset U_R(a)\subset U (contained in slightly larger open ball)? I was doing the case n=2 by hand and while it works just fine intuitively, I don't like the handwavy aspect of it and want to make it 100% formal symbolic.
The idea is to cover the boundary C of U'_r(a) by finitely many open balls in U whose closures are still in U, so C\subset U_1\cup\cdots\cup U_n\subset U'_1\cup\cdots\cup U'_n. I was thinking then to argue using the distance from C of the compact "contour" traced out by the arcs of U'_i lying outside of U_r(a) (since distance between 2 compact sets is always represented by two of their points), but I got bogged down in the details of checking that everything intersects nicely.
There exists a minimum distance between a compact set and a disjoint closed set
By applying the fact that the image of a compact set through a continuous function is compact
I know, I was talking more about the technicalities of how all the covering balls intersect and so on, that' what was bothering me.
Compact contour
Taking Ui to cover the closed ball and taking the complement of the union of the Ui seems easier
Directly applying this on the closed ball and complement of U is even easier
Not in general, but it is true if C consist of projective modules.
For example
$\begin{tikzcd}
Z/2 \ar[r] \ar[d, equal] & Z/4\ar[d]\
Z/2 \ar[r] & 0
\end{tikzcd}$
Is 0 in homology, but not homotopic to 0.
(As a map from top row to bottom row)
jagr2808
Is this a typo?
the C's should be E's
btw maybe this should be in #advanced-algebra since there is no topo, but who cares
Seems like a typo yeah
Note that f is chain homotopic to g iff f - g is chain null homotopic iff the mapping cone of f - g is acyclic
For projectives/injectives acyclic is the same as contractible
You also need that C is bounded in the direction of the differential. But I guess both of those are true for the complexes topologists care about.
@grave solstice
Good point yeah
Essentially my mnemonic here is derived category is the same as Kom of injectives (which does required appropriate bounded hypothesis)
You mean contractible, right?
So for example if R = k[x]/x^2 , then the complex
... -x-> R -x-> R -x-> ...
is acyclic but not contractable
So you need the boundedness assumption
Good examples
Since R is self injective, this is both an example of a complex of projectives and of a complex of injectives
Very efficient 
Whatchu reading brah
The website maintained by Justin Smith.
the abstract algebra book chapter 13
I just read that and the category theory chapter. I thought it was a good idea to not go to specialized books, so that the material was more condensed
But im reading other stuff too
hard
i'm a little bit confused, so suppose we have the standard definition of a topological space (finite intersection of open sets is open, arbitrary union is open, the set itself and the empty set are open) and then we're given this one. how does each x in X satisfy axiom a of this definition?
because here i'm assuming that neighbourhoods coincide with the definition of open set in the way that a topology is usually defined
By definition of neighborhood?
A neighborhood of x is a set containing x in its interior
If you start with the open set definition
Yeah you go between them by taking a neighborhood of x to be a set containing x in its interior, or by taking an open set to be the sets that are a neighborhood of each of their points
(which if you're unsure, check that they satisfy the others axioms!)
aight bet
so say we take the set of points Y of R^n with integer coordinates and give it the subspace topology. how is the result a discrete space? i can't see how taking all the integer coordinates of open sets in R^n implies that every subset of Y is an open set
Do it agree that a space has the discrete topology iff every singleton/point is open?
Right
But do you agree that having all singletons/points open implies all sets are open? (The converse is obvious)
do you mean as in singleton set
yeah
i guess so since every set is a union of the singleton sets right
exactly
So think about how one can show that every single point in Z^n is open, in the subspace topology
Remember: the open sets in the subspace topology are precisely the open sets in the superset (R^n in this case), intersected with your subspace (Z^n)
So this amounts to finding an open neighborhood (in R^n) of a point in Z^n, which doesn't contain any other points of Z^n
hmmm okay i'll return to this problem probably on my second reading, thank you
say we take the space X whose points are those points of R2 such that x >= 1 and x <= -1. why is the subset of X consisting of those points with positive first coordinate both open and closed in X? if you take (1, y) there's no way you can find an appropriate ball at that point such that the entire thing will be contained in the subset of X right? therefore that subset of X is not open?
I think you are mixing together the subspace topology and the topology on R^n
ofc, there is no ball centered at (1,y) in R contained in X. But if we just consider the points in X, then there is
oh yuh i was just looking at this one
E^2 
ikr
ohh
oh would the ball just not include the points in the gap
like let me try to draw a picture to illustrate or whatever
I think you've got the right idea
Exactly, so if you take a smaller ball that's disjoint from the blue, that works
ah ok thanks! that makes sense
(It might be worth checking: If you have a subspace (Y, d_Y) of a metric space (X, d_X), then the ball B_Y(y, r) in Y is equal to Y \cap B_X(y, r), where B_X(y, r) is calculated in X)
if that makes sense lol
aight i'll save that one too thx
this looks false ngl
what I'm trying to do is cover an interval with sets that look like the cantor set but they get smaller and smaller
and then for each set creat a bijection to, I dunno, [0, 1]
I'm looking at the case n=m=1 btw
in that case, the connected sets are exactly the intervals
either open/closed/half-closed
so like, any such interval would contain a small cantor-looking set
this is a hard point set topology question afaik
I have no clue where one would even start with it tbh
but it is true that a function f: X \to Y with X locally connected and hausdorff and Y hausdorff that sends connected sets to connected sets and compacts to compacts is continuous
wow
under the following hypothesis on X
huh
yeah i googled and seems true
just hard
https://arxiv.org/abs/math/0204125 seems (a) relevant paper
it (well a slight variation) was a challenge problem here
though idk what happened to that channel
Hmm my first idea is take a path, it’s image is path connected and compact
And then keep shrinking
But I’m too far into my flight to think this out lol
provided that for every infinite set of points Z in X which converges to a point x \in X has a sequence of distinct points which converges to x
which is like some smallness condition which is certainly satisfied by any metric space
it's archived #challenge-problems
you can get the archived role from id:customize to view it
writing that one down, that seems interesting but hard
I had the version for R^n as an exercise once, I think the key observation was something like: if a map sends compacts to compacts show that if it is discontinuous at x, then there is a point y in Y, a sequence of points x_i which limit to x, such that f(x_i) = y but f(x) != y
then use this to get a proof by contradiction
I think I managed to find a solution, but it's quite long:
Take a convergent sequence xn -> x. If you can prove that f(xn) -> f(x), then f is continuous.
Lemma 1: ||If f(xn) doesn't converge to f(x), then xn has a subsequence yn, such that f(yn) is constant.||
||The set {x1, x2, ..., x} is compact, thus {f(x1), f(x2), ..., f(x)} is compact||
||So the sequence f(xn) has a convergent subsequence, let this sequence be f(yn). Either this sequence converges to f(x) or to f(yN) for some N.||
||If it converges to f(yN) and that's different from f(x), then {f(yn) : n>N} also converges to f(yN), so by repeating this argument there are infinitely many yns for which f(yn) = f(yN).||
||So f(yn) has a constant subsequence||
That proves lemma 1.
||Now assume f(xn) does not converge to f(x), but has a subsequence f(yn) that is constantly equal to z =/= f(x).||
||Let U be a open neighborhood of z, such that f(x) is not in the closure.||
||Consider a path r:[0, 1] -> R^m such that r(1-1/n) = yn, and r(1) = x. The image fr([1-1/n, 1]) is path connected and contains z and f(x). So it contains a path from z to f(x).||
||This path must pass through infinitely many points in U.||
||we construct a sequence wn inductively. Let w1 equal y1. Pick wn such that wn is in [1-1/n, 1), f(wn) is in U and f(wn) =/= f(wi) for i < n. This is possible because of the above remark about there being infinitely many points.||
||Now wn converges to x, and f(wn) has no constant subsequence. Hence by lemma 1, f(wn) converges to f(x). But f(wn) is contained in U, contradiction.||
||Hence it must be the case that f(yn) equaled f(x), hence f(xn) converges to f(x)||
Do you really need the hypothesis that it sends connected sets to connected sets? Is preserving compacts not enough?
Yeah
Consider any nonconstant map R --> {0, 1} with {0, 1} having the discrete topology
Huh
that is essentially how the proof proceeds as well, sending compacts to compacts insures that the only problem is that you locally look like some kind of indicator function, then sending connected to connected (and the fact that the source is locally connected) rules this out
sending compacts to compacts insures that the only problem is that you locally look like some kind of indicator function" can you elaborate please
I feel like there should be a better hypothesis
Is an injective map from, say, a Cantor set that sends compacts to compacts continuous?
See lemma 1 in the above solution, or the hint that I gave which is essentially the same
@umbral panther
Injective, and sending compacts to compacts is enough but that's a much stronger hypothesis than in the actual problem.
Perhaps a more interesting hypothesis is sending compacts to compacts with closed fibers implies continuous
the + is there for a reason
It’s a different hypothesis, not a stronger hypothesis. Is there something that subsumes both? Closed fibers doesn’t sound like it, but maybe
I meant stronger in the sense that it seems less useful, not in a technical sense of course...
I don't know of a set of hypotheses that subsumes both, the locally connected hypothesis is crucial for the problem as originally stated.
Neither sounds useful to me
and it would be a bit awkward to work in some set of hypotheses purely on the function f which somehow subsumes a property of the source
I don't know, I think the one about being continuous if and only if you send compact to compacts and have closed fibers seems like a useful criterion to me
Of the three, that sounds most useful. When I said both, I meant the original about connected sets and mine about injections
There’s also the closed graph theorem. That’s probably the central idea
I think maybe it's nicer to break it into steps: first, for any function ||f: X \to Y between two locally compact hausdorff spaces, then f is continuous if and only if f sends compacts to compacts and the fibers of f are closed. ||, this is not too hard to prove ||One direction is basic point set topology. In the other direction, if f is discontinuous and sends compacts to compacts, then there exists a point x and a sequence x_i such that x_i \to x but f(x_i) \to y \neq x by locally compactness. Wolog either the fiber over some f(x_i) is infinite or we can assume that f is a bijection on this sequence. Then {x_i} \cup {x} is compact, and there exists a neighborhood of f(x) containing no x_i. So by Hausdorffness {f(x_i)} is compact, thus it converges to f(x_n) for some n, but then the complement of x_n is also, compact, and thus so is its image, but this is a contradiction by Hausdorffness.||
||On the other hand if f is discontinuous and the fibers are closed, then x_i \to x and f(x_i) do not limit to f(x) so take a compact neighborhood K of x, without loss of generality, we assume the x_i lie in K. If f(K) is compact, then the f(x_i) have a convergent subsequence in f(K) which does not converge to f(x), but as above we see that if {f(x_i)} is compact, then this limit must be one of the f(x_i), whence the fiber over one of the f(x_i) has infinite intersection with K, which is impossible. So f cannot send compacts to compacts||
Notice that the two parts of the above proof are pretty similar and there's probably a way to condense this
It's the preimage of a point
it's a hard problem! I think it takes a lot of problem solving skill to do, I wouldn't call myself stupid if I couldn't do it
Maybe an approach that would help is to think of counterexamples if you remove any of the hypotheses: like the indicator function of the interval or the function sin(1/x) where we take sin(\infty) = 0
remove hypotheses like weaken path connectedness condition to just a connectedness condition?
No the path connectedness condition is irrelevant, just removing the connectedness condition or removing the compactness condition.
ah okay i see thanks
Is there another intuition for homeomorphisms other than "continuous transformation of an object into another object, without making new holes nor removing them" ?
I mean there is always the "isomorphism of topological spaces" notion, i.e., two spaces are homeomorphic is one is basically just a relabelling of the other
"They look the same, but you can get from one to the other continuously"
Hmmmmm, but isn't bijectivity already enough to consider one a relabeling of the other ? Why need continuity ?
*relabeling in a manner that is consistent with the structure (in this case: the open sets are also relabelled)
What exactly do you mean by "open sets are also relaballed" ?
But this notion probably doesn't give the intuition for the classic "donut = coffee mug" 
In the sense that, if f: X --> Y is a homeomorphism, then any subset U of X is open in X, if and only if f(U) is open in Y. So in otherwords, there's a bijection (the relabelling) that, when we go between the labellings (forward/inverse image), a subset is open on one side, iff it is open on the other side
That intuition doesn't help me haha. I feel like intuitions definitely need to be "closer to the real world" than the abstract definition, but there's a point where you can exagerate, which is exactly why I hate this intuition haha.
Oooooh, makes sense!
So basically that continuity in both sides is intuitively like a bijection for the open sets, right ?
Yeah! And you need both direction to be continuous, since if only one direction is continuous, there might be more open sets on one side than the other
Thanks a lot for helping me, @ebon galleon and @quiet thorn!
Hmmm, I was thinking of getting the Munkres topology book. What is wrong with it ?
It's just...
Too pedestrian
And it got waay too much pointset than you'll ever need
And set theory...
For some reason
I would never go for it when lee exists
Hmmm, but does it lack in other "subdomains" of topology ?
It's good if you want a reference ig
What is the full name of the Lee book ? The only one I found was the smooth manifolds one, which I think is more advanced topology.
Yea
It's not topology
It's differential geometry
The one I meant is called intro to topological manifolds
Okay, thanks!
Np!
hint: abelianize \pi_1
Well what is \pi_1(C), and what does it mean on \pi_1 for there to be a retract?
π_1(M'h) must also have a fundamental group isomorphic to Z
a retract just means that there is a map Z \to G \to Z
which composes to the identity
it's not a deformation retract which is stronger
M_h' is easily seen to be not homotopy equivalent to that circle, but that's not what's being asked
wouldnt it not being homotopy equivalent imply that there is no retract
no you're thinking of a deformation retract

which is a map r: X \to Z such that i: Z \to X has r \circ i = id_Z and there is a homotopy H: I \times X \to X such that H(x, 0) = x and H(x, 1) = r(x)
but a retract is just a map r: X \to Z where i: Z \to X is a closed subspace, such that r \circ i = Id_Z
for instance, everything retracts onto a point
but of course it's not true that every nonempty space is homotopy equivalent to a point
do you get it?
Retract = right invertible with right inverse i
Deformation retract = right invertible (with inverse i) and the composite ir is homotopic to identity
(to plaintext what tteg said)
injective map
right
(necessarily injective since it's composes to identity)
If gf is monic (injective) then so is f. If gf in epic (surjective) then so is g
(in particular if gf is identity then it's split monic/epic)
ok now i actually see it
a retract X -> Z is just one continuous map that brings all points in X to Z and all points in Z stay the same
while a deformation retract mandates a homotopy
For Z a subspace of X, yeah
but now the question is how does abelianizing π_1 help
what happens to that loop when you abelianize?
”If two spheres have the same dimension, there are always infinitely many maps between them. And if the space you’re mapping from is lower-dimensional than the space you’re mapping to (as in our example of the one-dimensional circle mapped onto a two-dimensional sphere), there is always only one map.”
this is a passage regarding an article which discusses about homotopies so i presume that what they meant by here is up to homotopy right? otherwise you would of course have infinitely many maps from S^1 to S^2.
ya
also i think u need to require at least continuity of the maps
is it really true that for any X and Y with dim(X) < dim(Y) the continuous maps from X to Y are all homotopic?
„Map“ implicitly refers to continuous map unless stated otherwise
Whats dim here
Your article sounds weird
Where is it from
good point
what is the dimension formally in the case of S^1 and S^2?
They’re talking about spheres
There are infinitely many homotopy classes of maps from S^1 to the torus
quanta

i see it’s not an easy task to put a dimension on an arbitary top space
No
we’re just using the ”intuitive” one with stuff embedded in R^n
that’s a bummer
If you wanna learn about this properly I suggest you pick a different source
Even for a superficial overview
This article sounds like nonsense
yeah i was just casually going over the article
I think spheres are cool
Lol they even made a reference to stable ranges
the conjecture they disproved is apparently some quite important one regarding stable homotopy theory
Spheres are very cool
It’s been believed to not be true for a while now iirc
isn’t there only two? mapping S^1 to the meridian and longitudial
You can map it twice along the median. There are also infinitely many injective maps in diagonal directions
If you’re interested in this check out fundamental groups
ah yess i was being dumb
The torus is one of the first examples
This whole article is just a game of avoiding the name homotopy groups
Has the telescope conjecture actually been disproven
I thought there was like disagreement over it lol
If I recall, that was over a method of Ravenel and others that would give a proof but be way too hard to verify. That was a while ago, and I think now people seem to agree it's disproven.
Could someone help me understand how this would look like? How does the 2-cell attached to the closed subarc look like?
Will the 2-cell kinda collapse onto the subarc?
something like this, perhaps? (mind my very professional art skills, please)
it's even worse looking than I thought
I think I might've misunderstood something.
When you map the 2-cell onto S1, don't you have to map the boundary of the 2-cell onto S1? From the drawing it looks like a lot of the boundary is separate from it?
the dots/dashes are supposed to represent it bending into 3D
Ohhh, I see
So the boundary of the 2-cell is basically glued together?
Onto the 1-cell?
where the blue line meets the red line is the boundary attachment. Think of it like passing over that arc as you go halfway around S^1, and then going backwards along the seconf half od S^1
I see. Thank you very much
is this a topological snowman
struggling with showing that a closed ball in R is an n-manifold with boundary
i know it should be trivial but agh
like i know that the topological boundary of the closed ball is locally homeo to R^n-1
and the topological interior is ofc an n manifold without boundary
but finding a homeo that like works with both is hard
Stereographic projection maybe?
I would like to tackle this problem with the regular value theorem though
sanity check: topological spaces are dense in themselves right?
Like are there any differences in the definition of the term across texts where the answer to this would differ
wikipedia at least, tells me they should be . . .
those two terms mean different things
there's the term that a set is dense in itself
but that's not the usual density
bruhhhh i hate this so much
when talking about a subset being dense in some parent space
lmaoooo
wut
It seems to be equivalent
That actually looks more intuitive than the standard definition
https://www.amazon.com/Fundamentals-General-Topology-Mathematics-Applications/dp/9027713553 has anyone had experience with this book?
it seems to be a great book for exercise on topology
book name?
In topology and related branches of mathematics, the Kuratowski closure axioms are a set of axioms that can be used to define a topological structure on a set. They are equivalent to the more commonly used open set definition. They were first formalized by Kazimierz Kuratowski, and the idea was further studied by mathematicians such as Wacław Si...
All finite spaces are closed? Definitely not equivalent
No it's not
might that depend on whether you include the fifth axiom or not?
Ah I see the propositions on the right hand page are just for Euclidean space
uh
It's a Kolmogorov space iirc
It’s equivalent to there being an open set that separates any point from any other, so it is T_1 even in the modern sense

ahh true
Hausdorff is T_2
kol, is all points are distinguishable
reject names for separation axioms except hausdorff
frechet hmm i see.
then there's T_3 (regular) and T_4 (normal)
so exists an open set that contains one, not the other
The axioms are already hard enough to remember i don't need the additional vocab
normal was T4 + T1 in our course
timo why would u need to remember 
I don't
T_4 should include T_1 by definition because otherwise bruh
Otherwise there's sierpinski as counterexample i think
it doesn't say anything about points
CGWH
many objects in functional analysis are not locally compact
most topologies on dual spaces or B(H) for example.
what is H?
a hilbert space
I said it opposite oops
a (Hausdorff but come on) TVS is locally compact iff it's finite dimensional
sset implicitly has a topology though
sorry the things I mentioned are the LC ones lol, you can put topologies on dual spaces or B(H) that make them LC
Lol sure if you want to compare to top ig
well some topologies on B(H) are LC, some are not
That’s the point tho
what kind of hellish topology would that be
weak* topology on X*, the smallest topology that makes all the evaluation functions continous
and then theres many tops on B(H)
the strongoperator is usually not LC
but the weak operator and ultraweak are, for example
I mean a lot of the natural ones
the weak* topology isn't locally compact unless X is f.d. tho
the localness is in the norm topology
the compactness in the weak-*
Hilbert spaces are self dual and not locally compact unless finite dimensional
I meant like what kind of hellish topology to make it LC
because any such topology would fail to make it a Hausdorff TVS
oh hmm ur right the unit ball doesnt need to be a neighborhood in w*-top
lol that was weeks ago 

I was trying to say that Kuratowski's definition isn't awful because that's what it amounts to lol
Yeah it's an alright definition
Drop idempotency and you have (čech) closure spaces
Not as nice for most things as the open set definition imo but 
Why define open sets when you can be an algebra for the closure monad 

it's complicated procedure where you just take the group to be commutative
i got to showing that if there indeed is a retract then theres an injective homomorphism between π_1(M'_h) and Z
now i need to show that this is impossible
Okay so
what's pi_1(C)
let's go step by step through this
uh
hint you can peel back the 2-cell of torus without a disk on it onto the 1-skeleton
yeah im working it out rn
Idk if I should give another hint but try to work it out yorself first
dont
did anyone actually answer this
if you're okay with using tools from differential topology, then there's a boundary version of the regular value theorem you might be able to use. something along the lines of stereographic projection does work, however
how do i compute the kernel of this again
why do u want a kernel
If you pull back the 2-cell on M_h' to the 1-skeleton you get a wedge sum of 2h circles
so you just have to calculate the fundamental group of that
to see this draw the fundamental polygon of the genus h torus
and punch a hole in the middle
now you can expand the hole to the edges of polygon
And you're just left with a wedge sum of circles
looks like its Z*Z then
Is this a meme opinion or valid? I learned covering spaces from Munkres and it was a blast.
it appears i am wrong
It clicked only now for me what you meant here, that is indeed very easy and neat, thanks.
it's the free group on 4 generators, <b, r, u, h>
It's the group on 2h generators but yeah
are they the same
wdym same?
what are you computing rym?
fundamental group of M'_h
oh we're doing this
yeah im still stuck
are you computing the fundamental group of M_h'?
yes
So do you see what it is if you contract the circle to a point?
a genus 2 surface?
Anyway yes it is the free group on 2h generators
I think irony's point was just that M_h' is of genus h, even though in the drawing h = 2
ah
It's easy to compute the fundamental group by viewing a surface of genus h as the quotient of a Fricke 2h-gon in the plane, and the puncture corresponds to taking a point out of the middle of the polygon
and then π_1(M_h')*π_1(D^2)/N is isomorphic to the fundamental group of the genus 2 surface
so it IS just the free group on 4 generators
yes all though justifying that argument is harder than what I suggested
proving something like G/N = H/N iff G = H is not going to be easy lol
what
i thought we could get a genus 2 surface by just stitching D^2 on the hole on M_h'
oh my god i didnt need to do that
Just checking: AxB is homeo to BxA with the product topology
I think you just define f: AxB -> BxA where f((a, b)) = (b, a)
yes; this generalizes to any categorical product!
yeaa
But that map works
Ok, I'll bite: what's a categorical product?
Oh no
There's a general notion of a "product" of two (or really, of any set's worth) objects in any category. Not all categories have all products (or even just binary ones), but most of our usual categories do. But whenever we do have a product, it's unique up to isomorphism, and is isomorphic to any swapping of the components
(in whatever notion "isomorphism" means in that category, Here it's just homeomorphism)
why are you "oh no"ing me, I don't think that was too long of an explanation 
Heh, yea, that was a good explanation. Thanks!
skipping of course the details but that's the idea!
okay so say you have R^|N| with the box topology
and say you have the subset A of all strictly positive sequences
how do you show that there is no sequence of sequences in A converging to the zero sequence
any hints on how to apply stereographic projection here? the issue i have is the interior open ball
Use a diagonal argument
sorry youre talking abt the sequences one right
oh do you take the nth term of the nth sequence and then construct a product of neighborhoods (-1, eps) each less than that term? or smth like that
back to this lol
Invert at a point on the surface
sorry, what does that mean? i suppose i need to review that section
thanks
here is the hint from lee's book since i am too lazy to explain rn
yea i didnt understand that like at all
the projection there doesnt make any sense to me
i mean π
π is like (x, y, z) -> (x, z) or (x, y, z) -> (y, z)
sure i understand what it means but why is it there
not (x, y, z) -> (x, y) because that's omitting the last coordinate
seems very random
so like σ^-1 is pulling the plane back to a sphere, and then pi is projecting it it back into the plane?
in the case of the sphere ofc
i dont understand how that helps
oh wait, will using pi 'flatten' it into B^n?
closed ball i mean
did you try writing the map down
okay makes some sort of sense time to make it rigorous i suppose
so the idea is effectively to do this in reverse
agh i cant get my head around this
Invert your head at an appropriate point
i think ill just skip this problem
Would tian and zhou fang li er could stretch infinity into tian, zhou, and dong xi san fang li san
what
I take eastern mathematics and translating it would sound weird since Chinese grammar is different from the west
yeah and you're in an english language server
I find no Asian server
Ight I gonna try
Hey, could someone help me understand what is meant by this problem? What is an "explicit deformation retraction"? I can't imagine how an explicit expression for this deformation would look like. Am I missing something?
Also, is it normal to find the preliminary chapter of Hatcher very difficult? I had a hard time going through the material and now that I've come to the problems, they seems very difficult too - I have had both a course in topology and abstract algebra, so by the prerequisites that Hatcher states, I should be set, but it still feels abnormally difficult
use the square identification of the torus and try to find it
(straight lines should work)
Hatcher's chapter 0 is really an appendix

Oh... so does it get better?
chapter 0 is not particularly well written and the problems are pretty tedious, from my experience
i remember having a similar trouble and then found chapters 1 and 2 a lot more accessible
To solve this I took the functions f_a : X to [0,1] for each a in A , whr f(a)=0 & f(B)=1. Union of f_a^-1([0,1\2)) is a cover of A, since A is compact, it will have a finite subcover. I’m not sure how to proceed next
Consider the proof that a compact set and a disjoint closed set are separated by open sets in a T3 space
So your finite subcover gives you functions f1, f2, ..., fn.
What can you say about the function
f(x) = min fi(x) ?
That it is continuous, it goes to [0,1/2) for a in A & 1 for B
I think if we another function that goes to 0 for [0,1/2) & 1 for 1 ....and take composition, it gives the required result right ?
Indeed
I still have some doubt,
f(x) = [0,1/2) for a in A
1 for B
I take another function
phi = 0 in [0,1/2)
1 in B
So phi is not continuous, g = phi • f , is it continuous?
I'm trying to think a function like that
So maybe start by finding a function [0,1] -> [0,1] that maps [0,1/2) to 0, first
then worrying about mapping 1 to 1 later
This function works I think, phi(t) = max {0,2t-1}
how bad of an idea is it to study topology alongside real analysis 1? Like my school states in syllabus that the prerequisite for topology is 'calculus 1~3'but I know that most school have analysis as prerequisite too
@gaunt laurel just skip it lol
that's what I did

or maybe just read the first 3 subsections
without exercises
?
Yes.
i can get the fundamental group for a genus 2 surface but yeah
the hole is kicking my ass
Idk how legible this is but
i feel like the hole should make the fundamental group larger than <a,b,c,d | aba^-1b^-1cdc^-1d^-1=1>
how did it get smaller
@red yoke
oh wait its <abcd | > -> Z taking aba^-1b^-1cdc^-1d^-1 to 1
Cuz if you put a hole in the octagon-with-glued-edges-construction
You can stretch the hole towards the perimeter
yeah but doesnt this compute a genus 2 surface
and not a genus 2 surface with a hole
^
You end up with just the perimeter remaining
So that's wedge of 4 circles

i feel like i am misunderstanding van kampen theorem
OH
THIS IS JUST THE WEDGE OF 4 CIRCLES
so it IS just the free group on 4 generators
filling the hole in gives us the fundamental group of the genus 2 surface instead which is the free group on 4 generators taking aba^-1b^-1cdc^-1d^-1 to 1
how did i not see this
Anyways the cool method is
yeah i see why the fundamental group is just the free group on 4 generators now
it makes a lot of sense, i was thinking the fundamental group of M'h was the genus 2 surface all along
ok now that i have π_1(M'_h)
how should i prove that i_* is not injective
Abelianization has a universal property
You can prove this map does not exist
Hallo! I've been looking for an example myself for a while, and I couldn't find any...
So: does anyone know of a pair of knots K1 and K2 which have the same minimal number of crossings, which are prime, both tricolorable, but can be distinguished by counting the number of distinct tricolorings?
Any example I found had 6 tricolorings (i.e. two degrees of freedom). I tried up to 10 crossings (I didn't try them all cuz I did all my testing by hand)...
To compute the number of tricolorings, I computed the crossing matrix, then the nullity n over Z/3 gives 3^n-3 colorings
Ask the teacher. It depends on what the class is really like. The teacher knows more about the class than we do. More than the person who wrote the list of prerequisites ten years ago. At the very least, we need to know the textbook
It's doable but it could be tricky depending how it's taught. You could probably teach topology with minimal requirements from analysis, but a lot of the definitions (like what a topology is, continuous functions, compactness, etc) are motivated from concepts in analysis. But I wouldn't call analysis a hard prerequisite for intro topology, in the same way lower analysis courses are very important for understanding upper level ones
i guess this is the way. we mainly use class notes, but the lecturer listed 'elementary topology problem textbook' by oleg viro as a recommended book
I feel like I came up with a dumb unintended proof of a fact oops
The fact: If F_n is finitely generated on n generators, N normal finitely generated on m generators then [F_n : N] is finite.
My wacky proof: ||Take X_N to cover X, bouquet of n circles, with pi1(X_N) = N. Let T be a spanning tree of X_N. We know X_N \ T has finitely many edges. Fix x in X_N a preimage of the singular point. Label edges in X_N\T as b1,...,bm
Given any other y in X_N, this determines a deck map f : X_N -> X_N taking x to y (since N is normal). If there is some edge bi in X_N \ T which is taken to an edge bj in X_N \ T, then f is determined by (i,j) because f(start of bi) is (start of bj).
Thus if we work for a contradiction we must have f(edges X_N \ T) = T. But then f is a bijection so yay?||
feels weird
This is an example of the power of “geometric group theory”
Well yes I’m fine with that part
The method at the end just feels stupid though lol
||like needing to drop into a contradiction there is weird||
There is a very powerful theorem that has a similar method of proof, if you want to try as an exercise. Namely every subgroup of a free product G = X*Y is a free product of a free group F, a set of conjugates of subgroups of X, and a set of conjugates of subgroups of Y
Normality doesn't really make an appearance there though
This is more like Nielsen-Schreier with gusto
Oh no I forgot to include the same words
I'd formulate it as, if a maximal tree misses a particular edge at a particular vertex then it has to miss a translated edge at a translated vertex
Which means it misses infinitely many edges... Bunk because the cover is finite sheeted
?
What I mean is this finitely generated normal implies finite index is less straightforward of a covering space argument than Kurosh subgroup
On the contrary, here's a truly GGT proof: Finitely generated subgroups of a free group are quasi-convex, because Cayley graphs of free groups are dumb: unique geodesic between any pair of points.
You don’t know the cover is finite sheeted
If H < G is a quasiconvex infinite index subgroup of a hyperbolic group, the Gromov boundary del H is a strict subset of del G. But if H is normal this is bunk
The # of sheets is exactly the index! Which is what we’re trying to prove is finite!
Oh I meant if the max tree misses infinitely many edges then the total space cannot have finitely generated fundamental group
Ah yes
@obtuse meteor I claim that every finitely generated subgroup H of the free group F is a virtual free factor ie there is a finite index subgroup G of F such that G = H * A. This would prove your result as a corollary, as A cannot possibly be nontrivial if H is normal (conjugate H by a non identity element of A)
To see this, let X be the bouquet of n circles (n = rk F) and Y -> X be the cover corresponding to H. Y has finitely generated fundamental group implies Y admits a compact core ie a compact subgraph C of Y st inclusion C -> Y is an isomorphism in pi_1.
Restrict the cover Y -> X (possibly non finite sheeted) to f : C -> X. The key idea (due to Stallings) is to complete f to a finite sheeted covering g : Z -> X s.t. C sits inside Z as an embedded subgraph.
To do this, color and orient the petals of the bouquet by n colors. The simplicial map f : C -> X associates to each edge of C a color and an orientation so that for every vertex of C, each color (from 1 to n) enters at most once and exits at most once.
f would have been a covering space already iff at every vertex, every color entered and exited exactly once. But we don't have that.
For every color k, e(k) be the number of edges of color k. Let v be the total number of vertices of C. If each color entered and exited exactly once we'd have v = e(k). But we don't, which means there's an enter deficit of v - e(k) vertices and an exit deficit of v - e(k) vertices.
Choose an arbitrary bijection between the enter deficit vertices and the exit deficit vertices and add in v - e(k) edges of color k according to the orientation and endpoints provided by the bijection.
Do it for every k. The end product is Z, together with the finite sheeted (coz finitely many edges) covering map Z -> X and Z contains C
qed
Off-topic, but heres a cool corollary. Free groups are residually finite. Proof: Recall this means for any finite subset S of F, there exists a homomorphism F -> P to a finite group P which does not kill any of the words in X. Consider S as a subset of the universal cover of the bouquet of n circles by treating each word as a ray from origin. Let C be the subgraph given by union of these rays. By the proof technique above, we may complete the restriction of the universal cover C -> X to a finite sheeted cover Z -> X. Let G be the finite index subgroup corresponding to this cover. As every element of S lifts to paths in Z (C is embedded in Z), none of the elements of S get killed under the quotient map F -> F/G = P.
In fact this is a topological way of thinking about residual finiteness. Fundamental group of a manifold is RF iff every compact subset of the universal cover can be embedded in some finite index cover.
(Algebraically, RF means that the trivial subgroup is closed in the profinite topology)
The argument above says something a lot more than RF for free groups, the precise notion is “locally extended residually finite” or LERF which means finitely generated subgroups are closed in the profinite topology.
Heres the paper I learnt this stuff from: http://faculty.bicmr.pku.edu.cn/~wyang/geom/exercises/Scott.pdf
This paper shows that surface groups and Seifert fibered 3-manifold groups are LERF. For a long time it was unknown if hyperbolic 3-manifold groups are LERF, settled only very recently by Agol-Wise as a corollary of virtual Haken conjecture
can somebody explain to me how x not being in F implies the existence of these balls? or rather how the construction would go about
"let F = F bar"
didn't know we just let shit be like that rather than assuming
wdym
oh yea i guess there's a subtle difference
uhh okay
so you have this point x, and x_i, right? And they are clearly distinct
So they have nonzero distance
chop this distance by some amount, and take an open ball around x
But we specifically chose a neighborhood, let's call it U, so that those x_i are the only points in U \cap F. So I guess the O_i should be U \cap (the ball based on x_i)
ohh yea that makes sense
why exactly does this follow? is it because G_1 is the union of all the balls around each point in G_1 and we can just take that to be a ball of the maxium radius of the balls or some shit
I think you could read it as "let F be a subset equal to its own closure"
but yes I would rather say "suppose/assume F = F-bar"
well i guess this makes intuitive sense
oh wait
nvm
yeah
if i wanted to show that every closed set in X1 has the form F1 = X1 \cap p F where F is closed in X what would be a candidate for F?
Yeah, if G_1 is open in X_1, it can be written as the union of open balls in X_1. Each of those open balls is the intersection of X_1 with the corresponding open ball in X. So then G_1 is the intersection of X_1 with the union of all those open balls in X
yea that's what i got, thank u
In equation form,
$$ \bigcup_{x \in G_1} \left( X_1 \cap B_{r_x}(x) \right) = X_1 \cap \bigcup_{x \in G_1} B_{r_x}(x) .$$
T STeppa
ah damn demorgan
distributivity-ish
okeyokay
apparently armstrong does
well i guess it's representative of euclidean space
so fair
LHS says you're in X_1 and at least one ball. RHS says the same thing.
T STeppa
No more
am i trippin or how is this a well-defined topology on the set of all real numbers? i can't think of a subset of the reals that has the property that its complement is either finite or all of the real numbers, or do they mean the set of real numbers satisfying that given topology
ur a big stepper?
Consider: R \ {0}
nvm it's not the latter lol
well, the first thing to check is, does your topology contain the empty set and R?
ohhhh yea forgot about those....
let's see, the compliment of R is the irrationals which is not all of the real numbers or finite
so i'm confused about that
🤔
GG
wrong totally ordered field
wait wut
so then it has to be a complex number then wait bruh i'm lost
if it's not a real number
like
ai
no real part
ykwim
when we say complement, we mean complement in R
ohhhhh
so for example the complement of (0, inf) in R is (-inf, 0]
okay that makes a lot more sense then
complement depends on context too
yea i guess it depends on the ambient space then
so this implies that the empty set is finite?
ya
yeah
huh interesting
is that just convention or
well i guess there's nothing in there
so it's finite lol
NOT INFINITE --> FINITE
🤯
(if you know the definition of topology based on closed sets, this is easier to prove that this is a topology using that)
if it's infinite then there's a bijection with a proper subset but there are no proper subsets of the empty set 
since this is equivalently stated as "the closed sets are precisely the finite ones and the entire space (R)"
cursed
it's natural to give the emptyset cardinality 0 no?
yeah
checks out with usual set arithmetic
which is why 0 should be a natural number 😎
there's a better definition of cardinals using ordinals and I'd like to say that that definition says it has cardinality 0
okay so when they say that every point of X is a limit point of A, they imply that if you have x in X, then every neighborhood about x contains a point in A. but then we can choose epsilon small enough for some x such that (x - \epsilon, x + \epsilon) does not contain an integer right? or rather there exists some x such that this is true? or am i mixing up open sets in the analysis definition vs the open sets defined via this topology
yeah of course
this is also why it's natural to have 0^0=1
as in cardinal arithmetic, right
yup
b^a is the number of maps from a set of cardinality a to a set of cardinality b
mhm
the most depressing map of all time
imagine a map (as a set) being equal to its domain and range
like wyd even atp
it's time to hang it up
you are mixing up the open sets
yea knew it
1^1 = 1 moment
is this alright to show that a finite subset of X has no limit points under the finite-complement topology? this was my rough idea: so suppose that p was a limit point of some finite subset of X, call it E. then there exists a neighborhood, call it W that contains some element of E. by definition W contains an open set. but the complement of this open set is not finite nor all of the real numbers, so p is not a limit point. I'm not really sure about this rough sketch of a proof because a) i didn't use the fact that every neighborhood about p has a nonempty intersection with E and b) i didn't use the finiteness of E
also i'm confused; here it seems as if they're talking about the non-topological definition of an open set? that it's a neighborhood about each of its points?
no, who knows wtf munkres is doing on page 29. certainly not topology yet
oh true
"call a subset O of X open if it is a neighborhood about each of its points" comes first, then "given a point x of X, we shall call a subset N of x a neighborhood of x if we can find an open set O such that x \in O \subseteq N" comes second
wait nvm
i'm trippin
they covered topological spaces before this chapter
they are equivalent
so i'm assuming all neighborhoods henceforth are defined in terms of topological things
wait really
i thought they were only equivalent for a metric space
there's an open set definition for topology, and a neighborhood definition for topology
This is how you go between them
you can define it all in terms of open sets, or in terms of neighborhoods, but for most things open sets is pereferable
wait yea because he defines open sets in terms of neighborhoods then neighborhoods in terms of open sets
i kind of see?
but if a set N is open in a topology, then it is a neighborhood of each of it's points with that definition, by taking O = N. Conversely, if a set N is a neighborhood of each of it's points, we may find a set O_x for each x in N, suhc that x \in O_x \subseteq N. Then N = (union of all O_x)
"that contains some element of E other than p"
anyways
I suggest you don't argue by contradiction and instead directly
show that for every finite set E and point p you can find a neighborhood of p disjoint from E \ {p}
hmm ok
ok i'll try that
thank u guys
(standard trick btw: writing an open set U as a union of open sets O_x subset U, for each x in U. Keep this trick in mind)
I was with you until "p is not a limit point"
yea lol, i figured might as well use the contradiction wisely (ie just assume that it completes the proof) lmfao
oh ye
i've like used it twice
and im like hmmm this is useful
Wait wait, 1^1 = {∅}^{∅} = {{(∅, ∅)}} = {{{∅, {∅}}}} = {{2}}, no (using the kuratowski convention of ordered pairs).

By definition compactness is a property of the topology on a space X and a subspace is called compact if it is compact in the subspace topology. Is it then so that if A\subset B\subset X and A is compact in B, then A is compact in X (since the subspace topology on A wrt to B is the same as that of A wrt X)?
Well check: taking the subspace topology on B (under X) and then on A (under B) is the same as just taking the subspace topology on A (under X)
Oh wait you said that lol
Then yes
Why the name "homology"
Hello, I want to learn what is the Steenrod Algebra and what is an instable module over the Steenrod Algebra. Does someone has a good reference for this ? If possible a book that I could use as principal reference for this. Thank you.
Check out Moshtangs "Cohomology operations and applications in homotopy theory"
Consider any two arbitrary planar graphs G1 and G2. We add an edge (v1,v2) between some v1 in G1 and some v2 in G2, connecting the two graphs. Is the resulting graph still planar, no matter which planar graphs and vertices we choose -- would the following high level proof of this work: embed G1 and G2 on two separate spheres, cut a hole in the space next to the vertices v1 in G1 and v2 in G2, then connect the two spheres with a cylinder and thread an edge through the cylinder connecting v1 in G2 to v2 in G2?

does my proof look k?
i was not aware that planar and embeddable into sphere were the same huh. intuitively it seems like it could work, but the exact details seems a bit icky compared to just directly showing it?
this is unironically a super cool problem
How is this proof @ebon galleon
Let P, P' be planar graphs.
By theorem, embed them into spheres S, S'
Consider node n \in P, n' \in P'
Choose some region R of S and R' of S' such that n and n' are respectively on the boundaries of R and R'
Choose disks D, D', with circle boundaries B, B', embedded respectively in R, R' and erase
Let C be a cylinder whose boundary circles are B, B' and attach it to S\R and S'\R'
The new space is also a sphere!
Choose distinguished points x,x' on B,B'
Let Q be a path made by composing the following paths:
q : n -> x
e : x -> x'
q' : x' -> n'
Now let the graph G be constituted by connecting P and P' via edge Q is a graph on the sphere constituted by connected S and S' via cylindrical tube C.
By theorem, G is a planar graph.
i can see why part a is true
Ideally R and R' have no edges or vertices in them ofc :p
but uhh okay that sounds good. I'm maybe not the most qualified to speak on the exact details here but I follow the argument. Might also be worth explicitly mentioning: since R and R' should be chosen with no edges or vertices in them and wlog can be chosen as path-connected, you can ensure this path Q does not intersect anything in P or P'
Thanks!
when calculating H_1 of the torus say, can you construct a graph and then calculate the homology of the graph?
and can you do this in general?
what are the rules the graph must satisfy then
I'm not sure what you mean here
what homology are you computing
H_1
I think simplicial
can you send a picture where you're getting the problem from
otherwise this might go nowhere
You can’t calculate the homology of a general space as the homology of a graph because the homology of a graph is torsion free, whereas a general space can have torsion. If the space is a simplicial complex, you can take the 2-skeleton, which is not a graph, but is the next best thing
also note that homology is homotopy invariant and graphs are wedges of circles up to homotopy
so taking homology of graphs can't really get you very far
Lol
not sure how to word 18a
@grave solstice you need a triangulation of the torus to compute simplicial homology
which you can get from a triangulation of S^1
oh wait a minute i can just van kampen this

and then its basically just a wedge sum of countably infintie circles
@hidden crag btw don't the different homologies agree in the end, whenever they are applicable?
idk
This is nice because some have properties that makes computations easier and some have nicer theoretical properties
In a Hausdorff space, why is a point having a local base of relatively compact neighbourhoods equivalent to it having a local base of compact neighbourhoods? If N is an arbitrary neighbourhood and it contains a relatively compact neighbourhood U, how do I turn that into a compact neighbourhood contained in N?
Ok, thank you. I will take a look.
oh no
is it as easy as taking the closure?
Yeah but the closure of U is not guaranteed to be in N, N is not assumed closed.
go ahead, compute its fundamental group
i just need to show the reduced suspension is homotopic to hawaiian rings









