#point-set-topology
1 messages · Page 53 of 1
I dunno ig I just feel like that's cheating
coz you can't exactly do the same for other spaces embeded in high dimensional euclidean spaces
This is not really true as stated imo
Just because removing one point makes it homeo R3 doesn’t mean it looks about the same „except at one point“
Maybe I’m too pedantic about the phrasing here
S^n is the one point compactification of R^n in general is it?
I dont see whats wrong with viewing it as that then
cheating 
I just want an intuition about what S^3 looks like
I was uncomfortable with that intuition to begin with 
there's the hopf fibration, you could look into that
if you can view higher dimensional objects as some product of lower ones, thats always great
idk if u can for Sn
sure but that doesn't retain the topological datum of S^3

isn't that too advanced?
hmm, prolly not right
it's just higher homotopy theory stuff so chapter 4
not really, you can write it explicitly and for the "fibration" bit you can just rephrase that in more elementary terms
no homotopy memes required
the construction works only for some S^n though
ooo
particularly n=3
would explain further but I just woke up 
many probably
the wiki article is a decent intro even
I think of S^3 just as everything around me aka R^3 and ignore the point at infinity until necessary
that's what I said!
Why is this unsatisfactory?
I dunno I think I want a more geometric intuition
coz that completely ignores the geometry of S^3
I know that's what topologists do but like
¯_(ツ)_/¯
It's unclear to me what you want
The best visualization for a high dimensional object depends on what your end goal is
Because you'll not be able to see all of it at once unlike orientable surfaces living in 3D
Typically we have 10 different ways to visualise something and switch POV depending on what we want to focus on
Why do you want to visualise S^3
I'm just very uncomfortable visualizing it
coz this still doesn't make sense to me intuitively ig
I do in paper but like

Take R^3, this is where you live. Take a donut inside it.
The edible kind will suffice
Throw away the donut ie look at the complement of the donut
What does this space look like? Can you imagine a "pillar" which goes through the donut hole?
DarQ
Yep
oh wait the piller looks like a torus too no?
coz of the one point compactification of \bR^3
Yep!
The pillar goes through the removed donut hole and the top and bottom melts with everything in the exterior
The following might help: Take a ball inscribing the donut. The complement of the donut = (complement of the ball) U (pillar)
Pillar is inside the ball
See if you can see that
The following observation might also help: if you take a donut or a solid torus S^1 x D^2 and attach a pillar D^2 x I to the donut hole like a "plug", you get a ball.
wait wait wait back to this
if u assume this, how do you know ur on a ball, not a donut
ig thats all to do with paying attention what happens at infinity 
for this I'd say
think of it as the boundary of the 4-cube [0,1]^4=[0,1]^2×[0,1]^2
like that's essentially what he's doing
Heres some pictures
The final picture here, at the bottom right, is actually a solid torus with a point removed
The removed point is at infinity
What you’re seeing is a stereoprojection of a solid torus in the sphere, and since it contains infinity, the stereoprojection makes the bulk of it bloat out and cover most of your visible space (exterior of the ball)
Just like cartographic projection of the globe makes Antarctica bloat up and seem larger than everything else
The donut with a point deleted looks fundamentally different from R^3, if that is what youre asking. See above. The plug is an extra handle.
The handle is small compared to most of the bulk because stereoprojection does dumb things but its still there
Yes
without visiting the point at infinity, you dont know if ur on a donut or not?
You do
🤨
You’ll see a donut with a point deleted
It would
😵💫 uhh
Just see the above pictures
ok lets stick to S2 R2
Im saying if you decided to glue you paper into a torus
without reaching the edges of the paper, you surely wont know if ur on a torus?
or could u
Deleting a point doesnt mean the entire perimeter of the square is inaccessible
But im not deleting a point from the torus
It just means, say, the vertices are inaccessible
But youre deleting a point from S^2 to get to R^2
it's like a magnetic field
im taking our perspective as we are imagining ourselves in R2
Why would you delete more than a point to see the torus then
No no...
In R^2 the discussion is moot because theres no analogue of the solid torus decomposition of S^3 in S^2
Yup
like, if you think of S^3 as [0, 1]^3 quotiented by its boundary
the piller should be attached to itself like this sortta
except that point that's deaad in the middle
The central circle of the other solid torus is actually the line going through the center of the circular magnet
In R^3 it is a line, but in S^3 it is a circle
This says btw that the central circles of the two solid torii link once like a Hopf link
Like the LHS
If you started thickening the two circles in the Hopf link on the left radially outwards, you'd get two solid torii inflatable balloons with ever increasing radii
In the limit they'll abut each other's boundaries
That's when you've written S^3 as union of two solid torii
Ok so like. My point was:
- To visualize S3, you can just imagine yourself to be on R3 until you need to worry about the point at infinity
Now until you worry about the point at infinity, I was arguing you surely can't tell the difference between this being S3 or S1xS1xS1
You can
How.
S^3 \ pt is distinct from S^1 x S^1 x S^1 \ pt. These spaces have different fundamental group
First is 0, second is Z^3
But I'm not comparing this at all to S1xS1xS1 - {0}
So what are you comparing?
I'm saying R3 looks like S1xS1xS1 - S1vS1vS1 (if im not mistaken)
ok idk what it is - but it certainly isnt 1 point.
You have to throw away three 2-torii.
Sure, any two n-dimensional manifolds will look the same if you throw away sufficiently many things from both
But well my overall point was - until you hit the point at infinity, this visualisation is indistinguishable from a lot of 3manifolds
and so - does it really help?
Well, yes. Because you remember you threw away a point.
And not anything larger
There is a unique 3-manifold obtained from R^3 by attaching a point at infinity. That is the whole point. No pun intended.
Id argue its the other way round. Youre viewing yourself In R3, and then deciding what happens at infinity. Add a point to get S3.
Do something else to get something else
Your perspective is in R3
(because thats how youre 'visualising' this space)
Alenxandroff compactification or smth, right?
My point is for this particular problem of DraQ, you don't need to care about what happens at the point at infinity
In which case, I feel like his problem doesnt even care this is S3!
It could be R3
some other 3-fold, etc.
R^3 is union of a solid torus and a solid torus minus a point.
No, not some other 3-fold
Just R^3
It's a matter of what is important for the given problem. You focus your attention on the essential features of the space depending on what you want to prove about the space
There is a "functorial" way of translating things in R^3 to things in S^3 because the one-point compactification is so canonical. Not all things about a general 3-fold can be deduced from visualising a chart inside it
I found this paper on the hopf fibration but I'm not sure if I'm its target audience
should I look for something that's presented in a more standard way?
particularly because I meet most of those prereqs to a reasonable degree
except perhaps vector calculus lol
Can check ‘nonlinear systems’ by khalil
Oh I read Hopf bifurcation, not fibration. Don’t mind me
Тор Клиффорда — это простейшее и наиболее симметричное вложение в евклидово пространство прямого произведения двух окружностей.
Wikipedia: https://ru.wikipedia.org/wiki/Тор_Клиффорда
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Guess it depends on what you want out of learning about the Hopf fibration.
From an abstract algebra perspective the hopf fibration is a transitive group action of SU(2) on the sphere with isotropy group U(1). From a topological point of view it's a circle bundle on S^2 with total space S^3 , or more generally a circle bundle on CP^n with total space S^2n+1.
More intuitively the hopf fibration is a way to cut S^3 into disjoint unit circles, that link together like toruses.
It can't hurt to have many different perspectives.
I don't really know which perspective I want to know, I've just heard the term thrown around a few times and I'm curious what it means
so prolly nothing to through
a good expository paper would do if anyone knows one
maybe something like https://math.uchicago.edu/~may/REU2020/REUPapers/Lin,Chenjia.pdf ?
ooooo
yea I'll check this out
This one explains the visualization
https://youtu.be/-lZTnEgbVvI
@broken nacelle Symbolically, the Hopf fibration is very easy to write down. Consider S^3 in C^2 as the unit sphere |z|^2 + |w|^2 = 1 and S^2 as the Riemann sphere (complex numbers together with infinity). The map S^3 -> S^2 is (z, w) -> z/w
Think about the fibers etc to understand the full picture
For instance what are the preimages of the meridians in S^2?
hey, I'm reading Hatchers notes on K-theory and I'm struggling a bit with something regarding clutching functions. Apparently I'm not alone because I found my exact question on stackexchange without answer: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/859302/filling-the-details-of-a-construction-via-clutching-function-of-a-vector-bundle
anyone here able to enlighten me?
I should prolly ask this in #diff-geo-diff-top lol
Not 100% certain and havent thought about this deeply but this looks like the following: Take E -> X and H^n -> S^2. Pullback H^n by X x S^2 -> S^2 and call that L, this is a line bundle over X x S^2. Then pullback E along L -> X x S^2 -> X. This defines a bundle over L, hence over X x S^2.
This bundle seems to be [E, z^n] over X x S^2.
I also have not thought about this deeply
but intuitively for n = 1 this clutching should look like fixing the 0 section still and then rotating the fiber as you wind around it which should introduce a twist corresponding to tensoring with H
And then taking higher n should rotate multiple times so twist multiple times
Right
In general E o F for two bundles over the same base can be described as E pulled back over F, yes?
We get a tensor product of the transition matrices
What's this circ notation
Tensor, sorry
Cool, everything checks out then.
Just a sanity check: If $i : X \to Y$ is a relative cell complex (i.e., $i$ is a transfinite composite of pushouts of coproducts of disk inclusions, $i_n : S^n \to D^n$, but $X$ needs not be empty), then $Y-X$ is Hausdorff with the subspace topology, right? I know that the quotient $Y/X$ is a cell complex, so it should follow from this, since the subspace topologies of $Y-X$ and $Y/X - [X]$ should agree in this case?
Ryx Egg (?!?)
Yeah that's what I meant, my bad. Thanks! 
does a metric space have a contraction mapping if and only if it is simply connected
constant map to a given point
Contraction mappings needn't be actual contractions of the space in the sense of algebraic topology
Not sure where you got simple connectedness from (could be simply connected but not contractible)
what were you guys discussing?
I was reading Beyond Topology and stopped at this proposition:
I don't see how that is immediate. Suppose J = {1} and I = {1, 2}. I don't see how f_1 being initial implies that f_2 is initial.
I suspect there's a typo: they meant J > I, not J < I.
yeah that seems fishy as written, I would assume they switched it? Not hugely familiar with the exact details tho
It's amazing how an obvious typo like this makes it through.
I think I was accidentally only considering homotopies as examples in my head
if you have a contracting flow then I would believe you're contractible
a contracting flow being a map phi_t such that phi_t(x), phi_t(y) are closer together than x,y. And then phi_t . phi_s = phi_{t+s}
this formalizes the picture I imagine you have in your head
That sounds wrong. Take the Reeb foliation on an annulus
There might be some long line weirdness
ooo fun
a counterexample to this has to be fun tho :)
Just check though, I said the first thing that came to mind
Yeah I mean. I also think a counterexample would have to be non-compact or else my intuition is utterly broken
I feel you can have a limit cycle and get closer and closer without contracting to a point
if you're semi-locally contractible and compact then that's enough for me to have a proof
Maybe?
limit cycle?
Suppose all the forward limit sets of the flowlines is a single circle
hm no. Bc phi_1 has a unique fixed point under iteration and everything gets dragged to it
Yes, you're right. You can end up at two diametrically opposite points in the limit cycle after sufficient iteration
this isn't as strict as I wanted to say. There's some 0 < q_t < 1 dependent on t so that the distance phi_t(x), phi_t(y) is at most q_t * d(x,y)
Two would mean non-unique though :((
Here's the proof in this case right. Let p be the unique fixed point of phi_1 (compactness + contraction mapping theorem). Then let U be a semi-locally contractible neighborhood of p. Given any x, define t_x so that phi_{t_x}(x) lies in U.
t_x should depend continuously on x. Then (s,x) -> phi_{s * t_x}(x) should homotope you into U, then contract from U
Usually you assume complete when talking about contraction (weaker than compact)
sure
I think we only need complete here
I thought maybe I would wanna max out t_x based on a compactness argument but that's actually unnecessary
(notably complete would still rule out a Reeb foliation on an open annulus)
Can a homotopy change the domain of a function? \phi here is undefined at t=1, because it maps (x,s) onto (x,0), no?
The next line tells you what phi_1 is anyway
So homotopies are able to change domains?
no it's just the proof is written badly
it should be phi_t(x,s) = (x,(1-t)s) for 0 <= t < 1 and phi_t(infty) = infty and phi_1(x,s) = infty
oh ok, thank you sm
I mean this wouldn't fit with the definition
Yeah that’s why I was confused
Is "knot theory" just the word we use to describe the topological study of simple closed curves?
I like to sit in on the seminars from my school's geometry and topology group, and it was odd to me how often knots came up.
A few times now I've seen speakers talk about manifolds with knots as their boundaries. It seems to me that knot theorists care about knots as knots, and everybody else uses them as closed curves.
Knot usually means a simple closed curve in 3d, up to an appropriate notion of moving it around. Sometimes people call any kind of embedding a knot, but codimension 2 is really special. For example, Zeeman’s unknotting theorem says that a sphere embedded in another sphere in codimension at least 3 is PL isotopic to the standard embedding. This is an exotic use of “knot” but it is proving that there’s nothing there. It’s fairly common to include embedding S^2 in S^4 as part of knot theory, though.
one reason they come up very often is that 3-dimensional manifolds can be constructed from knots via a process called surgery: you take a knot in the three sphere (regarded as the 1 point compactification of R^3), you take a small tube running around that knot to obtain a solid torus in S^3, you cut the tube out, and then you glue the tube back in along some (non trivial, if you want something interesting) diffeomorphism of its boundary, which is the usual torus.
There is a theorem that says that by choosing various knots and various diffeomorphisms of the torus you can actually obtain every nice (read: closed orientable connected, if that means anything to you) 3 manifold this way
so you can often reformulate certain questions about 3 manifolds as questions about knots and torus automorphisms, which is sometimes easier since knot theory is generally fairly combinatorial and explicit
I hope that is adequate justification for why topologists in general care about the study of knots as simple closed curves in R^3 (or S^3)
Definitely, that's a cool theorem! There are a lot of low-dimensional topology people at my school, so it makes sense now why knots keep appearing.
Heh, that is exotic. Is it purely due to their codimension that these objects are treated as knots? Can they be studied similarly to knots?
If you define n-knots as S^n embedded in S^n+2, there is a map from n-knots to n+1 knots. So they are directly connected. There equivalence relation on 1-knots of becoming the same as 2-knots is popular. In particular, I think a knot that becomes trivial as a 2-knot is called slice
Codimension is essential. Codimension 2 means that the the complement of the submanifold has a different fundamental group than the total space. (Same for codimension 1, but simpler)
there is a map from n-knots to n+1 knots
What does this mean?
It’s a specific construction called spinning
a knot that becomes trivial as a 2-knot is called slice
Hadn't thought about it this way :o
I’m not sure I’ve got that right
here is an example of a fun open problem related to this: an automorphism of the torus can be specified by taking a longitudinal curve about it and a meridian about it (one around each factor of S^1), and gluing the torus to itself in such a way that the longitudinal curve wraps around a times and the meridian wraps around b times. the ratio b/a, called the slope, is enough to specify the resulting 3 manifold you will get when you do surgery on a knot K. So a surgery can be denoted S_r(K), where K is a knot in S^3, and r is the slope.
cosmetic surgery is the following conjecture: if S_r1(K) is homeomorphic, as an oriented manifold, to S_r2(K), where K is a non trivial knot in S^3, then r1 = r2.
This is, if true, a pretty nice thing to know, because it means that if we produce 3-manifolds via surgery (which is a very concrete way to produce them) we can be sure that they are different if we are getting them via different surgeries on the same knot
the current status of this problem is that we have reduced to the case where r1 and r2 are 1/n and -1/n for natural n, and its done using some pretty fancy machinery in modern low dimensional topology (its called heegaard floer homology which may or may not be what some of the people at your school are doing)
actually the 1/2, -1/2 and 1/4, -1/4 cases were resolved recently using very fun fancy methods in mathematical physics-y stuff called instanton floer homology 
surgery on a knot = dehn twisting it?
Yep
Huh, usually I think of surgery as cutting and gluing.
Well the idea is you are cutting out a tube about a knot, twisting it, and gluing it back in
Ah, right
They are doing heegard floer theory!
I hear it constantly. No idea what it means.

Cool stuff
it is basically a combinatorial cut and pasty way of describing a certain invariant that is in general very hard to compute and confusing
(floer homology is the invariant)
(the combinatorics is in terms of a heegaard splitting of the 3 manifold)
(hence, heegaard floer)
I see
Is it true that if you post-compose by a nullhomotopic map that your composition is nullhomotopic?
Since suppose f:X->Y is nullhomotopic i.e there exists a nullhomotopy H:X\times I-> Y s.t H(x,0)=f(x) and H(x,1)=c. Suppose h:Z->X is continuous then h\times id: Z\times I-> X\times I is continuous as well. So we have a nullhomotopy H\circ h\times id of f\circ h as H\circ h\times id (x,0)=H(h(x),0)=f(h(x)) and H\circ h\times id (x,1)=H(h(x),1)=c
I was trying to construct a non-homotopic map from T^2 to RP^2 so I constructed a map such that sends a certain path in T^2 to the loop generating pi_1(RP^2) and this was my lemma needed to verify it was not nullhomotopic (as otherwise pi_1(RP^2)=e which is wrong)
I did it by T^2->S^1->S^2->RP^2 first map sending T^2 to its first circle in the product then S^1 to the equator then the last map is the covering map
And the path q:I->T^2 is just q(0)=( (1,0),b_0) to q(1)=( (-1,0),b_0)
as a Warwick student spending all their time in the Zeeman building, I am very pro Zeeman
???? Codimension 3 sounds so wrong. There's a stable range when this happens, due to Haefliger
Certainly two embeddings of S^n in S^(2n+1) are isotopic. One can pick a homotopy, look at the movie S^n x I -> S^(2n+1) x I, make it self transverse and cancel the self-intersections by Whitney trick
This gives a concordance which implies isotopy by the h-cobordism theorem
n>=2
PL is different. Actually, smooth is different and PL and topology are the same
Check out the introduction by Zeeman surveying related results. By the time he published, Smale has proved the h-cobordism theorem which is category free and proves something very close to unknotting, which he mentions. Exercise: prove Zeeman’s theorem from this statement (necessarily using the PL hypothesis)
https://www.jstor.org/stable/1970538
Codimension 3 means that the fundamental group doesn’t change, which allows Smale to apply the h-cobordism theorem
how should i prove that the inclusion map from π_1(S^1) -> π_1(X) where X is a quotient space of S^2 with the poles identified to a point has trivial kernel
i made the CW complex but i cant figure out how to show that the inclusion map has trivial kernel
Trivial kernel? 
it should have a trivial kernel
Then show is a retract
Very cool stuff
Oh I thought you meant all pairs of poles identified
yeah nevermind i showed that the homotopy class of loops of X is entirely determined by S^1
By poles identified, do you mean just like north and south pole identified
and embedding it as the equator
or smth
this is quite a cool result from heegaard floer
i forget who it is due to
i think hanselman?
the 1/2 -1/2 and 1/4 -1/4 case is due to miller i believe
does anyone have any decent resources on the induced topology on graphs? I just need something that gives basic definitions that I can read through and also cite for my thesis
Hatcher has quite a bit of graph stuff
What sort of definitions are you looking for
Basically, take a graph and replace each edge with a copy of [0,1]. Embed it into R^2.
I have a copy I’ll take a look thanks!
Do you need the embedding?
I’m doing stuff with paths and I need to be able to identify distinct points on the graph and its edges yeah
Well R2 isn’t going to work for all graphs right
The graphs are really Kripke frames so it’ll work for these
Alright
Anyways I join the recommendation on Hatcher, although I’m still not sure what you’re looking for really
I mean hatcher cares about them from a homotopic point of view
You can use them to construct coverings of S^1 v S^1 or to solve problems about free groups
(Graphs are wedges of circle up to homotopy theory and they’re a nice representative)
But yeah he does have the basic topologization of them via homeos of [0,1]
That’s really all I need, lol
i thought \aleph_1 was |P(N)|=|R|
You're right, continuum hypothesis is obviously true
R² \ Q² is a manifold so countable π_1
what
what
what
You might be thinking of R^2 \ Z^2 my friend

it is
on god
manifolds have countable π_1 (try to prove)
i dont know what a manifold is
countably many generators me thinks?
when i do differential geometry i will come back
Same as countable group
Yeah that's what I had in mind
try to prove @ebon galleon
what, that countably many generators ==> countable group? Just a cardinality argument
yes
This shouldn’t be too surprising when you draw a picture
||coproduct of sequences of length n for all naturals n - countable union of countable sets||
it should feel uncountable considering π_1(R^2-Q^2) is uncountable
idk the whole manifold part or justification that these actually are generators tho
Will get there eventually
Compare Q^2 and Z^2
Even though Q^2 is countable, there's a fundamental different between them topologically, especially in R^2
If you remove Z^2 you’re just removing the vertices of each 1x1 square
And R^2 \ N is heq to countable wedge of circles
So same for R^2 \ Z^2
Nice argument Ibsen
now prove this part
idk how bad it actually is, but seems a bit rough
One at a time move the points around
Homeo(R^2) acts transitively on R^2
Moreover the homeomorphism can be chosen such that the support is small enough
Then compose countably many homeomorphisms whose supports are eventually disjoint and go off to infinity
Small work but good work
okay yeah that makes sense. Only thing left to check is that you can take R^2 \ Z to be the colimit
ok but why cant we sequence all the points in Z^2, choose an arbitrary point in R^2-Z^2, and then choose loops for each n such that the loop correlated with each n only loops around that point and nothing else
i used an argument similar to this for Q^2
why wouldnt it work for Z^2
Those give countably many loops
or you can think of like this, R²\Z² looks like bunch of squares attached by their sides, fox a point and take a path from the fixed point to every vertex and collapse
oh wait
you'll get countable wadge of S¹ (just a graph)
i forgot concatenation
wait what
Blah blah blah @coarse night
follow up: find homotopy type of { (x, y, z): one of x,y,z is an integer}
That's disconnected
ah, don't take complement then
💡
looks like infinite apartment building
Yup
Ooh ONE is an integer
I like the infinite 3d jailcell which is given by taking a sphere at every integral lattice point of R^3 and for nearest neighbour edges joining them by a tube
I was wondering why that’s disconnected in the original question
editted
it's about collapsing some contractible set inside the set.
"I like the infinite 3D jail cell" 

With the part is misread that is
Im being confusing
I had a stroke reading this
Bleak
Ignore it
I learned about Heegaard splittings of 3 manifolds, and as an example, my professor drew this to mean a genus 1 Heegaard splitting of S^3. I'm confused how H and H' glue together
H and H' need to have the same boundary to glue, but it seems to me that they don't
S³ = Solid torus ∪ solid torus
Errr wait, yeah. They're both solid tori, so they both have T^2 as their boundaries. But I don't see how their boundaries glue still.
Тор Клиффорда — это простейшее и наиболее симметричное вложение в евклидово пространство прямого произведения двух окружностей.
Wikipedia: https://ru.wikipedia.org/wiki/Тор_Клиффорда
Использованные программы:
DAIN APP
Topaz Gigapixel AI
I don't see how this is relevant 😅
This is a torus ye
The inside is a solid torus
The outside is a solid torus
And the animation shows how they are both solid tori by flipping the space
Or if you don't want to move things around
You can start by picturing a solid torus
Take another solid torus and slice it into discs along longitudinal lines
And glue the boundary of those discs onto the first solid torus
The 0th disc glues to the center of the torus
The π/2 -th disc is attached slightly above that
Eventually the discs explode towards ∞
And the π-th disc is an annulus
Then it zooms back from under
And completes the cycle
Or alternatively still
Take S³ = ∂(B⁴) = ∂(B²)×B² ∪ B²×∂(B²) = S¹×B² ∪ B²×S¹.
@frank bolt
Or you could also see this detailed discussion
#point-set-topology message
ok it turns out
i described the wedge of countably many circles
rather than the hawaiian earring
Any tips/resources for actually computing homotopy groups of simplicial sets?
I'm specifically trying to compute stuff with tensor products of simplicial commutative algebras and am not sure where to get started w computations of stuff
Thanks! Had to run to class, will check later
It’s almost always impossible to do directly
It really depends on what your space is and how it’s presented
This is very much like asking “any tips for how to compute homotopy groups?”
The answer being: it’s impossible in general, for nice spaces it depends
Heegaard splittings of S^3
hatcher keeps talking about "the orientable surface of genus g"
does that imply orientable surfaces of genus g are all homeomorphirc?
Yes

Hi I'm working on this point set topology question:
I've gotten this far into the proof, and I'm trying fo find a basis element from the standard topology on R^n that contains p, and is inside of B_(d')(x, epsilon)
What about a “smaller ball”?
I thought a smaller ball centered at x might work, but potentially it could not fit p inside of it
I was thinking we might have to use a ball centered at p, but it looks a lot more complicated
It's not enough to show that the basis element contains the other, it acutally has to contain p as well right?
That's the part that makes it a little more difficult
I was thinking we take the min of the distances to each side w.r.t p as the radius of our ball
what do they mean by "generating" the germ at the point a? as in its a representative of the equivalence class it's in?
this is for my algebraic topology class but as a prereq we’re doing some stuff on metric spaces and topological spaces
yes
And the reading he assigned us is from zorich analysis
i'm really confused by this definition of homotopy by hatcher
i've seen the definitions where you have H : X \times I \to Y, or another definition with a family of maps h_t : X \to Y, but i've never seen it in the sense of a family of maps f_t: I \to X
i can't really connect this concept to those in my head
So it's a special case of the 2nd thing you said
Np
i'm confused about how they're using the term "open set" is the second to last line - are they referring to the ball definition of an open set or the empty set and X
what
wdym
for the non-hausdorff example?
the open sets are the elements in your topology ( by definition )
in the trivial topology the only open sets are the empty set and the whole space
there are only two open sets here
the whole space and the emtpy set
so the complement of a point is not an open set
ye
balls are the basis of the metric space topology
this is not the topology ur dealing with here
oh yea i forgot that open set refers to the subsets exhibited by the topology
i got confused between the two right
thanks
np :d
so just to clarify, if we have a metric space X with a defined metric then the open sets induced by this metric are exactly the open sets that define the topology on X?
yes?
The topology generated by the metric is the topology generated y the metric, yeah
re read the definitions my friendo
yes there is a unique topology generated by the metric, that is that topology. However if a topological space happens to have a (possibly unrelated) metric on it it doesn't mean the topology and the metric topology are the same
Did you ever get an answer to this?
You proved that it was at least the cardinality of R, right? But you wanted an upper bound?
There are only R many continuous maps from the interval to R2, so that’s an upper bound
my original proof was incorrect but i can fix it easily
turns out that i constructed the wedge sum of countably infinite circles
That only gives a countable lower bound
If f: [a, b] -> R, g: [c, d] -> R are continuous functions and S = {(x, f(x) | x in [a, b]}, T = {(x, g(x)) | x in [c, d]}, we have that S and T are homeomorphic as subsets of R^2, right?
Would suck if that were false tbh
Should be I think
Ok yeah, S is homeomorphic to [a, b] by f (restrict the codomain to S), [a, b] is homeo to [c, d], and…
right
Yeah that's what I was gonna suggest
since [a,b] is compact and R is hausorff
[a,b] --> S is injective, by above is closed, so a homeomorphism on it's image
and [a,b] and [c,d] are clearly homeo
wait what’s the result you’re using
If X is compact and Y is hausdorff, f:X --> Y is a closed map
Oh shit
I think I just assumed that f had an inverse
Cuz it feels that way
Like say you have a string that starts out at [a, b] in R^2
then you perform some continuous operation to move it to S
Like all of topology says going from S back to [a, b] in a continuous manner is not guaranteed, but like, with our string, can’t we just reverse what we did on our way there
intuitively, yeah. But have fun proving it with that 🙃
actually I think this is true regardless since it's just the projection onto the X component
but this is an easy way to see it in this case
Oh yeaaa
yeah I forgot about that too lmao
https://math.stackexchange.com/a/3535566 exact justification for this btw
don’t we need that f is an open map to show that f^-1 is continuous?
we got that f is a closed mapping, so what
open + continuous bijection <==> homeomorphism <==> closed + continuous bijection
Remember: a function is also continuous iff the inverse image of a closed set is closed!
ok the first <= and second => is easy
hmm I actually forgot the first =>
if f: X -> Y is an open, continuous bijection, and if V is an open set in Y…
f^-1(V) is
a set
that’s for sure
f^{-1}V is open by continuity
If U is open in X, show that (f^{-1})^{-1} U (the inverse image of the inverse function) is open in Y
(f^{-1})^{-1}(U), where U is open in X
and of course that set is open in Y, since it is just f(U) and f is an open mapping
ok
and the second <=
oh this
ok
yeah same idea for that one
so because of this it's closed. It's clearly injective: (x,f(x)) = (y,f(y)) clearly implies x=y, so when you restrict the codomain to the image (which is S, the graph), it's a closed, continuous bijection. Hence a homeomorphism
Yeah
Nice
And then if we consider maps with domain (a, b)
Of course the same result holds
But we no longer have this high power solution using the closed map lemma or wtv
You can just provide the inverse (projection) as before, but I’m wondering if there’s a solution in similar taste as this one
Nothing fancy comes to mind, no. The closed map lemma I had does not generalize to, say, locally compact Hausdorff spaces (even nice ones like Euclidean space!)
There's no general "open map" lemma along those lines (in more specific cases there are: for instance, the open mapping theorem in complex analysis, which states that any analytic function on an open domain is an open map)
Right
(functional analysis has one as well afaik)
But yeah this is a better solution for general terms
Wait you don’t really need the “universal mapping property of the product topology” right.
Like you can just check that those two morphism equalities are true
I guess maybe if you define the product topology using the universal property, then yea
universal mapping property of product is just that maps into a product space correspond bijectively with maps into each component. Equivalently: A map (f,g):A --> XxY is continuous iff f:A --> X and g:A --> Y are
Just an easy way of checking continuity into product spaces
Oh I know that the universal mapping property says that “for every top. space Z and family of morphisms into… there exists a unique morphism… such that … commutes” but I guess that is an easy consequence
It is useful in practice to define maps so yeah you do sort of need it
Is (R - Z) connected ?
I can write it like Union of connected (p,q) where p,q are integers, but they have no common points
Is it sufficient to say it is not connected set
Yes
Ok, but what if we take product of (R-Z) x (R-Z)
It's like taking out vertical & horizontal lines from R2 right ? So it's also not connected
Yes, in general if X is not connected, then XxY won't be either (unless Y is empty)
I see, thank you
people always be talking about point set topology, what other kinds of topology exists?
Algebraic topology and geometric topology and various things
(see get-advanced-access to use this channel) point-set topology (topological spaces), algebraic topology (homotopy/homology/etc.), geometric topology, anime
anime
in my books, point-set topology is analysis
Disagree with this take
Disagreeing as well
I'm going to agree with this take, I will propose a channel merge to the mods
Fuck off HAHA
Point set is to topology what Lebesgue stuff is to analysis
So, i tried to venture into Topology today and got knocked out on second page itself.
So, they started with discussing Euler's formula for polyhedrons that is v+f-e = 2. I had known the formula earlier as well but i hadn't known that these polyhedrons are well defined and not any random shape.
So, They said that there are two conditions that a Polyhedron P would satisfy.
I got the first one but the second one stunted me.
It says - Any loop on P which is made up of straight lines segments(not necessarily edges) separates P into two pieces.
I can't wrap my head around this. They gave example of a polyhedron to show this and, yeah, that one didn't satisfy Euler's formula.
But, then, i think that a simple cube fails that second condition as well. If i take all the edges of one face, they form a loop but they don't separate P in two pieces.
What am i missing here? I appreciate any useful input whatsoever. Thank you.
Why wouldn’t a cube be separated into two pieces? The loop you described should split the cube into: 1) top face and 2) everything minus the top face
Umm... I think that because of the example they had given to demonstrate the second rule.
Let me send the picture. Perhaps, i'm missing the distinction.
The figure on top right.
They said that loop shown doesn't divide figure into two pieces.
I apologise for the quality of picture. My hands shake a bit so i can't hold my phone static.
I think #2 refers to just the surface of the polyhedron
Like it’s saying that a loop will split the surface of P into two components
So in figure 1.3, imagine the polyhedron is hollow
And cut along the loop
Yeah, they said that we'll rather be referring to the surface while using polyhedron, and not the solid.
Okay cool
But do you see how the loop you described does actually separate the cube into two pieces
Umm... not really. I mean then how does loop separate in fig 1.3?
A side question - by surface, do i imagine it like a plane having area, or like a loop with perimeter ?
The surface is like a plane having area, hence the name “surface area”
The square divides them into one face and five faces
Okay.
Wait... so, in example 1.3 - it's like a circular(just for eg) tube which is cut at one cross-section but it's still a whole thing. You can pick it up. Is it like that?
Yep
I mean... pick it up by holding at any place and it'll get up as whole.
When you cut it (and unfold it a bit) you get a cylinder essentially
While in cube, we have to pick both part separately?
Yeah. Yeah.
Yes
Oh. Okay. I get it. Thank you very much.
Hm, here's a weird question
View $S^n = (\mathbb R^n)^+$ (one point compactification); there's a natural action of $\Sigma_2$ on $\mathbb R^n \times \mathbb R^n$ which extends to one on $S^n \land S^n = (\mathbb R^n \times \mathbb R^n)^+ \cong S^{2n}$. How can we think about $S^{2n}/\Sigma_2$?
potato
For n=1, I'm pretty sure by cut and pasting that we just get D^2
I mean, we can model the 2-sphere as I^2 with boundary collapsed to a point, and then this action just folds along the diagonal
I guess in general you can do a similar thing and write like
$ S^{2n}/\Sigma_2 \cong { ((a_1,\dots,a_n), (b_1,\dots,b_n)) \in I^n \times I^n \mid \sum_i a_i \le \sum_i b_i}/{\sim}$ where $\sim$ crushes what's left of $\partial (I^2 \times I^2)$
potato
Why I'm interested is because it seems to follow from some result that (at least on homology) we should get S^{2n} for n even and smth contractible for n odd
One model should just send $(x_1, \dots, x_n, x_{n+1}, \dots, x_{2n}, x_{2n+1}) \to (x_{n+1}, \dots, x_{2n}, x_1, \dots, x_n, x_{2n + 1})$
Topos_Theory_E-Girl
do you mean on rational homology?
Lol you're good, the original source was indeed using rational homology
Do you think it's far worse in the non-rational case? I mean in the rational case they used the fact homotopy coinvariants and strict ones coincide and everything works out nicely
well like the action on the space gives you an action on cohomology which changes sign of a generator
I'm not sure, I was just guessing that this has to do with the resulting manifold being orientable or not: the point being just some dumb thing about the parity of the number of simple reflections that you need determining whether or not the switch is orientation preserving or reversing
Okay sure
So when it's orientation reversing the quotient has top cohomology Z/2 and no other cohomology groups
which is why everything vanishes rationally
haven't calculated anything yet though so this is just my intuition
Yeah so the full context was that if you have a (orientable) n-manifold $M$, let $W$ be the trivial n-bundle and let $\Sigma_2$ act on $W \oplus W (= M \times \mathbb R^{2n})$ in the obvious way, what does $(W \oplus W)^+_{\Sigma_2}$ look like
potato
And at least on rational cohomology this follows from applying Thom iso and the coinvariants playing nicely with rational cohomology
yep that makes sense!
But my line of attack for thinking of it more generally was noting that $(W \oplus W)^+ \cong M^+ \land (S^n \land S^n)$ and I'm pretty sure it should work out that $(W \oplus W)^+{\Sigma_2} \cong M^+ \land (S^n \land S^n){\Sigma_2}$ lol
potato
I guess if you were curious about computing this with integral coefficients you can just use meyer vietoris
where one open set is a neighborhood of the singular locus (which is I guess an n-sphere?) and the other open set can be computed with the usual spectral sequence
Hm okay sure (thank)
what do the wedges mean in what you're writing?
Smash
is that smash?
okay
Yes I think I agree that all of this comes down to just computing it over a point, since the whole space is just a fibration
over M
Ye hm
Well
What led me to it was just the possibility that that could have some nice form, like a disk or a sphere depending on n but ye
I will think further lol
thank
sure!
Any orientation reversing Z/2 action on the even dimensional sphere is homotopic to the standard Z/2 action
Quotient being RP
This is because an orientation reversing homeo of S^2n is homotopic to the antipodal map
Which is an easy exercise
Any orientation reversing map is homotopic to the standard orientation reversing map. But if it’s an order two map, it’s not homotopic through involutions. It might have fixed points and a path though involutions won’t change the fixed points
Oh fair
If the action is free the quotient is still a homotopy RP but I suppose this isn't the case here
The action on S^2n is induced from the flip map on S^n x S^n after crushing S^n v S^n?
(S^n x S^n)/flip seems to me like a S^n-bundle over RP^n
I'm thinking of it as permuting coordinates on R^n x R^n and extending by a point
The diagonal is fixed and it's normal neighborhood is TS^n. S^n x S^n is the fiberwise one point compactification of TS^n
Quotient by Z/2 on the base
Oh okay nice you're right with this yeah
Oh no need to quotient on the base it just pointwise fixes the base
It acts by multiplication by -1 on the antidiagonal though
(x, -x) -> (-x, x)
Oh lol homotopy RP would make sense
because that would account for dependence on n's parity & rational behaviour
Sure hm
Looks like a higher dimensional Klein bottle c'mon
This is just funny cause I have some computation I have to do and the first step is computing the Fp homology of the space I mentioned here and this seems harder than I'd like
hm
Maybe it is a bit easier if we just care about Fp homology but I thought some geometric intuition would help but perhaps that's too naive lol
Feels like it should be relatively tangible
I mean it's just spheres and Z/2
S^n x S^n fibers over the antidiagonal copy (-x, x) of S^n with fibers being S^n x {x} right
The flip map doesn't preserve the fibers. Need better fibers
I know (S^3 x S^3)/flip is SO(4)
This is an accident because S^3 is a group
I think the Meyer vietoris computation should work out very easily, it's S^n (fixed point locus) glued to RP^{n-1} (actually unorderd configurations of 2 points in R^n) along a little neighborhood also homotopy equivalent to RP^{n-1}
So basically it's a homology RP^n
Is it also a homotopy RP^n
That would be surprising
Well for homology of this we can just do uh theorem on Fp homology of symmetric powers lol
but overkill
Not sure how to incorporate the smashing with M+ into the final computation tho (assuming homology of M+ is known lol)
hm
Isn't your space just the sum of two n-dimensional trivial bundles modulo a purely fiberwise action?
True lol so a nice fibration
products are the nicest fibrations
Actually no
Cause of the compactification right
Are you compactifying all of the fibers to the same point?
M needn't be compact in my example, unfortunately
Oh wait
youre compactifying the entire total space with a point?
is {0} u {1/n for all n} a CW-complex?
and is the suspension of any CW-complex a CW-complex?
I would try to prove that by myself but hatcher doesn't define CW-complexes properly 
0 dimensional CW complexes should be discrete afaik
does discrete mean finite?
like discrete topology: everything is open
so it's just like a collection of points
and the suspension of that is homotopy equivalent to the suspension of {0} u {1/n for all n}
Yes
right?
sure, but something that's h.e. to a CW complex needs not be a CW complex itself
In fact, broadly working with stuff that does have the homotopy type of a CW complex (read: is h.e. to a CW complex) is in some sense a convenient category of spaces for algebraic topology (whereas just working with CW complexes themselves is not)
Or use weak equivalences
( i do not know any details of what I just sent >.< )

Surely this category doesn’t suck
well
weak equivalence is a relative term I guess
If we are considering cgwh spaces to begin with it turns out nicely 

I was talking in a topological sense
Not even sure if we’re making the same joke at this point
Lmao
yeah ik the joke is that it's all of Top lmao
But we can fix that by restricting what we mean by "space"
wait how do you actually prove this 
I should fix my pointset 
(potentially dumb question) if you have continuous injections X -> Y and Y -> X are X and Y homeomorphic (kindof like Schroder-Bernstein but for continuous maps)
That's what I had in mind yeah
oh yeah that's easy, thanks!
np
lol a random thought that popped into my head, next time I'll give it 2 seconds thought
Also like, note this is still false even if we take them to be embeddings (lol same example works)
Lol said I wondered what happens with finite sets but then they're just bijections, wlog identity map after relabelling, and then it's easy anyway lol
X = {1/n} cup {0}
X is not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex. Its suspension is the Hawaiian earrings, which are not homotopy equivalent to a CW.
no it's not
its reduced suspension is the hawaiian earrings
I know this coz I'm trying to prove pi_1(SX) is countable
Huh, for some reason thought the Hawaiian earrings were a CW complex
suspension usually means reduced
bruh
Ok, that has countable fundamental group, so it’s not obvious that it’s not homotopy equivalent to a CW complex, but it isn’t
If it were homotopy equivalent to a CW complex, it would have to be the wedge of infinitely many circles. So it would admit a map to that space. But it’s compact, so its image would have finitely generated fundamental group, so not be big enough
(You don’t need to know its fundamental group, only that it’s not finitely generated, so a CW model wouldn’t be compact)
Actually lol that is interesting
i wonder about examples where X isn't a cw complex but the (unreduced or reduced) suspension is
both up to homotopy if you wish
I imagine there are boring extremes
You don't need to take suspensions to argue {1/n} U 0 doesn't have the homotopy type of a CW complex
I know lol
There's a map from Z to this which is an iso in pi_n
Take the Whitehead continuum W in S^3. S^3/W feels like it's not a CW complex but if you cross this with R maybe it is?
Ipso facto good chance suspension is?
I think that if a space isn’t a CW complex, then its suspension isn’t, either. There are probably spaces that aren’t homotopy equivalent to CW complexes whose suspensions are contractible and thus homotopy equivalent to
For the 2nd line that was my idea too yeah
Yes ok R^3/W x R is homeomorphic to R^4
I bet S^3/W is not a CW complex
The quotient map is probably a weak homotopy equivalence I think.
I don't know if the suspension is well behaved
I was thinking something like taking an acyclic space whose suspension is contractible and forming something like the earrings. Then its suspension would be something like the comb, which is contractible
Maybe. It seems possible
How do you prove R^3/W x R is homeo to R^4? Probably show somehow that W x R in R^3 x R is a shrinkable set
If thats true it seems plausible SW in S(S^3) = S^4 is also shrinkable
Bing shrinking says cellular sets are shrinkable
I don't see how to write W x R as intersection of cells
Probably have to look at Freedman's notes
There might be problems at the two suspension points
Maybe the spirals become like logarithmic spirals there, winding infinitely often around the two poles
But there's no diffeomorphism of the sphere which straightens a foliation by logarithmic spiral loxodromes to the longitudinal foliation, is there?
Oh but we only care about homeomorphism. So maybe?
The flow of the discontinuous vector field (-y/sqrt(x^2+y^2), x/sqrt(x^2+y^2)) on R^2 is a self homeomorphism fixing the origin after all
That straightens an infinitely winding spiral arc from the origin to the x axis
Conjecture: Unreduced suspension of S^3/W is homeomorphic to S^4
Conjecture: topology is hard
Lol I am feel dumbs
Oh yeah I had a question lol
I keep seeing this situation where you have a finite group G act on a space and the homotopy coinvariants = strict coinvariants rationally
And I assume same for invariants / fixed points lol
is there any like theorem/fact this is a consequence of hm
I mean I assume somewhere it's cause of BG having torsion homology for n >= 1
from what i've heard
There's a fibration X -> (X x EG)/G -> BG
If G is a finite group, H*(BG, Q) is 0
Because of what you said I suppose
Fixed points are pretty different. Take a free action on the sphere. The fixed points are empty, but if the dimension is odd, the action is probably trivial on homology
That's strange. The E^2 page is just the row H*(X, Q)?
What am I doing wrong? I seem to get that rational cohomology completely ignores the fact that you're taking finite quotients
Is this correct
Hm how does this prove what I wanted exactly?
I'm just running the spectral sequence on the above
Like sure this lets us compute X's homology with serre spectral sequence or smth but uh
how about X/G
The spectral sequence for this? You need to use twisted coefficients. You need homology of BG, ie, coinvsriants
Ah yes thanks
There we go
Homology of BG with rational coefficients is trivial but
So I'm still confused
It seems to say H*(X_G, Q) = H*(X, Q) which is most certainly wrong
well i know you you can just show H*(X/G; Q) = H*(X;Q)^G
from somewhere lol
iirc
But what's happening in the specseq
I guess H^0(BG; H^n(X; Q)) is the only E^2 row
Am I mistaken to make this equate to H^n(X; Q)
Yes, because of the twist certainly?
This should be H^n(X; Q)^G
0th group cohomology of a G-module M is M^G
This is the mistake I was making
So that gives you the proof
Proof for X_G though
Homotopy quotient
Here's a way to show now that the cohomology groups of X/G is the same as X_G. There's a map (X x EG)/G -> X/G. Totally not a fibration
But fibers are rationally acyclic
If you have a map between CW complexes with rationally acyclic fibers it's an iso in rational homology
This works, but I think it’s overkill and better to by hand
Follows from derived pushing forward the constant sheaf and using the Grothendieck SS
Or you could call it the leray ss
Yeah there is probably a transfer argument I'm not seeing
Anyway this gives cohomology of X_G = cohomology of X/G = G invariants of cohomology of X (rationally) in one shot
Also the map X_G -> X/G is an iso in rational cohomology so it's a rational homotopy equivalence I suppose
Maybe some fundamental group assumption
It's the same proof as the one I wrote just more careful
Compose projection with transfer and you get multiplication by |G|. Therefore the cohomology of the quotient is a summand of the invariant cohomology. More specifically, the composition in the other direction is the sum of the action of each individual group element, this the invariants
These formal properties of the transfer are pretty much exactly the statement we’re trying to prove
What is the transfer map if G is not a covering action?
Yeah, the whole point is that it exists
Why
I mean, the difficult part is that it exists
Choose a triangulation that is equivariant. Construct it in each simples
I'm not convinced that works without more details. Certainly works for covering actions
Some triangles might have nontrivial stabilizers
Need to multiply by stuff
Yeah, you have to subdivide
You guys inspire me lol

Nice, thanks for the reference friend!
And you could also ask the similar question “For what structures are bijective homomorphisms automatically isomorphisms?” Again topological spaces famously don’t satisfy this, but most of our favorite algebraic structures do.
im stuck on a problem: show that given a surjective map q from X to Y, if Y satisfies the universal property of the quotient topology, then Y has the quotient topology
all ive shown so far is that q must be continuous
Let Y' be the set Y with the quotient topology under q. You know that Y' also has that universal property, and you'd like to show that Y = Y'
In other words, you'd like to find a homeomorphism between them (hopefully using the the fact that they both have the universal property!)
hmm, i tried using q^-1 of q in the universal property but the inverse order is wrong, for a surjection its the other way around
But notice: You have the map q: X --> Y. This map satisfies the condition of the universal property (check if you're unsure!) on Y', so this should imply that there is a map f : Y' --> Y that fits in
(i.e., so f q = q, by the universal property)
oh shit i see so the id map is continuous and so is its inverse
im so dumb lmao
thanks
Well
Why is f the identity map?
A priori, there can be a map f with f q = q, but f is not the identity. What (purely set-theoretic) property implies f = identity?
doesnt matter, the identity works so since the identity is a homeo they are eq
ofc just reverse Y and Y' here to prove its a homeo
Oh true lol, uniqueness gives that huh
I was thinking surjectivity but yeah (since surjective <==> right-cancellable)
And yeah, just swap the roles of Y and Y' to get the other direction 
do people actually care about the lower/upper limit topology of R, the K-topology of R, and the finite complement topology? Or are they just examples to get topology students’ hands dirty

Stuff like that could be useful counterexamples to keep in mind
But I don't think people particularly care much about them
Like, I remember in one of the first sections of Munkres he introduces them and shows that one is stricter finer than another, two of them are incomparable, etc.
But on the other hand… who asked?
I mean they're good for understanding which properties are different
For instance, R with cocountable topology has the property that limits have unique sequences but it is not Hausdorff. I believe a (countably?) infinite set with cofinite is T_1 (frechet) but not sober (conversely, it's set of points (Locales shit, dont worry about it) is sober but not T_1)
But for, say, algebraic topology purposes? Who cares lmao
Uhh I have not properly taken an alg top course but they are largely interested in stuff called "CW complexes" (more generally, relative CW complexes, perhaps). Essentially, spaces which can be formed by "gluing" together copies of (closed) disks together, of arbitrary (and in increasing order) dimension. So for instance, picture you have a closed unit disk (in R^2), and you "glue" together the boundary, the circle, to a single point. If you picture it curving into 3D so you can do that, you'll get a sphere.
And so for a variety of reasons, CW complexes have turned out to be important in algtop (some complicated ofc, but the general idea is that most spaces of interest can be constructed as (or are homotopy equivalent to) CW complexes)
Also, unit interval and unit cubes (again, of arbitrary dimension). Reason being: Homotopy 🙃
now someone will come in and tell me that I am wrong
People care about the cofinite topology as a special case of the Zariski topology in algebraic geometry, but not really in topology
fair, Zariski topology is not generally Hausdorff (or T_1) even, is it
(also of interest: stone spaces, but this of more interest to logicians I believe)
I have a quick question. If X is a finite space with some topology on it, would it be vacuously limit point compact since there are no infinite sets in X to even look at?
topologists really like R^n and things modelled on it
yes
finite spaces are anyway compact
hence compactness is regarded as "finiteness" in Top
I understand the open-set definition of a topological space (as in, what each of the requirements mean), however, I can't really get any intuition for why it is the way it is. My doubts are:
-
How does this have anything to do with the closeness of two points ? I assume that two points A and B are close only if they appear "together" in all elements of T (as in, there is no element of T which has A but not B nor vice versa) - however, this still doesn't really help with the intuition.
-
Why do we require any arbitrary union of the elements of T to be in T, but not do the same with intersections ?
-
Why do the null set and the set on which the topology is made, have to be part of T ?
-
Why are the elements of T called open sets ? I assume they are some kind of generalized open intervals on R, but why ? And why do they have to be open, and not closed ?
Any intuition for why this definition is the way it is will help - even if it is not as abstract, and just a "special case" of the definition. At least knowing what this definition generalizes still helps.
Do you know about metric spaces?
Yes, I know about metric spaces.
and you know how the metric gives us a topology?
Unfortunately, no.
It’s a weaker notion of closeness, topology is more qualitative
It’s more like “nearness”
Intuitively two points are closer if there are “more neighborhoods” containing the two of them
I searched how metric spaces induce a topology (via open-balls), and I understand that particular aspect now.
In a lot of contexts you don't really talk about nearness of just two points, you talk about some property of the space as a whole
And open sets generalize the notion of "localness"
How so ? Why not closed sets too ?
I see, so we can say that, in certain topologies, A is closer to B than it is to C, if A and B appear more often "together".
In a lot of topologies it doesn't really make sense to talk about two points being "closer" or "further" by looking at their topology
E.g. all topologies of metric spaces
Cuz we've abstracted beyond distance to "localness"
As an example recall that continuity for metric spaces is
For any x in domain and open ball Bε centered at f(x), there exists an open ball Bδ centered at x such that f(Bδ) ⊂ Bε.
For topological spaces this generalizes to
For any x in the domain and open subset N containing f(x), there exists an open subset M containing x such that f(M) ⊂ N.
Or more succinctly,
The preimage of every open subset is open.
I see. I guess I will have to think about it, but it does make a little more sense now.
Okay, now I realise that I have never asked myself why these "open-balls" in metric spaces have to be open in the first place - why does it matter whether the distance between the center and any arbitrary point is smaller than epsilon (the ball is open), or smaller than or equal to epsilon (the ball is "closed") ?
To generalize the real line
The reason an open set is a useful notion is that it doesn't just represent "localness" at one point - it represents "localness" for every point in the open set
Consider the open interval (0, 1). For any real 0 < x < 1, there is some ε > 0 such that (x-ε, x+ε) ⊂ (0, 1)
So (0, 1) can be interpreted as "some region around x" for any x ∈ (0, 1)
Ig this also answers your 3rd question
Requiring <ε instead of ≤ε aligns with this notion, so we define these to be the "open" balls
An example is defining differentiable functions Ω ⊂ R^m → R^n. Since an open Ω represents a region around x for any x ∈ Ω, we can easily talk about the derivative at x.
If we have a bounded sequence that diverges, in finite dimensions... Does it have necessarily at least 2 limit points?
In R^n it can have 1 limit point
a_n = 0
Now?
Then yes in R^n
Also #real-complex-analysis exists
Yeah sorry
Oooooooh, I think the open set idea makes sense now.
All I have to figure out now is why do we require to have the intersection (and also union) of any two members of a topology, inside that topology.
Is it so that we get "all the possible open sets" we can form starting from some "base" open sets ?










