#point-set-topology
1 messages Ā· Page 52 of 1
it happens 
anyhway illum for topological groups if your subgroup is open then the quotient G/H is discrete iirc
but I want to hear you explain to me why Z_p ain't discrete :3
which is true
no
wait nvm Zp isn't finite lol
Z_p is not discrete
Z_p is infinite and compact
It's totally disconnected, however
ah fuck
so {0} is only closed in Z_p :P
And by translation, all other points are only closed as well, not open
I need to show that given a subgroup of Zp with finite index it's closed
I was tryna use contains nbhd of 0 => closed
that seems like a good proof
don't you mean open?
it will be both
and showing one is equivalent to the other for finite index subgroups
hmmmm
Because I only know the result that shows that a subgroup of a compact topological group G is open iff G/H is finite
Ohhhh but every open subgroup is also closed
okay now it makes sense
what nbhd do we use
This doesn't seem to be true
I think for instance you have \prod_{i = 1}^{\infty} \mathbb{Z}/2 which is compact with the product topology and has infinitely many index 2 subgroups which are not closed, and thus not open.
A closed subgroup of a compact group is open iff G/H is finite. But there are profinite groups with finite index subgroups that are not closed. Not profinite groups that contain a finitely generated dense subgroup (aka reasonable profinite groups). But take the infinite product of Z/2. This is a vector space and the axiom of choice says that it has unreasonable finite index subgroups
it sounds better when you say it

Hmm
I mean the reference I used was Ramakrishnan Valenza prop 1.4 (iv)
where do you get that
probably it proves the statement that bw mentioned, the assumption of "closed" is crucial
it doesn't assume the subgroup is closed
then it is wrong
well I wouldn't be surprised it has a bunch of errors
or perhaps there is some kind of Noetherianness assumption implicit in the theorem
it's a joke š a concise course in algebraic topology is actually a book, by JP May. But it's actually pretty hard and not concise at all. Maybe complete tho.
yes it is a false statement then
so you do need that first?
I wouldn't recommend Hatcher, I don't like it, but a lot of ppl do. Just go with it, there's no prereq maybe except Algebra and Topology (duh)
No, not at all. Def not.
Hatcher chapter 0 
what would you recommend then?
What do subgroups of Z_p look like?
the only problem is that I can't seem the find where the error in their proof is
Actually A concise course might not be a bad book. I haven't gone through it, but I haven't heard any bad rap. I like Munkres, but that's because I only care about homology.
Concise course is not a bad book but bad for a first pass
My prof in Diff Geo recommended Bredon
It's good, but might be a bit heavy. You need to be really solid in Topo and Alg.
So is Hatcher, tbh š
post proof
the unique simply connected 0-manifold 0.0
If you want a taste of it first, I recommend Nakahara
Chapter 2, 3, 4
Why is it called "unique simply connected"?
Cuz it's just 0?
A 0-manifold should just be a discrete space, right?
So if you have 2 or more points, it's not simply connected. And there's only one topology on a single point
Yeah that's what im wondering
Why is it classified as a simply connected space
Also speaking of simply connectedness
The singleton is simply connected (in fact, all homotopy groups are trivial)
Is it purely a global characteristic of a top space or can it be defined locally?
Because itās both simply connected and unique š
Global
Ah makes sense
Think of a circle for example
finite doesn't imply discrete without something else (like Hausdorff)
Not simply connected, yes?
T_1 is sufficient even
Like you need "the whole thing" to tell
"Opens"? Open sets?
the quotient will be Hausdorff if H is closed for example but not in general
Well this is basically tautological
Actually nah
Just in my mind a space X is T1 iff topology contains cofinite one
Which is true
And then with finite sets that has a further corollary lol
But ye
Topology is cute
Well, it's mostly tautological, just observing that everything T_1 and above coincide. Unsure if sober implies discrete for finite tho
I don't believe so
No it doesn't, Sierpinski is sober
š¤Æ
I know, fascinating
But: is the singleton contractible? 
I would guess it just wants discrete+finite anyway
maybe that's just what people meant by finite back then
Too advanced for this server
the answer may surprise you
it must have non trivial \pi_0 because it's disconnected... right?
like you? ayup!

I mean they're not even weakly equivalent so...
I have no idea, I only know that the only closed groups are 0 and p^mZ_p, of which the p^mZ_p are also open
Okay what do the finite quotients of Z_p look like?
I wanna show that they're all cyclic
So what happens to the image of 1?
locally simply connected is an important condition
guys pray for me for tomorrows topology exam, I hope to survive it
under quotening?
(altho really the "correct" condition is semi-locally simply-connected, which makes me wanna throw up)
Almost as important as semi locally simply connected!
A famous Farb quote is āevery space has a universal coverā I have heard
image of 1 becomes a generator no?
So first of all why is every finite quotient of Z_p a p group?
Everything follows from this
does it have something to do with when we have like e.g. (0, 0, 1, ....) in the subgroup then we can get any valid (0, 0, x, ...)?
Itās simpler
Donāt need to be so ad hoc
no idea, any hint?
So what finite abelian groups are there?
structure theorem?
And what is the p-adic valuation of n when n is coprime to p?
Okay so what does that say about n in Z_p?
it's a unit
Okay so what about in any quotient? Can it not be a unit?
its inverse in the quotient will just be the image of its inverse, no?
phi(a)phi(a') = phi(aa') = phi(1) = 1
Yes so can the quotient have any factors of the form Z/n?
wait, how does unit even make sense here? are we viewing it naturally as a ring now or?
As a Z module
right
Aka an abelian group
wait I still don't quite understand what we mean by unit here lmao
there's a scalar a st ax = 1?
what does invertibly mean
It is an invertible map of abelian groups
I'm not sure how to make sense of that. if we were looking at it as a ring I would've said that 0 can't be a unit
It is the padic integers
You actually don't use cursed notation
Thank god
Actually more general
Let's say you have a ring R
And u is a unit in R
Can you show that multiplication by u is invertible?
yeah the inverse is just multiplication by its inverse
That's what acting invertibly means. You act by "multiplication by u"
Often when they don't it's because there's only one "natural" action in sight
Often your first guess will be correct, and this is a skill you hone
So Dami the confusion is coming from the fact that weāre trying to consider whether or not there are finite index subgroups of Z_p which are not closed
As an intermediary step we were showing that there are no prime to p finite quotients of Z_p as an abelian group
I guess if you know the subgroup is also open
So multiplication by n as a Z module has an inverse but it is not in Z
Then it's just union of cosets
Yes but we donāt know that
So presumably we're considering a "not necessarily open subgroup"?
group action as a module?
what are some common examples of first countable (but not second) and second countable spaces?
Donāt think of a group action, just think of the map n as being some abstract map
But every map of abelian groups is equivariant for multiplication by n
First countable but not second is a discrete uncountable space
Second countable is a one point space, or any manifold, or R^n
Metric spaces are auto first countable, and second countability is equivalent to separability fwiw
If that helps you root the ideas a bit in your head
but how do we consider that as a Z module
Every abelian group is a Z-module
yes but isn't it an abstract map and not an abelian group
The point of that was
We're not using yet the group structure on Z (I belive, I'm jsut reading scattered bits)
So the map "multiplication by n" makes sense for every abelian group
So one way to see it is this
n in Z_p
It's a unit right?
Now if H is a subgroup of Z_p, I form the quotient Z_p/H
Then nH = H because H is a subgroup, so n is injective on a set of representatives for Z_p/H so multiplication by n is bijective on the quotient
This means that by fto fgab the quotient is a p group since n is arbitrary and prime to p
But that means that there is some p^n which annihilates the quotient which means that p^n Z_p is contained in H
So that means H is open
This is what I was going for @rough cedar
show S^p * S^q = S^{p+q+1}
i was going to do this by showing the suspension of S^n is S^{n+1} and just using associativity, like a successor function kind of thing
is there a better way to do it?
X * Y is the join of X and Y
Thatās the best way to do it
That's the easiest way imo yes
Just show associativity and win
ok thanks
Oh yeah I stepped out for food but TTEG stepped in
i think it's slightly more convenient to reindex and write it as S^{n-1} * S^{m-1} = S^{n+m-1} but yeah
Idk
Any nice references for the Thom isomorphism theorem in the case of not-necessarily-oriented bundles?
In particular, I was looking at the isomoprhism $\tilde H_(W^+; \mathbb Q) \simeq \Sigma^d \tilde H_(M^+; \mathbb Q^{w_1})$ where $\mathbb Q^{w_1}$ is the orientation local system, $(-)^+$ denotes one point compactification and $W$ is a $d$-dimensional vector bundle over $M$
potato
In the orientable case this just collapses down to normal stuff
My answer to all questions is Bott and Tu
So true
does bott-tu cover sheaves
I really should've just read this a year ago lol
I donāt think it covers general sheaves, but it does cover local systems
Ah lol it just states general thom iso at the end of chapter 7
Still, good idea lol
I think Spanier has some proof of smth similar actually, so that answers it ig
There exist orientable vector bundles X, Y such that W+X = det(W)+Y. The orientable Thom iso shows that the Thom spaces of W and det W have isomorphic homology, reducing the question to line bundles
Very nice

Btw, how does one get that first statement?
This is called K-theory
Easier to prove the stronger statement that for any V, W there exists X trivial, dim about that of M and Y uncontrolled so that V+X=W+Y. Just take a random map from V+X to W and it will be surjective. Let Y be the kernel. In this example, you have to prove itās orientable
How do you prove it using K-theory, interesting
and thank you sure hm
I meant this is the first lemma of K-theory. You can define K-theory as formal differences of vector bundles, but each one has a representative as a a vector bundle minus a trivial bundle
Yes agreed
but the orientability doesn't seem to come in there
I assume it's smth like w1 of E and det(E) agree?
Yes, orientation is determinant. Determinant turns sum to tensor product
Sure dope
I am too used to the complex case where I dind't have to worry about orientability lol
Yeah, this one
How? Almost all manifolds are locally simply connected afaik
That isnt particularly helpful in categorizing them
Yes and sort of
For example the torus and sphere are locally simply connected but they have differing homology groups
The universal cover of a space is very useful for classifying it
How does that connect with simple connectedness?
And universal covers are constructed using the fact that youāre semi locally simply connected
Aghā
What is the Fundamentalgruppe of the empty set?
doesn't have one
Okay so just to make sure, when I use Seifert va kampen I need to make sure that the intersection of the two sets is not empty, right?
yes and path connected
I just noticed that we always take our basepoint in A n B, which implies that it can't be empty
yeah
On the contrary
The universal cover is very helpful in classifying coverings of a space and (semi) local simple connectedness is one condition for it to exist
So a lot of spaces having that property is better
It's not that property P distinguishes spaces it's that you need property P to define objects to distinguish spaces in the first place
Please help with 11.17, I suppose that 11.16 should be used, but don't know how.
I think a sketch would start with constructing a homeomorphism from R to I
Then have another homeomorphism that goes from the empty vertices out to the infinite legs of the cross
Then combine em into a map that is a homeomorphism of the entire space
Buuut the universal covers thing implies you start out from universal covers over the cross and square then work the homeomorphism between those universal covers
@languid patrol help
What is the question?
Question right above me
This^
Hi, I'm trying to solve a hatcher question and would love a hint because I'm a bit stuck
the question is 1.3.9 - Show that if a path-connected, locally path-connected space X has pi_1(X) finite, then every map X to S^1 is nullhomotopic.
now, we let f: X -> S^1 and p: R to S^1 is the cover
now since X is path connected, locally path connected, the lifting criterion states that a lift f~: X to R exists iff f_*(pi_1(X))) is a subset of p_*(pi_1(R))
since R is a universal cover of S^1, p_* is the zero map and so this theorem would imply that a lift exists iff f_* is the zero map
as that means f o g is homotopic to the constant loop in S^1 for all loops g in X, then f is nullhomotopic
however, I'm not sure how to prove that this lift exists/the image of f_* is contained in the image of p_*
I haven't used any properties of S^1, or more importantly the fact that pi_1(X) is finite anywhere - does anyone have a hint as to where I should use these two pieces of information
The point is: if there exists a nontrivial loop which maps to a nontrivial loop in S^1 under f_* then you are done by what youāve already written
Otherwise the image of f_* is trivial so you can lift the map f to R, so itās null homotopic
im so sorry - i dont really understand this
if f_* maps a nontrivial loop to a nontrivial loop, no lift exists - but where would I go next? I dont see how what I wrote deals with this case
Yes but thatās impossible, do you see why f_* has to have trivial image?
You have to use the assumption about X
How many finite subgroups of the integers are there?
Only the trivial subgroup
Since every element of Z has infinite order there is no map from a finite group to Z
How are yall so good at topology i suck ass at it š
Practice
dude wtf is hatcher saying here?
More context
one sec lel
Van kampen
I think I've seen people ask about this specific step online
So hopefully you will find more complete stuff
this is in the proof of SvK, F is a homotopy, A_alpha are path connected open sets of our whole space, X (basically the sets in the assumptions of SvK) and R_ij are defined like this
I think that's all the context needed?
I don't want to post the whole proof lol
first of all, why is a neighborhood of R_ij mapped to A_ij?
I \times I is a neighborhood of R_ij, no?
A small enough neighbourhood
oh it must be this image 
is IxI not the whole domain, why would that be a neighborhood of R_ij
this is stupid lol
it is wdym
F is a homotopy between two paths
oh sorry, i mixed up what you were saying
I see 
This is (essentially) a consequence of R_{ij} being compact and A_{ij} being open
I believe this should be "is mapped entirely into a single A_alpha." Aka only one A_alpha satisfies F(R_{ij}) is a subset of A_alpha. Otherwise this seems bunk

what if F is a homotopy between two loops in A_alpha n A_beta?

I'm starting to understand why people hate hatcher 
yo @eager herald
can you help me out rq?
the sentence just proceeding the highlighted one is straight up just nonsense btw
there's no mention of \Phi in Lemma 1.15 
dude im ngl i forgot what he does here
i wroked it out before
and i fucking forgot
i hate my life
and hatcher
but i remember that being complete bullshit
lmfaooo
I stg there's a lot of "complete bullshit" in this one proof




fr...
ig I'll ask a proper question after my workout 
but what about asking a proper question while working out
Lemma 1.15:
Every loop is homotopic to a product of loops each of which is contained in a single Aα.
Elements in the Grp coproduct of the Aα's are finite strings of elements in the Aα's, and saying a loop is path-homotopic to another is the same as saying that they are equal in the fundamental group.
I think Hatcher likes to assume people have good algebraic / geometric intuition
I find having read Aluffi quite helpful for reading Hatcher
ikr!
it's like the perfect algebra reference for hatcher. especially the homological algebra subsection from the chapter 3 read right before homology in hatcher is just perfect
altho I'm not sure which question this remark is answering 
Explaining the first sentence
what I'm confused by is where in lemma 1.15 is \Phi mentioned
It's not, it's a reformulated statement
ohh
The highlighted sentence basically means there are multiple ways to do this
E.g. if you take the union of two intersecting squares and draw a loop in the region of intersection, you can consider it a loop solely in the first square or as a loop solely in the second square
Spaces donāt have fundamental groups. Based spaces have fundamental groups. Every (path) component has a different group. The empty space has no component, so no group. Even on a single component, the fundamental group depends on the base point and paths between them. Theyāre isomorphic, but not canonically isomorphic. Different paths give conjugate isomorphisms. The right object is the fundamental groupoid
Yeah do math while on the treadmill š
Cant I just pick a point in a space and use that as my base point?
That's what is meant by based spaces: a specified point
There is no point you can specify in the empty space
If the space is not connected, the point matters a lot. If the space is connected, you can, and people often do say take any point, it doesnāt matter. But it does matter and you can make mistakes this way. The different fundamental groups are not the same but isomorphic. Not canonically isomorphic, but isomorphic up to conjugation. If the group is commutative, there is no conjugation, but if it isnāt, this is real indeterminacy. Sometimes the isomorphism matters.
Sometimes the base point matters. Consider a fiber bundle, like the Hopf fibration. Think about the base, the fiber, and the total space. Think about the fundamental group of the fiber. In some sense all the fibers are the same, so that all have the same fundamental group, but what does same mean? You canāt choose a base point for every fiber simultaneously
isnt it that base point doesnt matter if the space is path connected? but if its just connected it could matter
By connected I mean path connected
Speaking of non-path connected spaces, how do we deal with em?
This was such a good explanation
Thank you
we dont 
If X, Y are topological spaces with X discrete, is the compact-open topology on Y^X (the space of *all * functions from X to Y) the same as the product topology?
And if X is indiscrete, is it the same as the box topology?
These are more of āchecking my workā questions, really.
that is true, yeah
Suppose i want to deal with em.
you deal with each path component separately
and if your space is weird then you don't do algebraic topology with it
What do we do with R^2 - Q^2? This is path connected and I want to know itās fundamental group
then it's weird
i don't like weird things
š¦
everybody is always talking about "nice" topological spaces, what about weird ones
wait i forgot that the word "pathological" exists
too many syllables
if I had to guess I'd say free goup on continuum many generators lol
could be much worse tho
That would work for R^2 - Z^2! Every loop in this one contains infinitely many holes though
I can't believe this is path connected hurb
move along axis directions
in fact R^2-(R-Q)^2 is also path connected
Gimme a weird topological space we dont do alg top with
the real line with the topology generated by half open intervals
... I hope

Pick your favorite infinite cardinal \aleph, and give it the co-\kappa topology for \kappa < \aleph, e.g. R with cofinite or cocountable
free group with Q^2 generators right 
wait nahhhh what
wait why
I would've thought only countably many generators would do 
hecks the answer 
oh I see the problem, you are only allowed to consider finite combinations of generators. I 'want' to consider infinite combinations (only). and a few more restrictions
There's a bijection between loops and open sets in R^2 I uh. think.
aaa not quite
I'm not even sure if you're allowed a fractal of finite length
. Don't see why not.
welcome to hatcher

is there a way to make it more rigorous?
and should I be looking for a rigorous explanation for why the deformation retraction exists in the first place?
Well if you really want to do it rigorously, you write out the map but often that can be a pain
yea no thx lol
rigor š
The usual yoga is that in your first course someone makes you write them out really concretely then you earn the right to just hand wave later
Usually the problem isn't too bad though
is this true
loops can be fractals?
in R^2 say
The loops can be as bad as you want really
fairly certain u can construct map explicitly
Probably can be space filling curves
what, but isnt infinite length an issue
Not really
oh
koch's snowflake go vroom
well I feel certain that you cant loop around a hole
without also looping around holes in its neighbourhood
I was trying to think if that was a possibility
You can, but thinking about it will break your mind
hmm so bijection with open sets idea doesnt rlly work
One nice thing about Q is we can construct it. We know exactly where the points are

So for example, you take Stern-Brocot tree, but consider only the first n levels, and consider all points with coordinates in this set
As it's finite, you can define a loop avoiding all those points
Now there is some more work to do, but if my intuition is correct, you can take the limit of this process
an idea like this?
Similar to how you define Hilbert's curve
i shall read . . .
the thing is Stern-Brocot tree is semi-fractal š (it's not a fractal, but the process generating it is)
So there should be something similar to generate a family of curves avoiding them
Hence taking the limit of this family should be possible
actually this can be a good topo exercise š
not too hard, but definitely blow students' minds
Now the question is, must such a curve be of infinite length?
i now have no clue how we might compute this...
it isnt open is it
I have a feeling that this group is simple 
Then we classification-of-simple-group the shit out of it
Oh but that classfication is for finite simple groups :sadge:
What classification of simple groups are you imagining?
i see a mo thread and i cant make a head or tail out of it
https://mathoverflow.net/questions/67549/fundamental-group-of-r2-q2
Because itās uncountable
I have no intuition of this sort
The problem is you can have an infinite number of holes in a loop
that is not possible for RR - ZZ
so freegroup doesnt work
bro recieved a message from above
yea, I was talking about R^2-Z^2
freegroup - you can only have finite strings.
why is the free group on uncountably many generators when there are only countably many holes
Basically theyāre skirting the question for a good reason
wait this should be doable with countable many right
Itās free on countably many yes
This was just misspoke in the conversation
The point is this space is so bad bc it doesnāt have a nice local property which guarantees a universal cover. Universal covers are part of why fundamental groups are good
So instead you might want to consider a structure which controls the possible covering spaces (similarly to a universal cover)
The constructed pro-group in the post does this
no u
back to being a finitist...
Classification of finite simple groups 
oh yea finite group theory is a thing
"Finite group theory is a dead field, there's no one working in it that isn't over 60" - paraphrased from one of my profs
But you should carefully consider why there are uncountably many for R^2 \ Q^2
And whatās markedly different for this
oh that exercise is right on the section I'm reading now lel
For a devious hint: ||As an example if we take the standard embedding of R^2 into S^2 and then look at S^2\ Z^2 then that has uncountable many||
Also try to prove R^2 \ Z^2 only needs countably many generators. Itās hard
||I think it might be more useful to say that the Hawaiian earrings embed in that space ||
Sure
Giving away the game / why I like this hint for bw ||the point is that in R^2 \ Z^2 if you try to make a combination of infinitely many generators they canāt form an actual loop, because they go off to infty. If you Compactify first then youāre in business||
Wait really? I thought since every loop is contained in a bounded ball around the origin we can ignore the holes outside the ball hence the loop is an element of a free group with finitely many generators
Which is subset the free group with a generator for each hole
Doesn't that work?
the bounded ball depends on the loop though. There's not single ball that all of the loops would be in, since they can have arbitrarily large (yet still individually bounded) image
Itās not free on countably many generators, the group is uncountable
Oh no but⦠hm no I think this argument works
The idea is that the fundamental group of any ball minus the finitely many holes would be subset the group generated by loops going around each hole once
Take any loop gamma : [0,1] -> R^2 \ Z^2 with base point (pi,pi). Itās image is compact. Hence bounded. Hence can be broken as a finite product of loops in the bounded part of R^2 \ A (A a bounded subset of Z^2)
Even R^2-Z^2?
So every gamma splits as a finite product of the generators
Yea exactly
No that one Faye is right about, and you can prove it by writing it as a limit of compact balls with punctures
This was what I was replying to TTEG :p
Ooooh then Faye is right about both š
For Q^2 you canāt do this trick
do we actually know what the group is for Q^2
Iāve never seen this example before itās fun
Press x to doubt
It depends on what you mean by āknowā
I mean that kinda depends what you mean by āknow a groupā probably
Hahaha
Sniped
You can describe it in terms of more down to earth objects
But itās not going to have some concise answer
any group that warrants this response I don't wanna know
I may have misinterpreted what you meant, lol, sorry
Itās okay bc all spaces have universal covers :)
So this never happens :)
:)))
Analyst moment

Let X(m, n) denote the fundamental group of the complement of (1/m Z) x (1/n Z) in R^2. Note pi_1 X(m, n) is a free group on the set (1/m Z) x (1/n Z). If m1 divides m2, and n1 divides n2 then there is an inclusion map X(m1, n1) -> X(m2, n2) which induces a map on the fundamental group (throw in "roots" of the generators). The fundamental group of the complement of Q^2 maps into the projective limit of this system. This should be an embedding of groups, and the image should entail infinite words in which the same letter does not appear infinitely often
Similar to the fundamental group of the Hawaiian earring as a subgroup of the projective limit of F_n's
Much worse actually. It's possible to have an infinite word with no letter appearing infinitely often which is not contained in the image (think of a sequence of loops which limit to a loop)
It's probably easy to write down a condition and thus also the group explicitly. It won't be useful in any sense.
I read the stack exchange post too Ibsen!
Which post?
Isnāt there a theorem that every subset of the plane has free fundamental group?

Not true
Hawaiian earring
I remember something of this sort though, by Cannon
Probably some more hypothesis is required
It is locally free probably (any finitely generated subgroup is free), perhaps that is what youāre thinking?
That sounds much more believable
The first shape group is an inverse limit of free groups.
At least for one dimensional continua
And I think \pi_1 objects into \pi_1^Shape
Injects lol
I think it works if every point on the plane has an open neighborhood whose intersection with the subspace is path-connected and simply-connected
This is what I was thinking as well
Jeremy Brazas would know on the spot
Cuz then its homotopy equivalent to a graph
Right, Arki. Seems like then you can just take a cover by simply connected fellows and make a nerve
Simply connected open subsets of R^2 are contractible so this nerve is homotopy equivalent to the full space by the nerve theorem

Wait but is it true that simply connected not necessarily open subsets of R^2 are also contractible
I think this is one of those basic questions I never learnt how to do
Oh I guess this follows from some sort of Hurewicz?
H_n of nice enough planar subsets is 0, probably by Alexander duality
No
Example?
Like a comb but the lines bunch up on one side
Ah ok I meant all higher homotopy groups are 0
That's enough for nerve theorem to go through weakly
Seems quite hard to prove that theyre weakly contractible even
Yes for sure
Yeah no clue how to do it generally
But the general question was about simply connected planar sets
This is special to 2d. The version of the Hawaiian earrings with 2d spheres as a subset of R^3 has homology in high degrees, unlike its shape
Whereas subsets of R^2 have vanishing higher homotopy groups, just like their shape, the shape being the approximation by reasonable spaces
I assume this is not the simplest proof but it looks like the most amusing
Rumor has it that the simplest proof uses the monotone light factorization

How do you know if a space is based?
a based space is just a pair (X,x) where X is a space and x is a point of X
the fundamental group of (X,x) is defined using loops in X based at x
so based isn't an adjective that applies to spaces so much as a based space is a space with a specified base point
Let $X$ be a $G$-space (in this case the action is free too). It's true that (on singular chains) $C_(X_G) \cong C_(X)_G$, where on each side I take coinvariants, right?
potato
It looks like this should be obviously the case but I'm not very used to equivariant stuff lol so I may be wrong
would u guys know by any chance if there is course material i could find from a university on algebraic topology?
But because stuff is defined in terms of maps into X I assume G is compatible with taking stuff
Depends on what you want but:
https://people.maths.ox.ac.uk/ritter/algebraic-topology.html Oxford 2020 lecture notes + problems [(co)homology mostly]
https://www.dpmms.cam.ac.uk/study/II/AlgebraicTopology/ - Cambridge problems (mostly fundamental group)
https://www.dpmms.cam.ac.uk/study/III/Algebraic Topology/index.html Cambridge (more (co)homology
Ah ok LOL
this is awesome tysm!!
when you say (co)homology you mean homology + cohomology right?
I do indeed
What is coinvariants? Is X_G the Borel construction?
In any case C((X x_G EG) is chain equivalent to (C(X) o_ZG C(EG))_G if that is what you have in mind
I just mean the normal like X/(g.x ~ x)
But in fact yeah X is just a smash product and the symmtric group acts by permutation so it's closer to what you mean
Specifically I wondered if, say, $[C_(X) \otimes C_(X)]{\Sigma_2} \simeq C*( X \times_{\Sigma_2} X)$ and stuff like that, using Eilenberg-Zilber and that fact that (afaik) homotopy coinvariants and normal coinvariants should coincide due to freeness of the action lol
potato
And the key step was what I mentioned above
i.e. $C_(X \times_{\Sigma_2} X})$ vs $C_(X \times X)_{\Sigma_2}$
potato
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Ah gotcha. Yeah if G acts freely on X then C(X/G) is isomorphic to C(X)/I_G C(X) where I_G is the augmentation ideal of ZG
Chain equivalent*
thanks i really appreciate it
np
are there similar notes for different courses?
Hm
where is this from btw?
Interesting
There is certainly a chain map C(X) -> C(X/G). This is surjective because given a simplex Delta^n -> X/G you can pullback the G bundle X -> X/G over the simplex, trivialize, and take a section to get a simplex Delta^n -> X lying over the original. The kernel consists of...
A linear combination of simplices map to 0 if they all cancel out after projection. Which means you can collect the terms so that each collection maps to the same simplex, and their coefficients cancel out
Which means that the linear combination was in I_G C(X)
It's not even upto chain homotopy, the complexes are literally isomorphic
Weirdly tautological
Though now I'm wondering if modding out by augmentation is related to taking coinvariants
I think that's essentially what co invariant means right
If M is a ZG module, M_G is just M/I_G M
Yes
Nice!
So that does answer my question then thank you
Though I've a feeling it might be more direct to say like
Hm nvm
As a corollary of this you have a very cool description of Borel equivariant homology. Just take C(X), tensor with some acyclic G-complex over ZG, then take co invariants
Cohomology of this chain complex is Borel equivariant cohomology
Nice, so you can do the stuff on the algebraic side which feels a lil cleaner
This is very useful if X is a manifold
Here X is a manifold :)
Oh great. There is an extremely concrete acyclic G-complex for a Lie group G, just C[g^*], with zero differentials. g being the Lie algebra
You could tensor this with the de Rham complex of X
Unwrapping the tensor product to a double complex, you then have \Lambda^i T^*X o Sym^j g^*
But this is cohomology so you have to take G invariants
Borel cohomology is modelled by (\Lambda^i T*X o Sym^j g^*)^G where G acts diagonally - on the first factor by extending the smooth action on X tensorially to forms and on the second factor by ad
So you get equivariant de Rham theory
Which is quite useful in many setups.
Has anyone ever written down Witten's SUSY Morse theory in the equivariant setup?
Interesting thank you hm
What does it mean for a space E to carry a stable hamiltonian structure induced by a fibration E -> S^1
How's it induced
(fibers are a surface)
(E is 3 dim)
Probably the foliation associated to the stable Ham structure is the fibers?
what's the fundamental group of the fundamental group of the fundamental group?
is a functor a topological space? 
Depends
Simplicial sets here we come
Simplicial sets my beloved 
This is a modern view on homotopy theory. They're two different model category that are Quillen equivalent (i.e. they give the same homotopy theory). So for many homotopical purposes, one might as well just look at simplicial sets instead of spaces since they're """the same"""
The fundamental groupoid is idempotent
:
Im a bit lost when it comes to Homology
How do you actually get those abelian groups in the chain sequence?
Is there a procedure for it?
Yeah i believe so
I mean arent chain and cochain (which generate the homology and cohomology) exact sequences?
Oh lol
Anyway basically the chains and cochains are a nightmare and massive and you aren't really gonna do much with them directly
But with the actual (co)homology groups
you usually do not directly work with singular homology
You'll use theorems like Mayer Vietoris, excision, etc
Then...what
You use formal properties
To actually find them?
you do something like simplicial or cellular homology if you want to do all the computations directly, and using the tools potato mentioned
Hn
huh?
The sHs is what I'm trying to get at, not the fibration
exercise
What's your definition of sH?
fundamental group of fundamental group of Ļ_1
It involves a pair consisting of a 1-form and a 2-form. The foliation given by the fibers should be given by the kernel of the 1-form
More precisely, any fibration M^3 -> S^1 can be equipped with a fiberwise area 2-form \omega. Let \theta be the volume form on S^1 pulled back to M.
These define a stable Hamiltonian structure
currently struggling to prove that the mobius band with its boundary circle collapsed is homeomorphic to RP^2
i guess for the purposes of the problem it suffices to show homotopy equivalence
nvm, got it
draw the diagram
Yeah it's pretty cute lol
This is not exactly about about topology, but something related to a topic that was mentioned in this channel.
So, in the Wikipedia page, it says that "There is no known simple formula to compute T(n) for arbitrary n"
Does this mean someone has come up with a formula which is too long or an algorithm of time complexity too large?
It really is confusing because if there is such a formula, I can't find it.
I mean it's easy to write down an algorithm like take all possible subsets of P(X) and check if it's a topology.
I guess this will have complexity something like 2^2^2^n
But like, where does someone draw the line. Is an exponential solution simple enough?
I mean often the benchmark for "efficient algorithm" is polynomial time. But what exactly is meant by "simple formula" isn't always so precise.
Yeah, like the references don't seem to provide any such formula or algorithm as far as I've seen.
Right, but the statement was that no such formula is known, so then it would be hard to provide I guess
I didn't word that correctly. What I meant to say was that there is no example to draw that line.
But yeah
I will try to read the references in case I find something useful anyways
I mean it'd be nice to just have some simple formula like we do for other combinatorial things
but ye simple is vague i guess
This makes me want to write a program to do smth lol
if there's an algorithm, there should be a formula. You can engineer it into a formula. Doesn't mean it'd be insightful, or simple, or even practical.
It's like, we do have formulae to compute n-th prime and pi(n). Doesn't mean they're practical or insightful.
jesus christ
GL!
At least you can't get a below average grade
I suppose so. It just feels weird to say that a formula has some time complexity.
When you glue two finite CW complexes along some boundary, you have a CW complex still right?
e.g a standard thing to do is you take RP^2 and you glue it along a circle (e.g the one lifting to the equator in S^2) to some other circle like the boundary circle of a mobius strip and then you are asked to probe at it with algebraic tools
Since you have two spaces you'll want to use van-kampen/mayer-vietoris type results
what do you mean by "some boundary"
Hmm that's a good question
You could glue them in some perverse way, like glue [0,1] and [0,1] in a horrible way to get smth non-Hausdorff
Ahh and of course that's not CW
So nice gluings that are checked by hand is probably what I need to do
I guess in the example you give though you're gluing along (part of) the 1 skeletons which is much nicer but yeah
Yeah, I don't think I've really seen anything worse during these styles of problems
I just want the existence of the N_epsilon's that hatcher proves exists in the appendix for CW complexes
Hereās a mistake you can make with the fundamental group if you donāt pay attention to base points. Homotopic maps can induce different homomorphisms
You can have two maps f,g: X -> Y with f(x)=g(x) so they both map the fundamental group based at x to the fundamental group based at f(x) so you can compare them and see that they are different homomorphism. But there can be a homotopy between f and g. There canāt be a homotopy that holds the base point constant, because then they would induce the same map on fundamental group
Does anyone know if there is a way to do this problem without using the lefschetz fixed point theorem?
Iāve been trying to prove that f has no fixed points => f is not null homotopic (since the assumption in the problem implies f is null homotopic by lifting to the universal cover)
I think you can do this by carefully choosing your universal cover
Cover by the hyperbolic plane in the PoincarƩ disk model. Any map of the disk to itself has a fixed point if you include the boundary. f being nullhomotopic should tell you something abt that
(This is my suspicion in terms of how Iād do this without lefschetz)
Hmm sorry Iām not too familiar with hyperbolic geometry but the PoincarĆ© disk doesnāt include the boundary right? Are you saying that f being null homotopic may allow extension to the boundary
Possibly yeah
This feels like the right technique simply bc brouwerās fixed pt theorem is the underpowered version of Lefschetz
If the map on fundamental group is trivial, the image in the universal cover is bounded. The universal cover consists of a bunch of copies of a fundamental domain, indexed by the fundamental group. Each copy does the same thing shifted by the image of the fundamental group. Since the image is trivial, they do exactly the same thing
Boundedness should let you pass from the open disk to closed disk and apply Brouwer, but Iām not sure of the details
If the map on the fundamental group is the identity, then the map extends to the boundary disk at infinity. That leads to coarse geometry, like Mostow rigidity. But first Milnor
https://projecteuclid.org/journals/journal-of-differential-geometry/volume-2/issue-1/A-note-on-curvature-and-fundamental-group/10.4310/jdg/1214501132.pdf
T^2 is the torus, how on earth is it covered by the Poincare disk
It's a flat manifold
Boundedness means that you can restrict to a big closed disk containing the image and apply Brouwer to that
Alternatively, f having no fixed points means f - id maps to a punctured torus which has free fundamental group, so WLOG some generator of Z² gets sent to 0. But f also sends it to 0.
Ye
So in the end you use the fact that if c and cā are null homotopic loops on the torus, then c + cā is null homotopic?
Ye
Oops
I mean itās still universally covered but
This is kinda silly :)
(The open disk and R^2 are the same thing oops)
Ah this is quite good
I still feel as if there has to be a good way to extend to something where you can apply Brouwer
Yeah hereās a formal proof along the lines I originally was thinking
Take f : T^2 -> T^2 which is 0 on fundamental group. Take a lift fā : T^2 -> R^2
T^2 is compact so this lies in some convex compact subset A of R^2
Now fā . projection : R^2 -> R^2 has to map A into A
So it has a fixed point in A
Both of these arguments work for any genus surface which is nice :)
curious if this series is written by someone well known or anon https://unapologetic.wordpress.com/2007/03/01/free-products-of-groups/
I feel like I've seen gowers write similar series, but iirc had his name in the url
The authorās name is John Armstrong
ty, silly me. i blame phone for not finding it 
Why are proper maps (preimages of compact sets are compact) important? Like what's some interesting property about them (besides just the definition, which I guess is a natural one)?
some categorical equivalences only work when you take proper maps as morphisms
some technical results about quotients by group actions
Can you give an example
What kind of result?
like
If a Lie group G acts freely and properly on a smooth manifold M
the quotient of M by G is regular
i.e. the set of orbits has a (necessarily unique by other results) smooth structure making the quotient map a submersion
There is an equivalence of categories between Compact Hausdorff spaces and Unital commutative C*-algebras. You can drop the Hausdorff and unital assumptions if you take only proper maps as morphisms, and unital star-homomorphisms
is there any connection between proper maps and properly discontinuous actions
uh yeah I think that's just what happens when G is discrete
I think it's equivalent
oh I should say
an action being proper means the map GxM->MxM given by (g,m)->(gm,m) is a proper map
anyway yeah I think that properly discontinuous actions are what the above becomes when G is discrete
do you know anything about closures of connected sets
try to see if you can say something about them then
np
Poggers!
You can also prove it "by hand" by considering an arbitrary continuous function Y -> {0,1}, say
It kind of nicely shows where you use all the hypotheses
(Have you seen the characterisation of continuity I'm alluding to?)
But yeah so I mean once thing is - forget about the density and just say f(X) = Y. How dodes the argument in terms of a map into {0,1} go?
And you'll see the argument works just as well
anyone here read any of SAG chapter 1 (the stuff on solution sheaves) and is able to help me with something that is probably very simple?
Someone actually read the Old Testament?
I bow to you with my utmost respect
Wait, I was thinking about SGA. What's SAG?
its lurie's spectral algebraic geometry. very hard for me, but has the benefit of not being in french
Good choice. Avoid French if you can.
If a space is compact path connected, does there exist a surjective path?
If not, say with stronger conditions? (idk what)
no:
take indiscrete topology on a set bigger than R
ok, lets stick to manifolds
but then again, that kinda fails what I wanted 
I wanted to justify the existence of a space filling curve for say the shrinking wedge of circles
Other than explicitly constructing it
I felt like since its embedded in R^2, bounded, path-connected, it should be easy to do
for a Hausdorff one do a bigger than R wedge of copies of [0,1] at 0

oh w8 compact
ok, I mean the countable shrinking wedge of circles embedded in R defo has one where you basically draw the shape out
ah I have a nice (compact) Hausdorff one
ig thats even almost bijective, i think

it seems like explicit construction of the space filling curve is needed to show its existence then...
Explicit construction 
we have SGA, SAG, now it is time for GAS
for manifolds at least it's a yes
but manifolds is too restrictive kek
(just cover by finitely many interiors of compact subsets of charts and do space filling curve stuff on each basically)
ig the situation im after could be characterized by subspace topo of manifold maybe
compact pathconnected subspace
i think you can do the space-filling curve outside, and just connect the points where the curve leaves the subspace with a path
yeah that sounds sussy
actually no I think it works
the components of the set on which it's outside the subset are open intervals
hmmmm
might mess up continuity at the other points tho
like if you make too many of these excursions in a neighbourhood of a point
you could lose continuity
im thinking now what if the path outside the subspace
i think it's fine
could be very short
yaah
infinitesimally so
its probably not possible with appropriate restrictions
doesnt compactness of the subspace stop it? nvm
what's an example where this happens
topologists sine curve kinda thing
as you approach, this becomes more and more true
with compactness, this property has to be in the limit
ig take a fractal is best way to construct such an example
The other day, it was discussed there were space filling curves that evaded a single point. Id imagine these would fit the bill
ok I have an example where we lose continuity of a curve through the subset
i want it
manifolds are hard...
no, they're bendy
where the subset is the topologist's sine circle
when approaching from the right
when you get forced to leave the subspace
you have to go the long way round every time
which violates continuity at that point
(this point)
anyway
wait now i'm confusedc
if the subspace is locally path connected you might be in business
that doesnt have an open preimage
oh i get it
if you push the blue open intervals onto the sine curve, the total length can't be normalized
wait no
i don't get it
the blue curve is though R^2
like it's just
(t,c) for some constant c
the point is that
it definitely fails ya
whenever it leaves the curve
if we try to fill in the blank by staying in the curve
we can only go clockwise
why
which leads to a minimum distance being travelled from the red point, arbitarily close
uh basically
if we don't then we're gonna fail continuity at the red point right
because we have to go up with the sine wave
just to get my bearings, this would work if the points of intersection were locally finite right
oh right
ig you don't even need to think of clockwise vs counterclockwise now I think about it
regardless, moving between intersection points involves passing though a crest/trough of the sine wave
Yes.
which is gonna ruin continuity of the y coordinate at the red point
btw i forgot to say, isnt this thing not path connected
you can go the long way
ah.
the topologist's sine curve is connected but not path connected
ah...
the topologist's sine circle is path connected but not locally path connected
is that really the name
ahh....
yes
now is this fixable with first-countable, locally path connected, and path connected (closed subspace of a space that admits a space-filling curve)
shurisleep, but this has been enlightening thanks
good night 

im once again reminded topology doesnt get u away from analysis
this space is a counterexample to the surjective curve thing as well I think
also i think so
yeah I think that's enough
what do you do with a point of intersection in the closures of the open intervals, but not any one of their endpoints
oh i guess you don't need to worry about those
i guess if a space admits a space-filling curve then it is first-countable, and any subspace is first-countable already
yo can someone explain how hatcher got this equality?
this looks llike the product rule on derivatives 
tbh I'm not even sure if I should go through this example
it's like twice as long as the proof of SvK and it concerns knots which I'm not sure I'm interested in
idk what D is, but it's probably this: https://math.stackexchange.com/questions/3162026/boundary-of-a-times-b
Yes, boundary of a product of manifolds-with-boundary satisfies the Leibniz rule
Exercise
You should go through these examples. Integral to reading Hatcher is figuring out what heās talking about
Otherwise youāll just learn a whole bunch of technical terms which you have no real feel for
Draw some pictures
I am I'm just not sure I should go through all of em
it's the disk
the points inside S^n
- S^n ofc
ah D is closed? in that case then it's precisely that formula in that MSE post
The observation d(M x N) = dM x N U M x dN is pre-algebraic topology. A lot of what you should know from point set topology before learning AT are scattered in the examples of Hatcher
If you dont go through these examples youll not know what you dont know
IMO, in some sense the book is optimally written, wherein you can pick up a lot of prerequisites just by reading it patiently.
I see, yea, my pointset is definitely weak
Most point set topology courses spend a lot of time on things which will never be useful rather than emphasizing things like this which are
No one really cares about T3.5 spaces
Or whatever

Anyhow, draw a simple minded picture. Let M be D^2 and N be D^1
Verify the above formula
convince yourself that this is actually a representative picture in all cases
Its interesting to ask if this really is a coincidence or does this have anything to do with the Leibniz rule for derivatives, by the way
I will let you ponder that
I've heard of something like that
De rham's cohomology or somesuch
i've only done very basic point set topology, so i have no clue about this. but is it something to do with derivatives being like the "boundary" of function?
I dunno if you could derive the connection with less machinery
#Stokestheorem
There is a simple explanation, you donāt need to know anything
Think like a high schooler
Why are derivatives like boundary of a function?
it's kind of like
uh
the "rate of change" would happen at the boundary of a volume
?
Very close, illustrate by an example?
like a ball would have the boundary of a hollow sphere
and if i infinitesimally increased/decreased its volume the amount of change is just at the surface
just ping mods and dont react
why did I scroll up 
Exactly
Thats it!
Now explain d(M x N) = dM x N U M x dN using this
If you draw a square its automatic given what you said
š
it's \partial
oh yeah the rate of change of the square's area is just it's perimeter
not \del
jagr2808
and the RHS traces out the perimeter
Indeed
:o
Infinitisimally increasing the width and the height is the same as doing one of them holding the other constant, and adding the two up
This simple minded thing is the real content of the Stokesā theorem above by the way
Its just a complicated way of writing it by people who want to feel good about writing complicated formulas
Tbf it also looks extremely elegant written like a formula like this.
You caught me
Itās ok to do something if you feel good doing it. I prefer simplicity.
You can have both
Iām a high schooler from 20th century Moscow
Elegance clouds simplicity, historically proven fact.
Symbolic elegance, more precisely
I don't know, there's a lot of power in good notation
But it should not replace the intuitive understanding ofc
Probably. My experience with people who are good at symbolic computation is that they have a simpler way of understanding the notation, at which point they only carry that understanding around and throw the notation in the dustbin
Iām not good at symbolic computation so I cannot say





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